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  • Question 1 - A 47 year old female undergoes a kidney transplant which comes from a...

    Correct

    • A 47 year old female undergoes a kidney transplant which comes from a cadaver. She has an uncomplicated surgery but on removal of the vascular clamps, the transplanted kidney immediately turns dusky and over the next few hours appears non viable. Which of the following best explains this event?

      Your Answer: Hyper acute rejection

      Explanation:

      Hyperacute rejection occurs almost immediately following organ implantation and necessitates immediate explant of the organ. Hyperacute rejection is uncommon with pre-transplantation cross-matches and screening. Hyperacute rejection (HAR) of the kidney was first recognized 20 years ago in cases of donor-recipient incompatibility for the major blood group and tissue antigen systems. Classic pathological changes described include early accumulation of PMNs in glomeruli and peritubular capillaries, progressive glomerular thrombosis, tubular necrosis, and eventual cortical necrosis. Reaction of host humoral antibodies with antigens on donor cells serves as one trigger of the clotting mechanism, which then proceeds in a nonspecific fashion.

      Antigen systems other than the ABO groups that contribute to HAR reactions are leukocyte antigens, endothelial and monocyte antigens, and B cell antigens. It is also documented that glomerular thrombosis identical to HAR may occur secondary to endothelial damage after pulsatile perfusion. However, in such cases no specific deposition of immunoglobulins and complement is detected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Organ Transplantation
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old aid worker becomes unwell whilst helping at the scene of a...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old aid worker becomes unwell whilst helping at the scene of a recent earthquake. He develops vomiting and soon afterwards, profuse watery diarrhoea. What is the most likely infective organism?

      Your Answer: Vibrio cholera

      Explanation:

      The passage of extremely loose and watery stools is characteristic of Vibrio cholera infection. Most of the other gastroenteric infections do not produce such watery motions.

      Vibrio cholerae is a Gram-negative, comma-shaped bacterium. It’s natural habitat is brackish or saltwater. Some strains of V. cholerae cause the disease cholera.

      Transmission occurs through the ingestion of contaminated water or food. Sudden large outbreaks are usually caused by a contaminated water supply. Outbreaks and endemic and sporadic cases are often attributed to raw or undercooked seafood.

      Symptoms of the disease include sudden onset of effortless vomiting and profuse watery diarrhoea. Correction of fluid and electrolyte losses are the mainstay of treatment. Most cases resolve shortly afterwards, and therefore, antibiotics are not generally indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 46-year-old male complains of sharp chest pain. He is due to have...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old male complains of sharp chest pain. He is due to have elective surgery to replace his left hip. He has been bed-bound for 3 months. He suddenly collapses; his blood pressure is 70/40mmHg, heart rate 120 bpm and his saturations are 74% on air. He is deteriorating in front of you. What is the next best management plan?

      Your Answer: Thrombolysis with Alteplase

      Explanation:

      The patient has Pulmonary embolism (PE).
      PE is when a thrombus becomes lodged in an artery in the lung and blocks blood flow to the lung. Pulmonary embolism usually arises from a thrombus that originates in the deep venous system of the lower extremities; however, it rarely also originates in the pelvis, renal, upper extremity veins, or the right heart chambers. After travelling to the lung, large thrombi can lodge at the bifurcation of the main pulmonary artery or the lobar branches and cause hemodynamic compromise.
      The classic presentation of PE is the abrupt onset of pleuritic chest pain, shortness of breath, and hypoxia. However, most patients with pulmonary embolism have no obvious symptoms at presentation. Rather, symptoms may vary from sudden catastrophic hemodynamic collapse to gradually progressive dyspnoea.
      Physical signs of pulmonary embolism include the following:
      Tachypnoea (respiratory rate >16/min): 96%
      Rales: 58%
      Accentuated second heart sound: 53%
      Tachycardia (heart rate >100/min): 44%
      Fever (temperature >37.8°C [100.04°F]): 43%
      Diaphoresis: 36%
      S3 or S4 gallop: 34%
      Clinical signs and symptoms suggesting thrombophlebitis: 32%
      Lower extremity oedema: 24%
      Cardiac murmur: 23%
      Cyanosis: 19%
      Management
      Anticoagulation and thrombolysis
      Immediate full anticoagulation is mandatory for all patients suspected of having DVT or PE. Diagnostic investigations should not delay empirical anticoagulant therapy.
      Thrombolytic therapy should be used in patients with acute pulmonary embolism who have hypotension (systolic blood pressure< 90 mm Hg) who do not have a high bleeding risk and in selected patients with acute pulmonary embolism not associated with hypotension who have a low bleeding risk and whose initial clinical presentation or clinical course suggests a high risk of developing hypotension.
      Long-term anticoagulation is critical to the prevention of recurrence of DVT or pulmonary embolism because even in patients who are fully anticoagulated, DVT and pulmonary embolism can and often do recur.
      Thrombolytic agents used in managing pulmonary embolism include the following:
      – Alteplase
      – Reteplase

      Heparin should be given to patients with intermediate or high clinical probability before imaging.
      Unfractionated heparin (UFH) should be considered (a) as a first dose bolus, (b) in massive PE, or (c) where rapid reversal of effect may be needed.
      Otherwise, low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) should be considered as preferable to UFH, having equal efficacy and safety and being easier to use.
      Oral anticoagulation should only be commenced once venous thromboembolism (VTE) has been reliably confirmed.
      The target INR should be 2.0–3.0; when this is achieved, heparin can be discontinued.
      The standard duration of oral anticoagulation is: 4–6 weeks for temporary risk factors, 3 months for first idiopathic, and at least 6 months for other; the risk of bleeding should be balanced with that of further VTE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 19-year-old female presents to the oncology clinic after noticing a painless neck...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old female presents to the oncology clinic after noticing a painless neck lump. On examination, she is noted to have bilateral thyroid masses and multicentric nodules near the base of the thyroid. Her corrected calcium level is 2.18 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia

      Explanation:

      Based on the aforementioned findings in this case, the most likely diagnosis is medullary carcinoma of the thyroid associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN).

      Medullary thyroid cancer is a tumour of the parafollicular cells (C cells) of the thyroid and is neural crest in origin. It may be familial and occur as part of the MEN 2A disease spectrum. Less than 10% of thyroid cancers are of this type with patients typically presenting as children or young adults. Diarrhoea occurs in 30% of the cases. In association with MEN syndromes, medullary thyroid cancers are always bilateral and multicentric. Spread may either be lymphatic or haematogenous, and as these tumours are not derived primarily from thyroid cells, they are not responsive to radioiodine.

      Toxic nodular goitre is very rare. In sporadic medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, patients typically present with a unilateral solitary nodule and it tends to spread early to the lymph nodes in neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 56-year-old woman trips over a step, injuring her right ankle. Examination reveals...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman trips over a step, injuring her right ankle. Examination reveals tenderness over the lateral malleolus and X-ray demonstrates an undisplaced fracture distal to the syndesmosis. What should be the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Application of ankle boot

      Explanation:

      The patient has a Weber type A fracture, based on the Danis-Weber classification system for lateral malleolar fractures. It is a stable ankle injury and can, therefore, be managed conservatively. Whilst this patient could also be treated in a below-knee plaster, most clinicians, nowadays, treat this injury in an ankle boot. Patients are also advised to mobilise with the ankle boot as pain allows and can wean themselves off as the symptoms improve.

      The Danis-Weber classification system is based on the level of the fibula fracture in relation to the syndesmosis (the connection between the distal ends of the tibia and fibula). The more proximal, the greater the risk of syndesmotic injury and, therefore, fracture instability.

      1. Weber type A: fracture below the level of the syndesmosis
      2. Weber type B: fracture at the level of the syndesmosis/level of the tibial plafond
      3. Weber type C: fracture above the level of the syndesmosis. This includes Maisonneuve fracture (proximal fibula fracture) which can be associated with ankle instability.

      Ankle fractures are common. They affect men and women in equal numbers, but men have a higher rate as young adults (sports and contact injuries), and women have a higher rate post-menopausal (fragility-type fractures). Patients present, following a traumatic event, with a painful, swollen ankle, and reluctance/inability to bear weight.

      Radiographs of clearly deformed or dislocated joints are not necessary, and removing the pressure on the surrounding soft tissues from the underlying bony deformity is the priority. If the fracture pattern is not clinically obvious, then plain radiographs are appropriate. Antero-posterior, lateral, and mortise views are essential to evaluate fracture displacement and syndesmotic injury. Decreased tibiofibular overlap, medial joint clear space, and lateral talar shift all indicate a syndesmotic injury.

      When deciding upon treatment for an ankle fracture, one must consider both the fracture and the patient. Diabetic patients and smokers are at greater risk of post-operative complication, especially wound problems and infection. Likewise, the long term outcome of post-traumatic arthritis from a malunited ankle fracture is extremely important for a young patient, but not as relevant in the elderly. Unimalleolar Weber type A fractures, by definition, are stable and therefore, can be mobilised fully in an ankle boot.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      33.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old female underwent an acute cholecystectomy for cholecystitis. A drain is left...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female underwent an acute cholecystectomy for cholecystitis. A drain is left during the procedure. Over the next 5 days, the drain has been accumulating between 100-200ml of bile per 24 hour period. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Arrange an abdominal USS

      Correct Answer: Arrange an ERCP

      Explanation:

      Bile leak may be classified into a minor leak with low output drainage (<300 ml of bile/24 hours) or leaks due to major bile duct injury with high output drainage (>300 ml/24 hours).

      The majority of minor bile leak results from Strasberg type A injuries with intact biliary-enteric continuity and includes leaks from cystic duct (CD) stump (55%-71%) or small (less than 3 mm) subsegmental duct in gall bladder (GB) bed (16%) and minor ducts like cholecystohepatic duct or supravesicular duct of Luschka (6%). An injury to the supravesicular duct occurs if the surgeon dissects into the liver bed while separating the gall bladder. This duct does not drain the liver parenchyma.
      A leak from the cystic duct stump may occur from clip failure due to necrosis of the stump secondary to thermal injury/pressure necrosis or when clips are used in situations where ties are appropriate (acute cholecystitis) and in a significant majority from distal bile duct obstruction caused by a retained stone and resultant blow out of the cystic stump.
      Strasberg type C and type D injuries usually present with a minor leak as well. The former results when an aberrant right hepatic duct (RHD) or right posterior sectoral duct (RPSD) is misidentified as the CD and divided because of the anomalous insertion of CD into either of these ducts.
      Type D injuries are lateral injuries to the extrahepatic ducts (EHD) caused by cautery, scissors or clips.

      High output biliary fistulas are the result of major transactional injury of EHD (Strasberg type E). Here the common bile duct (CBD) is misidentified as the CD and is clipped, divided and excised. This not only results in a segmental loss of the EHD but often associated with injury or ligation of right hepatic artery as well. Such devastating injuries are peculiar to LC and have been described by Davidoff as “classic laparoscopic biliary injury”.

      Early recognition is the most important part of the management of bile leak due to iatrogenic injuries.
      Unfortunately, most of the bile duct injuries are not recognized preoperatively. Optimal management of BDI detected postoperatively requires good coordination between the radiologist, endoscopists and an experienced hepatobiliary surgeon.

      There is a scope of re-laparoscopy, within 24 hours of surgery, in situations where a low output fistula (<300 ml/day) is confirmed (by reviewing the operative video), to be because of a slipped CD clip. Through lavage, clipping or tying the CD stump with an endoloop may be a simple solution. Such an approach is not useful after 24 hours as inflammatory adhesions and oedema will make the job difficult. If low output controlled biliary fistula is detected after 24 hours, a wait and watch policy should be followed as many of the minor leaks will close within 5 to 7 days. If the leak fails to resolve or if the drainage amount is >300 ml/day (high output), an ERCP should be performed both to delineate the biliary tree and some therapeutic interventions if indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Surgical Technique And Technology
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A man in his sixties underwent surgery to remove a lump from his...

    Incorrect

    • A man in his sixties underwent surgery to remove a lump from his axilla. During removal, a nerve originating from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus was damaged. Which nerve is this referring to?

      Your Answer: Thoracodorsal

      Correct Answer: Lateral pectoral

      Explanation:

      The only branch of the lateral cord of brachial plexus in the options given, is the lateral pectoral nerve. It supplies the pectoralis major muscle and sends a branch to join the medial pectoral nerve forming a loop in front of the first part of the axillary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - While conducting a physical examination of a patient, the GP passed a finger...

    Correct

    • While conducting a physical examination of a patient, the GP passed a finger down the edge of the medial crus of the superficial inguinal ring and felt a bony prominence deep to the lateral edge of the spermatic cord. What was this bony prominence?

      Your Answer: Pubic tubercle

      Explanation:

      At the superficial inguinal ring, the pubic tubercle would be felt as a bony prominence lateral to the edge of the spermatic cord. This tubercle is the point of attachment of the inguinal ligament that makes up the floor of the inguinal canal.
      Pecten pubis is the ridge on the superior surface of the superior pubic ramus and the point of attachment of the pectineal ligament.
      The pubic symphysis is the joint between the two pubic bones and the iliopubic eminence is a bony process on the pubis found near the articulation of the pubis and the ilium.
      The iliopectineal line is formed by the arcuate line of the ilium and the pectineal line of the pubis. It is the line that marks the transition between the abdominal and pelvic cavity.
      The sacral promontory is found on the posterior wall of the pelvis and would not be felt through the inguinal ring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old woman presents with a long history of severe perianal Crohn's disease...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with a long history of severe perianal Crohn's disease involving multiple fistulae. Her disease is progressive with multiple episodes of rectal bleeding. However, she wants to avoid a stoma.Colonoscopy and small bowel study reveals that the disease does not extend beyond the rectum.What should be the best operative strategy?

      Your Answer: Proctectomy and end stoma

      Explanation:

      Proctectomy with end stoma is the best operative strategy in severe perianal and/or rectal Crohn’s disease.

      Surgical resection of Crohn’s disease does not provide a complete cure but it may produce substantial symptomatic improvement. Indications for surgery include complications such as fistulae, abscess formation, and strictures.

      Colonoscopy and a small bowel study (e.g. MR enteroclysis imaging) are used to stage Crohn’s disease to facilitate decision-making regarding surgery.
      Complex perianal fistulae are best managed with long-term draining seton sutures. Severe perianal and/or rectal Crohn’s disease usually require proctectomy with formation of end stoma. Ileoanal pouch reconstruction carries a high risk of fistula formation and pouch failure and is, therefore, not recommended. Terminal ileal Crohn’s remains one of the most common form of the disease, and it may be treated with limited ileocaecal resections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      121.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of these structures does NOT pass posterior to the medial malleolus? ...

    Correct

    • Which of these structures does NOT pass posterior to the medial malleolus?

      Your Answer: Saphenous vein

      Explanation:

      The saphenous vein passes anterior to the medial malleolus. The structures passing posterior, from nearest to furthest include: tibial, posterior tendon, flexor digitorum longus tendon, posterior tibial artery, posterior tibial vein, posterior tibial nerve and the flexor hallucis longus tendon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 51-year-old male sustained a severe blunt injury just below the bridge of...

    Correct

    • A 51-year-old male sustained a severe blunt injury just below the bridge of the nose with industrial machinery. Imaging demonstrates a fracture involving the superior orbital fissure. On examination, an ipsilateral pupillary defect is present and loss of the corneal reflexes. In addition to these examination findings, all of the following are present except?

      Your Answer: Nystagmus

      Explanation:

      The clinical symptoms of Superior Orbital Fissure Syndrome can be explained by the nerve involvement on an anatomic basis.
      External ophthalmoplegia is secondary to impairment of the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves.
      Ptosis develops because of lost tension and function of the levator palpebrae superior muscle involving the superior branch of the oculomotor nerve, and loss of tone in Muller’s muscle involving the sympathetic fibre arising from the cavernous sinus.
      Proptosis is caused by a decreased tension of the extraocular muscles, which normally are globe retractors, thereby allowing forward movement of the globe.
      The fixed dilated pupil with loss of accommodation arises from disruption of the parasympathetic fibres coursing with the oculomotor nerve.
      Compromise of the lacrimal and frontal nerves of the ophthalmic branches of the trigeminal nerve results in anaesthesia of the forehead and upper eyelid, lacrimal hyposecretion, and possibly in retro-orbital pain and neuralgia along the path of the nerve.
      Because of the disruption of the sensory nasociliary nerve, there may be anaesthesia of the cornea and the bridge of the nose with loss of the corneal reflex. When the disruption is partial, the corneal reflex remains intact.
      If the optic nerve is also involved including the above-mentioned symptoms, it is known as the orbital apex syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - During a clinical rotation in the ENT clinic, you observe a flexible bronchoscopy....

    Correct

    • During a clinical rotation in the ENT clinic, you observe a flexible bronchoscopy. As the scope is passed down the trachea, you see a cartilaginous structure that resembles a ship's keel and separates the right and the left main stem bronchi. This structure is the:

      Your Answer: Carina

      Explanation:

      The carina (a keel-like cartilage) is found at the bifurcation of the trachea separating the right from the left main stem bronchi. It is a little more to the left than to the right.
      The cricoid cartilage is the inferior and posterior cartilage of the larynx.
      The costal cartilage on the other hand elongates the ribs anteriorly and contribute to the elasticity of the thoracic cage.
      The pulmonary ligament is a fold of pleura located below the root of the lung.
      Tracheal rings are rings of cartilage that support the trachea.
      Peritracheal fascia is a layer of connective tissue that invests the trachea from the outside and is not visible on bronchoscopy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The bronchial circulation is a part of the circulatory system that supplies nutrients and oxygen to the pulmonary...

    Incorrect

    • The bronchial circulation is a part of the circulatory system that supplies nutrients and oxygen to the pulmonary parenchyma. What percentage of cardiac output is received by bronchial circulation?

      Your Answer: 12%

      Correct Answer: 2%

      Explanation:

      The bronchial circulation is part of the systemic circulation and receives about 2% of the cardiac output from the left heart. Bronchial arteries arise from branches of the aorta, intercostal, subclavian or internal mammary arteries. The bronchial arteries supply the tracheobronchial tree with both nutrients and O2. It is complementary to the pulmonary circulation that brings deoxygenated blood to the lungs and carries oxygenated blood away from them in order to oxygenate the rest of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 24-year old, lactating mother presents to the clinic with a tender, 1.5cm...

    Correct

    • A 24-year old, lactating mother presents to the clinic with a tender, 1.5cm mass just below the right nipple, which shows multiple fissures. What finding is likely associated with her condition?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus infection

      Explanation:

      Breast abscess occur commonly in lactating mothers in the postpartum period due to cracking of the nipple. It is commonly caused due to Staphylococcus aureus infection. Fat necrosis usually results from trauma wherein an ill-defined mass is formed. Ductal carcinomas are malignant masses which are not tender usually, and rare in the young age group. Plasma cell mastitis affect women in an older age group. Sclerosing adenosis is a type of fibrocystic disease which can lead to a tender, cystic mass but no fissuring or cracks are seen in the nipple. Fibroadenoma and lipomas are non-tender, well-defined masses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 76 year old man who presented with lower back pain is diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 76 year old man who presented with lower back pain is diagnosed with prostatic carcinoma that has metastasized to his lumber spine. Which of the following markers is characteristically elevated?

      Your Answer: PSA

      Explanation:

      Spread of prostatic carcinoma is common to the lumbar spine and pelvis. This results in osteoblastic metastases that will present as lower back pain with increased alkaline phosphatase, prostatic acid phosphates and PSA. PSA is more specific and a PSA > 10 ng/ml for any age is worrisome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A surgeon performing a Whipple's procedure, that involves mobilizing the head of the...

    Incorrect

    • A surgeon performing a Whipple's procedure, that involves mobilizing the head of the pancreases, accidentally injured a structure immediately posterior to the neck of the pancreases which bled out. Which structure is most likely to have been injured?

      Your Answer: Abdominal aorta

      Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The splenic vein runs behind the pancreas, receives the inferior mesenteric vein and joins the superior mesenteric vein to form the portal vein behind the pancreatic neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 32-year-old motorist was involved in a road traffic accident in which he...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old motorist was involved in a road traffic accident in which he collided head-on with another car at high speed. He was wearing a seatbelt and the airbags were deployed. When rescuers arrived, he was conscious and lucid but died immediately after. What could have explained his death?

      Your Answer: Aortic transection

      Explanation:

      Aortic transection was the underlying cause of death in this patient.

      Aortic transection, or traumatic aortic rupture, is typically the result of a blunt aortic injury in the context of rapid deceleration. This condition is commonly fatal as blood in the aorta is under great pressure and can quickly escape the vessel through a tear, resulting in rapid haemorrhagic shock and death. A temporary haematoma may prevent the immediate death. Injury to the aorta during a sudden deceleration commonly originates near the terminal section of the aortic arch, also known as the isthmus. This portion lies just distal to the take-off of the left subclavian artery at the intersection of the mobile and fixed portions of the aorta. As many as 80% of the patients with aortic transection die at the scene before reaching a trauma centre for treatment.

      A widened mediastinum may be seen on the X-ray of a person with aortic rupture.

      Other types of thoracic trauma include:
      1. Tension pneumothorax and pneumothorax
      2. Haemothorax
      3. Flail chest
      4. Cardiac tamponade
      5. Blunt cardiac injury
      6. Pulmonary contusion
      7. Diaphragm disruption
      8. Mediastinal traversing wounds

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old woman known with Von Willebrand disease (vWD) has to undergo surgery....

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman known with Von Willebrand disease (vWD) has to undergo surgery. Which of these complications is most unlikely in this patient?

      Your Answer: Hemarthrosis

      Explanation:

      Von Willebrand disease (vWD) is an inherited haemorrhagic disorder characterised by the impairment of primary haemostasis. It is caused by the deficiency or dysfunction of a protein named von Willebrand factor. The most common manifestation due to the condition is abnormal bleeding. Complications include easy bruising, hematomas, epistaxis, menorrhagia, prolonged bleeding and severe haemorrhage. Hemarthrosis is a complication that is more commonly found in haemophilia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - During a normal respiratory exhalation, what is the recoil alveolar pressure? ...

    Correct

    • During a normal respiratory exhalation, what is the recoil alveolar pressure?

      Your Answer: +10 cmH2O

      Explanation:

      To determine compliance of the respiratory system, changes in transmural pressures (in and out) immediately across the lung or chest cage (or both) are measured simultaneously with changes in lung or thoracic cavity volume. Changes in lung or thoracic cage volume are determined using a spirometer with transmural pressures measured by pressure transducers. For the lung alone, transmural pressure is calculated as the difference between alveolar (pA; inside) and intrapleural (ppl; outside) pressure. To calculate chest cage compliance, transmural pressure is ppl (inside) minus atmospheric pressure (pB; outside). For the combined lung–chest cage, transmural pressure or transpulmonary pressure is computed as pA – pB. pA pressure is determined by having the subject deeply inhale a measured volume of air from a spirometer. Under physiological conditions the transpulmonary or recoil pressure is always positive; intrapleural pressure is always negative and relatively large, while alveolar pressure moves from slightly negative to slightly positive as a person breathes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A woman that presented with dyspnoea, chest pain and cough was found to...

    Correct

    • A woman that presented with dyspnoea, chest pain and cough was found to have a serous pleural effusion. This finding is most likely to be associated with which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Congestive heart failure

      Explanation:

      A pleural effusion is defined as an abnormal collection of fluid in the pleural space. Pleural effusion can result from excess fluid production or decreased absorption or both. Thoracentesis and laboratory testing help determine the origin of the accumulated fluid. Serous fluid accumulation in the pleural space indicates the presence of a hydrothorax and is most likely to develop secondary to congestive heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 40 year old woman has a full thickness burn on her foot...

    Correct

    • A 40 year old woman has a full thickness burn on her foot after being trapped in a burning building. The limb has no fractures but the burn is well circumscribed. She starts complaining of tingling of her foot which has a dusky look after 3 hours. Which of the following is the best management step?

      Your Answer: Escharotomy

      Explanation:

      Answer: Escharotomy

      Escharotomy is the surgical division of the nonviable eschar, which allows the cutaneous envelope to become more compliant. Hence, the underlying tissues have an increased available volume to expand into, preventing further tissue injury or functional compromise.

      Full-thickness circumferential and near-circumferential skin burns result in the formation of a tough, inelastic mass of burnt tissue (eschar). The eschar, by virtue of this inelasticity, results in the burn-induced compartment syndrome. This is caused by the accumulation of extracellular and extravascular fluid within confined anatomic spaces of the extremities or digits. The excessive fluid causes the intracompartmental pressures to increase, resulting in collapse of the contained vascular and lymphatic structures and, hence, loss of tissue viability. The capillary closure pressure of 30 mm Hg, also measured as the compartment pressure, is accepted as that which requires intervention to prevent tissue death.

      The circumferential eschar over the torso can lead to significant compromise of chest wall excursions and can hinder ventilation. Abdominal compartment syndrome with visceral hypoperfusion is associated with severe burns of the abdomen and torso. (A literature review by Strang et al found the prevalence of abdominal compartment syndrome in severely burned patients to be 4.1-16.6%, with the mean mortality rate for this condition in these patients to be 74.8%). Similarly, airway patency and venous return may be compromised by circumferential burns involving the neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following foramina will the ophthalmic artery pass through in order...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following foramina will the ophthalmic artery pass through in order to reach the eye?

      Your Answer: Superior orbital fissure

      Correct Answer: Optic canal

      Explanation:

      The optic foramen is the opening to the optic canal. The canal is located in the sphenoid bone; it is bounded medially by the body of the sphenoid and laterally by the lesser wing of the sphenoid. The superior surface of the sphenoid bone is bounded behind by a ridge, which forms the anterior border of a narrow, transverse groove, the chiasmatic groove (optic groove). The groove ends on either side in the optic foramen, which transmits the optic nerve and ophthalmic artery into the orbital cavity. Compared to the optic nerve, the ophthalmic artery is located inferolaterally within the canal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A previously healthy 40-year-old housewife suddenly complains of a headache and loses consciousness....

    Incorrect

    • A previously healthy 40-year-old housewife suddenly complains of a headache and loses consciousness. A CT scan reveals subarachnoid haemorrhage. Which of the following is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Tay–Sachs disease

      Correct Answer: Ruptured berry aneurysm

      Explanation:

      Saccular aneurysms, also known as berry aneurysms, appear as a round outpouching and are the most common form of cerebral aneurysm. They are a congenital intracranial defect, and haemorrhage can occur at any age, but is most common between the ages of 40-65 years. A second rupture (rebleeding) sometimes occurs, most often within about 7 days of the first bleed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 55-year-old male has a mass on the right lung with involvement of...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male has a mass on the right lung with involvement of the right mediastinal lymph nodes. What is the nodal staging according to the TNM staging?

      Your Answer: N3

      Correct Answer: N2

      Explanation:

      The N stages for lung cancer are from NO to N3 : NO, there is no lung cancer in any lymph nodes: N1, there is lung cancer in the proximal lymph nodes: N2, there is lung cancer in the mediastinal hilar lymph nodes, but on the same side as the affected lung or there is lung cancer in the carinal lymph nodes: N3, there is metastatic lung cancer in lymph nodes on the opposite side of the chest, in the cervical or apical lymph nodes. In this patient the ipsilateral mediastinal node is involved, thus it is classified as N2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A cyclist fell and sustained a laceration to his elbow which was shortly...

    Correct

    • A cyclist fell and sustained a laceration to his elbow which was shortly sutured in the emergency department. Which of the following factors will aid in the wound healing process?

      Your Answer: Presence of sutures

      Explanation:

      Foreign bodies including sutures will delay wound healing, however due to the net affect being helpful they are used. Secondary wound infection will delay healing and is a potential post op complication. Corticosteroids depresses the wound healing ability of the body. Poor nutrition will also delay healing leading to decreased albumin, vit D and vit C. Diabetic patients with atherosclerosis with poor perfusion of tissues have notoriously delayed/poor healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 30-year-old male presents with pain in the testis and scrotum. It began...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male presents with pain in the testis and scrotum. It began 10 hours previously and has worsened during that time. On examination, he has pyrexia, the testis is swollen and tender and there is an associated hydrocele. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute epididymo-orchitis

      Explanation:

      The following history findings are associated with acute epididymitis and orchitis:
      – Gradual onset of scrotal pain and swelling, usually unilateral, often developing over several days (as opposed to hours for testicular torsion)
      – Dysuria, frequency, or urgency
      – Fever and chills (in only 25% of adults with acute epididymitis but in up to 71% of children with the condition)
      Usually, no nausea or vomiting (in contrast to testicular torsion)
      – Urethral discharge preceding the onset of acute epididymitis (in some cases)

      Physical examination findings may fail to distinguish acute epididymitis from testicular torsion. Physical findings associated with acute epididymitis may include the following:
      – Tenderness and induration occurring first in the epididymal tail and then spreading
      – Elevation of the affected hemiscrotum
      – Normal cremasteric reflex
      – Erythema and mild scrotal cellulitis
      – Reactive hydrocele (in patients with advanced epididymo-orchitis)
      – Bacterial prostatitis or seminal vesiculitis (in post pubertal individuals)
      – With tuberculosis, focal epididymitis, a draining sinus, or beading of the vas deferens
      – In children, an underlying congenital anomaly of the urogenital tract
      Findings associated with orchitis may include the following:
      – Testicular enlargement, induration, and a reactive hydrocele (common)
      – Non-tender epididymis
      In 20-40% of cases, association with acute epididymitis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 45-year-old male is involved in a road traffic accident. He suffers significant...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old male is involved in a road traffic accident. He suffers significant injuries to his thorax, he has bilateral haemopneumothoraces and a suspected haemopericardium. He is to undergo surgery, what is the best method of accessing these injuries?

      Your Answer: Clam shell thoracotomy

      Explanation:

      Thoracic trauma accounts for > 25% of all traumatic injuries and is a leading cause of death in all age groups. The majority of thoracic trauma patients require only conservative management (e.g. analgesia, simple chest drainage). However, a subset of these patients will show signs of deterioration in the emergency department, especially with penetrating injuries. Such patients may require an emergency thoracotomy for rapid access to the thoracic cavity so that pericardial tamponade can be released and haemorrhage controlled. Furthermore, in severe thoracic trauma cases, specific injuries are difficult to confidently rule out or identify, even if they can be anticipated. Therefore, it is recommended to use an approach that provides the most rapid access to all vital chest organs for assessment and control.
      Clamshell thoracotomy (also known as bilateral anterolateral thoracotomy) or hemi-clamshell (longitudinal sternotomy and anterolateral thoracotomy) are techniques used to provide complete exposure of the thoracic cavity (heart, mediastinum and lungs). Studies have demonstrated that it is easier to control the cardiac wound using this approach compared to the standard left anterolateral thoracotomy, as it gives wider exposure for all injuries, which are then easier to control surgically through the larger incision.
      Contraindications:
      Absolute:
      – Traumatic cardiac arrest where the underlying pathology is so severe as to render the procedure futile (e.g. severe traumatic brain injury)
      Relative:
      Blunt cardiac injury with no signs of life or organised cardiac rhythm

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 25 year old man is admitted with a splenic rupture despite not...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old man is admitted with a splenic rupture despite not being involved in any trauma. Which of the following infections can cause spontaneous splenic rupture?

      Your Answer: Epstein-Barr virus

      Explanation:

      Answer: Epstein-Barr virus

      The Epstein–Barr virus is one of eight known human herpesvirus types in the herpes family, and is one of the most common viruses in humans. Infection with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is common and usually occurs in childhood or early adulthood.
      EBV is the cause of infectious mononucleosis, an illness associated with symptoms and signs like:
      fever,
      fatigue,
      swollen tonsils,
      headache, and
      sweats,
      sore throat,
      swollen lymph nodes in the neck, and
      sometimes an enlarged spleen.

      Although EBV can cause mononucleosis, not everyone infected with the virus will get mononucleosis. White blood cells called B cells are the primary targets of EBV infection.
      Petechiae on the palate are characteristic of streptococcal pharyngitis but also can be seen in Epstein–Barr virus infection, Arcanobacterium haemolyticum pharyngitis, rubella, roseola, viral haemorrhagic fevers, thrombocytopenia, and palatal trauma.
      Despite the fact that infectious mononucleosis is a self-limiting disease, it may cause serious and lethal complications. The mechanism of splenic rupture secondary to infectious mononucleosis has been controversial. It is commonly believed that it is caused by an increase in intra-abdominal pressure or contraction of the diaphragm with vigorous cough, vomiting and defecation, leading to a compression of the spleen. However, Patel et al. argue that it is primarily the result of an expanding subcapsular haematoma which subsequently tears the capsule and leads to hemoperitoneum. Traditionally, rupture of spleen is treated by splenectomy. The rationale is to prevent the chance of sudden death as an early complication of splenic rupture and the risk from blood transfusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of these HLA alleles is most likely to be present in ankylosing...

    Correct

    • Which of these HLA alleles is most likely to be present in ankylosing spondylitis?

      Your Answer: HLA-B27

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis usually appears between the ages of 20-40 years old and is more frequent in men. It is strongly associated with HLA-B27, along with other spondyloarthropathies, which can be remembered through the mnemonic PAIR (Psoriasis, Ankylosing spondylitis, Inflammatory bowel disease, and Reactive arthritis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 30-year-old male complains of pain and weakness in the shoulder. He has...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male complains of pain and weakness in the shoulder. He has recently been unwell with glandular fever from which he is fully recovered. On examination, there is some evidence of muscle wasting and a degree of winging of the scapula. Power during active movements is impaired. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Parsonage-Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Parsonage-Turner Syndrome (PTS), also referred to as idiopathic brachial plexopathy or neuralgic amyotrophy, is a rare disorder consisting of a complex constellation of symptoms with abrupt onset of shoulder pain, usually unilaterally, followed by progressive neurologic deficits of motor weakness, dysesthesias, and numbness. Although the aetiology of the syndrome is unclear, it is reported in various clinical situations, including postoperatively, postinfectious, posttraumatic, and postvaccination.
      The most common associated risk factor is a recent viral illness.
      The pain is not positional and usually worse at night and may be associated with awakenings from sleep. There are typically no constitutional symptoms associated with the syndrome. The duration of pain is almost always self-limiting, lasting 1 to 2 weeks, but on rare occasion persisting for longer periods.
      In the earliest stages of this condition (the first few weeks), pain management with opiates, NSAIDs, and neuroleptics is the mainstay of treatment. Acupuncture and transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) can also be adjuncts to medications. Oral steroids have been recommended by some, but there is poor literature evidence to support its efficacy.
      Physical therapy plays an important role in the treatment of this condition. Modalities such as TENS can help in pain management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      18.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Generic Surgical Topics (6/6) 100%
Organ Transplantation (1/1) 100%
Clinical Microbiology (2/2) 100%
Principles Of Surgery-in-General (7/8) 88%
Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma (5/5) 100%
Head And Neck Surgery (1/1) 100%
Orthopaedics (2/2) 100%
Surgical Technique And Technology (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (3/6) 50%
Basic Sciences (10/16) 63%
Colorectal Surgery (1/1) 100%
Physiology (1/2) 50%
Pathology (6/8) 75%
Urology (1/1) 100%
Passmed