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Question 1
Correct
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A 26 year old lady slips in her house and lands on her right arm. She has anatomical snuffbox tenderness but no x-rays either at the time or subsequently have shown evidence of a scaphoid fracture. She has been immobilised in a futura splint for two weeks and is now asymptomatic. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Discharge with reassurance
Explanation:The College of Emergency Medicine states that the patient should be discharged with no follow-up required if the patient presents with anatomical snuffbox tenderness and plain radiographs show no fracture when done initially and after when wrist splint has been used.
A scaphoid fracture is a break of the scaphoid bone in the wrist. Symptoms generally includes pain at the base of the thumb which is worse with use of the hand. The anatomic snuffbox is generally tender and swelling may occur. Complications may include non-union of the fracture, avascular necrosis, and arthritis.
Scaphoid fractures are most commonly caused by a fall on an outstretched hand. Diagnosis is generally based on examination and medical imaging. Some fractures may not be visible on plain X-rays. In such cases a person may be casted with repeat X-rays in two weeks or an MRI or bone scan may be done.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 52 year old man complains of significant abdominal pain and presents to his family doctor. Past medical history shows that he is recovering following a live donor related renal transplant. Which analgesic drug would be avoided in this patient?
Your Answer: Diclofenac
Explanation:As a class, NSAIDs are known to have direct nephrotoxic effects including afferent vasoconstriction leading to reduced glomerular filtration; allergic reactions leading to tubulointerstitial nephritis; nephrotic syndromes, which commonly include minimal change disease and membranous glomerulonephropathy; fluid and sodium retention; worsening of pre-existing hypertension; papillary necrosis and various electrolyte disturbances, including hyponatremia, hyperkalaemia and type 4 renal tubular acidosis.
The use of NSAIDs should be minimized among patients with Stage 3 CKD and avoided in those with Stage 4 or Stage 5 CKD with residual kidney function or recipients of kidney transplant regardless of CKD stage. It is conceivable that compromised intraglomerular hemodynamic may be potentiated with concurrent use of NSAIDs and calcineurin inhibitors in the transplant setting.
Diclofenac which is an NSAID should therefore be avoided in this patient. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Organ Transplantation
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Question 3
Correct
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A 51 year old female presents with a sensation of grittiness in her eyes which has been present for the past few months. She also complains of symptoms of a dry mouth. On examination, she is seen with a swelling of her parotid gland. However, she has no evidence of facial nerve palsy. Which of the following is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sjogren's syndrome
Explanation:Sjogren syndrome (SS) is a long-term autoimmune disease that affects the body’s moisture-producing glands. Primary symptoms are a dry mouth and dry eyes. Other symptoms can include dry skin, vaginal dryness, a chronic cough, numbness in the arms and legs, feeling tired, muscle and joint pains, and thyroid problems. Those affected are at an increased risk (5%) of lymphoma. It primarily affects women in their peri and post-menopausal years of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Head And Neck Surgery
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 35 year old biker is rushed to the A&E department after he is knocked off his bike by a van. He has a 10cm open fracture of his tibia where no peripheral pulses are palpable. Intravenous antibiotics have been administered in the emergency department and the wound has been dressed. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Skeletal fixation followed by vascular reconstruction
Correct Answer: Immediate vascular shunting, followed by temporary skeletal stabilisation and vascular reconstruction
Explanation:The Gustilo open fracture classification system is the most commonly used classification system for open fractures.
This system uses the amount of energy, the extent of soft-tissue injury and the extent of contamination for determination of fracture severity. Progression from grade 1 to 3C implies a higher degree of energy involved in the injury, higher soft tissue and bone damage and higher potential for complications.
Grade Injury
1 Low energy wound <1cm
2 Greater than 1cm wound with moderate soft tissue damage
3 High energy wound > 1cm with extensive soft tissue damage
3 A (sub group of 3) Adequate soft tissue coverage
3 B (sub group of 3) Inadequate soft tissue coverage
3 C (sub group of 3) Associated arterial injuryIt is important to recognize that a Gustilo score of grade 3C implies vascular injury as well as bone and connective-tissue damage. Grade 3C is defined as an open fracture associated with an arterial injury requiring repair, irrespective of degree of soft-tissue injury. The lack of peripheral pulses indicate arterial injury.
A less morbid damage control approach (compared with ligation) for patients with extremity vascular injury is vascular shunting, a technique that has been available for over 50 years. A vascular shunt is a synthetic tube that is inserted into the vessel and secured proximally and distally. Shunts were placed in the context of damage control to allow stabilization of Gustilo 3C fractures or limb replantation. Vascular shunts are typically used for larger, more proximal arteries and veins such as the femoral and popliteal arteries. Shunts can remain in place up to six hours, but definitive vascular reconstruction should be performed as soon as the patient is sufficiently stable to undergo the procedure. Once a fracture is identified, it is reduced as much as possible and splinted. If an open fracture is suspected, the patient should be taken to the operating room to debride and stabilize the fracture (usually with external fixation) either after life-threatening injuries have been managed or concurrently while less emergency chest, abdominal, or head injuries are being addressed. Revascularization — Ischemia due to vascular injury is a major risk factor for amputation, and, ideally, the injury will be identified and treated within six hours to minimize ischemic nerve and muscle damage. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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The inferior palpebral nerve ascends behind the orbicularis oculi. What is the terminal branch of the inferior palpebral nerve?
Your Answer: Lacrimal nerve
Correct Answer: Infraorbital nerve
Explanation:The inferior palpebral nerve is a branch of the maxillary nerve. It supplies the skin and conjunctiva of the lower eyelid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 6
Correct
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A medical student is asked to calculate the net pressure difference in a capillary wall, considering: Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure = –3 mmHg, Plasma colloid osmotic pressure = 28 mmHg, Capillary hydrostatic pressure = 17 mmHg, Interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure = 8 mmHg, and Filtration coefficient = 1. Which is the correct answer?
Your Answer: 0 mmHg
Explanation:The rate of filtration at any point along a capillary depends on a balance of forces sometimes called Starling’s forces after the physiologist who first described their operation in detail. The Starling principle of fluid exchange is key to understanding how plasma fluid (solvent) within the bloodstream (intravascular fluid) moves to the space outside the bloodstream (extravascular space). Fluid movement = k[(pc– pi)–(Πc– Πi)] where k = capillary filtration coefficient, pc = capillary hydrostatic pressure, pi= interstitial hydrostatic pressure, Πc = capillary colloid osmotic pressure, Πi = interstitial colloid osmotic pressure. Therefore: 1 × [capillary hydrostatic pressure (17) – interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure (–3)] – [plasma colloid osmotic pressure (28) – interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure (8)] = 0 mmHg
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 62 year old retired teacher is diagnosed as having a malignant lesion in the inferior aspect of her left breast. On examination, there is palpable axillary lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Image guided fine needle aspiration of the axillary nodes
Explanation:Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) cytology of axillary lymph nodes is a simple, minimally invasive technique that can be used to improve preoperative determination of the status of the axillary lymph nodes in patients with breast cancer, thereby serving as a tool with which to triage patients for sentinel versus full lymph node dissection procedures. FNA of axillary lymph nodes is a sensitive and very specific method with which to detect metastasis in breast cancer patients. Because of its excellent positive predictive value, full axillary lymph node dissection can be planned safely instead of a sentinel lymph node dissection when a preoperative positive FNA result is rendered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Breast And Endocrine Surgery
- Generic Surgical Topics
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Question 8
Correct
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Which one of the following is a derivative of the midgut?
Your Answer: Caecum
Explanation:The primary intestinal loop is formed from the midgut which gives rise to the distal half of the duodenum, the jejunum, ascending colon, proximal two thirds of the transverse colon and the ileum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 9
Correct
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A neonate is diagnosed with cryptorchidism of the right side (undescended testis). Which is the LEAST likely place to find the testis?
Your Answer: Perineum
Explanation:Embryologically the testes are retroperitoneal structures in the posterior abdominal wall, attached to the anterolateral abdominal wall by the gubernaculum. The gubernaculum ‘pulls’ the testes through the deep inguinal ring, inguinal canal and superficial inguinal ring and over the pelvic brim. The gubernaculum is preceded by the processus vaginalis that is derived from the peritoneum anterior to the testes. The processus vaginalis pushes the muscle and fascial layers. These eventually make up the canal and the spermatic cord, into the scrotum. The gubernaculum persists as the scrotal ligament while part of the processus vaginalis remains as a bursa-like sac i.e. the tunica vaginalis testes. The testes therefore could be caught in any one of these places along its path of descending. The testes are never in the perineum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 10
Incorrect
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From which source does the lingual artery originate?
Your Answer: Internal carotid
Correct Answer: External carotid
Explanation:The lingual artery arises from the external carotid between the superior thyroid artery and facial artery. It can be located easily on the lower surface of the tongue. The terminal branch of the lingual artery is the deep lingual artery. On its course the lingual artery gives off side branches: dorsal lingual branches that supply the dorsum of the tongue till the epiglottis; sublingual artery that supplies the sublingual gland.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Under normal conditions, what is the major source of energy of cardiac muscles?
Your Answer: Pyruvate
Correct Answer: Fatty acids
Explanation:Under basal conditions, most of the energy needed by cardiac muscle for metabolism is derived from fats (60%), 35% by carbohydrates, and 5% by ketones and amino acids. However, after intake of large amounts of glucose, lactate and pyruvate are mainly used. During prolonged starvation, fat acts as the primary source. 50% of the used lipids are sourced from circulating fatty acids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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The renal cortex and medulla, if seen under the microscope, is lacking one of the following:
Your Answer: A basement membrane
Correct Answer: Squamous epithelium
Explanation:Capillaries, Henle’s loop, collecting ducts, Bertin columns and type IV collagen in glomerular basement membrane are all structures present in the renal cortex or medulla. The squamous epithelium is the only one that is lacking in both the renal cortex and medulla, because normally it is not found above the outer urethra.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 13
Correct
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The chest X-ray of an 10-year-old boy, that presented with low-grade fever and cough, revealed hilar enlargement and parenchymal consolidation in the middle lobes. These X-ray findings are more typical for which of the following diagnoses?
Your Answer: Pulmonary tuberculosis
Explanation:Primary pulmonary tuberculosis is seen in patients exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis for the firs time. The main radiographic findings in primary pulmonary tuberculosis include homogeneous parenchymal consolidation typically in the lower and middle lobes, lymphadenopathy, miliary opacities and pleural effusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 40 year old man is currently recovering after a live donor related liver transplant. He has been given a daily dose of corticosteroids to decrease the risk of graft rejection. Which of the following will not occur as a result of their administration?
Your Answer: Reduction of expression of endothelial cell adhesion molecules
Correct Answer: Necrosis of activated lymphocytes
Explanation:Corticosteroids are responsible for an array of side effects. However, necrosis has a different pathophysiology and is not usually linked with corticosteroid usage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Organ Transplantation
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is diagnosed with respiratory acidosis. The patient’s renal excretion of potassium would be expected to:
Your Answer: Rise, since acid and potassium excretion are coupled
Correct Answer: Fall, since tubular secretion of potassium is inversely coupled to acid secretion
Explanation:Respiratory acidosis is a medical emergency in which decreased ventilation (hypoventilation) increases the concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood and decreases the blood’s pH (a condition generally called acidosis). Secretion of acid and potassium by the renal tubule are inversely related. So, increased excretion of H+ during renal compensation for respiratory acidosis will result in decreased secretion (or increased retention) of potassium ions, with the result that the body’s potassium store rises. An increase in K+ excretion would be associated with renal compensation for respiratory alkalosis. The filtered load of K+depends only on K+ plasma concentration and glomerular filtration rate, not on plasma pH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man with short bowel syndrome requires parenteral nutrition. The solution of choice for parenteral nutrition is:
Your Answer: Darrow’s solution
Correct Answer: Crystalline amino acids
Explanation:Total parenteral nutrition (TPN), is the practice of feeding a person intravenously, circumventing the gut. It is normally used in the following situations: surgery, when feeding by mouth is not possible, when a person’s digestive system cannot absorb nutrients due to chronic disease or if a person’s nutrient requirement cannot be met by enteral feeding and supplementation. A sterile bag of nutrient solution, between 500 ml and 4L, is provided. The pump infuses a small amount (0.1–10 ml/h) continuously to keep the vein open. The nutrient solution consists of water, glucose, salts, amino acids, vitamins and sometimes emulsified fats. Ideally each patient is assessed individually before commencing on parenteral nutrition, and a team consisting of doctors, nurses, clinical pharmacists and dietitians evaluate the patient’s individual data and decide what formula to use and at what rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 55 year-old construction worker is diagnosed with malignant melanoma. He was exposed to what substance which increased his risk in developing mesothelioma?
Your Answer: Asbestos
Explanation:Mesothelioma is a rare, aggressive form of cancer that develops in the lining of the lungs, abdomen or heart. It is linked to inhalation of asbestos commonly used in ship building and the insulation industry. It has no known cure and has a very poor prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 18
Correct
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During pregnancy the uterus enlarges however after delivery it regresses to its original size. Which of the following organelles is responsible for this regression?
Your Answer: Lysosomes
Explanation:Lysosomes are formed by budding of the Golgi apparatus and contain enzymes which digest macromolecules. They are found in both plants and animals and are active in autophagic cell death, digestion after phagocytosis and for the cells own recycling process. They fuse with the molecules and release their content resulting in digestion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 19
Correct
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An X ray of a 60 year old male brought to the accident and emergency following a fall down stairs shows a fractured olecranon process of the right ulna with the line of fracture passing through the superior surface, disrupting a muscle. Which among the following muscles was most likely injured?
Your Answer: Triceps brachii
Explanation:The superior surface of the olecranon process forms an attachment for the insertion of the triceps brachii on the posterior aspect. It also has a minor transverse groove for the attachment of part of the posterior ligament of the elbow on the anterior aspect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 20
Correct
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One of the following structures is contained in the anterior compartment of the lower leg. Which is it?
Your Answer: Extensor hallucis muscle
Explanation:The lower leg is made up of four fascial compartments separated from one another by septa that contain the muscles of the lower leg. The four compartments are ; anterior, lateral, deep posterior and superficial posterior compartments.
These are the compartments and there contents:
i) Anterior compartment: Tibialis anterior muscle, extensor hallucis longus muscle, extensor digitorum longus muscle, peroneus tertius muscles, deep fibular nerve and anterior tibial blood vessels
ii) Lateral compartment: Fibularis longus muscle, brevis muscles and superficial fibular nerve
iii) Deep posterior compartment: Tibialis posterior m., flexor hallucis longus m., flexor digitorum longus m. ,popliteus m. , tibial nerve, posterior tibial artery and posterior tibial vessels such as the fibular artery.
iv) Superficial posterior compartment: Gastrocnemius m., soleus m., plantaris m., medial sural cutaneous nerve -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 21
Correct
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A 33-year-old man is brought to the A&E department following a road traffic accident. He complains of lower abdominal pain. On examination, a fracture of the pelvis along with distended, tender bladder is observed. What should be the best step of management for distended bladder?
Your Answer: Suprapubic catheter
Explanation:This patient has possible urethral injury based on the history. Urethral catheterisation is contraindicated in this situation.
Up to 10% of male pelvic fractures are associated with urethral or bladder injuries. Urethral injury occurs mainly in males. It has two types.
1.Bulbar rupture:
a. most common
b. mostly associated with straddle-type injury, e.g. from bicycles
c. presentation with a triad of urinary retention, perineal haematoma, and blood at the meatus2. Membranous rupture:
a. can be extra- or intraperitoneal
b. occurs commonly due to pelvic fracture
c. symptomology may include penile or perineal oedema/haematoma
d. prostate displaced upwards (high-riding prostate)Ascending urethrogram is carried out in patients of suspected urethral injury. Suprapubic catheter is surgically placed and is indicated in:
1. External genitalia injuries (i.e. the penis and the scrotum)
2. Injury to the urethra caused by penetration, blunt trauma, continence- or sexual pleasure–enhancing devices, and mutilation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Urology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman is diagnosed with Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which of the following chemotherapy regimens would be used in this case?
Your Answer: ABVD
Explanation:ABVD is a chemotherapy regimen used in the first-line treatment of Hodgkin’s lymphoma. It consists of concurrent treatment with the chemotherapy drugs, adriamycin, bleomycin, vinblastine and dacarbazine. It supplanted the older MOPP protocol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 25 year-old male patient was brought to the hospital due to a vehicular accident. A skull x-ray was done which revealed a fracture along the base of the middle cranial fossa. The patient has no sense of touch over the skin over his cheek and chin. Injury to the maxillary and the mandibular nerves is suspected. In which foramina do these two affected sensory branches leave the cranial cavity.
Your Answer: Foramen rotundum and foramen ovale
Explanation:The patient’s clinical manifestations suggests an injury to the maxillary and mandibular nerves. The maxillary branch (V2) of the trigeminal nerve (CN V) passes through and exits the skull via the pterygopalatine fossa and the foramen rotundum. At the base of the skull the foramen ovale (Latin: oval window) is one of the larger of the several holes (the foramina) that transmit nerves through the skull. The foramen ovale is situated in the posterior part of the sphenoid bone, posterolateral to the foramen rotundum. The following structures pass through foramen ovale: mandibular nerve, motor root of the trigeminal nerve, accessory meningeal artery (small meningeal or paradural branch, sometimes derived from the middle meningeal artery), lesser petrosal nerve, a branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve and
an emissary vein connecting the cavernous sinus with the pterygoid plexus of veins. Occasionally it will also carry the anterior trunk of the middle meningeal vein. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of these is secreted by both macrophages and muscle cells?
Your Answer: Interleukin-5
Correct Answer: Interleukin-6
Explanation:IL-6 is secreted by the T cells and macrophages and is a pro inflammatory cytokine. It is secreted in response to trauma e.g. burns and tissue damage that leads to inflammation. Apart from this its is also a myokine and is elevated due to muscle contraction. Other functions include: stimulate osteoclast formation when secreted by osteoblasts, mediate fever in acute phase response and are responsible for energy metabolism in muscle and fatty tissues. Inhibitors of IL-6 e.g. oestrogen are used as a treatment for postmenopausal osteoporosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 27-year old lady is shot in the chest. The bullet enters superior to the upper edge of the clavicle. She had difficulty in breathing which is interpreted by the A&E physician as a likely indicator of a collapsed lung. If that is the case, what portion of the pleura is most likely to have been punctured?
Your Answer: Cupola
Explanation:The cupola is part of the pleura that extends above the first rib into the root of the lung. Most likely to injured in a stab above the level of the clavicle.
Costodiaphragmatic recess: the lowest extent of the pleural sac.
Pulmonary ligament: is a fold of pleura located below the root of the lung.
Mediastinal pleura: part of the pleura that lines the mediastinal cavity.
Hilar reflection is the part of the pleura where the visceral pleura of the lung reflects to become continuous with the parietal pleura. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 26
Correct
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A growing tumour is impinging on the lingual artery in the floor of the mouth. Which structure will experience decreased blood flow?
Your Answer: The sublingual gland
Explanation:The paired sublingual glands are major salivary glands in the mouth. They are the smallest, most diffuse, and the only unencapsulated major salivary glands. They provide only 3-5% of the total salivary volume. The gland receives its blood supply from the sublingual and submental arteries. The sublingual artery is a branch of the lingual artery, thus damage to the lingual artery will decrease the blood flow to the sublingual gland.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 27
Correct
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A young 16 year old boy presented to the ENT clinic with a history of sore throat for the past 1 day. On examination there was a pharyngeal purulent discharge. Which of the following types of inflammation is seen in this boy?
Your Answer: Acute inflammation
Explanation:A 1 day history suggests the purulent discharge is due to acute inflammation. Acute inflammation has 3 features:
1) the affected area is occupied by a purulent discharge composed of proteins, fluids and cells from local blood vessels
2) the infective agent i.e. bacteria is present in the affected area
3) the damaged tissue can be liquified and the debris removed from the site.
If the inflammation lasts over weeks or months, then it is termed as chronic inflammation.
Granulomatous inflammation is characterised by the presence and formation of granulomas.
Exudate is not a feature of resolution or a complication of inflammation.
Abscess formation takes more than 1 day to form and is usually within a capsule/cavity. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Injury to this nerve may result in loss of sensation of the mandibular teeth and bone:
Your Answer: Buccal nerve
Correct Answer: Inferior alveolar nerve
Explanation:The inferior alveolar nerve (sometimes called the inferior dental nerve) is a branch of the mandibular nerve, which is itself the third branch of the trigeminal nerve. The inferior alveolar nerves supply sensation to the lower teeth of the mandible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 29
Correct
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Gastric acid secretion is stimulated by which of the following?
Your Answer: Gastrin
Explanation:Gastric acid secretion is stimulated by three factors:
– Acetylcholine, from parasympathetic neurones of the vagus nerve that innervate parietal cells directly
– Gastrin, produced by pyloric G-cells
– Histamine, produced by mast cells.
Gastric acid is inhibited by three factors:
– Somatostatin
– Secretin
– Cholecystokinin -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 53 year old male presents with generalised right upper quadrant pain which started from the previous day. On admission, he is septic and jaundiced and there is tenderness in the right upper quadrant. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cholangitis
Explanation:Acute cholangitis is a bacterial infection superimposed on an obstruction of the biliary tree most commonly from a gallstone, but it may be associated with neoplasm or stricture. The classic triad of findings is right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain, fever, and jaundice. A pentad may also be seen, in which mental status changes and sepsis are added to the triad.
A spectrum of cholangitis exists, ranging from mild symptoms to fulminant overwhelming sepsis. Thus, therapeutic options for patient management include broad-spectrum antibiotics and, potentially, emergency decompression of the biliary tree.
The main factors in the pathogenesis of acute cholangitis are biliary tract obstruction, elevated intraluminal pressure, and infection of bile. A biliary system that is colonized by bacteria but is unobstructed, typically does not result in cholangitis. It is believed that biliary obstruction diminishes host antibacterial defences, causes immune dysfunction, and subsequently increases small bowel bacterial colonization. Although the exact mechanism is unclear, it is believed that bacteria gain access to the biliary tree by retrograde ascent from the duodenum or from portal venous blood. As a result, infection ascends into the hepatic ducts, causing serious infection. Increased biliary pressure pushes the infection into the biliary canaliculi, hepatic veins, and perihepatic lymphatics, leading to bacteraemia (25-40%). The infection can be suppurative in the biliary tract. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
