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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old man is admitted to the gastroenterology ward with a flare-up of...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is admitted to the gastroenterology ward with a flare-up of his Crohn's disease. He has been experiencing up to 6 bowel movements per day for the past 2 weeks and has lost around 5kg in weight.

      What are the expected biochemical abnormalities in this clinical scenario?

      Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis, raised anion gap, hyperkalaemia

      Correct Answer: Metabolic acidosis, normal anion gap, hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Prolonged diarrhoea can lead to a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis and hypokalaemia. This is due to the loss of potassium and other electrolytes through the gastrointestinal tract. The anion gap remains within normal limits despite the metabolic acidosis caused by diarrhoea. It is important to monitor electrolyte levels in patients with prolonged diarrhoea to prevent complications.

      Understanding Metabolic Acidosis

      Metabolic acidosis is a condition that can be classified based on the anion gap, which is calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate from the sum of sodium and potassium. The normal range for anion gap is 10-18 mmol/L. If a question provides the chloride level, it may be an indication to calculate the anion gap.

      Hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis is a type of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap. It can be caused by gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss, prolonged diarrhea, ureterosigmoidostomy, fistula, renal tubular acidosis, drugs like acetazolamide, ammonium chloride injection, and Addison’s disease. On the other hand, raised anion gap metabolic acidosis is caused by lactate, ketones, urate, acid poisoning, and other factors.

      Lactic acidosis is a type of metabolic acidosis that is caused by high lactate levels. It can be further classified into two types: lactic acidosis type A, which is caused by sepsis, shock, hypoxia, and burns, and lactic acidosis type B, which is caused by metformin. Understanding the different types and causes of metabolic acidosis is important in diagnosing and treating the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      117.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 39-year-old man presents to his doctor with a complaint of right hip...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old man presents to his doctor with a complaint of right hip pain that has been bothering him for the past 2 days. He had received his travel vaccinations via intramuscular injection to his buttock just 3 days ago.

      Upon examination, the doctor notes slight tenderness over the right hip, reduced range of motion, and pain when the patient resists hip abduction. Additionally, when the patient raises his right leg while standing, the pelvis on the same side drops downward.

      Which anatomical structure is most likely to be affected in this case?

      Your Answer: Superior gluteal nerve

      Explanation:

      The patient exhibits a positive Trendelenburg sign, indicating weakness in the gluteus medius and minimus muscles responsible for hip abduction and pelvic stabilization. This is likely due to injury to the superior gluteal nerve. In contrast, injuries to the inferior gluteal nerve affect the gluteus maximus muscle and result in difficulty rising from a seated position or climbing stairs. The femoral nerve is responsible for knee extension and does not play a role in hip abduction. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh causes pain in the posterolateral aspect of the thigh but does not cause motor impairment, while the obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and does not cause a positive Trendelenburg sign.

      Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteral lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      39.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old male has been diagnosed with a transverse colon carcinoma. What is...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male has been diagnosed with a transverse colon carcinoma. What is the recommended structure to ligate near its origin for optimal tumor clearance?

      Your Answer: Middle colic artery

      Explanation:

      During cancer resections, the transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery, which is a branch of the superior mesenteric artery and requires ligation at a high level.

      The Transverse Colon: Anatomy and Relations

      The transverse colon is a part of the large intestine that begins at the hepatic flexure, where the right colon makes a sharp turn. At this point, it becomes intraperitoneal and is connected to the inferior border of the pancreas by the transverse mesocolon. The middle colic artery and vein are contained within the mesentery. The greater omentum is attached to the superior aspect of the transverse colon, which can be easily separated. The colon undergoes another sharp turn at the splenic flexure, where the greater omentum remains attached up to this point. The distal 1/3 of the transverse colon is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery.

      The transverse colon is related to various structures. Superiorly, it is in contact with the liver, gallbladder, the greater curvature of the stomach, and the lower end of the spleen. Inferiorly, it is related to the small intestine. Anteriorly, it is in contact with the greater omentum, while posteriorly, it is in contact with the descending portion of the duodenum, the head of the pancreas, convolutions of the jejunum and ileum, and the spleen. Understanding the anatomy and relations of the transverse colon is important for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating various gastrointestinal conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      73.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is another term for the pre-test probability? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is another term for the pre-test probability?

      Your Answer: The incidence of a condition

      Correct Answer: The prevalence of a condition

      Explanation:

      The prevalence refers to the percentage of individuals in a population who currently have a particular condition, while the incidence refers to the frequency at which new cases of the condition arise within a specific timeframe.

      Understanding Pre- and Post-Test Odds and Probability

      When it comes to medical testing, it’s important to understand the concepts of pre-test and post-test probability and odds. Pre-test probability refers to the proportion of people with a particular disorder in a given population before any testing is done. For example, the prevalence of rheumatoid arthritis in the UK is 1%. Post-test probability, on the other hand, refers to the proportion of patients with a particular test result who actually have the target disorder.

      To calculate post-test probability, you need to know the post-test odds, which is the odds that the patient has the target disorder after the test is carried out. To calculate post-test odds, you first need to know the pre-test odds, which is the odds that the patient has the target disorder before the test is carried out. Pre-test odds can be calculated by dividing the pre-test probability by 1 minus the pre-test probability.

      To calculate post-test odds, you need to know the likelihood ratio for a positive test result, which is the sensitivity divided by 1 minus the specificity. Once you have the likelihood ratio, you can multiply it by the pre-test odds to get the post-test odds. Finally, to get the post-test probability, you divide the post-test odds by 1 plus the post-test odds. Understanding these concepts can help healthcare professionals interpret test results and make informed decisions about patient care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 59-year-old male visits the doctor complaining of a slow development of memory...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old male visits the doctor complaining of a slow development of memory loss and diarrhoea. During the examination, a dermatitis rash is observed around his neck, leading to a diagnosis of pellagra. What vitamin deficiency is responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Niacin (B3)

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Vitamin B3 (Niacin) in the Body

      Vitamin B3, also known as niacin, is a type of water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It is a crucial nutrient that serves as a precursor to NAD+ and NADP+, which are essential for various metabolic processes in the body. Niacin is synthesized in the body from tryptophan, an amino acid found in protein-rich foods. However, certain conditions such as Hartnup’s disease and carcinoid syndrome can reduce the absorption of tryptophan or increase its metabolism to serotonin, leading to niacin deficiency.

      Niacin deficiency can result in a condition called pellagra, which is characterized by a triad of symptoms: dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia. Pellagra is a serious condition that can lead to severe health complications if left untreated. Therefore, it is important to ensure that you are getting enough niacin in your diet or through supplements to maintain optimal health and prevent the risk of niacin deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      1094
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the obligate intracellular pathogen that can cause respiratory and genital tract...

    Correct

    • What is the obligate intracellular pathogen that can cause respiratory and genital tract infections?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia species

      Explanation:

      The obligate intracellular pathogen that can cause respiratory and genital tract infections is Chlamydia trachomatis.

      Chlamydia trachomatis is a bacterium that can cause a variety of infections in humans, including respiratory infections such as pneumonia and genital tract infections such as urethritis, cervicitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). It is transmitted through sexual contact and can also be transmitted from mother to newborn during childbirth, leading to neonatal conjunctivitis and pneumonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You are asked to clerk a 73-year-old-man who presented with a fall. He...

    Correct

    • You are asked to clerk a 73-year-old-man who presented with a fall. He was seen by the stroke team who requested a CT head. This excluded an intracranial haemorrhage and he was started on aspirin. When you enter the cubicle, you notice the patient has a right-sided facial droop.

      What type of speech disturbance does this patient have? You start taking a history but find it difficult to understand what he says. He is unable to get the words out easily and his speech is non-fluent as if hesitating before uttering the words.

      During the cranial nerve examination, he understood and followed your instructions well. However, he is unable to repeat words after you.

      Your Answer: Broca's dysphasia

      Explanation:

      This man experienced a stroke that affected Broca’s area, resulting in Broca’s dysphasia. This condition causes non-fluent speech, but normal comprehension, and impaired repetition. Despite knowing what they want to say, patients with Broca’s dysphasia struggle to articulate their words. They can understand instructions, but have difficulty repeating words. This is different from conductive dysphasia, which presents with fluent speech but an inability to repeat words. Dysarthria, on the other hand, is characterized by difficulty articulating words due to a lack of coordination in the muscles of speech. Global aphasia is the inability to understand, repeat, and produce speech, which was not the case for this patient as they were able to understand instructions.

      Types of Aphasia: Understanding the Different Forms of Language Impairment

      Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of symptoms and underlying causes. Wernicke’s aphasia, also known as receptive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus. This area is responsible for forming speech before sending it to Broca’s area. People with Wernicke’s aphasia may speak fluently, but their sentences often make no sense, and they may use word substitutions and neologisms. Comprehension is impaired.

      Broca’s aphasia, also known as expressive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus. This area is responsible for speech production. People with Broca’s aphasia may speak in a non-fluent, labored, and halting manner. Repetition is impaired, but comprehension is normal.

      Conduction aphasia is caused by a stroke affecting the arcuate fasciculus, the connection between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area. People with conduction aphasia may speak fluently, but their repetition is poor. They are aware of the errors they are making, but comprehension is normal.

      Global aphasia is caused by a large lesion affecting all three areas mentioned above, resulting in severe expressive and receptive aphasia. People with global aphasia may still be able to communicate using gestures. Understanding the different types of aphasia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      146.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old male is diagnosed with hypertension with a blood pressure reading of...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male is diagnosed with hypertension with a blood pressure reading of 180/100 mmHg during ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. The physician prescribes Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor. What is the most frequent adverse effect associated with this medication?

      Your Answer: A dry cough

      Explanation:

      Hypotension, particularly on the first dose, and deterioration of renal function are common side effects of ACE inhibitors in patients. Although angioedema is a rare side effect of ACE inhibitors, oedema is typically associated with calcium channel blockers. Diuretics may cause excessive urine output, while shortness of breath and headaches are uncommon.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Regarding the placebo effect, which of the following is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the placebo effect, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: Placebo responders have a characteristic personality type

      Correct Answer: The effects of placebos tend to be short lived

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Placebo Effect

      The placebo effect refers to the phenomenon where a patient experiences an improvement in their condition after receiving an inert substance or treatment that has no inherent pharmacological activity. This can include a sugar pill or a sham procedure that mimics a real medical intervention. The placebo effect is influenced by various factors, such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the patient’s expectations.

      It is important to note that the placebo effect is not the same as receiving no care, as patients who maintain contact with medical services tend to have better outcomes. The placebo response is also greater in mild illnesses and can be difficult to separate from spontaneous remission. Patients who enter randomized controlled trials (RCTs) are often acutely unwell, and their symptoms may improve regardless of the intervention.

      The placebo effect has been extensively studied in depression, where it tends to be abrupt and early in treatment, and less likely to persist compared to improvement from antidepressants. Placebo sag refers to a situation where the placebo effect is diminished with repeated use.

      Overall, the placebo effect is a complex phenomenon that is influenced by various factors and can have significant implications for medical research and treatment. Understanding the placebo effect can help healthcare professionals provide better care and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 60-year-old man complains of excessive urination and increased thirst. You want to...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man complains of excessive urination and increased thirst. You want to examine for diabetes insipidus.

      What is the most suitable test to conduct?

      Your Answer: Vasopressin

      Correct Answer: Water deprivation test

      Explanation:

      The water deprivation test is a diagnostic tool for investigating diabetes insipidus. The Short Synacthen test is utilized to diagnose Addison’s disease. Cranial diabetes insipidus can be treated with Desmopressin, while nephrogenic diabetes insipidus can be treated with thiazide diuretics.

      Diabetes insipidus is a medical condition that can be caused by either a decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from the pituitary gland (cranial DI) or an insensitivity to ADH (nephrogenic DI). Cranial DI can be caused by various factors such as head injury, pituitary surgery, and infiltrative diseases like sarcoidosis. On the other hand, nephrogenic DI can be caused by genetic factors, electrolyte imbalances, and certain medications like lithium and demeclocycline. The common symptoms of DI are excessive urination and thirst. Diagnosis is made through a water deprivation test and checking the osmolality of the urine. Treatment options include thiazides and a low salt/protein diet for nephrogenic DI, while central DI can be treated with desmopressin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      8.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Renal System (0/2) 0%
Musculoskeletal System And Skin (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal System (1/1) 100%
General Principles (1/3) 33%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Neurological System (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular System (1/1) 100%
Passmed