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  • Question 1 - What is impaired in pure word deafness? ...

    Correct

    • What is impaired in pure word deafness?

      Your Answer: Ability to understand speech

      Explanation:

      Pure word deafness is a condition where a person is unable to comprehend speech despite having normal hearing abilities for other sounds. The individual is capable of speaking, reading, and writing with ease and understanding, but cannot grasp the meaning of spoken words. They perceive words as mere sounds without any recognition of their significance. This condition is also referred to as subcortical auditory dysphasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History And Mental State
      36.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Who is the creator of the bobo doll experiment, which is utilized to...

    Correct

    • Who is the creator of the bobo doll experiment, which is utilized to reinforce his social learning theory?

      Your Answer: Bandura

      Explanation:

      Theories of aggression can be categorized into three main perspectives: psychodynamic, sociological/drive, and cognitive and learning. Psychodynamic theory, proposed by Freud, suggests that aggression arises from a primary instinct called thanatos, which aims for destruction and death. Sociobiological/drive theory, proposed by Lorenz, suggests that aggression is instinctual and necessary for survival, and that stronger genes are selected through aggression. Cognitive and learning theory, proposed by Berkowitz, Rotter, Bandura, and Anderson, suggests that aggression can be learned through observational learning and is influenced by environmental factors. Bandura’s work introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, which suggests that behavior is influenced by both the environment and the individual’s behavior. Rotter’s social learning theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and their environment, while Anderson and Bushman’s general aggression model considers the role of social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      656.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A senior citizen is referred to the memory clinic by their GP due...

    Correct

    • A senior citizen is referred to the memory clinic by their GP due to mild cognitive impairment. You rule out reversible causes and confirm that they are not prescribed any medications which might contribute to cognitive impairment.
      The senior citizen is concerned about progression to Alzheimer's disease.
      What would you advise has the best evidence to improve their cognitive performance at this stage?

      Your Answer: Exercise

      Explanation:

      Mild cognitive impairment (MCI) is a condition where individuals experience cognitive impairment but are still able to perform daily activities with minimal difficulty. However, those with MCI are at a higher risk of developing dementia compared to those without the condition. While there are currently no pharmacological options available, regular exercise has been shown to be the most effective intervention for MCI. It is important to note that some individuals with MCI may remain stable of even return to normal neurological function. These findings were reported in a practice guideline update summary by Peterson in the journal Neurology.

      Treatment of Dementia: AChE Inhibitors and Memantine

      Dementia is a debilitating condition that affects millions of people worldwide. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine are two drugs used in the management of dementia. AChE inhibitors prevent cholinesterase from breaking down acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are AChE inhibitors used in the management of Alzheimer’s. Memantine is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction.

      NICE guidelines recommend the use of AChE inhibitors for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s and memantine for managing moderate to severe Alzheimer’s. For those already taking an AChE inhibitor, memantine can be added if the disease is moderate of severe. AChE inhibitors are also recommended for managing mild, moderate, and severe dementia with Lewy bodies, while memantine is considered if AChE inhibitors are not tolerated of contraindicated. AChE inhibitors and memantine are not recommended for vascular dementia, frontotemporal dementia, of cognitive impairment due to multiple sclerosis.

      The British Association for Psychopharmacology recommends AChE inhibitors as the first choice for Alzheimer’s and mixed dementia, while memantine is the second choice. AChE inhibitors and memantine are also recommended for dementia with Parkinson’s and dementia with Lewy bodies.

      In summary, AChE inhibitors and memantine are important drugs used in the management of dementia. The choice of drug depends on the type and severity of dementia, as well as individual patient factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      2097.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the policy in the UK regarding driving and seizures? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the policy in the UK regarding driving and seizures?

      Your Answer: All people who have a seizure must wait for at least 12 months before reapplying for a driving licence

      Correct Answer: A person will still lose their driving licence if they have a seizure due to a change in their medication

      Explanation:

      Epilepsy and Driving Regulations in the UK

      If an individual has experienced epileptic seizures while awake and lost consciousness, they can apply for a car of motorbike licence if they haven’t had a seizure for at least a year. However, if the seizure was due to a change in medication, they can apply when the seizure occurred more than six months ago if they are back on their old medication.

      In the case of a one-off seizure while awake and lost consciousness, the individual can apply for a licence after six months if there have been no further seizures.

      If an individual has experienced seizures while asleep and awake, they may still qualify for a licence if the only seizures in the past three years have been while asleep.

      If an individual has only had seizures while asleep, they may qualify for a licence if it has been 12 months of more since their first seizure.

      Seizures that do not affect consciousness may still qualify for a licence if the seizures do not involve loss of consciousness and the last seizure occurred at least 12 months ago.

      It is important to note that the rules for bus, coach, and lorry licences differ. For these licences, an individual must be seizure-free for 10 years if they have had more than one previous seizure and have not been on antiepileptic medication. If they have only had one previous seizure and have not been on antiepileptic medication, they must be seizure-free for five years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following is not a requirement for being fit to plead?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a requirement for being fit to plead?

      Your Answer: Ability to understand the plea

      Correct Answer: Ability to verbally describe the events

      Explanation:

      Fitness to Plead: Criteria and Process

      Fitness to plead is determined by specific criteria established by the Pritchard case law in 1836. The criteria include the ability to instruct solicitor and counsel, understand the charges, decide whether to plead guilty of not, follow court proceedings, challenge a juror, and give evidence in one’s defense. Schizophrenia and other enduring mental illnesses are the most common conditions associated with unfitness to plead, particularly when positive psychotic symptomatology is present. Intellectual impairment is not a significant factor in most cases. If the issue is raised by the defense, it must be established on a balance of probability, while if raised by the prosecution of judge, it must be proved beyond reasonable doubt. Amnesia does not render someone unfit to plead. The decision on fitness to plead is made by a judge, not a jury. If someone is found unfit to plead, they are subject to the Criminal Procedures Act 1991, which involves a trial of facts, complete acquittal if the facts are not found, and flexible disposal by the judge if the facts are found, except for murder, which requires mandatory committal to hospital.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      95.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is a true statement about evaluating obesity? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about evaluating obesity?

      Your Answer: A waist circumference of 86 cm in an adult female is considered high

      Correct Answer: A waist circumference of 100 cm in an adult male is considered normal

      Explanation:

      Assessment and Management of Obesity

      Obesity is a condition that can increase the risk of various health problems, including type 2 diabetes, coronary heart disease, some types of cancer, and stroke. The body mass index (BMI) is a commonly used tool to assess obesity, calculated by dividing a person’s weight in kilograms by their height in meters squared. For adults over 20 years old, BMI falls into one of the following categories: underweight, normal of healthy weight, pre-obesity/overweight, obesity class I, obesity class II, and obesity class III.

      Waist circumference can also be used in combination with BMI to guide interventions. Diet and exercise are the main interventions up to a BMI of 35, unless there are comorbidities such as type 2 diabetes, hypertension, cardiovascular disease, osteoarthritis, dyslipidemia, and sleep apnea. Physical activity recommendations suggest that adults should accumulate at least 150 minutes of moderate intensity activity of 75 minutes of vigorous intensity activity per week. Dietary recommendations suggest diets that have a 600 kcal/day deficit.

      Pharmacological options such as Orlistat of Liraglutide may be considered for those with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 of more, of 28 if associated risk factors. Surgical options such as bariatric surgery may be considered for those with a BMI of 40 kg/m2 of more, of between 35 kg/m2 and 40 kg/m2 with other significant diseases that could be improved with weight loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      321.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which treatment option is not advised by NICE for individuals with anorexia nervosa?...

    Correct

    • Which treatment option is not advised by NICE for individuals with anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer: Anorexia adapted rational emotive therapy

      Explanation:

      Eating Disorders: NICE Guidelines

      Anorexia:
      For adults with anorexia nervosa, consider individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), of specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). If these are not acceptable, contraindicated, of ineffective, consider eating-disorder-focused focal psychodynamic therapy (FPT). For children and young people, consider anorexia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-AN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Bulimia:
      For adults, the first step is an evidence-based self-help programme. If this is not effective, consider individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Binge Eating Disorder:
      The first step is a guided self-help programme. If this is not effective, offer group of individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer the same treatments recommended for adults. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Advice for those with eating disorders:
      Encourage people with an eating disorder who are vomiting to avoid brushing teeth immediately after vomiting, rinse with non-acid mouthwash, and avoid highly acidic foods and drinks. Advise against misusing laxatives of diuretics and excessive exercise.

      Additional points:
      Do not offer physical therapy as part of treatment. Consider bone mineral density scans after 1 year of underweight in children and young people, of 2 years in adults. Do not routinely offer oral of transdermal oestrogen therapy to treat low bone mineral density in children of young people with anorexia nervosa. Consider transdermal 17-β-estradiol of bisphosphonates for women with anorexia nervosa.

      Note: These guidelines are taken from NICE guidelines 2017.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      923.4
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  • Question 8 - What is a commonly known negative outcome of undergoing psychodynamic psychotherapy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a commonly known negative outcome of undergoing psychodynamic psychotherapy?

      Your Answer: Increased distress after sessions

      Correct Answer: Malignant regression and suicide

      Explanation:

      Selecting appropriate psychological interventions for individual patients can be challenging. Psychodynamic psychotherapy may not always be suitable for patients as it can potentially exacerbate their symptoms and lead to dangerous behaviors such as self-harm, suicide, violence, and stalking. However, prolonged psychosis is unlikely to occur unless the patient has a severe and enduring mental illness, which may make them unsuitable for psychodynamic psychotherapy. While the cost of attending sessions and ambivalence towards decision-making may be minor adverse effects, increased distress after sessions can occur, although it may indicate an appropriate response to the session’s content. Nonetheless, patients should not leave feeling uncontained.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      97.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following statements accurately describes the normal distribution? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements accurately describes the normal distribution?

      Your Answer: Mean = mode = median

      Explanation:

      The Normal distribution is a probability distribution that is continuous in nature.

      Standard Deviation and Standard Error of the Mean

      Standard deviation (SD) and standard error of the mean (SEM) are two important statistical measures used to describe data. SD is a measure of how much the data varies, while SEM is a measure of how precisely we know the true mean of the population. The normal distribution, also known as the Gaussian distribution, is a symmetrical bell-shaped curve that describes the spread of many biological and clinical measurements.

      68.3% of the data lies within 1 SD of the mean, 95.4% of the data lies within 2 SD of the mean, and 99.7% of the data lies within 3 SD of the mean. The SD is calculated by taking the square root of the variance and is expressed in the same units as the data set. A low SD indicates that data points tend to be very close to the mean.

      On the other hand, SEM is an inferential statistic that quantifies the precision of the mean. It is expressed in the same units as the data and is calculated by dividing the SD of the sample mean by the square root of the sample size. The SEM gets smaller as the sample size increases, and it takes into account both the value of the SD and the sample size.

      Both SD and SEM are important measures in statistical analysis, and they are used to calculate confidence intervals and test hypotheses. While SD quantifies scatter, SEM quantifies precision, and both are essential in understanding and interpreting data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      2.5
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  • Question 10 - What is a common characteristic observed in a patient diagnosed with DiGeorge syndrome?...

    Correct

    • What is a common characteristic observed in a patient diagnosed with DiGeorge syndrome?

      Your Answer: Cleft palate

      Explanation:

      The condition associated with flapping hand movements is either Angelman syndrome of Fragile X, while hyperphagia is a symptom of Prader-Willi syndrome. Overlapping of fingers over thumb is seen in Patau syndrome, and pronounced self-injurious behavior is a feature of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome of Smith-Magenis syndrome. DiGeorge syndrome is typically caused by a deletion on chromosome 22 and presents with a variety of symptoms, including cardiac abnormalities (tetralogy of Fallot), abnormal facies (almond-shaped eyes, low-set ears), thymic aplasia (leading to recurrent infections), cleft palate, and hypocalcemia/hypoparathyroidism (resulting in short stature and seizures). Learning disabilities are also common in individuals with DiGeorge syndrome, and they may also be at increased risk for psychiatric conditions such as depression, ADHD, and schizophrenia.

      Genetic Conditions and Their Features

      Genetic conditions are disorders caused by abnormalities in an individual’s DNA. These conditions can affect various aspects of a person’s health, including physical and intellectual development. Some of the most common genetic conditions and their features are:

      – Downs (trisomy 21): Short stature, almond-shaped eyes, low muscle tone, and intellectual disability.
      – Angelman syndrome (Happy puppet syndrome): Flapping hand movements, ataxia, severe learning disability, seizures, and sleep problems.
      – Prader-Willi: Hyperphagia, excessive weight gain, short stature, and mild learning disability.
      – Cri du chat: Characteristic cry, hypotonia, down-turned mouth, and microcephaly.
      – Velocardiofacial syndrome (DiGeorge syndrome): Cleft palate, cardiac problems, and learning disabilities.
      – Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18): Severe intellectual disability, kidney malformations, and physical abnormalities.
      – Lesch-Nyhan syndrome: Self-mutilation, dystonia, and writhing movements.
      – Smith-Magenis syndrome: Pronounced self-injurious behavior, self-hugging, and a hoarse voice.
      – Fragile X: Elongated face, large ears, hand flapping, and shyness.
      – Wolf Hirschhorn syndrome: Mild to severe intellectual disability, seizures, and physical abnormalities.
      – Patau syndrome (trisomy 13): Severe intellectual disability, congenital heart malformations, and physical abnormalities.
      – Rett syndrome: Regression and loss of skills, hand-wringing movements, and profound learning disability.
      – Tuberous sclerosis: Hamartomatous tumors, epilepsy, and behavioral issues.
      – Williams syndrome: Elfin-like features, social disinhibition, and advanced verbal skills.
      – Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome: Short stature, friendly disposition, and moderate learning disability.
      – Klinefelter syndrome: Extra X chromosome, low testosterone, and speech and language issues.
      – Jakob’s syndrome: Extra Y chromosome, tall stature, and lower mean intelligence.
      – Coffin-Lowry syndrome: Short stature, slanting eyes, and severe learning difficulty.
      – Turner syndrome: Short stature, webbed neck, and absent periods.
      – Niemann Pick disease (types A and B): Abdominal swelling, cherry red spot, and feeding difficulties.

      It is important to note that these features may vary widely among individuals with the same genetic condition. Early diagnosis and intervention can help individuals with genetic conditions reach their full potential and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      87.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Who is credited with creating the term 'institutional neurosis'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who is credited with creating the term 'institutional neurosis'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Barton

      Explanation:

      Barton introduced the concept of ‘institutional neurosis’ in 1960, describing it as a condition that affects individuals who have been institutionalized for a prolonged period of time. This condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including apathy, lack of motivation, disinterest in anything beyond the mundane, submission to authority, and an inability to express resentment towards unfair treatment. Other symptoms include a lack of interest in the future, an inability to make practical plans, a decline in personal hygiene and standards, and a loss of individuality. Those affected by institutional neurosis often resign themselves to the belief that things will remain unchanged and unchanging indefinitely.

      D.W. Winnicott – Good enough mother, transitional object: Winnicott believed that a good enough mother is one who provides a secure and nurturing environment for her child, allowing them to develop a sense of self and independence. He also introduced the concept of the transitional object, such as a teddy bear of blanket, which helps a child transition from the mother’s care to the outside world.

      Carl Jung – Collective unconscious, archetype, anima, animus: Jung believed in the existence of a collective unconscious, a shared pool of knowledge and experience that all humans possess. He also introduced the concept of archetypes, universal symbols and patterns that are present in the collective unconscious. The anima and animus are archetypes representing the feminine and masculine aspects of the psyche.

      Melanie Klein – Paranoid-schizoid position, depressive position, splitting: Klein introduced the concept of the paranoid-schizoid position, a stage of development in which a child experiences intense anxiety and fear of persecution. She also introduced the depressive position, a stage in which the child learns to integrate positive and negative feelings towards others. Splitting is the defense mechanism in which a person sees things as either all good of all bad.

      Sigmund Freud – Free association, transference, ego, super-ego, id, eros, thanatos, defense mechanisms, oedipus Complex, the unconscious: Freud is known for his theories on the unconscious mind, including the id, ego, and super-ego. He also introduced the concepts of eros (the life instinct) and thanatos (the death instinct), as well as defense mechanisms such as repression and denial. The Oedipus complex is a theory about a child’s sexual desire for their opposite-sex parent.

      Wilfred Bion – Basic assumption group: Bion introduced the concept of the basic assumption group, a group that forms around a shared fantasy of assumption. He believed that these groups can be helpful of harmful, depending on the assumptions they are based on.

      Karen Horney – Womb envy: Horney believed that men experience womb envy, a feeling of inferiority and jealousy towards women due to their inability to bear children. She also introduced the concept of neurotic needs, such as the need for affection and the need for power.

      Erving Goffman – Total institution: Goffman introduced the concept of the total institution, a place where people are completely cut off from the outside world and subjected to strict rules and regulations. Examples include prisons and mental hospitals.

      Siegfried Foulkes – Foundation matrix: Foulkes introduced the concept of the foundation matrix, a group’s shared history and experiences that shape their current dynamics and interactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 12 - What is the least useful factor to consider when evaluating a patient's appropriateness...

    Incorrect

    • What is the least useful factor to consider when evaluating a patient's appropriateness for psychological therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patients level of intelligence

      Explanation:

      Having a higher level of intelligence does not guarantee a more successful outcome when undergoing psychological therapy.

      Factors Predicting Favorable Outcome for Psychotherapy

      There are several factors that can predict a favorable outcome for psychotherapy, indicating that a patient is suitable for this type of treatment. One of the most important factors is the patient’s capacity to form a therapeutic relationship with the therapist. This means that the patient is able to establish a trusting and collaborative relationship with the therapist, which is essential for effective therapy.

      Another important factor is the patient’s motivation to change. Patients who are motivated to change are more likely to engage in therapy and to make progress towards their goals. This motivation can come from a variety of sources, such as a desire to improve their quality of life, reduce symptoms of mental illness, of improve their relationships with others.

      Psychological mindedness is also an important factor in predicting a favorable outcome for psychotherapy. This refers to the patient’s ability to understand and reflect on their own thoughts, feelings, and behaviors, as well as those of others. Patients who are psychologically minded are more likely to benefit from therapy because they are able to engage in self-reflection and gain insight into their own experiences.

      Finally, good ego strength is another factor that predicts a favorable outcome for psychotherapy. Ego strength refers to the patient’s ability to cope with stress and adversity, and to maintain a sense of self-worth and self-esteem. Patients with good ego strength are better able to tolerate the emotional challenges of therapy and to make progress towards their goals. Overall, these factors can help clinicians identify patients who are likely to benefit from psychotherapy and tailor their treatment accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 13 - At the beginning of the CATIE study, what was the proportion of patients...

    Incorrect

    • At the beginning of the CATIE study, what was the proportion of patients diagnosed with metabolic syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 40%

      Explanation:

      The information provided is valuable because the CATIE study was conducted in a real-world setting, making the estimate potentially applicable to the UK.

      CATIE Study: Comparing Antipsychotic Medications for Schizophrenia Treatment

      The Clinical Antipsychotic Trials of Intervention Effectiveness (CATIE) Study, funded by the National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH), was a nationwide clinical trial that aimed to compare the effectiveness of older and newer antipsychotic medications used to treat schizophrenia. It is the largest, longest, and most comprehensive independent trial ever conducted to examine existing therapies for schizophrenia. The study consisted of two phases.

      Phase I of CATIE compared four newer antipsychotic medications to one another and an older medication. Participants were followed for 18 months to evaluate longer-term patient outcomes. The study involved over 1400 participants and was conducted at various treatment sites, representative of real-life settings where patients receive care. The results from CATIE are applicable to a wide range of people with schizophrenia in the United States.

      The medications were comparably effective, but high rates of discontinuation were observed due to intolerable side-effects of failure to adequately control symptoms. Olanzapine was slightly better than the other drugs but was associated with significant weight gain as a side-effect. Surprisingly, the older, less expensive medication (perphenazine) used in the study generally performed as well as the four newer medications. Movement side effects primarily associated with the older medications were not seen more frequently with perphenazine than with the newer drugs.

      Phase II of CATIE sought to provide guidance on which antipsychotic to try next if the first failed due to ineffectiveness of intolerability. Participants who discontinued their first antipsychotic medication because of inadequate management of symptoms were encouraged to enter the efficacy (clozapine) pathway, while those who discontinued their first treatment because of intolerable side effects were encouraged to enter the tolerability (ziprasidone) pathway. Clozapine was remarkably effective and was substantially better than all the other atypical medications.

      The CATIE study also looked at the risk of metabolic syndrome (MS) using the US National Cholesterol Education Program Adult Treatment Panel criteria. The prevalence of MS at baseline in the CATIE group was 40.9%, with female patients being three times as likely to have MS compared to matched controls and male patients being twice as likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 14 - A middle-aged female with Alzheimer's dementia is referred by their GP due to...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged female with Alzheimer's dementia is referred by their GP due to problems with agitation. There is no evidence of delirium and her sleep pattern is normal. Underlying causes have been excluded and a trial of both risperidone and quetiapine has been ineffective. What would be the reasonable next option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Donepezil

      Explanation:

      The Maudsley Guidelines recommend trying Donepezil. Melatonin is only recommended for sleep disturbances, while Diazepam, Amitriptyline, and Valproate are not recommended.

      Management of Non-Cognitive Symptoms in Dementia

      Non-cognitive symptoms of dementia can include agitation, aggression, distress, psychosis, depression, anxiety, sleep problems, wandering, hoarding, sexual disinhibition, apathy, and shouting. Non-pharmacological measures, such as music therapy, should be considered before prescribing medication. Pain may cause agitation, so a trial of analgesics is recommended. Antipsychotics, such as risperidone, olanzapine, and aripiprazole, may be used for severe distress of serious risk to others, but their use is controversial due to issues of tolerability and an association with increased mortality. Cognitive enhancers, such as AChE-Is and memantine, may have a modest benefit on BPSD, but their effects may take 3-6 months to take effect. Benzodiazepines should be avoided except in emergencies, and antidepressants, such as citalopram and trazodone, may have mixed evidence for BPSD. Mood stabilizers, such as valproate and carbamazepine, have limited evidence to support their use. Sedating antihistamines, such as promethazine, may cause cognitive impairment and should only be used short-term. Melatonin has limited evidence to support its use but is safe to use and may be justified in some cases where benefits are seen. For Lewy Body dementia, clozapine is favored over risperidone, and quetiapine may be a reasonable choice if clozapine is not appropriate. Overall, medication should only be used when non-pharmacological measures are ineffective, and the need is balanced with the increased risk of adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 15 - What factor is most likely to cause difficulty with swallowing in an individual...

    Incorrect

    • What factor is most likely to cause difficulty with swallowing in an individual with a learning disability?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clonazepam

      Explanation:

      While this question may not be ideal, it does occasionally appear on exams. If you encounter it, choose clonazepam and disregard the possibility that other choices may also cause dysphagia.

      Swallowing Difficulties Caused by Certain Medications

      Swallowing difficulties, also known as dysphagia, can be caused by various factors, including certain medications. Benzodiazepines, commonly used to treat anxiety and sleep disorders, have been found to cause swallowing problems in patients with learning difficulties. Additionally, other drugs such as metoclopramide, haloperidol, and phenothiazines have also been linked to dysphagia.

      Diagnosis and management of dysphagia is crucial to prevent complications such as aspiration pneumonia and malnutrition. Patients experiencing swallowing difficulties should undergo a thorough evaluation by a healthcare professional, including a clinical examination and imaging studies. Treatment options may include modifying the consistency of food and liquids, swallowing exercises, and medication adjustments. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential side effects of certain medications and to monitor patients for any signs of dysphagia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Learning Disability
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  • Question 16 - Which of the following is believed to be the least mature at the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is believed to be the least mature at the time of birth?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sense of vision

      Explanation:

      The human visual system is incredibly intricate, but it is not fully developed when a baby is born. Although newborns can perceive shapes by tracking the intersections of light and dark lines, their vision is limited to distinguishing shades of grey. Additionally, their ability to focus is restricted to a range of 8 to 12 inches (20 to 30 cm), resulting in blurry vision. However, within a week of birth, babies born at full term should be able to recognize their mother’s facial expressions.

      The Emergence of Social Smiling in Infants

      Wormann (2014) discusses the emergence of social smiling in infants, which is usually interpreted as the first positive expression directed towards a cause. This occurs when an infant with an initially expressionless face examines the face of another person, and their face and eyes light up while the corners of their mouth pull upward. The age of the first appearance of the social smile varies across cultures, ranging from the fifth to seventh week. Additionally, there are differences in its duration and frequency between the second and seventh month of life. Understanding these milestones is important for a basic understanding of normal child development.

      Child Development Milestones:
      4 weeks Responds to noise (either by crying, of quieting), follows an object moved in front of eyes
      6 weeks Begins social smiling*
      3 months Holds head steady on sitting
      6 months Rolls from stomach to back, starts babbling
      7 months Transfers objects from hand to hand, looks for dropped object
      9 months Sits unsupported, begins to crawl
      12 months Cruising (walking by holding furniture)
      18 months Walks without assistance, speaks about 10-20 words
      2 years Runs, climbs up and down stairs alone, makes 2-3 word sentences
      3 years Dresses self except for buttons and laces, counts to 10, feeds themself well
      4 years Hops on one foot, copies a cross
      5 years Copies a triangle, skips

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 17 - What is the enzyme that shows increased levels in Neuroleptic malignant syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the enzyme that shows increased levels in Neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CPK

      Explanation:

      Elevated levels of creatine phosphokinase (CPK) are observed in NMS.

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 18 - Who proposed the Attenuation Theory as an explanation for selective attention? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who proposed the Attenuation Theory as an explanation for selective attention?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treisman

      Explanation:

      Selective attention involves filtering external stimuli and assigning meaning to things that should get our attention. Three main models have been proposed: Broadbent’s Filter model, Treisman’s Attenuation Theory, and Deutsch and Deutsch’s Late stage model. Broadbent’s model is an early selection model that filters input based on physical characteristics, while Treisman’s model is an intermediate selection model that uses a leaky filter to weaken some stimuli but allow them through. Deutsch and Deutsch’s model is a late selection model that analyzes input for meaning before filtering occurs. Treisman’s model includes a dictionary unit that emphasizes certain words have lower thresholds for getting our attention, such as our own name.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 19 - Which of the following has been demonstrated in rigorous research to elevate the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following has been demonstrated in rigorous research to elevate the likelihood of young adults developing a psychotic disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cannabis misuse

      Explanation:

      Repeated studies have demonstrated that the use of cannabis increases the likelihood of developing a psychotic illness, such as schizophrenia, later in life. The risk is particularly high when cannabis is used during adolescence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Prevention Of Psychological Disorder
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  • Question 20 - What factors contribute to the development of depression in relation to social background?...

    Incorrect

    • What factors contribute to the development of depression in relation to social background?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brown and Harris

      Explanation:

      Depression (Brown and Harris)

      In 1978, Brown and Harris conducted a study on 458 women in the inner London area of Camberwell to investigate the causes of depression. The study resulted in the development of a model that identified four vulnerability factors for depressive illness in women. These factors included having three of more children under the age of 14 at home, lacking an intimate relationship with a husband of boyfriend, lacking employment outside of the home, and experiencing the loss of a mother before the age of 11 years. The model emphasized the role of psychosocial factors in the development of depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 21 - What is a correct statement about antipsychotic depots? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a correct statement about antipsychotic depots?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is RCT evidence to suggest that Zuclopenthixol may be more effective in preventing relapses than other first-generation antipsychotic depots

      Explanation:

      , coma, respiratory depression (rare)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 22 - You design an experiment investigating whether 3 different exercise routines each with a...

    Incorrect

    • You design an experiment investigating whether 3 different exercise routines each with a different intensity level affect a person's heart rate to a different degree. Which of the following tests would you use to demonstrate a statistically significant difference between the exercise routines?:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ANOVA

      Explanation:

      Choosing the right statistical test can be challenging, but understanding the basic principles can help. Different tests have different assumptions, and using the wrong one can lead to inaccurate results. To identify the appropriate test, a flow chart can be used based on three main factors: the type of dependent variable, the type of data, and whether the groups/samples are independent of dependent. It is important to know which tests are parametric and non-parametric, as well as their alternatives. For example, the chi-squared test is used to assess differences in categorical variables and is non-parametric, while Pearson’s correlation coefficient measures linear correlation between two variables and is parametric. T-tests are used to compare means between two groups, and ANOVA is used to compare means between more than two groups. Non-parametric equivalents to ANOVA include the Kruskal-Wallis analysis of ranks, the Median test, Friedman’s two-way analysis of variance, and Cochran Q test. Understanding these tests and their assumptions can help researchers choose the appropriate statistical test for their data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 23 - Which one of the following statements would be correct concerning phobias in a...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements would be correct concerning phobias in a 3-year-old girl?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 3-year-old girl will be scared of monsters

      Explanation:

      The types of fear that arise during childhood and adolescence vary depending on the age of the individual. Fear of new things, like strangers, is common at 6 months and peaks at 2 years old. Fear of heights typically starts at 6 to 8 months and intensifies when the child begins to walk. From 3 to 5 years old, children often fear animals, the dark, and monsters. Between 6 and 11 years old, fear of embarrassing social situations, such as being made fun of, may develop. During adolescence, fear of death, failure, social events like parties, and even nuclear war may become more prevalent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 24 - What is the most frequently diagnosed condition in individuals with early onset dementia?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequently diagnosed condition in individuals with early onset dementia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alzheimer's disease

      Explanation:

      Early-Onset Dementia: A Less Common but Broader Differential Diagnosis

      Early-onset dementia refers to the occurrence of dementia before the age of 65, which accounts for only 2% of all people with dementia in the UK. However, the differential diagnosis for early-onset dementia is broader, and younger people are more likely to have a rarer form of dementia. The distribution of diagnoses of dementia differs dramatically between older and younger patients, with Alzheimer’s disease being the most common cause of dementia in both groups. However, it only accounts for a third of cases in younger people, while frontotemporal dementia occurs much more commonly in younger populations. Rarer causes of dementia also occur with greater frequency in the younger population.

      It is worth noting that the majority of Alzheimer’s cases are sporadic in early-onset, but inherited cases are more common. Vascular dementia is the second most common dementia in those under 65, and frontotemporal dementias occur more frequently in the younger population, with up to 50% of patients having a positive family history.

      In summary, early-onset dementia is a less common but important condition to consider, as it presents a broader differential diagnosis and may have a genetic component. Understanding the distribution of diagnoses in younger populations can aid in early detection and appropriate management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 25 - What is the beverage with the highest caffeine content per serving size? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the beverage with the highest caffeine content per serving size?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brewed coffee

      Explanation:

      The caffeine content in brewed coffee is relatively high, with approximately 100 mg per cup. In comparison, tea has a lower caffeine content. Black tea has around 45 mg per cup, while green tea has approximately 25 mg per cup. Instant coffee contains about 60 mg per cup, and a can of Red Bull contains 80 mg of caffeine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 26 - A 56-year-old man presents with a variety of physical symptoms that have been...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents with a variety of physical symptoms that have been present for the past 30 years. Numerous investigations and review by a variety of specialties have indicated no organic basis for his symptoms.

      This is an example of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bodily distress disorder

      Explanation:

      Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 27 - Which of the following factors is believed to have no negative effect on...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors is believed to have no negative effect on sexual function?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lurasidone

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics and Sexual Dysfunction: Causes, Risks, and Management

      Sexual dysfunction is a common side effect of antipsychotic medication, with the highest risk associated with risperidone and haloperidol due to their effect on prolactin levels. Clozapine, olanzapine, quetiapine, aripiprazole, asenapine, and lurasidone are associated with lower rates of sexual dysfunction. The Arizona Sexual Experiences Scale (ASEX) can be used to measure sexual dysfunction before and during treatment. Management options include excluding other causes, watchful waiting, dose reduction, switching to a lower risk agent, adding aripiprazole, considering an antidote medication, of using sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. It is important to address sexual dysfunction to improve quality of life and medication adherence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 28 - A newly admitted elderly patient with dementia has an ECG which shows a...

    Incorrect

    • A newly admitted elderly patient with dementia has an ECG which shows a prolonged QT interval. You request some routine bloods, which of the following would best explain his ECG finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypocalcemia

      Explanation:

      The Maudsley Guidelines 10th Edition state that there are several independent risk factors for QT prolongation, including being female, having hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcemia, and having anorexia nervosa.

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 29 - What is the prognosis for individuals diagnosed with anorexia nervosa? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the prognosis for individuals diagnosed with anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: About half will have recovered within 30 years

      Explanation:

      Anorexia Prognosis

      The long-term outcomes of anorexia are difficult to determine due to high drop-out rates from follow-up. However, one study found that over a 29 year period, half of patients recovered completely, a third recovered partially, 20% had a chronic eating disorder, and 5% died. Factors associated with a poor prognosis include a long duration of hospital care, psychiatric comorbidity, being adopted, growing up in a one-parent household, and having a young mother. Other factors that have been found to contribute to a poor prognosis include lower minimum weight, poor family relationships, failed treatment, late age of onset, and social problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 30 - You are asked to assess a teenage girl with borderline personality disorder who...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to assess a teenage girl with borderline personality disorder who is admitted to one of the general adolescent wards. She discloses to you that she ingested 200 paracetamol tablets an hour ago. However, the nurse in charge expresses skepticism about the patient's account, stating that she frequently fabricates stories. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wait a further 3 hours and take paracetamol levels

      Explanation:

      In cases of paracetamol overdose, it is recommended to measure the levels of the drug in the patient’s system 4 hours after the incident, if possible. Treatment should be based on the results of this test. However, in this particular case, since the patient has sought medical attention early, there is sufficient time to obtain the test results before initiating treatment. Blind treatment is only considered when the levels cannot be measured within 8 hours, of when the patient has ingested more than 150 mg/kg of paracetamol, of when the overdose was taken in a staggered manner of the timing is uncertain, as the test results may not be reliable in such cases.

      Self-Harm and its Management

      Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.

      Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.

      In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.

      For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 31 - What type of sampling method is quota sampling commonly used for in qualitative...

    Incorrect

    • What type of sampling method is quota sampling commonly used for in qualitative research?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Purposive sampling

      Explanation:

      Qualitative research is a method of inquiry that seeks to understand the meaning and experience dimensions of human lives and social worlds. There are different approaches to qualitative research, such as ethnography, phenomenology, and grounded theory, each with its own purpose, role of the researcher, stages of research, and method of data analysis. The most common methods used in healthcare research are interviews and focus groups. Sampling techniques include convenience sampling, purposive sampling, quota sampling, snowball sampling, and case study sampling. Sample size can be determined by data saturation, which occurs when new categories, themes, of explanations stop emerging from the data. Validity can be assessed through triangulation, respondent validation, bracketing, and reflexivity. Analytical approaches include content analysis and constant comparison.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 32 - Which statement about theories concerning selective attention is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about theories concerning selective attention is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Late selection models argue that information is selected after processing for meaning

      Explanation:

      Selective attention involves filtering external stimuli and assigning meaning to things that should get our attention. Three main models have been proposed: Broadbent’s Filter model, Treisman’s Attenuation Theory, and Deutsch and Deutsch’s Late stage model. Broadbent’s model is an early selection model that filters input based on physical characteristics, while Treisman’s model is an intermediate selection model that uses a leaky filter to weaken some stimuli but allow them through. Deutsch and Deutsch’s model is a late selection model that analyzes input for meaning before filtering occurs. Treisman’s model includes a dictionary unit that emphasizes certain words have lower thresholds for getting our attention, such as our own name.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 33 - How can confounding be controlled during the analysis stage of a study? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can confounding be controlled during the analysis stage of a study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stratification

      Explanation:

      Stratification is a method of managing confounding by dividing the data into two or more groups where the confounding variable remains constant of varies minimally.

      Types of Bias in Statistics

      Bias is a systematic error that can lead to incorrect conclusions. Confounding factors are variables that are associated with both the outcome and the exposure but have no causative role. Confounding can be addressed in the design and analysis stage of a study. The main method of controlling confounding in the analysis phase is stratification analysis. The main methods used in the design stage are matching, randomization, and restriction of participants.

      There are two main types of bias: selection bias and information bias. Selection bias occurs when the selected sample is not a representative sample of the reference population. Disease spectrum bias, self-selection bias, participation bias, incidence-prevalence bias, exclusion bias, publication of dissemination bias, citation bias, and Berkson’s bias are all subtypes of selection bias. Information bias occurs when gathered information about exposure, outcome, of both is not correct and there was an error in measurement. Detection bias, recall bias, lead time bias, interviewer/observer bias, verification and work-up bias, Hawthorne effect, and ecological fallacy are all subtypes of information bias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 34 - Which SSRI is known to cause notable withdrawal symptoms in newborns? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which SSRI is known to cause notable withdrawal symptoms in newborns?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paroxetine

      Explanation:

      Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?

      Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 35 - How many levels did Maslow's original model of needs include? ...

    Incorrect

    • How many levels did Maslow's original model of needs include?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs is a theory of motivation introduced by Abraham Maslow. The hierarchy consists of five levels, with the most basic needs at the bottom and the most advanced needs at the top. Maslow proposed that a person would only become concerned with the needs of a particular level when all the needs of the lower levels had been satisfied. The levels include physiological needs, safety needs, social needs, esteem needs, and self-actualization needs. Maslow also made a distinction between D-needs (deficiency needs) and B-needs (being needs), with B-needs allowing us to reach our full potential but only after D-needs have been satisfied. Later in life, Maslow expanded upon the model and included cognitive, aesthetic, and transcendence needs, resulting in an eight-staged model. The cognitive needs include knowledge and understanding, while aesthetic needs involve appreciation and search for beauty. Transcendence needs are motivated by values that transcend beyond the personal self.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 36 - What is the term used to describe the point at which a researcher...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the point at which a researcher chooses to reject a null hypothesis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha level

      Explanation:

      If the p-value is lower than the predetermined alpha level of 0.05, the outcome is considered significant.

      Understanding Hypothesis Testing in Statistics

      In statistics, it is not feasible to investigate hypotheses on entire populations. Therefore, researchers take samples and use them to make estimates about the population they are drawn from. However, this leads to uncertainty as there is no guarantee that the sample taken will be truly representative of the population, resulting in potential errors. Statistical hypothesis testing is the process used to determine if claims from samples to populations can be made and with what certainty.

      The null hypothesis (Ho) is the claim that there is no real difference between two groups, while the alternative hypothesis (H1 of Ha) suggests that any difference is due to some non-random chance. The alternative hypothesis can be one-tailed of two-tailed, depending on whether it seeks to establish a difference of a change in one direction.

      Two types of errors may occur when testing the null hypothesis: Type I and Type II errors. Type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, while Type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

      P-values provide information on statistical significance and help researchers decide if study results have occurred due to chance. The p-value is the probability of obtaining a result that is as large of larger when in reality there is no difference between two groups. The cutoff for the p-value is called the significance level (alpha level), typically set at 0.05. If the p-value is less than the cutoff, the null hypothesis is rejected, and if it is greater or equal to the cut off, the null hypothesis is not rejected. However, the p-value does not indicate clinical significance, which may be too small to be meaningful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 37 - What is the purpose of using bracketing as a method in qualitative research?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the purpose of using bracketing as a method in qualitative research?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Assessing validity

      Explanation:

      Qualitative research is a method of inquiry that seeks to understand the meaning and experience dimensions of human lives and social worlds. There are different approaches to qualitative research, such as ethnography, phenomenology, and grounded theory, each with its own purpose, role of the researcher, stages of research, and method of data analysis. The most common methods used in healthcare research are interviews and focus groups. Sampling techniques include convenience sampling, purposive sampling, quota sampling, snowball sampling, and case study sampling. Sample size can be determined by data saturation, which occurs when new categories, themes, of explanations stop emerging from the data. Validity can be assessed through triangulation, respondent validation, bracketing, and reflexivity. Analytical approaches include content analysis and constant comparison.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Which of the following sedatives is not recommended by the Maudsley Guidelines for...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following sedatives is not recommended by the Maudsley Guidelines for people with hepatic impairment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nitrazepam

      Explanation:

      Sedatives and Liver Disease

      Sedatives are commonly used for their calming effects, but many of them are metabolized in the liver. Therefore, caution must be taken when administering sedatives to patients with liver disease. The Maudsley Guidelines recommend using low doses of the following sedatives in patients with hepatic impairment: lorazepam, oxazepam, temazepam, and zopiclone. It is important to note that zopiclone should also be used with caution and at low doses in this population. Proper management of sedative use in patients with liver disease can help prevent further damage to the liver and improve overall patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 39 - What type of tremor is associated with damage to the cerebellum? ...

    Incorrect

    • What type of tremor is associated with damage to the cerebellum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intention tremor

      Explanation:

      Types of Tremor

      Essential Tremor

      Otherwise known as benign essential tremor, this is the most common type of tremor. It is not associated with any underlying pathology. It usually begins in the 40’s, affects mainly the hands, and is slowly progressive. It tends to worsen with heightened emotion. It usually presents with unilateral upper limb involvement then progresses to both limbs.

      Parkinsonian Tremor

      This tremor is associated with Parkinson’s disease. It is classically described as ‘pill rolling’ due to the characteristic appearance of the fingers.

      Cerebellar Tremor

      Otherwise known as an intention tremor. This is a slow, coarse tremor which gets worse with purposeful movement. This is seen in lithium toxicity (note that the tremor seen as a side effect of long term lithium is fine and classed as physiological).

      Psychogenic Tremor

      Also known as a hysterical tremor. This type of tremor tends to appear and disappear suddenly and is hard to characterise due to its changeable nature. It tends to improve with distraction.

      Physiologic Tremor

      This is a very-low-amplitude fine tremor that is barely visible to the naked eye. It is present in every normal person while maintaining a posture of movement. It becomes enhanced and visible in many conditions such as anxiety, hyperthyroidism, alcohol withdrawal, and as drug induced side effects.

      It is useful to have a basic idea about the frequencies of different types of tremor.

      Type of Tremor Frequency

      Intention 2-3Hz

      Parkinsonian 5Hz

      Essential 7Hz

      Physiological 10Hz

      Psychogenic variable

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 40 - What kind of hallucination is it when a man hears a woman scream...

    Incorrect

    • What kind of hallucination is it when a man hears a woman scream every time the light turns on?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reflex

      Explanation:

      Functional refers to the use of the same type of sensory input.

      Altered Perceptual Experiences

      Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.

      Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.

      Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 41 - A teenager who jumps to a conclusion without enough evidence demonstrates what kind...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager who jumps to a conclusion without enough evidence demonstrates what kind of automatic thinking?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arbitrary inference

      Explanation:

      Negative Automatic Thoughts and Cognitive Distortions

      Negative automatic thoughts, also known as cognitive distortions, are false beliefs that can lead to negative emotions and behaviors. Cognitive therapy uses Socratic questioning to identify and challenge these negative automatic thoughts. Some common cognitive distortions include dichotomous thinking, personalization, overgeneralization, arbitrary inference, selective abstraction, catastrophizing, control fallacies, fallacy of fairness, blaming, shoulds, magnification, minimization, emotional reasoning, fallacy of change, global labeling, always being right, and heaven’s reward fallacy.

      Dichotomous thinking is the tendency to see things as black and white, rather than shades of gray. Personalization involves incorrectly assuming that things happen due to us, even when there is no causal relationship. Overgeneralization is the act of coming to a general conclusion based on a single piece of evidence. Arbitrary inference involves drawing an unjustified conclusion. Selective abstraction, also known as filtering, involves concentrating on the negative while ignoring the positives. Catastrophizing is the act of expecting disaster from relatively trivial events.

      Control fallacies involve believing that we are responsible for everything (internal control fallacy) of nothing (external control fallacy). The fallacy of fairness involves believing that life is fair. Blaming involves holding others responsible for our distress. Shoulds are preconceived rules that we believe, often incorrectly, which makes us angry when others don’t obey them. Magnification involves exaggerating the importance of negative information of experiences, while trivializing of reducing the significance of positive information of experiences. Minimization involves undervaluing positive attributes.

      Emotional reasoning involves believing that what we feel must be true. The fallacy of change involves expecting others to change just because it suits us. Global labeling involves exaggerating and labeling behavior, such as saying I’m a loser when failing at something. Always being right involves the need to be right dominating all other needs. The heaven’s reward fallacy involves expecting our sacrifices to pay off. Magical thinking involves incorrectly believing that our actions influence outcomes.

      Overall, negative automatic thoughts and cognitive distortions can have a significant impact on our mental health and well-being. Identifying and challenging these thoughts can help us develop more positive and realistic beliefs, leading to improved emotional and behavioral outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 42 - What evidence would provide the strongest indication of a diagnosis of borderline personality...

    Incorrect

    • What evidence would provide the strongest indication of a diagnosis of borderline personality disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic feelings of emptiness

      Explanation:

      The only criterion listed in the DSM-5 for the diagnosis of borderline personality disorder is chronic feelings of emptiness. However, in the ICD-11, the condition is diagnosed as personality disorder with borderline pattern, which has almost identical criteria to the DSM-5 borderline personality disorder. The remaining options are from the ICD-11 diagnosis of personality disorder with negative affectivity, which shares some similarities with the borderline qualifier but does not include elements such as efforts to avoid abandonment, chronic feelings of emptiness, and recurrent self-harm.

      Personality Disorder (Borderline)

      History and Terminology

      The term borderline personality disorder originated from early 20th-century theories that the disorder was on the border between neurosis and psychosis. The term borderline was coined by Adolph Stern in 1938. Subsequent attempts to define the condition include Otto Kernberg’s borderline personality organization, which identified key elements such as ego weakness, primitive defense mechanisms, identity diffusion, and unstable reality testing.

      Features

      The DSM-5 and ICD-11 both define borderline personality disorder as a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects, and marked impulsivity. Symptoms include efforts to avoid abandonment, unstable relationships, impulsivity, suicidal behavior, affective instability, chronic feelings of emptiness, difficulty controlling temper, and transient dissociative symptoms.

      Abuse

      Childhood abuse and neglect are extremely common among borderline patients, with up to 87% having suffered some form of trauma. The effect of abuse seems to depend on the stage of psychological development at which it takes place.

      comorbidity

      Borderline PD patients are more likely to receive a diagnosis of major depressive disorder, bipolar disorder, panic disorder, PTSD, OCD, eating disorders, and somatoform disorders.

      Psychological Therapy

      Dialectical Behavioral Therapy (DBT), Mentalization-Based Treatment (MBT), Schema-Focused Therapy (SFT), and Transference-Focused Psychotherapy (TFP) are the main psychological treatments for BPD. DBT is the most well-known and widely available, while MBT focuses on improving mentalization, SFT generates structural changes to a patient’s personality, and TFP examines dysfunctional interpersonal dynamics that emerge in interactions with the therapist in the transference.

      NICE Guidelines

      The NICE guidelines on BPD offer very little recommendations. They do not recommend medication for treatment of the core symptoms. Regarding psychological therapies, they make reference to DBT and MBT being effective but add that the evidence base is too small to draw firm conclusions. They do specifically say Do not use brief psychotherapeutic interventions (of less than 3 months’ duration) specifically for borderline personality disorder of for the individual symptoms of the disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 43 - If citalopram is prescribed to patients with a history of recurrent depression experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • If citalopram is prescribed to patients with a history of recurrent depression experiencing an episode of unipolar depression, the percentage of patients expected to achieve remission according to data from the STAR*D study is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30%

      Explanation:

      The frequently cited effectiveness rate of antidepressants is likely derived from the STAR*D study, which enrolled individuals with a history of recurrent depression and aimed to assess real-world outcomes.

      STAR*D Study

      The STAR*D trial, conducted in the USA, aimed to evaluate the effectiveness of treatments for major depressive disorder in real-world patients. The study involved four levels of treatment, with patients starting at level 1 and progressing to the next level if they did not respond. The outcome measure used was remission, and the study entry criteria were broadly defined to ensure results could be generalized to a wide range of patients.

      A total of 4,041 patients were enrolled in the first level of treatment, making STAR*D the largest prospective clinical trial of depression ever conducted. In level 1, one-third of participants achieved remission, and a further 10-15% responded but not to the point of remission. If treatment with an initial SSRI fails, then one in four patients who choose to switch to another medication will enter remission, regardless of whether the second medication is an SSRI of a medication of a different class. If patients choose to add a medication instead, one in three will get better.

      Overall, the STAR*D study provides valuable insights into the effectiveness of different treatments for major depressive disorder and highlights the importance of considering alternative treatments if initial treatment fails.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 44 - What gene is thought to be abnormal in individuals diagnosed with tuberous sclerosis?...

    Incorrect

    • What gene is thought to be abnormal in individuals diagnosed with tuberous sclerosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: TSC1

      Explanation:

      Rett syndrome is caused by mutations in the MeCP2 gene.

      Tuberous Sclerosis: A Neurocutaneous Syndrome with Psychiatric Comorbidity

      Tuberous sclerosis is a genetic disorder that affects multiple organs, including the brain, and is associated with significant psychiatric comorbidity. This neurocutaneous syndrome is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern with a high penetrance rate of 95%, but its expression can vary widely. The hallmark of this disorder is the growth of multiple non-cancerous tumors in vital organs, including the brain. These tumors result from mutations in one of two tumor suppressor genes, TSC1 and TSC2. The psychiatric comorbidities associated with tuberous sclerosis include autism, ADHD, depression, anxiety, and even psychosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 45 - Which of the options below does not require the utilization of a conditioned...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the options below does not require the utilization of a conditioned stimulus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Temporal conditioning

      Explanation:

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 46 - On which principle does the Id operate? ...

    Incorrect

    • On which principle does the Id operate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pleasure

      Explanation:

      Freud’s Structural Theory: Understanding the Three Areas of the Mind

      According to Freud’s structural model, the human mind is divided into three distinct areas: the Id, the Ego, and the Superego. The Id is the part of the mind that contains instinctive drives and operates on the ‘pleasure principle’. It functions without a sense of time and is governed by ‘primary process thinking’. The Ego, on the other hand, attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality. It operates on the ‘reality principle’ and has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects. It is also home to the defense mechanisms. Finally, the Superego acts as a critical agency, constantly observing a person’s behavior. Freud believed that it developed from the internalized values of a child’s main caregivers. The Superego contains the ‘ego ideal’, which represents ideal attitudes and behavior. It is often referred to as the conscience. Understanding these three areas of the mind is crucial to understanding Freud’s structural theory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 47 - Pharmacokinetics can be described as the study of how drugs are absorbed, distributed,...

    Incorrect

    • Pharmacokinetics can be described as the study of how drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated by the body.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pharmacokinetics is the study of absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of drugs

      Explanation:

      Pharmacokinetics is the study of how drugs are affected by the body. This includes how drugs are absorbed into the bloodstream, distributed throughout the body, metabolized into different forms, and eliminated from the body. The acronym ADME is often used to remember these processes. Absorption refers to the transportation of the drug from the site of administration to the bloodstream. Hydrophobic drugs are absorbed better than hydrophilic ones. Distribution refers to the movement of the drug from the bloodstream to other areas of the body. Metabolism involves the conversion of the drug into different forms, often to make it more easily excreted by the kidneys. This process occurs in two phases, involving reduction of hydrolysis in phase 1 and conjugation in phase 2. Excretion refers to the elimination of the drug from the body, which mainly occurs through the kidneys and biliary system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 48 - What is the most accurate approximation for the concordance of autism in monozygotic...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most accurate approximation for the concordance of autism in monozygotic twins?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 65%

      Explanation:

      Autism and Genetics

      Research has shown that there is a strong genetic component to autism. In fact, siblings of individuals with autism are significantly more likely to develop the disorder than someone in the general population. Twin studies have also demonstrated the high heritability of autism, but have also highlighted the genetic complexity of the disorder. Monozygotic twins have a concordance rate of 60-90%, while dizygotic twins have a concordance rate closer to 30%. Despite this, the molecular genetics of autism is still not well understood. Copy number variations (CNVs) have been implicated, along with a number of candidate genes. Further research is needed to fully understand the genetic basis of autism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 49 - What is a true statement about eating disorders? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about eating disorders?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psychological treatments for binge eating disorder have a limited effect on body weight

      Explanation:

      The 2017 NICE Guidelines advise clinicians to inform individuals with binge eating disorder that psychological treatments focused on addressing binge eating may not have a significant impact on body weight and that weight loss is not the primary goal of therapy. However, it is important to clarify that while CBT-ED does not specifically target weight loss, it can lead to weight reduction in the long run by addressing binge eating behaviors.

      Eating Disorders: NICE Guidelines

      Anorexia:
      For adults with anorexia nervosa, consider individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), of specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). If these are not acceptable, contraindicated, of ineffective, consider eating-disorder-focused focal psychodynamic therapy (FPT). For children and young people, consider anorexia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-AN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Bulimia:
      For adults, the first step is an evidence-based self-help programme. If this is not effective, consider individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Binge Eating Disorder:
      The first step is a guided self-help programme. If this is not effective, offer group of individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer the same treatments recommended for adults. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Advice for those with eating disorders:
      Encourage people with an eating disorder who are vomiting to avoid brushing teeth immediately after vomiting, rinse with non-acid mouthwash, and avoid highly acidic foods and drinks. Advise against misusing laxatives of diuretics and excessive exercise.

      Additional points:
      Do not offer physical therapy as part of treatment. Consider bone mineral density scans after 1 year of underweight in children and young people, of 2 years in adults. Do not routinely offer oral of transdermal oestrogen therapy to treat low bone mineral density in children of young people with anorexia nervosa. Consider transdermal 17-β-estradiol of bisphosphonates for women with anorexia nervosa.

      Note: These guidelines are taken from NICE guidelines 2017.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 50 - A 7-year-old girl has been referred to your clinic due to concerns raised...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl has been referred to your clinic due to concerns raised by her parents and teachers regarding her inability to focus, impulsivity, and restlessness, which have negatively impacted her academic performance. Which genetic polymorphism is most pertinent to the development of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Human dopamine transporter gene (DAT1)

      Explanation:

      The genetic polymorphisms that are associated with the development of hyperkinetic disorder (ADHD) include dopamine transporter (DAT1) and dopamine receptor related (DRD4). On the other hand, DBP, DISC1, and NRG are polymorphisms that are relevant to schizophrenia, while APP is associated with Alzheimer’s disease. Additionally, the DISC1 gene is believed to increase the likelihood of developing bipolar disorder and major depressive disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

History And Mental State (1/1) 100%
Social Psychology (1/1) 100%
Old Age Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
General Adult Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Forensic Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Classification And Assessment (0/1) 0%
Psychotherapy (0/1) 0%
Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice (1/1) 100%
Child And Adolescent Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
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