00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A father is concerned about his 19 year-old daughter, who has recently become...

    Incorrect

    • A father is concerned about his 19 year-old daughter, who has recently become more reclusive and spends most days in her bedroom. She has stopped socialising with friends and has dropped out of college. She has also removed all the mirrors in her room as she believes that people are spying on her through the mirrors. The father's sister has had schizophrenia in the past, and he is worried that his daughter is showing very similar symptoms.
      Which of the following statements best characterises the aetiology of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: In a family with one schizophrenic parent, the risk of schizophrenia in a child is about 25%

      Correct Answer: Approximately 20 million people worldwide are reported to have schizophrenia with a prevalence of up to 1%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Schizophrenia: Genetic and Environmental Factors

      Schizophrenia is a complex mental illness that affects approximately 20 million people worldwide, with a prevalence of up to 1%. While there is clear evidence of a genetic predisposition to the disease, the heterogeneity of schizophrenia has presented a major challenge to medical research, resulting in a variety of explanatory hypotheses and controversies.

      Studies have shown that monozygotic twins have an 85% concordance for schizophrenia, while dizygotic twins have a concordance of 50%. This suggests a significant genetic contribution to the illness, but also implies that non-genetic factors may be necessary for full expression of the disease.

      Neurodevelopmental trauma has been linked to an increased risk of schizophrenia, but there is also evidence that family variables can exacerbate the illness. Adoption studies have shown that family environment does not cause schizophrenia, but patients who live in families where they are criticised and treated with hostility by an over-involved parent have higher rates of relapse and greater need for anti-psychotic medication.

      Overall, understanding the genetic and environmental factors that contribute to schizophrenia is crucial for developing effective treatments and interventions for those affected by this debilitating illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      43.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old with a long standing history of schizophrenia presents to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old with a long standing history of schizophrenia presents to the emergency department in status epilepticus. After receiving treatment, he informs the physician that he has been experiencing frequent seizures lately.
      Which medication is the most probable cause of his seizures?

      Your Answer: Haloperidol

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Seizures are more likely to occur with the use of clozapine due to its ability to lower the seizure threshold. This is a known side-effect of the atypical antipsychotic, which is commonly prescribed for treatment resistant schizophrenia.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - As a fourth-year medical student on placement in an acute psychiatric ward, I...

    Incorrect

    • As a fourth-year medical student on placement in an acute psychiatric ward, I approached Peter, a patient with a history of schizophrenia, and asked him how many days he had been admitted to the ward.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Circumstantiality

      Explanation:

      Circumstantiality is the inability to provide a concise answer to a question, often due to excessive and unnecessary detail.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 47-year-old man is prescribed haloperidol, a first-generation antipsychotic, for an acute psychotic...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man is prescribed haloperidol, a first-generation antipsychotic, for an acute psychotic episode. He had previously been on olanzapine, a second-generation antipsychotic, but discontinued it due to adverse reactions. What adverse effect is he more prone to encounter with this new medication in comparison to olanzapine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Torticollis

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic medications can cause acute dystonic reactions, which are more frequently seen with first-generation antipsychotics like haloperidol. These reactions may include dysarthria, torticollis, opisthotonus, and oculogyric crises. Atypical antipsychotics are more likely to cause diabetes mellitus and dyslipidemia, while neither typical nor atypical antipsychotics are commonly associated with osteoporosis.

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner (GP) for counselling. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner (GP) for counselling. He describes being incredibly happy with his long-time girlfriend, describing how they have been together for 10 years. They go out shopping together, own a successful business together, frequently host parties and are very outgoing and popular. But when his partner brings up marriage, he convulses with fear. ‘I know it’s ridiculous, but I really think if we get married, everything will suddenly be terrible.’
      Which of the following best describes this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gamophobia

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Phobias and Anxiety Disorders

      Phobias and anxiety disorders are common mental health conditions that affect many people. Here are some examples of different types of phobias and anxiety disorders:

      Gamophobia: This is a specific phobia of getting married. It is commonly seen in patients in committed long-term relationships who are terrified of formalizing the relationship in marriage.

      Agoraphobia: This is a fear of being out in public. It is a fear of being in situations where escape might be difficult or that help would not be available in case of any accident.

      Algophobia: This is a fear of pain.

      Acrophobia: This is a fear of heights.

      Generalized Anxiety Disorder: This is a condition where a person experiences excessive and persistent worry and anxiety about everyday situations. However, this disorder is inconsistent with a patient who is outgoing and comfortable in public.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 29-year-old male with schizophrenia is being evaluated by his psychiatrist. He expresses...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old male with schizophrenia is being evaluated by his psychiatrist. He expresses that he no longer takes pleasure in his usual pastimes. The patient used to enjoy playing video games and going to the gym, but now finds these activities uninteresting and lacks motivation to engage in them.

      Which symptom of schizophrenia is the patient exhibiting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anhedonia

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Schizophrenia

      Anhedonia, affective flattening, alogia, apathy, and delusions are all symptoms of schizophrenia. Anhedonia is the inability to experience pleasure from activities that were once enjoyable. Affective flattening is the loss of a normal range of emotional expression, making it difficult for individuals to express their emotions appropriately. Alogia is a lack of spontaneous speech, making it difficult for individuals to communicate effectively. Apathy is a sense of indifference and lack of interest in activities that were once enjoyable. Delusions are firmly held false beliefs that are not based in reality. These symptoms can significantly impact an individual’s ability to function in daily life and can lead to social isolation and difficulty maintaining relationships. It is important for individuals experiencing these symptoms to seek professional help and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old male presents in clinic, insisting that you diagnose his colon issues....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents in clinic, insisting that you diagnose his colon issues. He describes experiencing vague sensations of incomplete stool passage and is worried that he may have a tumor causing obstruction. He reports regular bowel movements and denies any episodes of diarrhea or constipation. There is no history of blood in his stool, unintentional weight loss, or loss of appetite. He has no family history of cancer. After discussing your negative findings, he abruptly leaves the office, stating, You're just like the other four doctors I've seen, all incompetent and willing to let me die.

      What is the most accurate description of his gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypochondriasis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypochondriasis: A Case Study

      A 21-year-old man is convinced that he has an occult GI malignancy, despite having no signs, symptoms, or family history of such a problem. He has seen three doctors who have told him otherwise, but he persists in his belief and is now doctor shopping by seeing four doctors for the same issue. This behavior is a classic sign of hypochondria.

      Hypochondriasis is a condition where a person is excessively worried about having a serious illness, despite having no or minimal symptoms. The fear and anxiety associated with this condition can be debilitating and can interfere with a person’s daily life. In this case, the patient’s fixation on a particular disease is causing him distress and leading him to seek out multiple doctors for reassurance.

      It is important to note that hypochondriasis is not the same as somatisation disorder, which refers to patients with a constellation of physical complaints that cannot be explained by a somatic process. While the patient in this case is fixated on a particular disease, he does not fit the criteria for somatisation.

      It is also important to rule out other conditions, such as acute stress disorder or conversion disorder, which can present with similar symptoms. Acute stress disorder is an anxiety condition that is precipitated by an acute stressor and resolves within a month. Conversion disorder is a neurological deficit in the absence of a somatic cause and is usually preceded by a psychosocial stressor.

      In conclusion, understanding hypochondriasis and its symptoms is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients who may be suffering from this condition. It is important to approach these patients with empathy and understanding, while also ruling out other potential conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 42-year-old male has arrived at the emergency department after experiencing a witnessed...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male has arrived at the emergency department after experiencing a witnessed seizure. According to the witness, the seizure lasted around 10 minutes and the patient was drowsy for 15 minutes afterward. The patient is now alert and conversing with the medical staff. They have a history of schizophrenia and have reported several seizures since beginning a new medication five weeks ago. Which medication is the most probable cause of this incident?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is the only atypical antipsychotic drug that reduces seizure threshold, increasing the likelihood of seizures. While effective, it has serious side effects such as agranulocytosis, neutropenia, reduced seizure threshold, and myocarditis. Aripiprazole has a favorable side effect profile and is less likely to cause hyperprolactinemia or other side effects. Olanzapine is known for causing dyslipidemia, weight gain, diabetes, and sedation, but may be prescribed to underweight patients who have trouble sleeping. Quetiapine is associated with weight gain, dyslipidemia, and postural hypotension.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You are discussing bipolar disorder with your consultant in a geriatric trainees teaching...

    Incorrect

    • You are discussing bipolar disorder with your consultant in a geriatric trainees teaching session as part of your psychiatry attachment.
      Which of the following is the most common medical treatment in the long-term management of bipolar disorder in older adults?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological Treatments for Bipolar Disorder

      Bipolar disorder, also known as manic depression, is a mental health condition characterized by alternating episodes of mania and depression. Lithium is the most commonly used medication for long-term management of bipolar disorder. It helps to stabilize mood and prevent relapses of both manic and depressive episodes. However, it is important to note that medication alone is not enough to manage bipolar disorder effectively. Holistic care, including therapy and lifestyle changes, is essential for patients to cope with their condition.

      Carbamazepine is another medication used for mood stabilization in bipolar disorder, but it is less commonly used than lithium. Sertraline, on the other hand, is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) that is primarily used to treat depression, not bipolar disorder. Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, may be helpful in managing acute manic episodes, but it is not recommended for long-term use due to the risk of dependence.

      Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic medication that is primarily used to treat treatment-resistant schizophrenia. It is not commonly used for bipolar disorder due to the risk of agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening condition that can occur with clozapine use. If clozapine is used for bipolar disorder, it should only be done under close monitoring and evaluation by a multidisciplinary psychiatric team.

      In summary, lithium is the most commonly used medication for long-term management of bipolar disorder, but holistic care is essential for effective management of the condition. Other medications may be used in certain situations, but they should be used with caution and under close supervision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Samantha is a 35-year-old female who is receiving treatment for bipolar disorder on...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 35-year-old female who is receiving treatment for bipolar disorder on the psychiatric ward. She has been taking lithium for the past 3 weeks and the doctor needs to check if her levels have stabilised by taking bloods. Samantha's last dose of lithium was at 9am this morning and it is currently 12pm. What is the appropriate time for the doctor to take her bloods?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In 9 hours

      Explanation:

      Lithium levels should be checked 12 hours after the last dose, ideally in the evening before bloods are taken the following morning. Taking the sample too soon or too late can lead to incorrect dosing adjustments.

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.

      Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychiatry (0/2) 0%
Passmed