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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following features is characteristic of acute intermittent porphyria?
Your Answer: Photosensitivity
Correct Answer: Increased urinary porphobilinogen between acute attacks
Explanation:Urinary porphobilinogen is increased between attacks of acute intermittent porphyria (AIP) and even more so, between acute attacks.
AIP is a rare autosomal dominant condition caused by a defect in porphobilinogen deaminase, an enzyme involved in the biosynthesis of haem. This results in the toxic accumulation of delta-aminolaevulinic acid and porphobilinogen.
Abdominal and neuropsychiatric symptoms are characteristic of AIP especially in people between the ages of 20–40 years. The disease is more common in females than in males (5:1). Major signs and symptoms of AIP include abdominal pain, vomiting, motor neuropathy, hypertension, tachycardia, and depression.
Diagnosis:
1. Urine turns deep red on standing (classical picture of AIP)
2. Raised urinary porphobilinogen (elevated between attacks and to a greater extent, between acute attacks)
3. Raised serum levels of delta-aminolaevulinic acid and porphobilinogen
4. Assay of red blood cells for porphobilinogen deaminase -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A female in her early 20's who has been diagnosed with asthma for the past four years visits the office for a review. She has been using Beclomethasone dipropionate inhaler 200mcg bd along with Salbutamol inhaler 100mcg prn and her asthma is still uncontrolled. Her chest examination is clear and she has good inhaler technique. What would be the most appropriate next step in the management of her asthma?
Your Answer: Increase beclomethasone dipropionate to 400mcg bd
Correct Answer: Add a leukotriene receptor antagonist
Explanation:The NICE 2017 guidelines state that in patients who are uncontrolled with a SABA (Salbutamol) and ICS (Inhaled corticosteroid e.g. Beclomethasone), a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) should be added.
If asthma is uncontrolled in adults (aged 17 and over) on a low dose of ICS as maintenance therapy, offer a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) in addition to the ICS and review the response to treatment in 4 to 8 weeks.This recommendation is also stated in NICE 2019 guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 3
Correct
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Which one of the following is most suggestive of Wilson’s disease?
Your Answer: Reduced serum caeruloplasmin
Explanation:In Wilson’s disease, serum caeruloplasmin is decreased. Skin pigmentation is not increased, but may become jaundiced. 24 hour urine copper excretion is increased. Hepatic copper concentration is increased. Serum copper level is also increased. Key point: high copper. Remember Kayser-Fleisher rings for the eyes in Wilson’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Correct
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In chemotherapy, what is the rationale behind using combinations of chemotherapeutic agents rather than single agents?
Your Answer: Combination therapy decreases the chances of drug resistance developing
Explanation:There are two main reasons for using combinations of chemotherapeutic agents rather than single agents. First, different drugs exert their effects through different mechanisms, therefore, carefully combining them will increase the number of tumour cells killed in each cycle as well as decrease their chances of developing drug resistance. Second, there may be an even greater effect with drugs that are synergistic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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An 12 year old girl is taken to the clinic for a review. Despite being normally fit and well and not visiting a doctor for the past four years, her father is concerned about her behaviour in the past week. The girl has expressed plans to run for president, is active with planning all through the night and seems overtly excited. When asked, she admits to smoking cannabis once a few months ago and has drank alcohol a few times in the past year. The last time she had alcohol was a week ago. Prior to her deterioration a few weeks ago her father describes her as a happy, well-adjusted, sociable girl. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Alcoholic hallucinosis
Correct Answer: Mania
Explanation:Mania is a state of extreme physical and emotional elation. A person experiencing mania or a manic episode may present with the following symptoms:
-Elevated mood. The person feels extremely ‘high’, happy and full of energy; he or she may describe the experience as feeling on top of the world and invincible. The person may shift rapidly from an elevated,
happy mood to being angry and irritable if they perceive they have been obstructed.
-Increased energy and overactivity. The person may have great difficulty remaining still.
-Reduced need for sleep or food. The person may be too active to eat or sleep.
-Irritability. The person may become angry and irritated with those who disagree with or dismiss his or her sometimes unrealistic plans or ideas.
-Rapid thinking and speech. The person’s thoughts and speech are more rapid than usual.
-Grandiose plans and beliefs. It is quite common for a person in a hypomanic or manic state to believe that he or she is unusually talented or gifted or has special friends in power. For example, the person may believe that he or she is on a special mission from God.
-Lack of insight. A person in a hypomanic or manic state may understand that other people see his or her ideas and actions as inappropriate, reckless or irrational. However, he or she is unlikely to personally accept that the behaviour is inappropriate, due to a lack of insight.
– Distractibility. The person has difficulty maintaining attention and may not be able to filter out external stimuli.Careful assessment to rule out organic conditions is an important first step in the management of mania. Often hospitalisation is required for someone who is experiencing acute mania. Both mood-stabilising agents such as lithium carbonate or sodium valproate and an antipsychotic may be needed to treat psychotic symptoms, agitation, thought disorder and sleeping difficulties. Benzodiazepines may be useful to reduce hyperactivity. Treatment with lithium alone may have a relatively slow response rate (up to two weeks after a therapeutic blood level is established), so that adjunctive medication such as sodium valproate is usually required. Regular monitoring of blood levels for lithium and valproate is essential because of the potential for toxicity.
The symptoms of hypomania are similar to those of mania: elevated mood, inflated self-esteem, decreased need for sleep, etc. except that they don’t significantly impact a person’s daily function and never include any psychotic symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents with asymptomatic enlargement of his cervical lymph nodes. Full blood count shows low-grade anaemia, leucocytosis, and thrombocytopaenia. Lymph node biopsy is suggestive of a low-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma. Which two of the following statements fit best with this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Extra-nodal presentation is more common in non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) than in Hodgkin lymphoma (HL). Bone marrow infiltration is more common in low-grade than in high-grade NHLs.
Low-grade NHL is predominantly a disease of older people. Most present with advanced disease, bone marrow infiltration being almost invariable. Anaemia, leucocytosis, and/or thrombocytopaenia in a patient are suggestive of bone marrow involvement. For definitive diagnosis, lymph node biopsy is sufficient.
The other aforementioned statements are ruled out because:
1. Renal impairment in NHL usually occurs as a consequence of ureteric obstruction secondary to intra-abdominal or pelvic lymph node enlargement.2. Burkitt lymphoma is a high-grade NHL, which was first described in children in West Africa who presented with a jaw tumour, extra-nodal abdominal involvement, and ovarian tumours. It develops most often in children or young adults and is uncommon in older people.
3. High-grade lymphomas are potentially curable. They have a better prognosis and are responsive to chemotherapy unlike low-grade lymphomas, which are incurable with conventional therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man known to have renal cell carcinoma, is currently undergoing treatment. He presents to the acute medical ward with one month history of worsening central lower back pain, which becomes worse at night and cannot be managed with an analgesia at home. He has no other new symptoms. Out of the following, which investigation should be performed next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MRI whole spine
Explanation:An MRI whole spine should be performed in a patient suspected of spinal metastasis which can occur before developing metastatic spinal cord compression. This patient has renal cell carcinoma, which readily metastasises to the bones and also has progressive back pain. He, therefore, needs urgent imaging of his spine before any neurological compromise develops. MRI whole spine is preferable because patients with spinal metastasis often have metastases at multiple levels within the spine. Plain radiographs and CT scans should not be performed as they have a lower sensitivity for revealing lesions and cannot exclude cord compression.
In general, imaging should be performed within one week if symptoms suspicious of spinal metastasis without neurological symptoms are present. If there are symptoms suggestive of malignant spinal cord compression, then imaging should be done within 24 hours.
The signs and symptoms of spinal metastases include:
1. Unrelenting lumbar back pain
2. Thoracic or cervical back pain
3. Pain associated with tenderness and worsens with sneezing, coughing, or straining
4. Nocturnal pain -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 60 yr. old male patient with NSTEMI was started on low dose aspirin as secondary prevention. Which of the following, describe the action of aspirin as an antiplatelet agent?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibits the production of thromboxane A2
Explanation:The antithrombotic action of aspirin is due to inhibition of platelet function by acetylation of the platelet cyclooxygenase (COX) at the functionally important amino acid serine529. This prevents the access of the substrate (arachidonic aid) to the catalytic site of the enzyme at tyrosine385 and results in an irreversible inhibition of platelet-dependent thromboxane formation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is referred to the oncology clinic by a general surgeon. She has undergone mastectomy for carcinoma of the right breast. Out of the following, which factor is associated with a poor prognosis in patients with breast cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Young age
Explanation:Poor prognostic factors for breast cancer include:
1. Young age (<40 years)
2. Premenopausal at the time of diagnosis
3. Increased tumour size
4. High-grade tumour
5. Oestrogen and progesterone receptor-negative tumour
6. Positive lymph node status -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman presents with hirsutism and oligomenorrhea for the last five years. She is very anxious about her irregular menses and worried as her mother was diagnosed with uterine cancer recently. She is a lawyer and does not want to conceive, at least for the next couple of years. The examination is essentially normal except for coarse dark hair being noticed under her chin and over her lower back. Investigations done during the follicular phase: Serum androstenedione 10.1 nmol/l (0.6-8.8), Serum dehydroepiandrosterone sulphate 11.6 Ù‰mol/l (2-10), Serum 17-hydroxyprogesterone 5.6 nmol/l (1-10), Serum oestradiol 220 pmol/l (200-400), Serum testosterone 3.6 nmol/l (0.5-3), Serum sex hormone binding protein 32 nmol/l (40-137), Plasma luteinising hormone 3.3 U/l (2.5-10), Plasma follicle-stimulating hormone 3.6 U/l (2.5-10). What is the most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Combined OCP
Explanation:This patient has polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). Medical management of PCOS is aimed at the treatment of metabolic derangements, anovulation, hirsutism, and menstrual irregularity.
First-line medical therapy usually consists of an oral contraceptive to induce regular menses. The contraceptive not only inhibits ovarian androgen production but also increases sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) production. The American College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (ACOG) recommends the use of combination low-dose hormonal contraceptive agents for long-term management of menstrual dysfunction.
If symptoms such as hirsutism are not sufficiently alleviated, an androgen-blocking agent may be added. Pregnancy should be excluded before therapy with oral contraceptives or androgen-blocking agents are started.
First-line treatment for ovulation induction when fertility is desired is clomiphene citrate. Second-line strategies may be equally effective in infertile women with clomiphene citrate–resistant PCOS. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman is referred to urogynaecology with symptoms of urge incontinence. A trial of bladder retraining is unsuccessful. It is therefore decided to use a muscarinic antagonist. Which one of the following medications is an example of a muscarinic antagonist?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tolterodine
Explanation:A muscarinic receptor antagonist (MRA) is a type of anticholinergic agent that blocks the activity of the muscarinic acetylcholine receptor. There are six antimuscarinic drugs currently marketed for the treatment of urge incontinence: oxybutynin, tolterodine, propiverine, trospium, darifenacin, and solifenacin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy suffers recurrent episodes of haematuria following a flu-like illness. He is otherwise well. Physical examination is normal. Urinalysis reveals no proteinuria, blood ++, and 2–3 white blood cells/mm3.  What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy
Explanation:IgA nephropathy’s characteristic presentation is haematuria following a non-specific upper respiratory infection as was evident in this case. IgA nephropathy also usually occurs in children and young males, like this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old pregnant female in her first trimester met a child with chickenpox. She was investigated for the varicella antibody, which came back negative. She visited her GP. Which of the following measures is the most appropriate one?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ig
Explanation:After the exposure to chickenpox while pregnant, even if the patient is negative for antibodies she requires immunoglobulin to prevent further issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old psychologist with small cell lung cancer complains of muscle weakness. Each one of the following are features of Lambert-Eaton syndrome, except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Repeated muscle contractions lead to decreased muscle strength
Explanation:In myasthenia gravis, repeated muscle contractions lead to reduced muscle strength. The opposite is however classically seen in the related disorder Lambert-Eaton syndrome. Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome is seen in association with small cell lung cancer, and to a lesser extent breast and ovarian cancer. It may also occur independently as an autoimmune disorder. Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome is caused by an antibody directed against pre-synaptic voltage gated calcium channel in the peripheral nervous system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A neonate was brought in by her mother, for a skin lesion present over the neonate's back which is bluish in colour, but otherwise asymptomatic. The most appropriate course of action will be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure
Explanation:A Mongolian spot can be present in new born babies which usually appears over the back and fades with time. There is nothing to worry about.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 52 year old female, known case of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the clinic with dyspnoea, cough, and intermittent pleuritic chest pain. She was previously taking second line agents Salazopyrine and gold previously and has now started Methotrexate with folic acid replacement a few months back. Pulmonary function tests reveal restrictive lung pattern and CXR reveals pulmonary infiltrates. Which of the following treatments is most suitable in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop methotrexate
Explanation:Methotrexate lung disease (pneumonitis and fibrosis) is the specific etiological type of drug-induced lung disease. It can occur due to the administration of methotrexate which is an antimetabolite, which is given as disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. The typical clinical symptoms include progressive shortness of breath and cough, often associated with fever. Hypoxemia and tachypnoea are always present and crackles are frequently audible. Symptoms typically manifest within months of starting therapy. Methotrexate withdrawal is indicated in such cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 22 year old man is being evaluated for chronic lower backache. Which of the following would most strongly point towards the diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced lateral flexion of the lumbar spine
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis (spondylarthritis) is a chronic inflammatory disease of the axial skeleton that leads to partial or even complete fusion and rigidity of the spine. Males are disproportionately affected and upwards of 90% of patients are positive for the HLA-B27 genotype, which predisposes to the disease. The most characteristic early finding is pain and stiffness in the neck and lower back, caused by inflammation of the vertebral column and the sacroiliac joints. The pain typically improves with activity and is especially prominent at night. Other articular findings include tenderness to percussion and displacement of the sacroiliac joints (Mennell’s sign), as well as limited spine mobility, which can progress to restrictive pulmonary disease.
The most common extra-articular manifestation is acute, unilateral anterior uveitis. Diagnosis is primarily based on symptoms and x-ray of the sacroiliac joints, with HLA-B27 testing and MRI reserved for inconclusive cases. There is no curative treatment, but regular physiotherapy can slow progression of the disease. Additionally, NSAIDs and/or tumour necrosis factor-α inhibitors may improve symptoms. In severe cases, surgery may be considered to improve quality of life. The spine adopts a bamboo shape, not lordosis. The pain usually improves as the day progresses. leg raise test causes pain in cases of meningitis etc not in this case. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old gentleman is found dead in his apartment. He was known to be suffering from primary systemic amyloidosis. What is the most probable cause for his death?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cardiac involvement
Explanation:Primary amyloidosis is characterised by abnormal protein build-up in the tissues and organ such as the heart, liver, spleen, kidneys, skin, ligaments, and nerves. However, the most common cause of death in patients with primary amyloidosis is heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old woman is admitted to the oncologist clinic for further investigations. She has experienced fever, sometimes glandular and night sweats. Clinical examination reveals lymphadenopathy and a biopsy is performed. The biopsy reveals the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, confirming what was suspected to be a Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which cell surface marker is associated with this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CD15
Explanation:The CD15 antigen, also known as Lewis (hapten)X, serves as an immuno-phenotypic marker for Reed-Sternberg cells and its expression has diagnostic, but also prognostic significance in Hodgkin Lymphoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old lady, known with a history of Type 1 diabetes presents to the clinic with increasing tiredness, mild upper abdominal discomfort and itching. The GP has arranged some investigations prior to her clinic visit. Investigations; Hb 13.2 g/dL, WCC 5.0 x109/L, PLT 240 x109/L, Na+ 140 mmol/L, K+ 4.9 mmol/L, Creatinine 90 μmol/L, HbA1c 8.3%, Anti-Smooth muscle antibody: positive, Immunoglobulins increased. Which of the following would be the next appropriate investigation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Liver function testing
Explanation:The key to this question is anti-smooth muscle antibodies. This is a finding of autoimmune hepatitis, which can be seen in type I diabetics. This also fits with her clinical picture. If you know these two facts, you should get every question correct regarding autoimmune hepatitis. Liver function testing is the best answer, then and should be elevated to indicate inflammation of the liver. Hepatic US, CK, thyroid function testing, short synacthen test are not helpful in the diagnosis of autoimmune hepatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 25 yr. old female presented with a history of sudden collapse. She had been playing netball and had suddenly collapsed. This collapse had been accompanied by a brief period of loss of consciousness. She experienced palpitations for a brief period prior to losing consciousness. On examination her BP was 120/70 mmHg and pulse rate was 72 bpm, which was regular. The rest of the examination was also normal. She had similar experience of collapse, about two years ago. She was well except for these two incidents and she has not been on any medication. All the investigations done at the first presentation (2 years ago), including FBC, ECG and echocardiography were normal. Her ECG done at this presentation revealed QT prolongation of 0.50 s. FBC, CXR and other investigations were normal. Which of the following is the best way of managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start on a beta-blocker
Explanation:Beta-blockers are drugs of choice for patients with LQTS. The protective effect of beta-blockers is related to their adrenergic blockade, which diminishes the risk of cardiac arrhythmias. They may also reduce the QT interval in some patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl comes to clinic complaining of primary amenorrhoea, despite having developed secondary sexual characteristics at 11 years of age. On examination, she has well-developed breasts and small bilateral groin swellings. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome
Explanation:Androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS), previously referred to as testicular feminization, is an X-linked disorder in which the patients are genotypically male (possessing and X and Y chromosome) and phenotypically female. This disorder is rare, with reported incidences from 1 in 20,000 to 1 in 60,000 live male births, and is the result of a missing gene on the X chromosome that is responsible for the cytoplasmic or nuclear testosterone receptor. In its absence, the gonad, which is a testis, produces normal amounts of testosterone; however, the end tissues are unable to respond due to the deficient receptors leading to the external genitalia developing in a female fashion. Anti-mullerian hormone, which is produced by the testis, is normal in these patients, leading to regression of the Mullerian duct. Wolffian duct development, which depends on testosterone, does not occur as the ducts lack the receptors.
The cumulative effect is a genotypic male with normal external female genitalia (without pubic or axillary hair), no menses, normal breast development, short or absent vagina, no internal sex organs, and the presence of testis. Frequently, these patients have bilateral inguinal hernias in childhood, and their presence should arouse suspicion of the diagnosis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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How should DVT during pregnancy be managed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dalteparin
Explanation:Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is the preferred treatment for most patients with acute DVT, including in pregnancy. A large meta-analyses comparing LMWH to unfractionated heparin (UFH) showed that LMWH decreased the risk of mortality, recurrent veno-thrombo embolism (VTE), and haemorrhage compared with heparin. Other advantages of LMWH may include more predictable therapeutic response, ease of administration and monitoring, and less heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Disadvantages of LMWH include cost and longer half-life compared with heparin.
Warfarin, which is administered orally, is used if long-term anticoagulation is needed. The international normalized ratio (INR) is followed, with a target range of 2-3. Warfarin crosses the placenta and is teratogenic, causing a constellation of anomalies known as warfarin embryopathy, with greatest risk between the sixth and twelfth week of gestation.
Other options are not indicated for use. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A literature review of a number of studies was conducted to assess the potential efficacy of a new drug, which may reduce the chance of patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) developing gout. In one study 120 out of 1,200 patients receiving the new drug developed gout. The total number of the patients were 2,000 and the remaining 800 individuals received a placebo. From the patients that had received the placebo, 200 developed gout. What is the absolute risk reduction of developing gout?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 15%
Explanation:Absolute risk reduction (ARR) – also called risk difference (RD) – is the most useful way of presenting research results to help your decision-making. Absolute risk reduction = (Control event rate) – (Experimental event rate) = 0.15 = 15%
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Hepatitis C is what kind of virus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A variable RNA virus
Explanation:Hepatitis C is a single-stranded positive sense RNA virus. It is variable because of the high rate of error of RNA-dependent RNA polymerase and the pressure from the host immune system has caused HCV to evolve and develop seven genetic lineages.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which of the following is associated with heterochromia in congenital disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Horner's syndrome
Explanation:Heterochromia (difference in iris colour) is seen in congenital Horner’s syndrome, as well as anhidrosis. Other features of non-congenital Horner’s include miosis, ptosis and enophthalmos.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 70 yr. old male patient presented with chronic congestive heart failure. Which of the following is the most important factor to consider when prescribing drugs for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administration of a B-blocker reduces the time spent in hospital
Explanation:It is proven that spironolactone has survival benefits and loop diuretics only give symptomatic relief. Beta blockers are however, known to improve exercise tolerance, left ventricular function and reduce symptoms. They also reduce the mortality associated with heart failure. So administration of beta blockers will reduce the time spent in hospital by improving symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old male is admitted after drinking engine coolant in an apparent suicide attempt. Lab investigations reveal: pH 7.1 (7.36-7.44) pO2 15.3 kPa (11.3-12.6) pCO2 3.2 kPa (4.7-6.0) Standard bicarbonate 2.2 mmol/L (20-28) Serum calcium 1.82 mmol/L (2.2-2.6) After replacing calcium, which of the following is the most urgent treatment for this man?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 8.4% bicarbonate infusion
Explanation:Carbon monoxide has high affinity for haemoglobin and myoglobin resulting in a left-shift of the oxygen dissociation curve and tissue hypoxia. There are approximately 50 deaths per year from accidental carbon monoxide poisoning in the UK. In these circumstances, antidotal therapy to block alcohol dehydrogenase with ethanol or 4-MP alone is insufficient to treat the poisoning. Data suggest that a severe lactic acidosis needs initial correction and in this patient the most appropriate treatment would be IV fluids with bicarbonate to correct the metabolic acidosis. Haemodialysis may be required thereafter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 45 year old male presents with lower backache and pain in his hips. Blood tests are normal except for elevated serum alkaline phosphatase which is 1200 IU/l (45-105). Radiological examination shows combined osteolytic and osteosclerotic lesions. What is the most common site of occurrence of this disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pelvis
Explanation:The patient most likely suffers from Paget’s disease of the bone as his radiological examination shows both osteolytic and osteosclerotic lesions. Any bone or bones can be affected, but Paget’s disease occurs most frequently in the pelvis > lumbar spine > femur > thoracic spine > sacrum > skull > tibia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 27 year old female from Zimbabwe is seen in December with depression. She has no past medical history of interest but is known to smoke Cannabis. She had similar episodes in the past winter. Which condition does this signify?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Seasonal affective disorder
Explanation:Seasonal affective disorder (SAD) is a type of depression that’s related to changes in seasons. SAD begins and ends at about the same time every year. For most people with SAD, the symptoms start in the fall and continue into the winter months, sapping the person’s energy and making him feel moody. Less often, SAD causes depression in the spring or early summer.
Treatment for SAD may include light therapy (phototherapy), medications and psychotherapy.
Signs and symptoms of SAD may include:
Feeling depressed most of the day, nearly every day
Losing interest in activities you once enjoyed
Having low energy
Having problems with sleeping
Experiencing changes in your appetite or weight
Feeling sluggish or agitated
Having difficulty concentrating
Feeling hopeless, worthless or guilty
Having frequent thoughts of death or suicide.Seasonal affective disorder is diagnosed more often in women than in men. And SAD occurs more frequently in younger adults than in older adults.
Factors that may increase your risk of seasonal affective disorder include:
Family history. People with SAD may be more likely to have blood relatives with SAD or another form of depression.
Having major depression or bipolar disorder. Symptoms of depression may worsen seasonally if you have one of these conditions.
Living far from the equator. SAD appears to be more common among people who live far north or south of the equator. This may be due to decreased sunlight during the winter and longer days during the summer months. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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