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Question 1
Correct
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A 70-year-old patient receiving haemodialysis three times a week through a tunnelled internal jugular line arrives at the dialysis unit feeling well.
However, 15 minutes after starting haemodialysis he develops a fever, his blood pressure drops rapidly and he becomes unwell. He is sweaty and appears confused.
He still passes small volumes of urine and has a history of diverticular disease.
What could be the possible reason for his symptoms?Your Answer: Haemodialysis line infection
Explanation:Rapidly Unwell Patient on Haemodialysis: Consider Line Infection
When a patient who was previously healthy becomes rapidly unwell after starting haemodialysis, it is crucial to consider the possibility of a line infection. Symptoms may include low blood pressure, sweating, and a fever. Although haemodialysis lines are silver-coated to reduce the risk of infection, line infection remains a significant problem. During haemodialysis, blood is returned to the patient through the infected line, causing a rapid bacteraemia and systemic inflammatory response that can lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure.
While other conditions such as urinary tract or lower respiratory tract infections and perforated diverticulum are possible, they are less likely to present as rapidly as a line infection. Patients with end-stage renal failure are at higher risk of cardiovascular disease, including myocardial infarction, but chest pain that develops after a drop in blood pressure may indicate a secondary rather than primary cause. Although a fever is more suggestive of infection, it is important to obtain an ECG and check for signs of myocardial infarction. In summary, when a patient on haemodialysis becomes rapidly unwell, line infection should be considered as a potential cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with a general feeling of being unwell. He has no history of chronic disease or renal impairment. Upon blood testing, his results show elevated levels of creatinine, urea, potassium, creatine kinase, and phosphate, as well as a slightly low sodium level and an elevated CRP level. What could be the possible cause of his renal impairment?
Your Answer: Rhabdomyolysis
Explanation:Rhabdomyolysis and Myoglobinuria
Rhabdomyolysis is a condition that results from muscle damage and lysis of muscle cells. This leads to the release of cellular contents such as potassium, myoglobin, CK, and phosphate into the bloodstream. Excessive myoglobin release overwhelms the ability of haptoglobin to clear it, leading to its filtration by the glomerulus and entry into the urine. This causes damage to tubular cells in the renal tubule, resulting in free radical release and cast formation.
There are several causes of rhabdomyolysis and myoglobinuria, including trauma, compartment syndrome, crush injury, ischaemia, severe electrolyte disturbances, bacterial and viral infections, inherited metabolic disorders such as McArdle’s disease, and drugs such as barbiturates and statins (although this is rare).
In summary, rhabdomyolysis and myoglobinuria are serious conditions that can result from a variety of causes. the underlying mechanisms and potential triggers can help with early diagnosis and treatment, which is crucial for preventing further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with severe abdominal pain and hypotension. A CT scan reveals a ruptured diverticular abscess, and he undergoes a Hartmann's procedure and faecal peritonitis washout. postoperatively, he is transferred to HDU and given broad spectrum IV antibiotics. During surgery, he had poor urine output and low blood pressure, prompting the anaesthetist to administer fluids. The next day, the F1 for surgery notes that the patient had a urine output of 5 mls per hour for three hours and then complete anuria overnight. His blood pressure is 110/65 mmHg, and his CVP is 10 cm. What is the probable cause of his anuria?
Your Answer: Post-infectious glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: Acute tubular necrosis
Explanation:Acute Tubular Necrosis and Tubulo-Interstitial Nephritis
Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is a condition that occurs when the kidneys experience prolonged hypotension and poor perfusion, leading to the death of tubular epithelium. This can result in complete anuria, which is the absence of urine output. While a blocked catheter is unlikely, a bladder scan should be performed to rule it out. ATN can also be caused by nephrotoxins and sepsis. The condition usually recovers over a few days to weeks, but if the patient has underlying renal disease, the recovery may be partial, leading to long-term chronic kidney disease (CKD). Therefore, pre-renal failure should be corrected as quickly as possible to prevent irreversible damage.
Tubulo-interstitial nephritis (TIN) is a histological diagnosis that occurs when the tubules and interstitium of the kidney become inflamed due to drugs or infections. This can lead to the release of cytokines and infiltration by acute inflammatory cells, particularly lymphocytes and eosinophils. If the causative agent is removed, TIN can resolve. However, if it persists, tubular atrophy and interstitial fibrosis may occur, leading to end-stage renal failure. Oral steroids can be used to dampen the inflammation and prevent fibrosis, but they need to be started early in the disease course.
In summary, ATN and TIN are two conditions that can cause kidney damage and lead to CKD or end-stage renal failure. While ATN is caused by prolonged hypotension and poor perfusion, TIN is caused by drugs or infections. Early intervention is crucial to prevent irreversible damage and promote recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 4
Correct
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A patient who has been on peritoneal dialysis for two years complains that her bags, previously clear, have become cloudy.
She is in good health, with slight abdominal discomfort, and has successfully instilled fluid, although she only removed 1.5 liters from a 2-liter bag instilled earlier. Her abdomen is soft and only slightly tender.
What is the probable complication?Your Answer: Peritonitis
Explanation:Symptoms and Treatment of PD Peritonitis
Peritonitis in patients undergoing peritoneal dialysis (PD) may not present with typical symptoms seen in non-dialysis patients. Patients may only experience mild abdominal discomfort or tenderness, or may not have any symptoms at all. The most common sign of PD peritonitis is a cloudy bag, which indicates bacterial growth. In severe cases, the fluid may resemble pea soup. It is important to note that any patient with a cloudy bag should be treated for PD peritonitis immediately with antibiotics, such as vancomycin, administered intraperitoneally, and oral antibiotics, such as ciprofloxacin. PD exchanges should continue during treatment to flush out the peritoneal cavity.
While surgical problems, such as appendicitis, can occur in PD patients, they typically present with local peritonism and symptoms like vomiting. Constipation may cause abdominal discomfort and outflow problems, but it does not cause cloudy bags. Fibrin can block the catheter and cause abnormal fluid appearance, but it tends to appear as strands rather than a cloudy bag and does not cause abdominal discomfort or tenderness. It is important for PD patients to be aware of the symptoms of PD peritonitis and seek immediate treatment if they notice a cloudy bag or any other concerning symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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What are the expected urinalysis results for a 23-year-old patient with abdominal pain, dehydration, anorexia, and marked hyperglycemia who may have a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes?
A) Haemoglobin: Negative
Urobilinogen: Negative
Bilirubin: Negative
Protein: Positive
Glucose: Positive (+++)
Nitrites: Negative
Leucocytes: Positive
B) Haemoglobin: Negative
Urobilinogen: Negative
Bilirubin: Negative
Protein: Negative
Glucose: Positive
Nitrites: ++
Leucocytes: ++
C) Haemoglobin: Negative
Urobilinogen: Negative
Bilirubin: Negative
Protein: Negative
Glucose: +
Nitrites: +++
Leucocytes: +++
D) Haemoglobin: Negative
Urobilinogen: Negative
Bilirubin: Negative
Protein: Negative
Glucose: Negative
Nitrites: Negative
Leucocytes: Negative
E) Haemoglobin: +++
Urobilinogen: +
Bilirubin: +
Protein: Negative
Glucose: Negative
Nitrites: Negative
Leucocytes: NegativeYour Answer: A
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:Diabetic Ketoacidosis and Urinary Tract Infection
This patient is exhibiting symptoms that are commonly associated with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), a serious complication of diabetes. The presence of high levels of glucose and ketones in the urine, as indicated by the urinalysis, further supports this diagnosis. DKA can occur in both new and established type 1 diabetic patients and is often triggered by an infection. In this case, it is likely that a urinary tract infection (UTI) was the precipitating factor.
It is important to recognize the signs and symptoms of DKA, as prompt treatment is necessary to prevent serious complications. Patients with DKA may experience symptoms such as excessive thirst, frequent urination, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and confusion. If left untreated, DKA can lead to coma or even death. In addition to treating the underlying infection, treatment for DKA typically involves insulin therapy, fluid replacement, and electrolyte management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 60-year-old man visits the clinic with his 35-year-old son, who has been diagnosed with IgA nephropathy and is in CKD stage 5. The man wishes to be evaluated as a potential live kidney donor for his son. He has a history of mild hypertension that is managed with 2.5 mg of ramipril daily. He has never had any surgeries, does not smoke, and only drinks alcohol in moderation.
As part of the consent process for kidney donation, what advice should be provided to the patient?Your Answer: There is no significant increase in hypertension in donors compared to the general population
Explanation:The Health Benefits and Risks of Being a Kidney Donor
Surprisingly, being a kidney donor can have health benefits. Studies have shown that live donors have lower long-term morbidity and mortality rates than the general population. This is likely due to the rigorous screening process that selects only those with excellent overall health.
While reducing renal mass could potentially lead to a decrease in glomerular filtration rate and an increased risk of end-stage renal failure or hypertension, large-scale studies with up to 35 years of follow-up have shown no increased risk compared to the general population. However, potential donors should be warned about the possibility of end-stage renal failure, particularly those with borderline GFR for donation.
As with any surgery, there are risks involved in kidney donation. The risk of death is quoted at 1 in 3000, and there is a 1-2% risk of major complications such as pneumothorax, injury to other organs, renovascular injury, DVT, or PE. There is also a 20% risk of minor complications such as post-operative atelectasis, pneumonia, wound infection, hematoma, incisional hernia, or urinary tract infection.
To ensure the safety of potential donors, they undergo thorough screening, including a comprehensive medical history, family history, and physical examination. They also undergo extensive investigations of cardiovascular, respiratory, and psychological fitness, as well as multiple tests of renal function and anatomy to determine if it is safe to proceed and select the kidney to be removed.
In conclusion, kidney donation can have health benefits for the donor, but it is not without risks. Only the healthiest individuals are selected as donors, and they undergo rigorous screening to ensure their safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 40-year-old male patient has been referred to the hypertension clinic by his general practitioner due to hypertension that has persisted for the past 18 months. His blood pressure readings have been consistently high, measuring around 210/140 mmHg. During the examination, a large ballotable mass is detected in the right flank. The patient's blood test results reveal elevated levels of renin at 120 pmol/L (normal range: 10-60) and aldosterone at 1215 pmol/L (normal range: 100-800). Additionally, his hemoglobin levels are high at 205 g/L (normal range: 120-170). What is the most likely cause of hypertension in this case?
Your Answer: Renin secretion by a renal cell carcinoma
Explanation:The patient likely has a renal carcinoma, which can cause hypertension through obstruction of renal arteries or secretion of renin. Other symptoms may include polycythaemia, a renal mass, and elevated levels of renin and aldosterone. Renal carcinomas typically present between 40-70 years of age and have a higher incidence in men. Other symptoms may include haematuria, flank pain, weight loss, fever, and night sweats. Rarely, non-reducing varicocele and paraneoplastic syndromes may occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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An older woman is brought to the Emergency department with sudden chest pain and coughing up blood. She has been experiencing fatigue, weakness, and weight loss for the past six weeks. Prior to this, she had occasional nosebleeds and hearing loss. Upon admission, she is confused and has a fever of 37.7°C, high blood pressure of 165/102 mmHg, and acute kidney injury with elevated potassium, urea, and creatinine levels. Her albumin is low, CRP is high, and she is anemic with an elevated ESR. A urine dipstick test shows blood and protein, and an ultrasound reveals normal-sized kidneys without obstruction or hydronephrosis. A chest X-ray shows widespread rounded opacities. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss syndrome)
Correct Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
Explanation:Diagnosing Pulmonary Renal Syndrome: Considerations and Differential Diagnoses
When a patient presents with a pulmonary renal syndrome, it is important to consider the possible diagnoses as the treatments differ. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis is a multisystem disorder that presents with a combination of pulmonary and renal symptoms, as well as nodular lesions on chest radiographs and ENT symptoms. Other immune-mediated causes of pulmonary renal syndrome include Anti-GBM disease, systemic lupus erythematosus, Henoch-Schönlein purpura, and cryoglobulinemia. Non-immune mediated causes include acute kidney injury with pulmonary edema, severe pneumonia leading to acute tubular necrosis, respiratory infections causing acute interstitial nephritis, and thrombotic events.
eGPA or Churg-Strauss disease is more likely to present with an asthma-like background and less likely to cause acute kidney injury. Anti-GBM disease tends to present with acute pulmonary hemorrhage rather than nodular lesions and has no ENT associations. Disseminated malignancy may be suspected from nodular lesions on x-ray and a history of hemoptysis and weight loss, but this is less likely given the rapid onset of renal failure in this case. The presence of blood and protein on dipstick suggests an active glomerulonephritis, and hypertension fits with an acute glomerulonephritis rather than sepsis.
In summary, when a patient presents with a pulmonary renal syndrome, the combination of symptoms and diagnostic tests can help narrow down the possible causes. It is important to consider both immune-mediated and non-immune mediated causes, as well as the patient’s medical history and presenting symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 9
Correct
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What distinguishes haemodialysis from haemofiltration as methods of renal replacement therapy?
Your Answer: Haemodialysis removes solutes by osmosis
Explanation:Haemodialysis vs Haemofiltration
Haemodialysis and haemofiltration are two methods of renal replacement therapy used to treat patients with kidney failure. Haemodialysis involves removing blood at a high flow rate and passing it through a dialyser with dialysis fluid running in the opposite direction. This creates a constant diffusion gradient, allowing solutes to diffuse across and be removed from the blood. Haemodialysis is administered intermittently and is highly effective at solute removal due to the high flow rates and constant diffusion gradient.
On the other hand, haemofiltration is less efficient and requires high volumes to achieve the same degree of solute clearance. It works by passing the blood at low flow rates but high pressures through the dialyser without dialysate fluid. Instead, a transmembrane pressure gradient is created, allowing fluid to be squeezed out. However, it is less efficient at solute clearance. Haemofiltration requires replacement fluid to be administered to avoid hypovolaemia due to the large volumes filtered.
In summary, haemodialysis and haemofiltration are two different methods of renal replacement therapy. Haemodialysis is highly effective at solute removal due to the high flow rates and constant diffusion gradient, while haemofiltration is more efficient at clearing fluid but less efficient at solute clearance. Both methods have their advantages and disadvantages, and the choice of therapy depends on the patient’s individual needs and medical condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 47-year-old woman visits the renal clinic after six weeks of a triumphant renal transplant. She has some inquiries about her immunosuppression for the consultant. The doctor clarifies that the typical regimen for renal transplant patients involves the initial utilization of an induction agent, followed by a combination of a calcineurin inhibitor, antimetabolite, and steroids. This combination is intended to prevent rejection of the transplanted kidney. What is the name of the anti-lymphocyte monoclonal antibody used as an induction agent?
Your Answer: Alemtuzumab
Explanation:Immunosuppressive Drugs and Their Mechanisms of Action
Alemtuzumab is a monoclonal antibody that targets CD52 and depletes mature lymphocytes, but not stem cells. It has been found to be more effective than traditional therapy in preparing patients for renal transplantation.
Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor that reduces the activation of NFAT, a transcription factor that promotes the production of IL-2, the primary cytokine that drives T cell proliferation.
Both azathioprine and mycophenolate mofetil are antimetabolites that disrupt DNA synthesis. Mycophenolate indirectly inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase, which prevents purine synthesis. Azathioprine is a pro-drug that is metabolized into 6-mercaptopurine, which is inserted into the DNA sequence instead of a purine, triggering apoptosis.
Sirolimus is an mTOR inhibitor that acts downstream of IL-2 signaling to promote T cell proliferation and survival.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A patient who had her PD catheter inserted into her abdomen complains that the first bag of the morning is often difficult to instil, and she cannot remove any fluid after the four hour dwell. Later in the day, this is better, and she can usually remove the fluid from the morning and instil the next bag and remove it after the dwell. What is the most probable reason for this issue?
Your Answer: Catheter malposition
Correct Answer: Catheter kinking
Explanation:Common Issues with Peritoneal Dialysis Catheters
Kinking of the catheter is a common issue that occurs shortly after insertion. This can cause problems with both fluid inflow and outflow, and symptoms may vary depending on the patient’s position. Catheter malposition is another early issue that can be painful and uncomfortable for the patient. If absorption of PD fluid is occurring, patients may experience signs of fluid overload, such as swollen ankles, indicating a need for a higher concentration of osmotic agent in the fluid. Constipation is a consistent cause of outflow obstruction, while leakage can be noticed as fluid coming from the exit site or swelling around the site as fluid leaks into subcutaneous tissues. It is important to monitor for these common issues and address them promptly to ensure the success of peritoneal dialysis treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 28-year-old female patient complains of epistaxis and has been experiencing a fever. Upon examination by an ENT specialist, she was found to have serous otitis media. Further tests revealed protein +++ and 20 RBC/hpf in her urine, while her serum rheumatoid factor was negative. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
Explanation:Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) is a disease that can develop slowly or suddenly, and its full range of symptoms may take years to appear. The initial symptoms of GPA include severe nosebleeds, sinusitis, nasal ulcers, ear infections, hearing loss, coughing, and chest pain. Renal involvement is also common, with glomerulonephritis causing proteinuria, haematuria, and red cell casts. Serum complement levels are usually normal or elevated, while the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is elevated, and leukocytosis and anaemia may be present. Unlike other autoimmune diseases, antinuclear antibodies and LE cells are not present in GPA. However, high levels of antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) are almost always present, making it a useful marker for diagnosing and monitoring the disease.
Symptoms of GPA can be varied and may take time to develop fully. Renal involvement is a common feature of the disease, and proteinuria, haematuria, and red cell casts are often seen. Serum complement levels are usually normal or elevated, while the ESR is elevated, and leukocytosis and anaemia may be present. Unlike other autoimmune diseases, antinuclear antibodies and LE cells are not present in GPA. However, high levels of ANCA are almost always present, making it a useful marker for diagnosing and monitoring the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 13
Correct
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What is the primary role of the kidneys in eliminating waste in a person who is in good health?
Your Answer: Excretion of nitrogenous waste
Explanation:The Kidney’s Role in Excretion of Nitrogenous Waste and Urate
In healthy individuals, the kidney’s primary function is to eliminate toxic nitrogen-containing waste resulting from the breakdown of excess protein. Urea, the primary nitrogenous waste product, is formed through the deamination of excess amino acids. Additionally, the kidney plays a role in the excretion of urate, which comes from the breakdown of nucleic acids from both endogenous and exogenous sources.
However, in diabetic patients with hyperglycemia, glucose is often found in the urine. In normoglycemic individuals, the kidney does not play a role in regulating blood sugar levels. Similarly, the kidney has little involvement in the excretion of fat-soluble substances and lipids.
The liver, on the other hand, plays a significant role in rendering compounds water-soluble to facilitate renal excretion. Substances that remain relatively insoluble are excreted in the bile.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 14
Correct
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A patient admitted for treatment of PD peritonitis has had their cloudy PD fluid sent for culture and has been started on empirical antibiotics while awaiting results. What is the most probable pathogen responsible for the infection?
Your Answer: Coagulase negative staph
Explanation:Causes of PD Peritonitis
PD peritonitis is a common complication of peritoneal dialysis, with 50% of episodes caused by Gram positive organisms. The most frequent culprit is coagulase negative staph, which is often due to contamination from skin flora. While Staph. aureus is becoming more prevalent, it is still less common than coagulase negative staph. Gram negative organisms, such as E. coli, are responsible for only 15% of PD peritonitis cases. Pseudomonas is rare and challenging to treat. Fungal organisms cause peritonitis in less than 2% of patients. Overall, the causes of PD peritonitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of this complication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 25-year-old man is brought to the Emergency department by his friends after being found on the floor following a night out. There are suspicions that he may have taken drugs, although the exact substance is unknown. Upon examination, he is found to be semi-conscious with a rapid respiratory rate. A catheterisation procedure yields 25 mls of dark brown coloured urine which tests positive for haemoglobin using urinalysis.
What potential blood and electrolyte imbalances should be anticipated in this patient?Your Answer: Hyperuricaemia with acidosis
Explanation:Rhabdomyolysis: Symptoms and Treatment
Rhabdomyolysis is a medical condition that occurs when there is a rapid breakdown of skeletal muscle. This condition is associated with several biochemical abnormalities, including elevated levels of creatine kinase (CK), potassium, urate, and myoglobinuria. Additionally, calcium levels may be elevated intracellularly in myocytes, but normal or low in the blood during the early stages of the disease. However, as the disease progresses, calcium levels in the blood may increase. Acidosis is also a common symptom of rhabdomyolysis.
Early and aggressive treatment is crucial in managing rhabdomyolysis. Rehydration and managing hyperkalemia can help reduce the likelihood of developing complications such as arrhythmias due to electrolyte disturbance, renal failure, disseminated intravascular coagulation, and compartment syndrome. By the symptoms and seeking prompt medical attention, individuals with rhabdomyolysis can receive the necessary treatment to manage the condition and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 60-year-old patient presents to her GP with a general feeling of unwellness. The following blood test results are obtained:
- Adjusted calcium: 2.9 mmol/L (normal range: 2.2-2.4)
- Phosphate: 0.5 mmol/L (normal range: 0.7-1.0)
- PTH: 7.2 pmol/L (normal range: 1.05-6.83)
- Urea: 5 mmol/L (normal range: 2.5-7.8)
- Creatinine: 140 µmol/L (normal range: 60-120)
- 25 OH Vit D: 50 nmol/L (optimal level >75)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Primary Hyperparathyroidism
Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition where the parathyroid glands produce too much parathyroid hormone (PTH), leading to elevated calcium levels and low serum phosphate levels. This condition can go undiagnosed for years, with the first indication being an incidental finding of high calcium levels. However, complications can arise from longstanding primary hyperparathyroidism, including osteoporosis, renal calculi, and renal calcification. The high levels of PTH can cause enhanced bone resorption, leading to osteoporosis. Additionally, the high levels of phosphate excretion and calcium availability can predispose patients to the development of calcium phosphate renal stones. Calcium deposition in the renal parenchyma can also cause renal impairment, which can develop gradually. Patients with chronic kidney disease may also have elevated PTH levels, but hypocalcaemia is more common due to impaired hydroxylation of vitamin D. primary hyperparathyroidism and its potential complications is crucial for early diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man is undergoing his routine dialysis treatment when he suddenly experiences intense chest pain and difficulty breathing. He has been on dialysis for the past nine years and uses a fistula for the procedure. So far, there have been no issues with the dialysis machine or circuit. After the session, his blood pressure is 150/85 mmHg, and an ECG is performed. What could be the probable reason for his chest pain?
Your Answer: Pulmonary embolism
Correct Answer: Acute coronary syndrome
Explanation:Acute coronary syndrome is the most common cause of chest pain and shortness of breath in dialysis patients due to their increased risk of coronary disease. Air embolism, hypotension, massive haemolysis, and pulmonary embolism are also possible causes but are less likely. Air embolism is rare but can occur in patients with central lines, while hypotension is more common in the elderly and new starters on dialysis. Massive haemolysis is rare but serious, and pulmonary embolism can occur if there is a known thrombus in the fistula.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A patient in their late 60s with end stage renal disease on haemodialysis is admitted with sudden onset of wheezing and shortness of breath. They have swollen ankles and a raised JVP of 7 cm, with a blood pressure of 110/50 mmHg. Upon chest examination, there are widespread coarse crackles. A chest radiograph reveals complete opacification of both lung fields and blunting of the left costophrenic angle. The patient had their usual haemodialysis session the previous night. What could be the potential cause of this acute presentation?
Your Answer: Inadequate haemodialysis
Correct Answer: Myocardial infarction
Explanation:Cardiovascular Risk in Haemodialysis Patients
Haemodialysis patients are at a significantly higher risk of developing cardiovascular disease. Therefore, any sudden deterioration in their condition is a cause for concern. In the case of a previously stable dialysis patient presenting with low blood pressure, excess fluid intake is unlikely to be the cause. Instead, a cardiac event is the most likely explanation.
It is improbable that inadequate haemodialysis is the cause of the patient’s symptoms, as they had a session less than 24 hours ago. Furthermore, if this were the case, the patient would likely have high blood pressure due to fluid accumulation.
While patients on dialysis are more susceptible to infections, the presentation is consistent with acute pulmonary oedema. This condition occurs when fluid accumulates in the lungs, making it difficult to breathe. Therefore, it is essential to monitor haemodialysis patients closely for any signs of cardiovascular disease and promptly address any acute events that may arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male patient complains of swelling and is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. What is a frequently occurring complication of this condition?
Your Answer: Increased risk of bleeding
Correct Answer: Increased risk of pneumococcal pneumonia
Explanation:Nephrotic Syndrome and its Complications
Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by three main symptoms: hypoalbuminemia, proteinuria, and edema. Patients with this condition are at an increased risk of developing complications such as thrombosis, infections, and hyperlipidemia. Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is also a possible complication of nephrotic syndrome, although not all patients with the condition will have a history of established renal disease prior to presentation. The risk of developing CKD depends on the underlying cause of the nephrotic syndrome.
One unusual complication of nephrotic syndrome is hypercalcemia, which is not commonly seen in this condition. Abnormal plasma protein proportions can cause changes in the binding of electrolytes, drugs, and other solutes, leading to low ionized calcium levels. In severe cases, this may result in symptoms of hypocalcemia. However, in CKD, hypocalcemia is a common occurrence and can cause secondary hyperparathyroidism.
In summary, the symptoms and complications of nephrotic syndrome is crucial for proper management and treatment of the condition. While hypercalcemia is not a common complication, patients with nephrotic syndrome are at an increased risk of developing thrombosis, infections, and hyperlipidemia. Additionally, the risk of developing CKD depends on the underlying cause of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man has just finished a round of chemotherapy for leukemia. During a routine check-up, he is discovered to have proteinuria with a level of 1000 mg/24 hours. Upon examination, there are no red cell casts present in his urine. What could be the probable reason for his proteinuria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tubular proteinuria
Explanation:Causes of Tubular Proteinuria
Tubular proteinuria is a condition where proteins are excreted in the urine due to damage to the renal tubules. One common cause of this condition is chemotherapy, particularly ifosphamide and platinum-based agents. Other causes include Fanconi’s syndrome, heavy metal poisoning, tubulointerstitial disease, and the use of certain drugs such as gentamicin. Diabetes, infections, and transplant rejection can also lead to tubular proteinuria.
In summary, there are various factors that can cause tubular proteinuria, and it is important to identify the underlying cause in order to provide appropriate treatment. Patients who have undergone chemotherapy should be monitored for signs of renal tubular damage, and any medication that may contribute to the condition should be reviewed. Early detection and management of tubular proteinuria can help prevent further kidney damage and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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