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  • Question 1 - A 67-year-old man with a past medical history of dyspepsia presents with a...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man with a past medical history of dyspepsia presents with a gastric MALT lymphoma confirmed on biopsy. What treatment options are available?

      Your Answer: H. pylori eradication

      Explanation:

      To treat gastric MALT lymphoma, it is recommended to eliminate H. pylori.

      Gastric MALT Lymphoma: A Brief Overview

      Gastric MALT lymphoma is a type of lymphoma that is commonly associated with H. pylori infection, which is present in 95% of cases. The good news is that this type of lymphoma has a good prognosis, especially if it is low grade. In fact, about 80% of patients with low-grade gastric MALT lymphoma respond well to H. pylori eradication.

      One potential feature of gastric MALT lymphoma is the presence of paraproteinaemia, which is an abnormal protein in the blood. However, this is not always present and may not be a reliable indicator of the disease. Overall, gastric MALT lymphoma is a treatable form of lymphoma with a high likelihood of successful treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old man is evaluated by the prehospital trauma team after being in...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man is evaluated by the prehospital trauma team after being in a car accident. The team decides that rapid sequence induction with intubation is necessary to treat his condition. Etomidate is chosen as the induction agent. What significant adverse effect should be kept in mind when administering this anesthetic agent?

      Your Answer: Malignant hyperthermia

      Correct Answer: Adrenal suppression

      Explanation:

      Adrenal suppression is a potential side effect of using etomidate, an induction agent commonly used in rapid sequence induction. This occurs due to the inhibition of the 11-beta-hydroxylase enzyme, resulting in decreased cortisol production and secretion from the adrenal gland. It is important to be aware of this side effect as it can lead to severe hypotension and require treatment with steroids.

      Ketamine, another sedative used for procedural sedation, may cause hallucinations and behavioral changes. It is recommended to use ketamine in a calm and quiet environment whenever possible.

      Volatile halogenated anaesthetics like isoflurane have been associated with hepatotoxicity, but etomidate is not known to cause any hepatic disorders.

      Suxamethonium, a neuromuscular blocking drug used in anaesthetics, can cause malignant hyperthermia, a dangerous side effect that can lead to multi-organ failure and cardiovascular collapse. Dantrolene is used to treat malignant hyperthermia.

      Overview of General Anaesthetics

      General anaesthetics are drugs used to induce a state of unconsciousness in patients undergoing surgical procedures. There are two main types of general anaesthetics: inhaled and intravenous. Inhaled anaesthetics, such as isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane, and nitrous oxide, are administered through inhalation. These drugs work by acting on various receptors in the brain, including GABAA, glycine, NDMA, nACh, and 5-HT3 receptors. Inhaled anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as myocardial depression, malignant hyperthermia, and hepatotoxicity.

      Intravenous anaesthetics, such as propofol, thiopental, etomidate, and ketamine, are administered through injection. These drugs work by potentiating GABAA receptors or blocking NDMA receptors. Intravenous anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as pain on injection, hypotension, laryngospasm, myoclonus, and disorientation. However, they are often preferred over inhaled anaesthetics in cases of haemodynamic instability.

      It is important to note that the exact mechanism of action of general anaesthetics is not fully understood. Additionally, the choice of anaesthetic depends on various factors such as the patient’s medical history, the type of surgery, and the anaesthetist’s preference. Overall, general anaesthetics play a crucial role in modern medicine by allowing for safe and painless surgical procedures.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 3 - A 24-year-old male presents to the emergency department after crashing his motorcycle into...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old male presents to the emergency department after crashing his motorcycle into a bus stop. He is alert and oriented to person, place, and time, but reports extreme pain in multiple areas. On physical examination, he exhibits tenderness and pain in his right leg, significant abdominal bruising, and diffuse tenderness over his ribcage. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 105 beats/min, blood pressure of 105/62 mmHg, respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min, and SpO2 of 98% on room air. Imaging reveals multiple fractures, including a fractured right femur, multiple fractured ribs, and a fractured left tibia. The patient is consented and sent for emergency surgery. Which induction agent is the most preferable for anesthesia?

      Your Answer: Propofol

      Correct Answer: Ketamine

      Explanation:

      Ketamine is a suitable choice for anesthesia in trauma patients as it does not lead to a decrease in blood pressure. This is particularly important for patients like the one in this case who have borderline low blood pressure and are at risk of experiencing low blood pressure during surgery. Ketamine is an NMDA receptor antagonist that can increase blood pressure, making it a useful option for anesthesia in trauma patients. Etomidate, although it has milder cardiovascular effects than propofol, is still not recommended for use in trauma or bleeding patients compared to ketamine. Midazolam, when used as an induction agent, can also cause a drop in blood pressure. Propofol, on the other hand, can cause hypotension in a dose-dependent manner and is therefore not ideal for patients who are already bleeding, have polytrauma, or have borderline blood pressure.

      Overview of General Anaesthetics

      General anaesthetics are drugs used to induce a state of unconsciousness in patients undergoing surgical procedures. There are two main types of general anaesthetics: inhaled and intravenous. Inhaled anaesthetics, such as isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane, and nitrous oxide, are administered through inhalation. These drugs work by acting on various receptors in the brain, including GABAA, glycine, NDMA, nACh, and 5-HT3 receptors. Inhaled anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as myocardial depression, malignant hyperthermia, and hepatotoxicity.

      Intravenous anaesthetics, such as propofol, thiopental, etomidate, and ketamine, are administered through injection. These drugs work by potentiating GABAA receptors or blocking NDMA receptors. Intravenous anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as pain on injection, hypotension, laryngospasm, myoclonus, and disorientation. However, they are often preferred over inhaled anaesthetics in cases of haemodynamic instability.

      It is important to note that the exact mechanism of action of general anaesthetics is not fully understood. Additionally, the choice of anaesthetic depends on various factors such as the patient’s medical history, the type of surgery, and the anaesthetist’s preference. Overall, general anaesthetics play a crucial role in modern medicine by allowing for safe and painless surgical procedures.

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  • Question 4 - An 80-year-old male is admitted to the urology ward with acute urinary retention....

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old male is admitted to the urology ward with acute urinary retention. He is catheterised successfully with a large retention volume of 1.5 litres and therefore kept on the ward for observation. Over the next 24 hours, the patient has a urine output of 200 ml/hour and develops increasing confusion. His blood results are as follows:

      Hb 130 g/L Male: (135-180)

      Platelets 280 * 109/L (150 - 400)

      WBC 9 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)

      K+ 4.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)

      Urea 8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)

      Creatinine 130 ”mol/L (55 - 120)

      CRP 3 mg/L (< 5)

      What could be the possible reason for the patient's confusion?

      Your Answer: Post-obstructive diuresis

      Explanation:

      To prevent any further deterioration of AKI, the patient’s urine output was replaced with intravenous fluids. Delirium, which can present as confusion, is often caused by infection or uncontrolled pain. However, since there were no indications of infection or pain in the patient’s medical history, delirium was not considered the primary differential diagnosis. Although diabetes insipidus can cause polyuria, it is unlikely in this case as there were no known triggers such as lithium therapy.

      Acute urinary retention is a condition where a person suddenly becomes unable to pass urine voluntarily, typically over a period of hours or less. It is a common urological emergency that requires investigation to determine the underlying cause. While it is more common in men, it rarely occurs in women, with an incidence ratio of 13:1. Acute urinary retention is most frequently seen in men over 60 years of age, and the incidence increases with age. It has been estimated that around a third of men in their 80s will develop acute urinary retention over a five-year period.

      The most common cause of acute urinary retention in men is benign prostatic hyperplasia, a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland that presses on the urethra, making it difficult for the bladder to empty. Other causes include urethral obstructions, such as strictures, calculi, cystocele, constipation, or masses, as well as certain medications that affect nerve signals to the bladder. In some cases, there may be a neurological cause for the condition. Acute urinary retention can also occur postoperatively and in women postpartum, typically due to a combination of risk factors.

      Patients with acute urinary retention typically experience an inability to pass urine, lower abdominal discomfort, and considerable pain or distress. Elderly patients may also present with an acute confusional state. Unlike chronic urinary retention, which is typically painless, acute urinary retention is associated with pain and discomfort. A palpable distended urinary bladder may be detected on abdominal or rectal examination, and lower abdominal tenderness may also be present. All patients should undergo a rectal and neurological examination, and women should also have a pelvic examination.

      To confirm the diagnosis of acute urinary retention, a bladder ultrasound should be performed. The bladder volume should be greater than 300 cc to confirm the diagnosis, but if the history and examination are consistent with acute urinary retention, an inconsistent bladder scan does not rule out the condition. Acute urinary retention is managed by decompressing the bladder via catheterisation. Further investigation should be targeted by the likely cause, and patients may require IV fluids to correct any temporary over-diuresis that may occur as a complication.

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  • Question 5 - A 78-year old man taking alendronic acid presents with a painful lower left...

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    • A 78-year old man taking alendronic acid presents with a painful lower left arm after falling at home. An x-ray shows a fracture of the distal radius with dorsal displacement of the distal fragment. What is the medical term for this type of fracture?

      Your Answer: Colles' fracture

      Explanation:

      Common Fractures and Their Definitions

      Bennett’s fracture is a type of fracture that occurs at the base of the first metacarpal bone within the joint. Galeazzi’s fracture, on the other hand, involves the radial shaft with dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint. Pott’s fracture is a general term used to describe fractures that occur around the ankle. Lastly, Colles’ fracture is a type of distal radial fracture that results in dorsal and radial displacement of the distal fragment.

      These four types of fractures are commonly encountered in medical practice. It is important to understand their definitions and characteristics to properly diagnose and treat them. By knowing the specific type of fracture, healthcare professionals can determine the appropriate course of treatment and ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 6 - A 68-year-old male presents to the emergency department via ambulance with severe abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old male presents to the emergency department via ambulance with severe abdominal pain and vomiting. He has a history of similar but less severe episodes in the past. The patient has a medical history of gastro-oesophageal reflux, osteoarthritis, and COPD. He has a smoking history of 30 pack-years and drinks 40 units of alcohol per week. After stabilizing the patient using an ABCDE approach, investigations reveal moderately raised amylase, deranged liver function tests, and free air under the diaphragm on chest x-ray. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Peptic ulcer perforation

      Explanation:

      Peptic ulcer disease is more likely to occur in individuals who have a history of using NSAIDs and steroids. If there is suspicion of pancreatitis, it is important to rule out peptic ulcer perforation by conducting an erect chest x-ray to confirm the presence of free air under the diaphragm. The typical symptom of cholecystitis is a colicky pain that occurs after consuming fatty foods.

      Exam Features of Abdominal Pain Conditions

      Abdominal pain can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to be familiar with their characteristic exam features. Peptic ulcer disease, for instance, may present with epigastric pain that is relieved by eating in duodenal ulcers and worsened by eating in gastric ulcers. Appendicitis, on the other hand, may initially cause pain in the central abdomen before localizing to the right iliac fossa, accompanied by anorexia, tenderness in the right iliac fossa, and a positive Rovsing’s sign. Acute pancreatitis, which is often due to alcohol or gallstones, may manifest as severe epigastric pain and vomiting, with tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever on examination.

      Other conditions that may cause abdominal pain include biliary colic, diverticulitis, and intestinal obstruction. Biliary colic may cause pain in the right upper quadrant that radiates to the back and interscapular region, while diverticulitis may present with colicky pain in the left lower quadrant, fever, and raised inflammatory markers. Intestinal obstruction, which may be caused by malignancy or previous operations, may lead to vomiting, absence of bowel movements, and tinkling bowel sounds.

      It is also important to remember that some conditions may have unusual or medical causes of abdominal pain, such as acute coronary syndrome, diabetic ketoacidosis, pneumonia, acute intermittent porphyria, and lead poisoning. Therefore, being familiar with the characteristic exam features of various conditions can aid in the diagnosis and management of abdominal pain.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP with a lump on her left...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP with a lump on her left breast. She has no family history of breast cancer. Upon examination, a smooth, rubbery, mobile mass measuring 4 cm in diameter with clearly defined edges is found. An ultrasound of her breasts reveals a single round solid mass of 4 cm diameter, which is well circumscribed and lobulated. Core biopsy confirms the presence of epithelial and stromal elements consistent with a fibroadenoma. The lump is causing her moderate discomfort and she expresses a desire to have it removed. What is the most appropriate advice to give this patient?

      A) The lump will regress by itself so no need to remove.
      B) The lump is non-cancerous and hence cannot be removed, but she should return if it changes or grows.
      C) Refer her for excision biopsy to remove the mass.
      D) Prescribe her ibuprofen for the pain, and advise her that she does not require removal of the lump.
      E) Refer her for a breast mammogram to assess the lump.

      Explanation:
      As the lump has examination, ultrasound, and histological findings consistent with a fibroadenoma and is causing moderate discomfort, surgical excision should be recommended. It is important to obtain histological evidence to confirm the diagnosis of fibroadenoma if excision is required. Observation and simple advice would be sufficient if the fibroadenoma were less than 3 cm, but the size and discomfort of this lump make that option incorrect. A breast mammogram is usually ineffective for a younger woman due to dense breasts. Prescribing ibuprofen is generally the treatment for fibroadenosis, which is a different condition where women experience painful breasts generally around their periods. It would not be a solution for the discomfort caused by the mass effect of the fibroadenoma.

      Your Answer: Refer her for excision biopsy to remove the mass

      Explanation:

      Surgical excision is the recommended course of action for a breast fibroadenoma that is over 3 cm in size and causing moderate discomfort, based on examination, ultrasound, and histological findings. It is important to confirm the diagnosis of fibroadenoma through histological evidence before proceeding with excision. While some fibroadenomas may disappear without treatment, this is not the case for larger ones causing discomfort. Observation and simple advice are only appropriate for fibroadenomas that are less than 3 cm in size. A breast mammogram is generally not effective for younger women with dense breasts. Prescribing ibuprofen is not a solution for the discomfort caused by the fibroadenoma, as this is a different condition from fibroadenosis, which causes painful breasts around the time of menstruation.

      Understanding Breast Fibroadenoma

      Breast fibroadenoma is a type of breast mass that develops from a whole lobule. It is characterized by a mobile, firm, and smooth lump in the breast, which is often referred to as a breast mouse. Fibroadenoma accounts for about 12% of all breast masses and is more common in women under the age of 30.

      Fortunately, fibroadenomas are usually benign and do not increase the risk of developing breast cancer. In fact, over a two-year period, up to 30% of fibroadenomas may even get smaller on their own. However, if the lump is larger than 3 cm, surgical excision is typically recommended.

      In summary, breast fibroadenoma is a common type of breast mass that is usually benign and does not increase the risk of breast cancer. While it may cause concern for some women, it is important to remember that most fibroadenomas do not require treatment and may even resolve on their own.

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  • Question 8 - A 72-year-old man is prescribed tamsulosin for benign prostatic hyperplasia. What are the...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man is prescribed tamsulosin for benign prostatic hyperplasia. What are the potential side-effects he may encounter?

      Your Answer: Dizziness + postural hypotension

      Explanation:

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into voiding symptoms (obstructive) and storage symptoms (irritative). Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.

      Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine tests, U&Es, and PSA tests. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line treatment for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms, while 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may be indicated for patients with significantly enlarged prostates and a high risk of progression. Combination therapy and antimuscarinic drugs may also be used in certain cases. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may be necessary in severe cases.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old woman is one day post-anterior resection for rectal cancer. During the...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman is one day post-anterior resection for rectal cancer. During the morning ward round, she complains of severe abdominal pain, refractory to IV paracetamol, which the patient is currently prescribed. The consultant examines the patient and feels that the pain is due to the procedure and that there are no signs of any acute complications. The patient reports that she is allergic to morphine. What is the most suitable course of action for managing her pain?

      Your Answer: Oxycodone

      Explanation:

      Common Pain Medications and Their Uses

      Oxycodone is a potent synthetic opioid used for managing severe pain, particularly in patients who cannot tolerate morphine. Codeine phosphate, on the other hand, is a weak opioid primarily used for mild to moderate pain and would not be suitable for severe pain management. Gabapentin is indicated for neuropathic pain and is not recommended for acute pain management, such as post-operative pain. Ibuprofen is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used for musculoskeletal pain and biliary/renal colic, but it is a weak analgesic and not effective for severe pain. Tramadol is a weak opioid prescribed for moderate pain. Understanding the differences between these medications can help healthcare providers choose the appropriate treatment for their patients.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 10 - A 80-year-old woman falls during her shopping trip and sustains an injury to...

    Correct

    • A 80-year-old woman falls during her shopping trip and sustains an injury to her left upper limb. Upon arrival at the Emergency department, an x-ray reveals a fracture of the shaft of her humerus. During the assessment, it is observed that the pulses in her forearm are weak on the side of the fracture. Which artery is most likely to have been affected by the injury?

      Your Answer: Brachial

      Explanation:

      Brachial Artery Trauma in Humeral Shaft Fractures

      The brachial artery, which runs around the midshaft of the humerus, can be affected by trauma when the humeral shaft is fractured. The extent of the damage can vary, from pressure occlusion to partial or complete transection, and may also involve mural contusion with secondary thrombosis. To determine the nature of the damage, an arteriogram should be performed. Appropriate surgery, in combination with fracture fixation, should then be undertaken to address the injury. It is important to promptly assess and treat brachial artery trauma in humeral shaft fractures to prevent further complications and ensure proper healing.

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  • Question 11 - A 55-year-old woman has been diagnosed with breast cancer and is receiving trastuzumab...

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    • A 55-year-old woman has been diagnosed with breast cancer and is receiving trastuzumab as part of her treatment. What is the rationale for using trastuzumab in breast cancer therapy?

      Your Answer: HER2 +ve

      Explanation:

      Trastuzumab (herceptin) is only recommended for women who test positive for HER2. Women who test positive for ER can be prescribed tamoxifen or aromatase inhibitors, depending on their menopausal status.

      Breast cancer management varies depending on the stage of the cancer, type of tumor, and patient’s medical history. Treatment options may include surgery, radiotherapy, hormone therapy, biological therapy, and chemotherapy. Surgery is typically the first option for most patients, except for elderly patients with metastatic disease who may benefit more from hormonal therapy. Prior to surgery, an axillary ultrasound is recommended for patients without palpable axillary lymphadenopathy, while those with clinically palpable lymphadenopathy require axillary node clearance. The type of surgery offered depends on various factors, such as tumor size, location, and type. Breast reconstruction is also an option for patients who have undergone a mastectomy.

      Radiotherapy is recommended after a wide-local excision to reduce the risk of recurrence, while mastectomy patients may receive radiotherapy for T3-T4 tumors or those with four or more positive axillary nodes. Hormonal therapy is offered if tumors are positive for hormone receptors, with tamoxifen being used in pre- and perimenopausal women and aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole in postmenopausal women. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer, venous thromboembolism, and menopausal symptoms. Biological therapy, such as trastuzumab, is used for HER2-positive tumors but cannot be used in patients with a history of heart disorders. Chemotherapy may be used before or after surgery, depending on the stage of the tumor and the presence of axillary node disease. FEC-D is commonly used in the latter case.

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  • Question 12 - A 67-year-old female is admitted for an elective total hip replacement of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old female is admitted for an elective total hip replacement of the left hip. Upon admission, she is provided with thigh-length anti-embolism stockings to wear before surgery and until she regains mobility. The hospital follows a policy of administering low molecular weight heparin for postoperative thromboprophylaxis. As per NICE guidelines, at what point should this be initiated?

      Your Answer: 1-4 hours after surgery

      Correct Answer: 6-12 hours after surgery

      Explanation:

      NICE suggests starting a low molecular weight heparin within 6-12 hours after elective total hip replacement surgery.

      Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a serious condition that can lead to severe health complications and even death. However, it is preventable. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for 2018 to provide recommendations for the assessment and management of patients at risk of VTE in hospital. All patients admitted to the hospital should be assessed individually to identify risk factors for VTE development and bleeding risk. The department of health’s VTE risk assessment tool is recommended for medical and surgical patients. Patients with certain risk factors, such as reduced mobility, surgery, cancer, and comorbidities, are at increased risk of developing VTE. After assessing a patient’s VTE risk, healthcare professionals should compare it to their risk of bleeding to decide whether VTE prophylaxis should be offered. If indicated, VTE prophylaxis should be started as soon as possible.

      There are two types of VTE prophylaxis: mechanical and pharmacological. Mechanical prophylaxis includes anti-embolism stockings and intermittent pneumatic compression devices. Pharmacological prophylaxis includes fondaparinux sodium, low molecular weight heparin (LMWH), and unfractionated heparin (UFH). The choice of prophylaxis depends on the patient’s individual risk factors and bleeding risk.

      In general, medical patients deemed at risk of VTE after individual assessment are started on pharmacological VTE prophylaxis, provided that the risk of VTE outweighs the risk of bleeding and there are no contraindications. Surgical patients at low risk of VTE are treated with anti-embolism stockings, while those at high risk are treated with a combination of stockings and pharmacological prophylaxis.

      Patients undergoing certain surgical procedures, such as hip and knee replacements, are recommended to receive pharmacological VTE prophylaxis to reduce the risk of VTE developing post-surgery. For fragility fractures of the pelvis, hip, and proximal femur, LMWH or fondaparinux sodium is recommended for a month if the risk of VTE outweighs the risk of bleeding.

      Healthcare professionals should advise patients to stop taking their combined oral contraceptive pill or hormone replacement therapy four weeks before surgery and mobilize them as soon as possible after surgery. Patients should also ensure they are hydrated. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help prevent VTE and improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 13 - A 52-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of burning during urination and...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of burning during urination and swelling in the groin area. He also reports experiencing penile discharge and pain in the groin. He has been sexually active with his wife for the past 6 years.

      During the examination, his heart rate is 91/min, respiratory rate is 15/min, blood pressure is 129/84 mmHg, and temperature is 38.3ÂșC. The patient experiences pain in his right testicle, which is relieved by elevating the scrotum.

      What is the most likely organism responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Epididymo-orchitis in individuals with a low risk of sexually transmitted infections (such as a married male in his 50s with only one sexual partner, his wife) is most likely caused by enteric organisms, specifically Escherichia coli. This is evidenced by the patient’s symptoms of unilateral testicular pain, tenderness, and swelling, as well as dysuria and relief of pain when the testicle is raised. While Enterococcus faecalis is also a possible causative organism, E. coli is more common in older patients with low-risk sexual histories. Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae are less likely causes, as they are more commonly associated with epididymo-orchitis in younger patients with high-risk sexual histories.

      Epididymo-orchitis is a condition where the epididymis and/or testes become infected, leading to pain and swelling. It is commonly caused by infections spreading from the genital tract or bladder, with Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae being the usual culprits in sexually active younger adults, while E. coli is more commonly seen in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Symptoms include unilateral testicular pain and swelling, with urethral discharge sometimes present. Testicular torsion, which can cause ischaemia of the testicle, is an important differential diagnosis and needs to be excluded urgently, especially in younger patients with severe pain and an acute onset.

      Investigations are guided by the patient’s age, with sexually transmitted infections being assessed in younger adults and a mid-stream urine (MSU) being sent for microscopy and culture in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Management guidelines from the British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) recommend ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscularly as a single dose, plus doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 10-14 days if the organism causing the infection is unknown. Further investigations are recommended after treatment to rule out any underlying structural abnormalities.

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  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old woman presents to the pre-operative clinic for an elective cholecystectomy. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to the pre-operative clinic for an elective cholecystectomy. She reports feeling well and denies any recent infections or allergies. She has never smoked or consumed alcohol. Physical examination reveals normal vital signs, clear chest sounds, and normal heart sounds. Her capillary refill time is less than 2 seconds and there is no evidence of peripheral edema. What is the ASA classification for this patient?

      Your Answer: ASA I

      Correct Answer: ASA II

      Explanation:

      The patient’s pre-operative morbidity is assessed using the ASA scoring system, which takes into account various factors including BMI. Despite having no significant medical history and not smoking or drinking, the patient’s BMI is elevated and can be rounded up to 35 kg/mÂČ, placing him in the ASA II category. This category includes patients with a BMI between 30 and 40. A healthy patient who does not smoke or drink and has a BMI below 30 kg/mÂČ is classified as ASA I. Patients with severe systemic diseases such as poorly controlled diabetes, hypertension, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, or morbid obesity (BMI > 40 kg/mÂČ) are classified as ASA III. ASA IV is reserved for patients with severe systemic diseases that pose a constant threat to life, such as ongoing cardiac ischaemia or recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, and end-stage renal disease.

      The American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) classification is a system used to categorize patients based on their overall health status and the potential risks associated with administering anesthesia. There are six different classifications, ranging from ASA I (a normal healthy patient) to ASA VI (a declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes).

      ASA II patients have mild systemic disease, but without any significant functional limitations. Examples of mild diseases include current smoking, social alcohol drinking, pregnancy, obesity, and well-controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension. ASA III patients have severe systemic disease and substantive functional limitations, with one or more moderate to severe diseases. Examples include poorly controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension, COPD, morbid obesity, active hepatitis, alcohol dependence or abuse, implanted pacemaker, moderate reduction of ejection fraction, End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis, history of myocardial infarction, and cerebrovascular accidents.

      ASA IV patients have severe systemic disease that poses a constant threat to life, such as recent myocardial infarction or cerebrovascular accidents, ongoing cardiac ischemia or severe valve dysfunction, severe reduction of ejection fraction, sepsis, DIC, ARD, or ESRD not undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis. ASA V patients are moribund and not expected to survive without the operation, such as ruptured abdominal or thoracic aneurysm, massive trauma, intracranial bleed with mass effect, ischaemic bowel in the face of significant cardiac pathology, or multiple organ/system dysfunction. Finally, ASA VI patients are declared brain-dead and their organs are being removed for donor purposes.

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  • Question 15 - A 68-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of colicky abdominal pain for...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of colicky abdominal pain for the past 2 days and vomiting for the past 24 hours. She has a medical history of hypertension, glaucoma, and hysterectomy 20 years ago. During the examination, her abdomen appears distended with tinkling bowel sounds. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Small bowel obstruction

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s history of previous intra-abdominal surgery, it is highly probable that they are suffering from small bowel obstruction caused by adhesions. Symptoms typically include early vomiting and later absolute constipation. Treatment involves administering IV fluids and inserting a nasogastric tube. Diagnostic tests such as an abdominal x-ray to check for dilated bowel loops and an erect chest x-ray to detect pneumoperitoneum may be necessary. If conservative treatment fails to improve the patient’s condition, a CT scan may be required to determine the location and type of obstruction. Close collaboration with the surgical team is also recommended.

      Imaging for Bowel Obstruction

      Bowel obstruction is a condition that requires immediate medical attention. One of the key indications for diagnosing this condition is through imaging, particularly an abdominal film. The imaging process is done to identify whether the obstruction is in the small or large bowel.

      In small bowel obstruction, the maximum normal diameter is 35 mm, and the valvulae conniventes extend all the way across. On the other hand, in large bowel obstruction, the maximum normal diameter is 55 mm, and the haustra extend about a third of the way across.

      A CT scan is also used to diagnose small bowel obstruction. The scan shows distension of small bowel loops proximally, such as the duodenum and jejunum, with an abrupt transition to an intestinal segment of normal caliber. Additionally, a small amount of free fluid intracavity may be present.

      In summary, imaging is a crucial tool in diagnosing bowel obstruction. It helps identify the location of the obstruction and the extent of the damage. Early detection and treatment of bowel obstruction can prevent further complications and improve the patient’s prognosis.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 16 - A 55-year-old male patient complains of pain in the right upper quadrant that...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male patient complains of pain in the right upper quadrant that has been bothering him for the past 5 hours. During examination, his blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, heart rate is 75 bpm, temperature is 38.5ÂșC, and he displays signs of jaundice. What is the probable causative organism for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: E. coli

      Explanation:

      Jaundice can present in various surgical situations, and liver function tests can help classify whether the jaundice is pre hepatic, hepatic, or post hepatic. Different diagnoses have typical features and pathogenesis, and ultrasound is the most commonly used first-line test. Relief of jaundice is important, even if surgery is planned, and management depends on the underlying cause. Patients with unrelieved jaundice have a higher risk of complications and death. Treatment options include stenting, surgery, and antibiotics.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with a sudden and severe...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with a sudden and severe headache, which she describes as the worst she has ever experienced. The headache came on while she was sitting at her desk. She also reports feeling nauseous and vomiting.

      During the examination, the woman displays neck stiffness, photophobia, and appears drowsy. A CT scan reveals hyperdense across the basal cisterns and sulci.

      What is the appropriate course of action for managing the complications of this condition?

      Your Answer: Nimodipine

      Explanation:

      A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of bleeding that occurs within the subarachnoid space of the meninges in the brain. It can be caused by head injury or occur spontaneously. Spontaneous SAH is often caused by an intracranial aneurysm, which accounts for around 85% of cases. Other causes include arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, and mycotic aneurysms. The classic symptoms of SAH include a sudden and severe headache, nausea and vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and ECG changes.

      The first-line investigation for SAH is a non-contrast CT head, which can detect acute blood in the basal cisterns, sulci, and ventricular system. If the CT is normal within 6 hours of symptom onset, a lumbar puncture is not recommended. However, if the CT is normal after 6 hours, a lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after symptom onset to check for xanthochromia and other CSF findings consistent with SAH. If SAH is confirmed, referral to neurosurgery is necessary to identify the underlying cause and provide urgent treatment.

      Management of aneurysmal SAH involves supportive care, such as bed rest, analgesia, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. Vasospasm is prevented with oral nimodipine, and intracranial aneurysms require prompt intervention to prevent rebleeding. Most aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists, but some require a craniotomy and clipping by a neurosurgeon. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, hydrocephalus, vasospasm, and hyponatraemia. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and amount of blood visible on CT head.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old man is brought to the Emergency department following a house fire....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is brought to the Emergency department following a house fire. He appears lethargic, but his cheeks have a pinkish hue and he seems to be well perfused. His blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg and his pulse is 95 and regular. Upon blood gas analysis, a CO level of 12% and metabolic acidosis with a pH of 7.15 are detected. What is the most suitable next step in management?

      Your Answer: Hyperbaric oxygen

      Correct Answer: 100% oxygen by mask

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Carbon Monoxide Poisoning

      Carbon monoxide poisoning is a serious condition that requires prompt treatment. The recommended treatment is 100% oxygen by mask. Although some countries, such as the United States, recommend hyperbaric oxygen, it is not standard practice in the United Kingdom due to a lack of randomized control evidence. High flow oxygen alone appears to be just as effective. Sodium bicarbonate is not indicated, and IV mannitol is only used if there is suspicion of cerebral edema. The key to a good prognosis is removing the patient from the source of carbon monoxide as quickly as possible and starting high flow oxygen treatment. Long-term psychological disturbance or memory loss is possible if the level of carbon monoxide is at 12% or higher.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 19 - Which of the following interventions is most likely to decrease the occurrence of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following interventions is most likely to decrease the occurrence of intra-abdominal adhesions?

      Your Answer: Use of a laparoscopic approach over open surgery

      Explanation:

      Adhesion formation can be reduced by opting for laparoscopy over traditional surgery. The use of talc-coated surgical gloves, which was a major contributor to adhesion formation, has been discontinued. The outdated Nobles plication procedure does not aid in preventing adhesion formation. While the use of an anastomotic stapling device does not directly affect adhesion development, it is important to avoid anastomotic leaks as they can lead to increased adhesion formation.

      Complications can occur in all types of surgery and require vigilance in their detection. Anticipating likely complications and appropriate avoidance can minimize their occurrence. Understanding the anatomy of a surgical field will allow appreciation of local and systemic complications that may occur. Physiological and biochemical derangements may also occur, and appropriate diagnostic modalities should be utilized. Safe and timely intervention is the guiding principle for managing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 20 - A 56-year-old plumber visits his family doctor complaining of a lump in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old plumber visits his family doctor complaining of a lump in his groin. He has a medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and no prior surgeries or medical issues. The lump has been present for three weeks, causes mild discomfort, and has not increased in size. During the physical examination, a soft, reducible lump is observed on the left side, located above the pubic tubercle, without skin changes. The doctor suspects an indirect inguinal hernia. What test would confirm this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Reappearance of lump during coughing when covering the deep inguinal ring

      Correct Answer: No reappearance during coughing when covering the deep inguinal ring

      Explanation:

      To prevent the recurrence of an indirect inguinal hernia, pressure should be applied over the deep inguinal ring after reducing the hernia. This is because the hernia protrudes through the inguinal canal and covering the deep inguinal ring prevents it from reappearing during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as coughing. Noting bilateral herniae is not relevant to confirming or refuting the diagnosis, and there is no such thing as a femoral ring. If the lump reappears during coughing while covering the deep inguinal ring, it may indicate a direct hernia instead. It is important to distinguish between indirect and direct herniae during surgical repair, as they occur in different locations relative to the inferior epigastric blood vessels due to a hole in the internal oblique and transversus muscles.

      Abdominal wall hernias occur when an organ or the fascia of an organ protrudes through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it. Risk factors for developing these hernias include obesity, ascites, increasing age, and surgical wounds. Symptoms of abdominal wall hernias include a palpable lump, cough impulse, pain, obstruction (more common in femoral hernias), and strangulation (which can compromise the bowel blood supply and lead to infarction). There are several types of abdominal wall hernias, including inguinal hernias (which account for 75% of cases and are more common in men), femoral hernias (more common in women and have a high risk of obstruction and strangulation), umbilical hernias (symmetrical bulge under the umbilicus), paraumbilical hernias (asymmetrical bulge), epigastric hernias (lump in the midline between umbilicus and xiphisternum), incisional hernias (which may occur after abdominal surgery), Spigelian hernias (rare and seen in older patients), obturator hernias (more common in females and can cause bowel obstruction), and Richter hernias (a rare type of hernia that can present with strangulation without symptoms of obstruction). In children, congenital inguinal hernias and infantile umbilical hernias are the most common types, with surgical repair recommended for the former and most resolving on their own for the latter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Surgery (13/20) 65%
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