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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old patient with schizophrenia visits the clinic. He has observed discharge on...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old patient with schizophrenia visits the clinic. He has observed discharge on his shirt twice and upon inspection, he noticed a milky fluid coming from his nipples. He recalls his psychiatrist mentioning that this could happen with his medication. What is the most probable reason for his discharge?

      Your Answer: Risperidone

      Explanation:

      Hyperprolactinaemia, which is characterized by high levels of prolactin, is a common side effect of certain atypical antipsychotics like risperidone. This medication can cause galactorrhoea, which is the abnormal secretion of milk due to the development of breast tissue and mammary glands.

      Different antipsychotics have their own unique side effect profiles, and the most likely culprits of hyperprolactinaemia are haloperidol (a conventional antipsychotic) and risperidone (an atypical antipsychotic). While it is uncommon for most atypical antipsychotics to cause galactorrhoea, risperidone is an exception.

      Other antipsychotics like clozapine are associated with agranulocytosis and myocarditis, while olanzapine is linked to dyslipidaemia, diabetes mellitus, and weight gain.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These agents have a significant advantage over traditional antipsychotics in that they cause fewer extrapyramidal side-effects. However, atypical antipsychotics can still cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and clozapine-associated agranulocytosis. Elderly patients who take antipsychotics are at an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism, according to the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency.

      Clozapine is one of the first atypical antipsychotics to be developed, but it carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis. Therefore, full blood count monitoring is essential during treatment. Clozapine should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Clozapine can cause adverse effects such as reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 2 - A 27-year-old individual diagnosed with schizophrenia has a history of cannabis misuse and...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old individual diagnosed with schizophrenia has a history of cannabis misuse and has discontinued their medication. They are currently experiencing auditory hallucinations where multiple voices are conversing about them. The voices are making derogatory comments, accusing the individual of being a paedophile and deserving punishment.

      What is the best description of this hallucination?

      Your Answer: Imperative hallucination

      Correct Answer: Third person hallucination

      Explanation:

      Types of Auditory Hallucinations

      There are different types of auditory hallucinations that individuals may experience. One type is third person hallucinations, where patients hear voices talking about them in the third person. This is considered a first rank symptom of schizophrenia, but it can also occur in other psychiatric disorders such as mania. Another type is extra-campine hallucinations, which are perceived as coming from outside of the normal sensory field, such as from several miles away. Functional hallucinations, on the other hand, are triggered by stimuli within the same sensory field, such as hearing a phone ring that triggers a voice. Lastly, imperative hallucinations involve the auditory hallucination giving instructions to the patient.

      the Different Types of Auditory Hallucinations

      Auditory hallucinations can be a distressing experience for individuals who hear voices that are not there. It is important to note that there are different types of auditory hallucinations, each with their own unique characteristics. Third person hallucinations involve hearing voices talking about the individual in the third person, while extra-campine hallucinations are perceived as coming from outside of the normal sensory field. Functional hallucinations are triggered by stimuli within the same sensory field, and imperative hallucinations involve the auditory hallucination giving instructions to the patient. the different types of auditory hallucinations can help individuals and healthcare professionals better identify and manage these experiences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 3 - A woman punishes her 10-year-old son for breaking his younger sibling's toy by...

    Incorrect

    • A woman punishes her 10-year-old son for breaking his younger sibling's toy by removing one of his favourite toys from the shelf. Her son becomes tearful and wets his bed. He was a previously toilet-trained child.

      Which ego defence mechanism is demonstrated by the 10-year-old's behaviour of wetting his bed after being punished for breaking his sibling's toy?

      Your Answer: Reaction formation

      Correct Answer: Regression

      Explanation:

      Regression refers to the involuntary process of reverting back to earlier ways of dealing with the world, which is different from fixation. This phenomenon is commonly observed in children who are experiencing stress due to factors such as illness, punishment, or the arrival of a new sibling. For instance, a child who was previously toilet-trained may start bedwetting again under such circumstances. Other related psychological concepts include reaction formation, fixation, and displacement.

      Understanding Ego Defenses

      Ego defenses are psychological mechanisms that individuals use to protect themselves from unpleasant emotions or thoughts. These defenses are classified into four levels, each with its own set of defense mechanisms. The first level, psychotic defenses, is considered pathological as it distorts reality to avoid dealing with it. The second level, immature defenses, includes projection, acting out, and projective identification. The third level, neurotic defenses, has short-term benefits but can lead to problems in the long run. These defenses include repression, rationalization, and regression. The fourth and most advanced level, mature defenses, includes altruism, sublimation, and humor.

      Despite the usefulness of understanding ego defenses, their classification and definitions can be inconsistent and frustrating to learn for exams. It is important to note that these defenses are not necessarily good or bad, but rather a natural part of human behavior. By recognizing and understanding our own ego defenses, we can better manage our emotions and thoughts in a healthy way.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 4 - A teenager has presented to the school nurse and says that she is...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager has presented to the school nurse and says that she is feeling fantastic. She is talking a lot, but also getting easily sidetracked and using exaggerated hand movements. This behavior is unusual for her, and the nurse decides to look into it further.

      What symptom/sign is most commonly linked to this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paranoia

      Correct Answer: Decreased fatigability

      Explanation:

      Hypomania is associated with a reduced need for sleep and lack of fatigue, which is a symptom commonly seen in type II bipolar disorder. It is less severe than mania but can still cause changes in mood and behavior. Schizophrenia is typically associated with third person auditory hallucinations, while second person auditory hallucinations are more commonly seen in mood disorders such as mania and depression. Decreased fatigability is a symptom of mania/hypomania, and patients with hypomania may sleep less without experiencing negative consequences. Nihilistic delusions are more commonly seen in severe depression, while impaired social functioning is more typical of mania than hypomania. Patients with hypomania tend to be more confident and sociable.

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder

      Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.

      Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability. Mania is more severe and involves functional impairment or psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more, while hypomania involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations, suggest mania.

      Management of bipolar disorder involves psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, with valproate as an alternative. Antipsychotic therapy may be used for mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. comorbidities, such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD, should also be addressed.

      If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. If there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 5 - A 29-year-old male has just been prescribed olanzapine for his schizophrenia. However, his...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old male has just been prescribed olanzapine for his schizophrenia. However, his family reports that he appears restless and has a blank stare. During your examination, you observe an upward deviation of both eyes.

      What could be the reason for this?

      Your Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

      Correct Answer: Oculogyric-crisis

      Explanation:

      Acute dystonia is characterized by sustained muscle contraction, such as torticollis or oculogyric crisis. These symptoms are unlikely to be caused by a brain tumor.

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is often triggered by the initiation of anti-dopaminergic medication or withdrawal of dopamine agonists. Symptoms include fever, sweating, muscle rigidity, and confusion. Treatment involves discontinuing anti-dopaminergic medications and sometimes starting dopamine agonists like bromocriptine. Symptomatic care, such as cooling blankets, may also be provided. Antipyretics are not effective in treating neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

      Oculogyric crisis is a dystonic reaction that typically occurs shortly after starting antipsychotics, particularly older typical antipsychotics. Treatment involves stopping the medication and administering antimuscarinic drugs.

      A cranial nerve III palsy would result in a ‘down and out gaze,’ while a cranial nerve VI palsy would cause an inability to effectively abduct the eye.

      Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 6 - A young adult visits the doctor with a complaint of a minor burn...

    Incorrect

    • A young adult visits the doctor with a complaint of a minor burn on their hand. During the consultation, they go into great detail about the events leading up to the burn, including what they were cooking and their favorite recipes. It takes a while before they finally mention the burn. Given their history of anxiety, what would be the classification of this behavior?

      Your Answer: Flight of Ideas

      Correct Answer: Circumstantiality

      Explanation:

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic after attempting suicide. The physician suspects...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic after attempting suicide. The physician suspects an underlying psychiatric condition and conducts a screening for psychiatric symptoms. During the screening, the patient reports experiencing symptoms for the past two years, such as feeling low, fatigue, and loss of interest in her hobbies. Based on this, the doctor diagnoses her with major depressive disorder. What clinical feature would warrant a reevaluation of her diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Olfactory hallucinations

      Correct Answer: Persecutory delusions

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia can be indicated by the presence of persecutory delusions, while the symptoms of depression align with the diagnosis. Guilty delusions, specifically, are a symptom commonly seen in cases of psychotic depression.

      Screening and Assessment of Depression

      Depression is a common mental health condition that affects many people worldwide. Screening and assessment are important steps in identifying and managing depression. The screening process involves asking two simple questions to determine if a person is experiencing symptoms of depression. If the answer is yes to either question, a more in-depth assessment is necessary.

      Assessment tools such as the Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) scale and the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) are commonly used to assess the severity of depression. The HAD scale consists of 14 questions, seven for anxiety and seven for depression. Each item is scored from 0-3, producing a score out of 21 for both anxiety and depression. The PHQ-9 asks patients about nine different problems they may have experienced in the last two weeks, which can then be scored from 0-3. This tool also includes questions about thoughts of self-harm.

      The DSM-IV criteria are used by NICE to grade depression. This criteria includes nine different symptoms, such as depressed mood, diminished interest or pleasure in activities, and feelings of worthlessness or guilt. The severity of depression can range from subthreshold depressive symptoms to severe depression with or without psychotic symptoms.

      In conclusion, screening and assessment are crucial steps in identifying and managing depression. By using tools such as the HAD scale and PHQ-9, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of depression and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 8 - What defense mechanism is being displayed in the differing views of Brian among...

    Incorrect

    • What defense mechanism is being displayed in the differing views of Brian among the mental health unit team?

      Your Answer: Reaction formation

      Correct Answer: Splitting

      Explanation:

      Defense Mechanisms: Splitting, Projective Identification, Reaction Formation, Displacement, and Undoing

      Splitting is a common behavior observed in individuals with borderline personality disorder. It involves dividing people into their polar opposites, such as viewing nurses as either nurturing or rejecting. This behavior can cause disagreements within clinical teams and should be considered in this context.

      Projective identification occurs when an individual projects an aspect of themselves onto another person, often seen in close relationships like that of a mother and child or patient and therapist. The projector tries to make the recipient identify with what has been projected, which can be useful in facilitating further insight into the individual in a therapeutic relationship.

      Reaction formation is a defense mechanism that reduces anxiety by acting in the opposite way to a feeling, impulse, or behavior. For example, being overly friendly to someone you dislike.

      Displacement is when emotions and feelings are shifted towards a less threatening object. For instance, returning home from work feeling angry about the way you were treated by your boss and shouting at the dog.

      Undoing is performing an act to make up for past behavior and alleviate guilt. For example, a man fights with his wife and then buys her a box of chocolates.

      In summary, defense mechanisms are psychological strategies used to cope with anxiety and protect the ego. Splitting, projective identification, reaction formation, displacement, and undoing are just a few examples of these mechanisms. these behaviors can help individuals recognize and manage their emotions in a healthier way.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 9 - You are interviewing a patient who has recently been admitted to the acute...

    Incorrect

    • You are interviewing a patient who has recently been admitted to the acute psychiatric ward. When talking, he is difficult to interrupt. While describing his reaction to the death of his grandfather, he says, The police asked me to identify his body. Ha ha ha! I was shocked to see him lying there! Ha ha ha! What is the best description of this mental state?

      Your Answer: Blunting of affect

      Correct Answer: Incongruity of affect

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia Symptoms: Incongruity of Affect and Perseveration

      Incongruity of affect is a symptom commonly seen in individuals with schizophrenia. It refers to the unpredictable and contradictory emotional response to events. For instance, an insignificant event may trigger a severe emotional reaction, while a significant event may produce no response or an opposite response. This symptom can be observed when a person laughs while recalling a traumatic event.

      It is important to differentiate incongruity of affect from a slight smile that may occur in an anxious or shocked person following a traumatic event. Incongruity of affect is a more severe and persistent symptom that is characteristic of schizophrenia.

      Another symptom of schizophrenia is perseveration, which refers to the inability to stop an action or thought. For example, if someone is asked to tap on a table once, they may continue tapping even after the task is completed. This symptom can be frustrating for the individual and may interfere with their daily activities.

      In summary, incongruity of affect and perseveration are two symptoms commonly seen in individuals with schizophrenia. These symptoms can significantly impact their daily lives and require appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 10 - A 78-year-old male is admitted to your ward with community-acquired pneumonia. He has...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old male is admitted to your ward with community-acquired pneumonia. He has a history of Parkinson's disease for the past 6 years. The patient becomes increasingly agitated during his stay, and you notice that he is prescribed haloperidol for agitation. However, after receiving the medication, his Parkinson's symptoms worsen significantly. What is the likely mechanism of action of haloperidol?

      Your Answer: Blocks dopamine receptors

      Explanation:

      Haloperidol is a typical antipsychotic that works by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain. However, typical antipsychotics are known to have non-selective blockage of various dopamine receptors, leading to unwanted side effects such as parkinsonism. This is particularly problematic for individuals with Parkinson’s disease, as the depletion of dopaminergic neurons already present in the condition can be further exacerbated by the use of antipsychotics that block any remaining dopamine transmissions.

      Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old patient comes in for her routine check-up at the psychiatric outpatient...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient comes in for her routine check-up at the psychiatric outpatient clinic. She has been diagnosed with borderline personality disorder. During the consultation, she discloses that she hears voices in her head instructing her to harm herself. Additionally, she sees apparitions of her deceased mother and cat. However, she is not frightened by these occurrences as she recognizes that they are not real. How would you characterize her atypical perceptions?

      Your Answer: Organic hallucinosis

      Correct Answer: Pseudohallucination

      Explanation:

      Pseudohallucinations in Personality Disorders

      Pseudohallucinations are hallucinations that patients recognize as not being real. These hallucinations can occur spontaneously and are different from true perception. Patients can stop them willingly. Patients with personality disorders, especially borderline personality disorder, may experience semi-psychotic and pseudohallucinatory episodes that are challenging to treat with medication. Psycho-social interventions and a strong therapeutic alliance are the primary therapeutic techniques, with medication as a secondary option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 12 - John is a 26-year-old male with schizophrenia who is undergoing treatment. Which antipsychotic...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 26-year-old male with schizophrenia who is undergoing treatment. Which antipsychotic medication is most likely to cause parkinsonism, sustained muscle contractions, and severe restlessness as side effects?

      Your Answer: Risperidone

      Correct Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Typical antipsychotics are more likely to cause extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) than atypical antipsychotics. Haloperidol is the only typical antipsychotic among the given options, while aripiprazole, olanzapine, quetiapine, and risperidone are all atypical antipsychotics. EPSEs include Parkinsonism, akathisia, acute dystonia, and tardive dyskinesia. Atypical antipsychotics have a lower risk of causing EPSEs than older antipsychotics, but they may still cause them at higher doses. However, atypical antipsychotics carry a higher risk of metabolic side effects such as weight gain, diabetes mellitus, and hyperlipidaemia. Examples of typical antipsychotics licensed for use in the UK include haloperidol, trifluperazine, chlorpromazine, pericyazine, levomepromazine, and flupentixol. Examples of atypical antipsychotics licensed for use in the UK include amisulpride, aripiprazole, clozapine, lurasidone, olanzapine, paliperidone, and quetiapine.

      Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 13 - A 42-year-old man is brought to the GP by his wife. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is brought to the GP by his wife. She reports that his behaviour has become increasingly erratic and that he often appears to be listening to something that she cannot hear.

      During the consultation, the GP notices that he keeps standing up and sitting down again. When questioned on these movements, the patient says, 'I can't help it, my neighbour is controlling my legs.'

      What symptom is the patient experiencing?

      Your Answer: Grandiose delusions

      Correct Answer: Passivity

      Explanation:

      Passivity is the belief that one’s movements or sensations are controlled by an external force. Grandiose delusion is a false belief in one’s own superiority. Avolition is a decrease in motivation for purposeful activities. Catatonia is a state of unresponsiveness with repetitive movements or abnormal postures.

      Schizophrenia: Symptoms and Features

      Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that is characterized by a range of symptoms. One of the most prominent classifications of these symptoms is Schneider’s first rank symptoms. These symptoms can be divided into four categories: auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions. Auditory hallucinations can include hearing two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person, thought echo, or voices commenting on the patient’s behavior. Thought disorders can include thought insertion, thought withdrawal, and thought broadcasting. Passivity phenomena can include bodily sensations being controlled by external influence or experiences that are imposed on the individual or influenced by others. Delusional perceptions can involve a two-stage process where a normal object is perceived, and then there is a sudden intense delusional insight into the object’s meaning for the patient.

      Other features of schizophrenia include impaired insight, incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances), decreased speech, neologisms (made-up words), catatonia, and negative symptoms such as anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), and avolition (poor motivation). It is important to note that not all individuals with schizophrenia will experience all of these symptoms, and the severity of symptoms can vary from person to person.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 14 - An older gentleman is brought to the acute psychiatric ward. He has ceased...

    Incorrect

    • An older gentleman is brought to the acute psychiatric ward. He has ceased eating and drinking as he believes that his intestines are dead and decaying and that he cannot consume anything orally. He is experiencing severe depression. He denies auditory hallucinations.
      What is the probable characterization of his delusions?

      Your Answer: Hypochondriacal delusions

      Correct Answer: Nihilistic delusions

      Explanation:

      Nihilistic Delusions and Cotard Syndrome

      Nihilistic delusions are a severe form of negative thinking often experienced by depressed patients. These delusions are characterized by an exaggerated belief that all or part of the patient’s body, mind, or the world has ceased to exist. Patients may report that they do not have a brain or bowel, or that their body has died and they are awaiting a burial. This type of thinking is associated with a lack of insight and can be dangerous, particularly if the patient refuses to eat or drink. Urgent treatment, such as electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), may be necessary.

      Nihilistic delusions are not limited to depression and can also occur in psychotic disorders like schizophrenia and organic disorders like delirium. Cotard syndrome is a specific type of nihilistic delusion where the patient believes that they are dead. This syndrome is often associated with depression and can be a sign of severe mental illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 15 - Which of the following side-effects are more prevalent with clozapine compared to typical...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following side-effects are more prevalent with clozapine compared to typical antipsychotics?

      Your Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

      Correct Answer: Agranulocytosis

      Explanation:

      To ensure patient safety, it is important to monitor the full blood count for signs of agranulocytosis/neutropenia, a severe adverse reaction associated with clozapine.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These agents have a significant advantage over traditional antipsychotics in that they cause fewer extrapyramidal side-effects. However, atypical antipsychotics can still cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and clozapine-associated agranulocytosis. Elderly patients who take antipsychotics are at an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism, according to the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency.

      Clozapine is one of the first atypical antipsychotics to be developed, but it carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis. Therefore, full blood count monitoring is essential during treatment. Clozapine should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Clozapine can cause adverse effects such as reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 16 - A 52-year-old woman visited her family doctor with a complaint of long-standing abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman visited her family doctor with a complaint of long-standing abdominal discomfort. She describes the discomfort as diffuse and feels a heavy dragging sensation in her abdomen. Upon further inquiry, she reveals that she has been experiencing this abdominal discomfort for a few years. Her medical records indicate that she has undergone various investigations, including imaging studies and upper gastrointestinal endoscopy, but none of them revealed any significant findings. Recently, her CA-125 levels were found to be normal. The woman has a history of mild depression and takes citalopram. She also reports experiencing bodily pain in multiple locations. Physical examination does not reveal any abnormalities. What is the most likely diagnosis for this woman?

      Your Answer: Hypochondriasis

      Correct Answer: Somatic symptom disorder

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms were indicative of a psychiatric condition associated with somatic symptom disorders, rather than a manifestation of hypochondria or cancer.

      Unexplained Symptoms in Psychiatry

      In psychiatry, there are several terms used to describe patients who present with physical or psychological symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. Somatisation disorder is characterized by the presence of multiple physical symptoms that persist for at least two years, and the patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results. Illness anxiety disorder, also known as hypochondriasis, involves a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results. Conversion disorder typically involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Dissociative disorder involves the process of separating off certain memories from normal consciousness, and may present with psychiatric symptoms such as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms, while malingering refers to the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms for financial or other gain. These terms help clinicians to better understand and diagnose patients with unexplained symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 17 - Tina, who is in her mid-30s, is currently facing a challenging situation at...

    Incorrect

    • Tina, who is in her mid-30s, is currently facing a challenging situation at work that is causing her to feel increasingly frustrated and angry. To cope with these emotions, she has decided to take up kickboxing as a form of release. By channeling her energy into physical activity, Tinais able to manage her anger in a healthy way. This is an example of which defense mechanism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sublimation

      Explanation:

      Defense Mechanisms: Coping Strategies for Unacceptable Emotions

      Defense mechanisms are psychological strategies that individuals use to cope with unacceptable emotions and thoughts. These mechanisms are often unconscious and can be helpful in managing difficult situations. One such mechanism is sublimation, which involves channeling negative emotions into more acceptable outlets. For example, a person who is angry may choose to engage in physical exercise as a way to release their emotions.

      Another defense mechanism is displacement, which involves transferring emotions from one person or situation to another. This can be seen when a person who is angry with their boss comes home and takes out their frustration on their family members. Intellectualization is another mechanism that allows individuals to focus on the facts of a situation rather than the emotions they are feeling. This can be helpful in situations where emotions may be overwhelming, such as when dealing with a serious illness.

      Rationalization is a defense mechanism that allows individuals to justify their behavior in a logical manner when their ego is threatened. For example, a student who fails an exam may blame the teacher rather than accepting responsibility for their own actions. Finally, denial is a mechanism that involves consciously avoiding painful topics. This can be seen when a patient denies being told that they have a serious illness.

      Overall, defense mechanisms can be helpful in managing difficult emotions and situations. However, it is important to recognize when these mechanisms are being used and to seek help if they are interfering with daily life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 18 - A 23-year-old woman visits the clinic after discovering that her partner has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman visits the clinic after discovering that her partner has been involved in another relationship. She expresses intense anger and reports struggling to concentrate on her upcoming college classes and track competition. She also shares that she is using her anger to fuel her training for the track meet.

      What defense mechanism is she displaying?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sublimation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ego Defenses

      Ego defenses are psychological mechanisms that individuals use to protect themselves from unpleasant emotions or thoughts. These defenses are classified into four levels, each with its own set of defense mechanisms. The first level, psychotic defenses, is considered pathological as it distorts reality to avoid dealing with it. The second level, immature defenses, includes projection, acting out, and projective identification. The third level, neurotic defenses, has short-term benefits but can lead to problems in the long run. These defenses include repression, rationalization, and regression. The fourth and most advanced level, mature defenses, includes altruism, sublimation, and humor.

      Despite the usefulness of understanding ego defenses, their classification and definitions can be inconsistent and frustrating to learn for exams. It is important to note that these defenses are not necessarily good or bad, but rather a natural part of human behavior. By recognizing and understanding our own ego defenses, we can better manage our emotions and thoughts in a healthy way.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 19 - Samantha is undergoing an evaluation with the psychologist. Her sister has joined the...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is undergoing an evaluation with the psychologist. Her sister has joined the session to provide her with moral support. With Samantha's consent, the psychologist is inquiring her sister about her personality.
      Samantha's sister characterizes her to the psychologist as someone who appears to be lively, charming and sociable at first. However, as you spend more time with her, you come to realize that she is excessively theatrical, constantly seeking attention and admiration, and she can be quite manipulative.
      What kind of personality disorder does Samantha have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Histrionic personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Personality Disorders: General Criteria and Specific Types

      Personality disorders are a group of mental health conditions that are characterised by deviations from the cultural norm in cognition, affect, impulse control, or relating to others. According to ICD-10, individuals diagnosed with a personality disorder must meet certain general criteria, including long-term evidence of the deviation since childhood or adolescence, distress to the individual or negative impact on their social environment, and the absence of an alternative mental disorder or organic brain injury.

      There are several specific types of personality disorders, each with their own unique characteristics. Histrionic personality disorder is characterised by self-dramatisation, suggestibility, shallow affectivity, and a continual seeking for excitement and attention. Borderline personality disorder is associated with disturbances in self-image, intense relationships, emotional crises, and deliberate self-harm. Anankastic personality disorder is similar to obsessive-compulsive personality disorder, with individuals becoming preoccupied with detail, rules, and schedules to the point of hindering completion of tasks and relationships. Schizoid personality disorder is characterised by emotional detachment and solitary activities, while paranoid personality disorder involves high levels of suspicion and distrust towards others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 20 - A 20-year-old man experienced recurrent episodes of breathlessness and palpitations lasting approximately 20...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man experienced recurrent episodes of breathlessness and palpitations lasting approximately 20 minutes and resolving gradually. No unusual physical signs were observed. What is the probable cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Panic attacks

      Explanation:

      Likely Diagnosis for Sudden Onset of Symptoms

      When considering the sudden onset of symptoms, drug abuse is an unlikely cause as the symptoms are short-lived and not accompanied by other common drug abuse symptoms. Paroxysmal SVT would present with sudden starts and stops, rather than a gradual onset. Personality disorder and thyrotoxicosis would both lead to longer-lasting symptoms and other associated symptoms. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis for sudden onset symptoms would be panic disorder. It is important to consider all possible causes and seek medical attention to properly diagnose and treat any underlying conditions.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 21 - Sarah, a 25-year-old woman, arrives at the Emergency department after an impulsive overdose...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah, a 25-year-old woman, arrives at the Emergency department after an impulsive overdose of 15 paracetamol tablets and a bottle of vodka. This is her sixth visit to the emergency department with a similar presentation in the past year.

      Upon evaluation by the on-call psychiatry doctor, Sarah reveals that she took the pills after a fight with her boyfriend. Further questioning about her background reveals that she was a victim of childhood abuse. Sarah has had multiple intense relationships, but they never seem to last.

      Sarah describes herself as feeling empty inside for several months. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emotionally unstable personality disorder - borderline type

      Explanation:

      Personality Disorders and their Characteristics

      Janet’s behavior suggests that she may have emotionally unstable personality disorder – borderline type. This disorder is characterized by emotional instability, impulsivity, and deliberate attempts at self-harm. Individuals with this disorder often have intense but unstable relationships and feel a chronic sense of emptiness. Traumatic events in childhood may also be a factor.

      In contrast, emotionally unstable personality disorder – impulsive type is characterized by explosive outbursts due to poor impulse control. These individuals may be quarrelsome and easily enter into conflict, particularly when their impulsive or explosive acts are interrupted.

      Depressive episodes are characterized by low mood and other symptoms such as anhedonia, emotional blunting, changes in appetite and sleep patterns, feelings of guilt, and thoughts of suicide or death. Although Janet has taken an overdose, there are no other indications of a depressive episode in her history. However, a more detailed history may be necessary to determine if she is experiencing these symptoms or any other psychiatric illnesses.

      It is important to note that individuals with personality disorders may also suffer from other psychiatric illnesses, known as co-morbidity. Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by shallow and labile affectivity, self-dramatization, theatricality, egocentricity, and a continual need for appreciation, excitement, and attention. Anakastic personality disorder is similar to obsessive-compulsive personality disorder and is characterized by preoccupation with detail, rules, organization, and schedules, which can hinder completion of tasks and relationships.

      Overall, the characteristics of different personality disorders can help in identifying and treating individuals who may be struggling with these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 22 - What are the personality disorders included in Cluster B (the 'dramatic' group) in...

    Incorrect

    • What are the personality disorders included in Cluster B (the 'dramatic' group) in the DSM?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic

      Explanation:

      Classification of Psychiatric Disorders

      Psychiatric disorders are often grouped together based on their similarities, which can be useful for research and classification purposes. The three main clusters are eccentric, dramatic, and fearful. The eccentric cluster includes paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal disorders. The dramatic cluster includes borderline, narcissistic, antisocial, and histrionic disorders. The fearful cluster includes obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent disorders.

      The classification of psychiatric disorders follows the operational criteria of either DSM or ICD. DSM-V, published by the American Psychiatric Association, is multi-axial and allows for assessment of the patient’s current mental state diagnosis, personality disorder and learning difficulties, any physical condition, psychosocial or environmental factors, and global assessment of functioning scale. On the other hand, ICD-10, published by the World Health Organization, is used widely in Europe and also includes a multi-axial approach. However, personality disorder is not differentiated from other mental state disorders in ICD. The three axes in ICD are current mental state diagnosis (including personality disorder), disabilities, and contextual factors.

      In summary, the classification of psychiatric disorders is important for research and treatment purposes. The three main clusters of disorders are eccentric, dramatic, and fearful. DSM and ICD are the two main operational criteria used for classification, with DSM being multi-axial and including a global assessment of functioning scale, while ICD is also multi-axial but does not differentiate personality disorder from other mental state disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 23 - A 67-year-old man is admitted to the geriatric ward following a recent fall....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man is admitted to the geriatric ward following a recent fall. As the on-call psychiatrist, you have been asked to review his medication. He has a medical history of Parkinson's disease, major depression, diverticulosis, and recurrent falls. Despite this, he reports feeling well. The patient's current medication list includes paracetamol, aspirin, phenelzine, codeine, naproxen, fluoxetine, lactulose, and senna.

      What changes, if any, may need to be made to his medication regimen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Remove phenelzine

      Explanation:

      Due to the increased risk of central serotonin syndrome, fluoxetine should not be prescribed alongside phenelzine, a non-selective and irreversible monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI).

      As the patient is not experiencing nausea or vomiting, there is no need to prescribe metoclopramide. Additionally, metoclopramide is not suitable for this patient with Parkinson’s disease as it can worsen their symptoms as a dopamine antagonist.

      The patient’s senna should not be discontinued as it is likely necessary for regular bowel movements due to their history of diverticulosis. Lactulose may also be needed for this purpose.

      As the patient is not reporting any pain, there is no need to increase their pain relief at this time.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 24 - A 27-year-old male has been admitted to a psychiatric hospital following his arrest...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male has been admitted to a psychiatric hospital following his arrest for a public order offence. According to reports, he stripped off his clothes in a public park and claimed to be the son of God, offering to cure people of any illness. He has a history of bipolar disorder and has ceased taking his medication. What is the probable nature of his delusions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Grandiose delusions

      Explanation:

      Types of Delusions

      Grandiose delusions are a type of delusion where the individual has an inflated sense of self-importance. They believe that they are related to a higher figure, such as a deity, a monarch, or a celebrity. They may also believe that they possess great wealth, power, or social status. These delusions are commonly seen in individuals with bipolar disorder during manic episodes, as well as in other psychotic disorders.

      On the other hand, erotomanic delusions are a type of delusion where the individual believes that someone of a higher social status is in love with them. This type of delusion can be dangerous, as the individual may become obsessed with the object of their delusion and may engage in stalking or other inappropriate behaviors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 25 - What category of hallucination does Jane experience when she hears someone calling her...

    Incorrect

    • What category of hallucination does Jane experience when she hears someone calling her name while being alone in the house?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypnogogic hallucination

      Explanation:

      Types of Hallucinations

      Hypnogogic and hypnopompic hallucinations are two types of hallucinations that occur during the sleep cycle. Hypnogogic hallucinations happen when a person is falling asleep and can be auditory, visual, tactile, or kinaesthetic. On the other hand, hypnopompic hallucinations occur when a person is waking up, and the hallucination continues even after the person opens their eyes. These types of hallucinations are not indicative of any psychopathology and can occur in individuals with narcolepsy.

      Reflex hallucinations are another type of hallucination that occurs when a true sensory stimulus causes an hallucination in another sensory modality. Autoscopy is a unique experience where an individual sees themselves and knows that it is themselves. This experience is visual and is sometimes referred to as the ‘phantom mirror image.’ Finally, auditory illusions occur when an auditory stimulus is misrepresented or misinterpreted by the listener.

      In summary, there are various types of hallucinations that can occur in different stages of the sleep cycle or due to sensory stimuli. While these experiences may seem unusual, they do not necessarily indicate any underlying mental health issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 26 - A 24-year-old male has just begun taking risperidone for schizophrenia. Soon after starting...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old male has just begun taking risperidone for schizophrenia. Soon after starting the medication, he observes that his breasts have become enlarged and there is some discharge. He also confesses to experiencing a decrease in libido and erectile dysfunction.

      What dopaminergic pathway is being suppressed to result in this manifestation, which is diagnosed as hyperprolactinemia due to the use of antipsychotics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tuberoinfundibular pathway

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics cause hyperprolactinaemia by inhibiting the tuberoinfundibular pathway, a dopaminergic pathway that originates from the hypothalamus and extends to the median eminence. This inhibition results in an increase in prolactin levels, which is responsible for the patient’s symptoms. Parkinson’s disease is associated with dysfunction in the nigrostriatal pathway, while schizophrenia is linked to abnormalities in the mesolimbic and mesocortical pathways. The corticospinal tract is involved in movement.

      Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 27 - A young intern consistently shows up late for rounds and fabricates medical excuses....

    Incorrect

    • A young intern consistently shows up late for rounds and fabricates medical excuses. Meanwhile, they criticize a fellow intern for being unreliable and inept in their duties.

      Which ego defense mechanism is being exhibited in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Projection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ego Defenses

      Ego defenses are psychological mechanisms that individuals use to protect themselves from unpleasant emotions or thoughts. These defenses are classified into four levels, each with its own set of defense mechanisms. The first level, psychotic defenses, is considered pathological as it distorts reality to avoid dealing with it. The second level, immature defenses, includes projection, acting out, and projective identification. The third level, neurotic defenses, has short-term benefits but can lead to problems in the long run. These defenses include repression, rationalization, and regression. The fourth and most advanced level, mature defenses, includes altruism, sublimation, and humor.

      Despite the usefulness of understanding ego defenses, their classification and definitions can be inconsistent and frustrating to learn for exams. It is important to note that these defenses are not necessarily good or bad, but rather a natural part of human behavior. By recognizing and understanding our own ego defenses, we can better manage our emotions and thoughts in a healthy way.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 28 - A 68-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department on Thursday evening after...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department on Thursday evening after falling and hitting his head on the pavement. He was found to be heavily intoxicated and unable to stand. A CT scan of his head reveals a crescent-shaped hematoma on the right side. The patient undergoes a burr-hole craniostomy with irrigation, which goes smoothly. However, two days later, the nursing staff notices that he is restless and agitated. He is speaking to his deceased wife, who passed away 15 years ago, and does not recognize any of the nurses. Additionally, he has developed hand tremors.

      What medication has been overlooked by the medical team caring for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chlordiazepoxide

      Explanation:

      Long-acting benzodiazepines are administered in decreasing doses to manage alcohol withdrawal symptoms in patients with a history of alcohol abuse. A man with such a history presents with anxiety, restlessness, visual and auditory hallucinations, and tremors 48 hours after his last alcohol intake. Chlordiazepoxide, a benzodiazepine, is prescribed to alleviate acute alcohol withdrawal and anxiety. Mannitol is indicated for cerebral edema, furosemide is a diuretic, and escitalopram is commonly used to treat anxiety and depression.

      Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. This is due to the fact that chronic alcohol consumption enhances GABA-mediated inhibition in the central nervous system (CNS), similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. When alcohol consumption is stopped, the opposite occurs, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission.

      Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start within 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at around 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which is characterized by coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, is most likely to occur at around 48-72 hours.

      Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said not to be as effective in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 29 - A 45-year-old man is undergoing psychiatric assessment for presenting symptoms of low mood,...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man is undergoing psychiatric assessment for presenting symptoms of low mood, lack of interest, fatigue, and suicidal ideation. He has been unemployed for a year and divorced his wife. He is facing financial difficulties and has been heavily drinking alcohol for the past few years. He attempted suicide three years ago.

      What is the primary risk factor for future suicide completion in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Previous suicide attempt

      Explanation:

      One of the most significant risk factors for future suicide completion is a history of previous suicide attempts, even when other risk factors such as male sex, young or elderly age, depression, alcohol or drug use, lack of social support, and expressed future intent are present.

      The risk of suicide in psychiatric patients is often stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories, but there is limited evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that these assessments may not be useful in guiding decision making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. However, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, such as male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.

      If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional factors that increase the risk of completed suicide in the future, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as having family support, having children at home, and having a religious belief.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 30 - A middle-aged male patient with a history of schizophrenia and non-compliance with medication...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged male patient with a history of schizophrenia and non-compliance with medication presents with delusions of alien possession. How would you characterize his delusions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Delusions of control

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia Symptoms: Delusion of Control, Depersonalisation, and Delusions of Misidentification

      Delusion of control, also known as passivity experience, is a primary symptom of schizophrenia identified by Schneider. This symptom is characterized by the belief that one’s body, mind, volition, or emotion is being controlled by another entity, being, or force. On the other hand, depersonalisation is the feeling of being disconnected from reality, often accompanied by derealisation.

      Delusions of misidentification, another symptom of schizophrenia, can be divided into two types: Fregoli Syndrome and Capgras Syndrome. Fregoli Syndrome is the belief that someone whose appearance is unfamiliar is actually someone you know, while Capgras Syndrome is the belief that someone who looks familiar is an imposter.

      Overall, these symptoms can significantly impact an individual’s perception of reality and their ability to function in daily life. It is important to seek professional help if experiencing any of these symptoms or suspecting someone else may be experiencing them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychiatry (2/16) 13%
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