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Question 1
Incorrect
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A patient with a history of Crohn's disease for many years visits a Crohn's clinic with complaints of pain, swelling, and pus around the anus. The patient reports being stable otherwise, and their vital signs are normal. During a rectal exam, the patient experiences pain, and an inflamed opening is visible in the skin surrounding the anus, leading to a suspicion of an anal fistula. What is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?
Your Answer: Immediate surgical exploration of the fistula
Correct Answer: Pelvic MRI
Explanation:When dealing with patients who have been diagnosed with anal fistula, the priority is to determine the course of the fistula. This information is crucial in deciding whether surgery is necessary and what type of surgery would be most appropriate. Surgical exploration may be necessary in emergency situations, but it is generally not advisable to perform surgery without first understanding the structure and course of the fistula. The most effective way to characterise the fistula course is through an MRI, as CT scans and x-rays are not as effective in visualising the soft tissue of the fistula. Blood tests are not useful in providing information about the structure and course of the fistula. Currently, the patient is stable and in good health.
Fistulas are abnormal connections between two epithelial surfaces, with the majority arising from diverticular disease and Crohn’s in the abdominal cavity. They can be enterocutaneous, enteroenteric or enterocolic, enterovaginal, or enterovesicular. Conservative measures may be the best option for management, but high output fistulas may require octreotide and TPN for nutritional support. Surgeons should avoid probing perianal fistulae with acute inflammation and use setons for those secondary to Crohn’s disease. It is important to delineate the fistula anatomy using barium and CT studies for intraabdominal sources and recalling Goodsall’s rule for perianal fistulae.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 2
Correct
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A 60-year-old man presents to the clinic with a groin swelling. During the physical examination, the general practitioner notes a soft, painless lump located superomedial to the pubic tubercle on the left side. The patient experiences a positive cough impulse, and bowel sounds are audible upon auscultation. There is no testicular swelling, and the scrotum feels normal upon palpation. The GP successfully reduces the lump. What further steps should the GP take in the clinical examination to determine the subtype and anatomy of this swelling?
Your Answer: Press on the deep inguinal ring and ask the patient to cough
Explanation:To differentiate between a direct and indirect inguinal hernia during a clinical examination, it is important to understand their anatomical differences. While a direct hernia involves a defect in the posterior wall of the inguinal canal, an indirect hernia occurs when abdominal contents enter the canal through the deep inguinal ring. To control an indirect hernia, pressure can be applied over the deep inguinal ring after manually reducing the hernia. Asking the patient to cough while applying pressure can help determine if the hernia is indirect or direct. Measuring the size of the lump is not as useful as assessing symptoms, and pressing on the superficial inguinal ring while the patient coughs will not provide any additional information.
Abdominal wall hernias occur when an organ or the fascia of an organ protrudes through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it. Risk factors for developing these hernias include obesity, ascites, increasing age, and surgical wounds. Symptoms of abdominal wall hernias include a palpable lump, cough impulse, pain, obstruction (more common in femoral hernias), and strangulation (which can compromise the bowel blood supply and lead to infarction). There are several types of abdominal wall hernias, including inguinal hernias (which account for 75% of cases and are more common in men), femoral hernias (more common in women and have a high risk of obstruction and strangulation), umbilical hernias (symmetrical bulge under the umbilicus), paraumbilical hernias (asymmetrical bulge), epigastric hernias (lump in the midline between umbilicus and xiphisternum), incisional hernias (which may occur after abdominal surgery), Spigelian hernias (rare and seen in older patients), obturator hernias (more common in females and can cause bowel obstruction), and Richter hernias (a rare type of hernia that can present with strangulation without symptoms of obstruction). In children, congenital inguinal hernias and infantile umbilical hernias are the most common types, with surgical repair recommended for the former and most resolving on their own for the latter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 3
Correct
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A 50-year-old patient on your practice list has a BMI of 52 kg/mĀ² and is interested in bariatric surgery. There are no co-morbidities or contraindications for surgery.
What should be the next course of action?Your Answer: Refer for bariatric surgery
Explanation:Bariatric Surgery as a First-Line Option for Patients with High BMI
Patients with a BMI greater than 50 kg/mĀ² can be referred to bariatric surgery as a first-line option, provided they have no contraindications. If the patient has medical conditions that are affected by weight, surgery can be considered at a BMI greater than 35 kg/mĀ². There are no restrictions on referral for bariatric surgery based on BMI, but the decision will involve an anaesthetic risk assessment based on multiple factors.
Referral for bariatric surgery in patients with a BMI greater than 40 kg/mĀ² does not require them to have a medical condition affected by their weight. However, for patients with a BMI greater than 35 and up to 40 kg/mĀ², a medical condition affected by weight is required for referral. A dietary management plan may benefit the patient, but the request for surgical consideration does not need to be delayed for a further 6 months.
While awaiting surgical assessment, Orlistat could be trialled, but this does not need to delay the referral. In summary, bariatric surgery can be considered as a first-line option for patients with a high BMI, and referral should be made without delay, taking into account the patient’s medical history and anaesthetic risk assessment.
Bariatric Surgery for Obesity Management
Bariatric surgery has become a significant option in managing obesity over the past decade. For obese patients who fail to lose weight through lifestyle changes and medication, the risks and costs of long-term obesity outweigh those of surgery. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines recommend early referral for bariatric surgery for very obese patients with a BMI of 40-50 kg/m^2, especially if they have other conditions such as type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension.
There are three types of bariatric surgery: primarily restrictive, primarily malabsorptive, and mixed operations. Laparoscopic-adjustable gastric banding (LAGB) is the first-line intervention for patients with a BMI of 30-39 kg/m^2. It produces less weight loss than other procedures but has fewer complications. Sleeve gastrectomy reduces the stomach to about 15% of its original size, while the intragastric balloon can be left in the stomach for a maximum of six months. Biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch is usually reserved for very obese patients with a BMI over 60 kg/m^2. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery is both restrictive and malabsorptive in action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 4
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of left flank pain. He has a history of smoking a pack of cigarettes a day for 25 years. On physical examination, there is tenderness in the left flank but no palpable mass. Urine dipstick testing reveals the presence of blood. A CT scan of the abdomen shows a complex cystic mass with solid and liquid components, arising from the parenchyma of the left kidney and with septations. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Renal cell carcinoma
Explanation:Clear cell carcinoma is the most frequent histological type of malignant renal cancer. The classic triad of renal cancer includes flank pain, mass, and haematuria, but it is unusual for all three symptoms to be present at the initial diagnosis. Clear cell carcinoma can be distinguished from a simple cyst by its variegated, septated interior. Transitional cell carcinomas are less common and typically originate from the ureter. Angiomyolipomas are also infrequent and are linked to tuberous sclerosis.
Understanding Renal Cell Cancer
Renal cell cancer, also known as hypernephroma, is a primary renal neoplasm that accounts for 85% of cases. It typically arises from the proximal renal tubular epithelium, with the clear cell subtype being the most common. This type of cancer is more prevalent in middle-aged men and is associated with smoking, von Hippel-Lindau syndrome, and tuberous sclerosis. While renal cell cancer is only slightly increased in patients with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, it can present with a classical triad of haematuria, loin pain, and abdominal mass. Other features include pyrexia of unknown origin, endocrine effects, and paraneoplastic hepatic dysfunction syndrome.
The T category criteria for renal cell cancer are based on the size and extent of the tumour. For confined disease, a partial or total nephrectomy may be recommended depending on the tumour size. Patients with a T1 tumour are typically offered a partial nephrectomy, while those with larger tumours may require a total nephrectomy. Treatment options for renal cell cancer include alpha-interferon, interleukin-2, and receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitors such as sorafenib and sunitinib. These medications have been shown to reduce tumour size and treat patients with metastases. It is important to note that renal cell cancer can have paraneoplastic effects, such as Stauffer syndrome, which is associated with cholestasis and hepatosplenomegaly. Overall, early detection and prompt treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in patients with renal cell cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old male presents with a one day history of abdominal distension and vomiting.
Upon examination, there is an irreducible lump in the right groin arising below and lateral to the pubic tubercle. A plain abdominal radiograph reveals distended loops of small bowel.
Which of the following hernias are most likely to have caused these symptoms?Your Answer: Indirect inguinal
Correct Answer: Femoral
Explanation:Small Bowel Obstruction and Femoral Hernias
This patient is experiencing a small bowel obstruction, which is likely caused by an obstructed femoral hernia. The lump in the left groin that cannot be reduced arises below and lateral to the pubic tubercle, indicating a femoral hernia rather than an inguinal hernia, which would produce a lump above and medial to the pubic tubercle. Femoral hernias are the third most common type of hernia, with a higher incidence in elderly multiparous women. It is important to repair all femoral hernias, as 40% of cases are strangulated upon initial presentation. If the overlying skin becomes erythematosus, it is a sign of poor outcome. Obturator hernias are rare and typically do not present with a lump.
Overall, it is crucial to identify the type of hernia causing a small bowel obstruction in order to provide appropriate treatment. Femoral hernias, in particular, require prompt repair to prevent strangulation and potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman is preparing for an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy with general anesthesia and inquires about when she should discontinue her combined oral contraceptive pill. What is the best recommendation?
Your Answer: 2 days prior
Correct Answer: 4 weeks prior
Explanation:Stopping the combined oral contraceptive pill four weeks before the operation is recommended due to a higher likelihood of venous thromboembolism.
Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 7
Correct
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An 80-year-old woman complains of colicky abdominal pain and a tender mass in her groin. Upon examination, a small firm mass is found below and lateral to the pubic tubercle. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Incarcerated femoral hernia
Explanation:The most probable cause of the symptoms, which include intestinal issues and a mass in the femoral canal area, is a femoral hernia. This type of hernia is less common than inguinal hernias but accounts for a significant proportion of all groin hernias.
Understanding the Femoral Canal
The femoral canal is a fascial tunnel located at the medial aspect of the femoral sheath. It contains both the femoral artery and femoral vein, with the canal lying medial to the vein. The borders of the femoral canal include the femoral vein laterally, the lacunar ligament medially, the inguinal ligament anteriorly, and the pectineal ligament posteriorly.
The femoral canal is significant as it allows the femoral vein to expand, enabling increased venous return to the lower limbs. However, it can also be a site for femoral hernias, which occur when abdominal contents protrude through the femoral canal. This is a potential space, and the relatively tight neck of the canal places hernias at high risk of strangulation.
The contents of the femoral canal include lymphatic vessels and Cloquet’s lymph node. Understanding the anatomy and physiological significance of the femoral canal is important for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating potential hernias and other conditions that may affect this area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 8
Correct
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A 32-year-old man was admitted to the ICU 10 days ago following a car accident. He was intubated upon admission and has been on a ventilator for the past 10 days. During examination, it was observed that he had abdominal distension related to ventilation. Here are his investigations for the past three days:
8 days ago 9 days ago Today
CRP 2 5 10
WCC (x1011/L) 8 13 17
Chest X-ray Normal Normal?Your Answer: Tracheo-oesophageal fistula formation
Explanation:Tracheo-oesophageal fistula (TOF) formation is a potential complication of long term mechanical ventilation in trauma patients. This can increase the risk of ventilator-associated pneumonias and aspiration pneumonias, which are caused by the inhalation of stomach contents. The pressure exerted by the endotracheal tube on the posterior membranous wall of the trachea can lead to ischaemic necrosis that affects the anterior wall of the oesophagus, resulting in TOF formation.
It is unlikely that post nasal drip is responsible for the abdominal distension and infective symptoms in this case. A traumatic endotracheal tube insertion would have been detected much earlier than day fourteen, and proper placement of the tube during insertion would have ruled out TOF. Viral thyroiditis and oesophageal reflux are also unlikely to cause these clinical manifestations or airway obstruction.
Airway Management Devices and Techniques
Airway management is a crucial aspect of medical care, especially in emergency situations. In addition to airway adjuncts, there are simple positional manoeuvres that can be used to open the airway, such as head tilt/chin lift and jaw thrust. There are also several devices that can be used for airway management, each with its own advantages and limitations.
The oropharyngeal airway is easy to insert and use, making it ideal for short procedures. It is often used as a temporary measure until a more definitive airway can be established. The laryngeal mask is widely used and very easy to insert. It sits in the pharynx and aligns to cover the airway, but it does not provide good control against reflux of gastric contents. The tracheostomy reduces the work of breathing and may be useful in slow weaning, but it requires humidified air and may dry secretions. The endotracheal tube provides optimal control of the airway once the cuff is inflated and can be used for long or short-term ventilation, but errors in insertion may result in oesophageal intubation.
It is important to note that paralysis is often required for some of these devices, and higher ventilation pressures can be used with the endotracheal tube. Capnography should be monitored to ensure proper placement and ventilation. Each device has its own unique benefits and drawbacks, and the choice of device will depend on the specific needs of the patient and the situation at hand.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 9
Correct
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You encounter a 50-year-old man who confides in you about his personal issue. He has been experiencing difficulties with achieving and maintaining erections for the past year, and it has been progressively worsening. This patient seldom visits healthcare providers and has no prior medical conditions.
What is the predominant organic etiology for this symptom?Your Answer: Vascular causes
Explanation:Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a symptom characterized by the persistent inability to achieve and maintain an erection sufficient for satisfactory sexual performance. The causes of ED can be categorized into organic, psychogenic, and mixed, with certain medications also contributing to the condition. Organic causes of ED include vasculogenic, neurogenic, structural, and hormonal factors, while psychogenic causes can be generalized or situational. Among the organic causes, vasculogenic factors are the most common, with cardiovascular disease, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, diabetes mellitus, smoking, and major pelvic surgery being the primary culprits. As such, the risk factors for ED are similar to those for CVD, including obesity, diabetes, dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, hypertension, endothelial dysfunction, and lifestyle factors such as lack of exercise and smoking. Therefore, when evaluating a man with ED, it is important to screen for CVD and obtain a thorough psychosexual history.
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual activity. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with gradual onset of symptoms, lack of tumescence, and normal libido favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms, decreased libido, and major life events favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.
To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk, as well as free testosterone levels in the morning. If free testosterone is low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors.
For young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, referral to urology is appropriate. Additionally, people with ED who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop. Overall, ED is a common condition that can be effectively managed with appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 10
Correct
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As an FY1 on medical ward cover, you have been tasked with cannulating a 72-year-old female with type-1 diabetes. She is currently being treated for pneumonia, has a right below the knee amputation, and suffers from diabetic neuropathy. What would be the appropriate course of action in this scenario?
Your Answer: You should avoid cannulating his foot
Explanation:It is advisable to avoid cannulating the feet of a patient with a known history of diabetes. In this case, the patient has poorly controlled diabetes, diabetic retinopathy, and likely peripheral neuropathy, which has led to amputation. Cannulating the foot could easily result in a diabetic ulcer due to the neuropathy. However, there is no reason why the hand cannot be used for cannulation. While diabetics are more susceptible to infections, there are no guidelines stating that a cannula can only remain in place for 24 hours. It can stay in for up to 3 days, as in most other patients. Administering a shot of antibiotics prior to cannulation is unnecessary and potentially dangerous. A sterile, non-touch technique should be used to minimize the risk of infection, as in any other patient. While cannulation can be stressful for some patients, administering insulin would be inappropriate and hazardous. It is always important to check the patient’s blood glucose levels before administering insulin.
Intravenous Cannula: Colour, Size, and Maximal Flow Rates
Intravenous cannulas are medical devices used to administer fluids, medications, and blood products directly into a patient’s bloodstream. These cannulas come in different sizes and colours, each with a specific maximal flow rate. The colour and size of the cannula determine the amount of fluid that can be administered per minute.
The orange cannula, which has a size of 14g, has the highest maximal flow rate of 270 ml/min. The grey cannula, which has a size of 16g, has a maximal flow rate of 180 ml/min. The green cannula, which has a size of 18g, has a maximal flow rate of 80 ml/min. The pink cannula, which has a size of 20g, has a maximal flow rate of 54 ml/min. Lastly, the blue cannula, which has a size of 22g, has a maximal flow rate of 33 ml/min.
It is important to choose the appropriate cannula size and colour based on the patient’s needs and the type of fluid or medication being administered. Using the wrong cannula size or colour can result in complications such as infiltration, phlebitis, and extravasation. Therefore, healthcare professionals must be knowledgeable about the different types of cannulas and their maximal flow rates to ensure safe and effective patient care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset epigastric pain described as burning and radiating into his back. He reports vomiting and ongoing nausea. The patient has a history of recurrent gallstones and is awaiting a semi-elective cholecystectomy. He is not taking any regular medications. On examination, the patient has jaundiced sclera and diffuse abdominal tenderness with guarding. There is also periumbilical superficial oedema and bruising, and decreased bowel sounds on auscultation.
What is a crucial aspect of the immediate management of this patient, given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Immediate IV antibiotics (start with broad-spectrum if no culture sensitivity)
Correct Answer: Aggressive fluid resuscitation
Explanation:The patient’s history of gallstones, epigastric pain radiating to the back, nausea, vomiting, jaundice, periumbilical bruising, abdominal tenderness with guarding, and decreased bowel sounds suggest a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Tachycardia, fever, tachypnea, hypotension, and potential oliguria are expected observations in this patient. Early and aggressive fluid resuscitation is crucial in the management of acute pancreatitis to correct third space losses and increase tissue perfusion, preventing severe inflammatory response syndrome and pancreatic necrosis. Antibiotic administration is not mandatory, as there is no consensus on its effectiveness in preventing pancreatic necrosis. Cautious fluid resuscitation is inappropriate, and large volumes of IV fluids should be administered, with input/output monitoring. The patient should not be made nil by mouth unless there is a clear reason, and total parenteral nutrition should only be offered to patients with severe or moderately severe disease if enteral feeding has failed or is contraindicated. This patient requires enteral nutrition within 72 hours of admission, but may not require parenteral nutrition.
Managing Acute Pancreatitis in a Hospital Setting
Acute pancreatitis is a serious condition that requires management in a hospital setting. The severity of the condition can be stratified based on the presence of organ failure and local complications. Key aspects of care include fluid resuscitation, aggressive early hydration with crystalloids, and adequate pain management with intravenous opioids. Patients should not be made ‘nil-by-mouth’ unless there is a clear reason, and enteral nutrition should be offered within 72 hours of presentation. Antibiotics should not be used prophylactically, but may be indicated in cases of infected pancreatic necrosis. Surgery may be necessary for patients with acute pancreatitis due to gallstones or obstructed biliary systems, and those with infected necrosis may require radiological drainage or surgical necrosectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding lidocaine is accurate?
Your Answer: The anaesthetic effect usual wears off after 15-20 minutes
Correct Answer: Preparations mixed with adrenaline should not be used for minor surgery involving the finger
Explanation:Minor Surgery: Local Anaesthetic and Suture Material
Minor surgery often requires the use of local anaesthetic (LA) to numb the area being operated on. Lidocaine is the most commonly used LA due to its fast-acting properties and short duration of anaesthesia. The maximum safe dose of lidocaine is 3 mg/kg, with the recommended dose being 200mg (or 500 mg if mixed with adrenaline) for a 66 kg patient. This equates to 20 ml of 1% solution or 10 ml of 2% solution. Lidocaine mixed with adrenaline can also help reduce blood loss by constricting blood vessels, but should not be used near extremities to avoid the risk of ischaemia.
Suture material is also an important consideration in minor surgery. Non-absorbable sutures, such as silk, Prolene, and Ethilon, need to be removed after 7-14 days depending on the location of the wound. Absorbable sutures, such as Vicryl, Dexon, and PDS, dissolve on their own after 7-10 days. The removal times for non-absorbable sutures vary depending on the area of the body, with the face requiring removal after 3-5 days, the scalp, limbs, and chest after 7-10 days, and the hand, foot, and back after 10-14 days. Proper use of LA and suture material can help ensure a successful and safe minor surgery procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 13
Correct
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A 75-year-old male has been diagnosed with rectal carcinoma and is scheduled for a lower anterior resection with the goal of restoring intestinal continuity. What type of stoma would be most suitable?
Your Answer: Loop ileostomy
Explanation:The loop ileostomy is a technique used to redirect the flow of bowel contents away from a distal anastomosis, typically in cases of rectal cancer. When the ileostomy is reversed, it allows for the restoration of bowel continuity and can greatly enhance the patient’s quality of life.
Abdominal stomas are created during various abdominal procedures to bring the lumen or contents of organs onto the skin. Typically, this involves the bowel, but other organs may also be diverted if necessary. The type and method of construction of the stoma will depend on the contents of the bowel. Small bowel stomas should be spouted to prevent irritant contents from coming into contact with the skin, while colonic stomas do not require spouting. Proper siting of the stoma is crucial to reduce the risk of leakage and subsequent maceration of the surrounding skin. The type and location of the stoma will vary depending on the purpose, such as defunctioning the colon or providing feeding access. Overall, abdominal stomas are a necessary medical intervention that requires careful consideration and planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 14
Correct
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A 30-year-old female is being evaluated before an elective cholecystectomy due to two severe episodes of biliary colic. She has a BMI of 28 kg/mĀ² and smokes 2-3 cigarettes daily, but has no other medical conditions. She inquires about when she should discontinue her oral contraceptive pill. What is the recommended protocol?
Your Answer: 4 weeks prior
Explanation:It is important to consider the type of surgery the patient is undergoing when answering this question. In this case, the patient is having an elective procedure that requires general anesthesia and is a smoker and overweight, which are risk factors for blood clots. Therefore, it is recommended that she stop taking her oral contraceptive pill for four weeks prior to the surgery. However, if the surgery is being performed under local anesthesia, stopping the pill may not be necessary.
Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old man presents to the emergency department following a fall from a ladder of approximately 2.5 meters. According to his wife, he lost consciousness for around 30 seconds before regaining it. The paramedics who attended the scene noted that he had vomited once and had a GCS of 14 due to confused speech, which remains the same. Upon examination, he has a laceration on his head, multiple lacerations on his body, and a visibly broken arm. However, his cranial nerve, upper limb, and lower limb neurological examinations are normal. What aspect of his current condition warrants a head CT?
Your Answer: Loss of consciousness and vomiting
Correct Answer: Loss of consciousness and height of fall
Explanation:A head CT scan is necessary within 8 hours for patients who have experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury, such as falling from a height of 5 stairs or more or more than 1 meter. Additionally, individuals who have lost consciousness and have a dangerous mechanism of injury should also undergo a head CT within 8 hours. A GCS score of under 13 on initial assessment or under 15 two hours after the injury would also indicate the need for a head CT within 1 hour. However, a short period of loss of consciousness alone or loss of consciousness with one episode of vomiting is not an indication for a head CT. Additional risk factors, such as age over 65, bleeding disorder/anticoagulant use, or more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia, must also be present for a head CT to be necessary within 8 hours.
NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults
Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for healthcare professionals to determine which adult patients need further investigation with a CT head scan. Patients who require immediate CT head scans include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, suspected open or depressed skull fractures, signs of basal skull fractures, post-traumatic seizures, focal neurological deficits, and more than one episode of vomiting.
For patients with any loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury, a CT head scan within 8 hours is recommended for those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury, or have more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury. Additionally, patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury without other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a scan within 8 hours of the injury.
It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their head injuries. By identifying those who require further investigation, healthcare professionals can provide the necessary treatment and support to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman undergoes a routine health check-up. She reports feeling well, having recently quit smoking, and having no complaints. Upon examination, no abnormalities are found. However, microscopic haematuria is detected in her urine, and the following results are obtained. The patient did not experience any pain, dysuria, or engage in physical activity before the sample collection.
Hb 150 g/L
Platelets 250 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 12 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
What is the most appropriate course of action in this scenario?Your Answer: Reassure and re-check in 2 weeks
Correct Answer: Urgent (2-week) referral to a urologist
Explanation:If a patient is over 60 years old and has unexplained non-visible haematuria along with dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test, they should be referred to a urologist using the suspected cancer pathway within 2 weeks to rule out bladder cancer. It is important to exclude bladder cancer as a potential cause, especially if the patient has a history of smoking. The urologist may request investigations such as a urine red cell morphology, CT intravenous pyelogram, and urine cytology. However, a CT scan of the kidneys, ureter, and bladder is not appropriate at this stage as it is used to detect radio-opaque stones in the renal tract. If resources are limited, the GP should initiate relevant investigations for bladder cancer while waiting for the urology appointment. In lower risk cases, reassurance and re-checking in 2-6 weeks may be considered.
Bladder cancer is the second most common urological cancer, with males aged between 50 and 80 years being the most commonly affected. Smoking and exposure to hydrocarbons such as 2-Naphthylamine increase the risk of the disease. Chronic bladder inflammation from Schistosomiasis infection is a common cause of squamous cell carcinomas in countries where the disease is endemic. Benign tumors of the bladder, including inverted urothelial papilloma and nephrogenic adenoma, are uncommon.
Urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma is the most common type of bladder malignancy, accounting for over 90% of cases. Squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma are less common. Urothelial carcinomas may be solitary or multifocal, with up to 70% having a papillary growth pattern. Superficial tumors have a better prognosis, while solid growths are more prone to local invasion and may be of higher grade, resulting in a worse prognosis. TNM staging is used to determine the extent of the tumor and the presence of nodal or distant metastasis.
Most patients with bladder cancer present with painless, macroscopic hematuria. Incidental microscopic hematuria may also indicate malignancy in up to 10% of females over 50 years old. Diagnosis is made through cystoscopy and biopsies or transurethral resection of bladder tumor (TURBT), with pelvic MRI and CT scanning used to determine locoregional spread and distant disease. Treatment options include TURBT, intravesical chemotherapy, radical cystectomy with ileal conduit, or radical radiotherapy, depending on the extent and grade of the tumor. Prognosis varies depending on the stage of the tumor, with T1 having a 90% survival rate and any T with N1-N2 having a 30% survival rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 17
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman has been diagnosed with breast cancer and is now taking anastrozole to prevent recurrence after a mastectomy. She has a medical history of hypothyroidism and depression, which are managed with levothyroxine and fluoxetine. What is the most probable complication she may encounter during her breast cancer treatment?
Your Answer: Osteoporotic fracture
Explanation:Osteoporosis may be a potential side effect of aromatase inhibitors such as anastrozole.
Anti-oestrogen drugs are used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulators (SERM) such as Tamoxifen act as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. However, Tamoxifen can cause adverse effects such as menstrual disturbance, hot flashes, venous thromboembolism, and endometrial cancer. On the other hand, aromatase inhibitors like Anastrozole and Letrozole reduce peripheral oestrogen synthesis, which is important in postmenopausal women. Anastrozole is used for ER +ve breast cancer in this group. However, aromatase inhibitors can cause adverse effects such as osteoporosis, hot flashes, arthralgia, myalgia, and insomnia. NICE recommends a DEXA scan when initiating a patient on aromatase inhibitors for breast cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old sheep farmer who recently arrived in the UK from Iran presents with increasing right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain of two week's duration. She also complains of tiredness and of being generally unwell for several months. She has not experienced a change in her bowel habit, weight loss, or night sweats.
Upon examination, her temperature is 37.8ĀŗC, heart rate 80/min, blood pressure 135/90 mmHg, respiratory rate 18/min. She is mildly jaundiced with RUQ pain and the liver edge is palpable 3 cm below the costal margin.
Blood tests revealed raised eosinophils and her LFTs were as follows:
- Bilirubin 30 Āµmol/l
- ALP 190 u/l
- ALT 36 u/l
An ultrasound scan of her liver demonstrated a 7 cm cystic lesion. The scan was technically challenging but there appeared to be daughter cysts present.
What is the recommended next investigation to carry out?Your Answer: Percutaneous aspiration
Correct Answer: CT abdomen
Explanation:CT is the most appropriate investigation for hydatid cysts, while percutaneous aspiration is not recommended.
When dealing with cystic liver lesions, there are several possibilities to consider, such as simple cysts, cancers, abscesses, and microabscesses. Depending on the situation, any of the available options could be a valid diagnostic tool. However, in this case, the symptoms and findings suggest a hydatid cyst as the most likely cause. The patient’s location and occupation increase the likelihood of a parasitic infection, and the presence of eosinophilia and daughter cysts on ultrasound further support this diagnosis. To differentiate between hydatid cysts and amoebic abscesses, CT is the preferred imaging modality.
It is crucial to note that percutaneous aspiration of hydatid cysts is not recommended due to the risk of triggering anaphylaxis and spreading daughter cysts throughout the abdomen.
Hydatid Cysts: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Hydatid cysts are caused by the tapeworm parasite Echinococcus granulosus and are endemic in Mediterranean and Middle Eastern countries. These cysts are enclosed in an outer fibrous capsule containing multiple small daughter cysts that act as allergens, triggering a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction. The majority of cysts, up to 90%, occur in the liver and lungs and can be asymptomatic or symptomatic if the cysts are larger than 5 cm in diameter. The bursting of cysts, infection, and organ dysfunction, such as biliary, bronchial, renal, and cerebrospinal fluid outflow obstruction, can cause morbidity. In biliary rupture, the classical triad of biliary colic, jaundice, and urticaria may be present.
Imaging, such as ultrasound, is often used as a first-line investigation, while CT is the best investigation to differentiate hydatid cysts from amoebic and pyogenic cysts. Serology is also useful for primary diagnosis and for follow-up after treatment, with a wide variety of different antibody/antigen tests available. Surgery is the mainstay of treatment, but it is crucial that the cyst walls are not ruptured during removal, and the contents are sterilized first.
Overall, hydatid cysts can cause significant morbidity if left untreated, and early diagnosis and treatment are essential for a successful outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 19
Correct
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A 55-year-old motorcyclist is involved in a head-on collision with a truck. The air ambulance arrives at the scene and finds that the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is 6 (E2, V1, M3) and he has no air entry on the right side of the chest, with an open fractured neck of femur on the left side. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 37.8ĀŗC, heart rate 120 bpm, blood pressure 70/50 mmHg, SpO2 94% on air, and respiratory rate 24/min. The fractured femur is reduced at the scene, but due to the patient's low GCS, the decision is made to intubate him at the scene. What is the most appropriate agent for induction of anesthesia?
Your Answer: Ketamine
Explanation:Ketamine is a suitable anaesthetic option for patients who are haemodynamically unstable. Other anaesthetic agents can cause hypotension, which can be dangerous for patients who are already experiencing low blood pressure. Ketamine is often used in prehospital settings for pain relief and intubation, as it does not reduce blood pressure or cause cardiosuppression. Propofol, suxamethonium, desflurane, and thiopental sodium are not ideal options for induction of anaesthesia in haemodynamically unstable patients due to their potential to cause hypotension or other adverse effects.
Overview of Commonly Used IV Induction Agents
Propofol, sodium thiopentone, ketamine, and etomidate are some of the commonly used IV induction agents in anesthesia. Propofol is a GABA receptor agonist that has a rapid onset of anesthesia but may cause pain on IV injection. It is widely used for maintaining sedation on ITU, total IV anesthesia, and daycase surgery. Sodium thiopentone has an extremely rapid onset of action, making it the agent of choice for rapid sequence induction. However, it may cause marked myocardial depression and metabolites build up quickly, making it unsuitable for maintenance infusion. Ketamine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, has moderate to strong analgesic properties and produces little myocardial depression, making it a suitable agent for anesthesia in those who are hemodynamically unstable. However, it may induce a state of dissociative anesthesia resulting in nightmares. Etomidate has a favorable cardiac safety profile with very little hemodynamic instability but has no analgesic properties and is unsuitable for maintaining sedation as prolonged use may result in adrenal suppression. Postoperative vomiting is common with etomidate.
Overall, each of these IV induction agents has specific features that make them suitable for different situations. Anesthesiologists must carefully consider the patient’s medical history, current condition, and the type of surgery being performed when selecting an appropriate induction agent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old male who is 84kg is on the general surgical ward following an open right hemicolectomy with primary anastomosis and a covering loop ileostomy two days ago. The operation went well, but he has been struggling with pain and nausea postoperatively, and as a result has been unable to tolerate oral intake. He has been given 1 litre of Hartmann's solution and 2 litres of 5% dextrose solution maintenance fluid per day, as well as regular morphine IV and ondansetron IV twice daily. He also takes regular furosemide for blood pressure.
The nurse has called you to review him as he has become confused this morning, and his blood pressure has fallen.
On examination, he appears well, although confused, with an abbreviated mental test (AMT) score of 7/10. His surgical site is healing well, although he complains of some tenderness on palpation, and bowel sounds are absent. His stoma bag has a small amount of bilious content. Fluid balance is neutral, and mucous membranes are moist. Examination is otherwise normal.
Observations are below:
BP 104/74 mmHg
HR 93/min
RR 14/min
O2 Sats 99%
Temperature 37.4ĀŗC
His blood results from this morning are below:
Hb 140 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 269 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 9.7 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 123 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 5.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Bicarbonate 25 mmol/L (22 - 29)
Urea 8.7 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 101 Āµmol/L (55 - 120)
CRP 3.2 mg/L <5
What is the most likely cause of this patient's confusion?Your Answer: Anastomotic leak
Correct Answer: Hyponatraemia
Explanation:Guidelines for Post-Operative Fluid Management
Post-operative fluid management is a crucial aspect of patient care, and the composition of intravenous fluids plays a significant role in determining the patient’s outcome. The commonly used intravenous fluids include plasma, 0.9% saline, dextrose/saline, and Hartmann’s, each with varying levels of sodium, potassium, chloride, bicarbonate, and lactate. In the UK, the GIFTASUP guidelines were developed to provide consensus guidance on the administration of intravenous fluids.
Previously, excessive administration of normal saline was believed to cause little harm, leading to oliguric postoperative patients receiving enormous quantities of IV fluids and developing hyperchloraemic acidosis. However, with a better understanding of this potential complication, electrolyte balanced solutions such as Ringers lactate and Hartmann’s are now preferred over normal saline. Additionally, solutions of 5% dextrose and dextrose/saline combinations are generally not recommended for surgical patients.
The GIFTASUP guidelines recommend documenting fluids given clearly and assessing the patient’s fluid status when they leave theatre. If a patient is haemodynamically stable and euvolaemic, oral fluid intake should be restarted as soon as possible. Patients with urinary sodium levels below 20 should be reviewed, and if a patient is oedematous, hypovolaemia should be treated first, followed by a negative balance of sodium and water, monitored using urine Na excretion levels.
In conclusion, post-operative fluid management is critical, and the GIFTASUP guidelines provide valuable guidance on the administration of intravenous fluids. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients receive appropriate fluid management, leading to better outcomes and reduced complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man suddenly developed a severe headache and was diagnosed with a condition that caused increased attenuation of certain areas in his brain. He underwent surgery and has been receiving IV fluids since admission. On the third day of his hospital stay, his routine blood tests showed hyponatremia. What is the probable cause of his low sodium levels?
Your Answer: Excess administration of IV fluids
Correct Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)
Explanation:The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) involves the continued secretion or action of arginine vasopressin (AVP) despite normal or increased plasma volume. The resulting impairment of water secretion and consequent water retention produces the hyponatremia. The etiology of SIADH is divided into four main clinical categories: malignancy, pulmonary, pharmacologic, and neurologic causes.
SIADH is also commonly associated with intracranial diseases, particularly traumatic brain injury, where almost all cases resolve spontaneously with recovery from brain injury. Over 50% of patients withĀ subarachnoid hemorrhageĀ developĀ hyponatremiaĀ in the first week following theĀ bleed, and 80% of these are due to SIADH.
A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of bleed that occurs within the subarachnoid space of the meninges in the brain. It can be caused by head injury or occur spontaneously. Spontaneous SAH is often caused by an intracranial aneurysm, which accounts for around 85% of cases. Other causes include arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, and mycotic aneurysms. The classic symptoms of SAH include a sudden and severe headache, nausea and vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and ECG changes.
The first-line investigation for SAH is a non-contrast CT head, which can detect acute blood in the basal cisterns, sulci, and ventricular system. If the CT is normal within 6 hours of symptom onset, a lumbar puncture is not recommended. However, if the CT is normal after 6 hours, a lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after symptom onset to check for xanthochromia and other CSF findings consistent with SAH. If SAH is confirmed, referral to neurosurgery is necessary to identify the underlying cause and provide urgent treatment.
Management of aneurysmal SAH involves supportive care, such as bed rest, analgesia, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. Vasospasm is prevented with oral nimodipine, and intracranial aneurysms require prompt intervention to prevent rebleeding. Most aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists, but some require a craniotomy and clipping by a neurosurgeon. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, hydrocephalus, vasospasm, and hyponatraemia. Hyponatremia following subarachnoid hemorrhage occurs due to the inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). However; it is also associated with certain dehydration states.
Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and amount of blood visible on CT head.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old man is being assessed on the ward following abdominal surgery. He is alert and at ease. During the examination, you notice a stoma protruding from the skin on the midline of his lower abdominal wall. His vital signs are stable, with a heart rate of 57/min, respiratory rate of 15/min, blood pressure of 126/92 mmHg, and temperature of 36.6 ĀŗC. The stoma is functioning well, and there is no skin irritation in the surrounding area. What type of stoma is most likely being described?
Your Answer: Loop colostomy
Correct Answer: Loop ileostomy
Explanation:To prevent skin contact with the enzymes in the small intestine, a loop ileostomy is created. This type of ileostomy is typically located on the right iliac fossa and has a spouted shape, containing liquid faecal material. It is often performed as part of an anterior resection procedure, which involves removing the upper rectum and sigmoid colon. The loop ileostomy is temporary and will be reversed at a later time.
To distinguish between a colostomy and an ileostomy, several factors can be considered. The location of the stoma is one clue, with ileostomies typically found on the right side of the abdomen and colostomies on the left. However, the appearance of the output is also important. A spouted output indicates an ileostomy, as the small intestine’s contents can be irritating to the skin. In contrast, a flush output suggests a colostomy, as the large intestine’s contents are less likely to cause skin irritation. Additionally, ileostomy output is typically liquid, while colostomy output may be more solid.
Other types of ostomies include end and loop colostomies, which are flush to the skin and contain semi-solid faecal matter. A nephrostomy is a tube inserted into the renal pelvis and collecting system to relieve obstruction caused by kidney stones or infection. A urostomy is a bag used to collect urine after bladder removal, with the ureters connected to a segment of the small bowel that opens onto the abdominal wall.
Abdominal stomas are created during various abdominal procedures to bring the lumen or contents of organs onto the skin. Typically, this involves the bowel, but other organs may also be diverted if necessary. The type and method of construction of the stoma will depend on the contents of the bowel. Small bowel stomas should be spouted to prevent irritant contents from coming into contact with the skin, while colonic stomas do not require spouting. Proper siting of the stoma is crucial to reduce the risk of leakage and subsequent maceration of the surrounding skin. The type and location of the stoma will vary depending on the purpose, such as defunctioning the colon or providing feeding access. Overall, abdominal stomas are a necessary medical intervention that requires careful consideration and planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man comes to his doctor complaining of rectal pain that has been bothering him for the past 4 days. He describes the pain as sharp and shooting, and it gets worse when he has a bowel movement or engages in anal sex. The patient has a history of constipation. During the examination, a small tear is visible on the posterior aspect of the anal margin. The doctor offers the patient appropriate pain relief. What is the best initial course of action?
Your Answer: Insertion of a single dissolvable suture
Correct Answer: Bulk-forming laxatives
Explanation:Conservative management should be attempted first for the treatment of fissures, as most cases will resolve with this approach. If conservative management is not effective, lateral partial internal sphincterotomy is the preferred surgical treatment. Loperamide is not recommended as it can worsen the condition by increasing constipation and straining. Topical glyceryl trinitrate is effective in treating chronic anal fissures by relaxing the musculature and expanding blood vessels, but it is not the first-line treatment for acute anal fissures.
Understanding Anal Fissures: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Anal fissures are tears in the lining of the distal anal canal that can be either acute or chronic. Acute fissures last for less than six weeks, while chronic fissures persist for more than six weeks. The most common risk factors for anal fissures include constipation, inflammatory bowel disease, and sexually transmitted infections such as HIV, syphilis, and herpes.
Symptoms of anal fissures include painful, bright red rectal bleeding, with around 90% of fissures occurring on the posterior midline. If fissures are found in other locations, underlying causes such as Crohn’s disease should be considered.
Management of acute anal fissures involves softening stool, dietary advice, bulk-forming laxatives, lubricants, topical anaesthetics, and analgesia. For chronic anal fissures, the same techniques should be continued, and topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is the first-line treatment. If GTN is not effective after eight weeks, surgery (sphincterotomy) or botulinum toxin may be considered, and referral to secondary care is recommended.
In summary, anal fissures can be a painful and uncomfortable condition, but with proper management, they can be effectively treated. It is important to identify and address underlying risk factors to prevent the development of chronic fissures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 24
Correct
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You are working as a locum on the paediatric neurosurgical unit. Three of the patients seen on the ward round have subarachnoid haemorrhages. Your consultant wants blood tests on all of them, but forgets to tell you which ones. All three patients are stable. Their aneurysms are secured and they will be discharged in a few days time. Which single blood test is most valuable in these patients?
Your Answer: Urea and electrolytes
Explanation:Subarachnoid haemorrhages often lead to the development of hyponatraemia, which is a frequently occurring complication. During the acute phase, sodium levels are closely monitored. Blood sugar levels are only relevant if the patient is diabetic or loses consciousness. Liver and thyroid function are usually unaffected by subarachnoid haemorrhages. While a full blood count is useful upon admission, it does not require the same level of monitoring as sodium levels.
A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of bleeding that occurs within the subarachnoid space of the meninges in the brain. It can be caused by head injury or occur spontaneously. Spontaneous SAH is often caused by an intracranial aneurysm, which accounts for around 85% of cases. Other causes include arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, and mycotic aneurysms. The classic symptoms of SAH include a sudden and severe headache, nausea and vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and ECG changes.
The first-line investigation for SAH is a non-contrast CT head, which can detect acute blood in the basal cisterns, sulci, and ventricular system. If the CT is normal within 6 hours of symptom onset, a lumbar puncture is not recommended. However, if the CT is normal after 6 hours, a lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after symptom onset to check for xanthochromia and other CSF findings consistent with SAH. If SAH is confirmed, referral to neurosurgery is necessary to identify the underlying cause and provide urgent treatment.
Management of aneurysmal SAH involves supportive care, such as bed rest, analgesia, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. Vasospasm is prevented with oral nimodipine, and intracranial aneurysms require prompt intervention to prevent rebleeding. Most aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists, but some require a craniotomy and clipping by a neurosurgeon. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, hydrocephalus, vasospasm, and hyponatraemia. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and amount of blood visible on CT head.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents with shoulder pain following a day of intense garage painting. The pain radiates to the front of his upper arm and is exacerbated by raising his shoulder beyond 90 degrees. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Subacromial bursitis
Correct Answer: Biceps tendonitis
Explanation:Biceps Tendonitis
The biceps muscle is situated in the upper arm’s front part and connects to the elbow and two points in the shoulder. Biceps tendonitis, also known as bicipital tendonitis, is an inflammation that causes pain in the upper arm or front part of the shoulder. This condition is caused by overuse of the arm and shoulder or an injury to the biceps tendon. The pain is most noticeable when the arm and shoulder are moved, particularly when the arm is raised above shoulder height.
Patients with biceps tendonitis experience pain when they touch the front of their shoulder. Speed’s test is a diagnostic tool used to detect biceps tendonitis. Lateral epicondylitis, on the other hand, is caused by activities such as painting or repetitive rotation, such as using a screwdriver for an extended period. However, shoulder flexion alone would not exacerbate the pain associated with lateral epicondylitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 26
Correct
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A 58-year-old man presents with acute urinary retention and a recent history of urinary tract infection. Bilateral hydronephrosis is observed on ultrasound. What is the most appropriate management plan?
Your Answer: Urethral catheter
Explanation:The first step in addressing the issue is to establish bladder drainage, which can often resolve the problem. Patients may experience a substantial diuresis and related electrolyte imbalances. It is recommended to attempt the urethral route initially.
Hydronephrosis is a condition where the kidney becomes swollen due to urine buildup. There are various causes of hydronephrosis, including pelvic-ureteric obstruction, aberrant renal vessels, calculi, tumors of the renal pelvis, stenosis of the urethra, urethral valve, prostatic enlargement, extensive bladder tumor, and retroperitoneal fibrosis. Unilateral hydronephrosis is caused by one of these factors, while bilateral hydronephrosis is caused by a combination of pelvic-ureteric obstruction, aberrant renal vessels, and tumors of the renal pelvis.
To investigate hydronephrosis, ultrasound is the first-line test to identify the presence of hydronephrosis and assess the kidneys. IVU is used to assess the position of the obstruction, while antegrade or retrograde pyelography allows for treatment. If renal colic is suspected, a CT scan is used to detect the majority of stones.
The management of hydronephrosis involves removing the obstruction and draining urine. In cases of acute upper urinary tract obstruction, a nephrostomy tube is used, while chronic upper urinary tract obstruction is treated with a ureteric stent or a pyeloplasty. The CT scan image shows a large calculus in the left ureter with accompanying hydroureter and massive hydronephrosis in the left kidney.
Overall, hydronephrosis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of severe retrosternal pain that has been ongoing for 3 hours. He reports having consumed a large amount of alcohol yesterday, resulting in significant regurgitation. On palpation of the chest wall, crepitus is detected. His ECG reveals sinus tachycardia. What test should be conducted to confirm the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Endoscopy
Correct Answer: CT contrast swallow
Explanation:The preferred investigation for suspected Boerhaave’s syndrome is a CT contrast swallow. This syndrome is characterized by the spontaneous rupture of the oesophagus, often caused by repeated vomiting/retching, and can be fatal if not diagnosed early. A history of binge drinking is a common risk factor. The CT contrast swallow typically shows pneumomediastinum, pneumothorax, pleural effusion, and oral contrast leaking into the mediastinum, which can cause crepitus on palpation due to subcutaneous emphysema. Blood alcohol concentration testing is not necessary unless there is a suspicion of ongoing intoxication. Endoscopy carries the risk of further perforation and is not the preferred investigation for Boerhaave’s syndrome. A transoesophageal echocardiogram is used for assessing suspected aortic dissection in unstable patients or for monitoring during cardiothoracic surgery and is not relevant for Boerhaave’s syndrome.
Boerhaave’s Syndrome: A Dangerous Rupture of the Oesophagus
Boerhaave’s syndrome is a serious condition that occurs when the oesophagus ruptures due to repeated episodes of vomiting. This rupture is typically located on the left side of the oesophagus and can cause sudden and severe chest pain. Patients may also experience subcutaneous emphysema, which is the presence of air under the skin of the chest wall.
To diagnose Boerhaave’s syndrome, a CT contrast swallow is typically performed. Treatment involves thoracotomy and lavage, with primary repair being feasible if surgery is performed within 12 hours of onset. If surgery is delayed beyond 12 hours, a T tube may be inserted to create a controlled fistula between the oesophagus and skin. However, delays beyond 24 hours are associated with a very high mortality rate.
Complications of Boerhaave’s syndrome can include severe sepsis, which occurs as a result of mediastinitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man comes to you complaining of severe anal pain that has been bothering him for a day, especially during defecation. Upon further inquiry, he reveals that he has been experiencing constipation more frequently lately and had a minor incident of fresh red blood on the toilet paper a week ago. During the examination, you observe a tender, bulging nodule just outside the anal opening. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: External haemorrhoid
Correct Answer: Thrombosed haemorrhoid
Explanation:Thrombosed haemorrhoids are characterized by severe pain and the presence of a tender lump. Upon examination, a purplish, swollen, and tender subcutaneous perianal mass can be observed. If the patient seeks medical attention within 72 hours of onset, referral for excision may be necessary. However, if the condition has progressed beyond this timeframe, patients can typically manage their symptoms with stool softeners, ice packs, and pain relief medication. Symptoms usually subside within 10 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 29
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with his partner following a fall. A collateral history is obtained, revealing that he tripped over a loose rug and fell, hitting his head on the ground and losing consciousness for 2 minutes. Upon examination, there is bruising on his upper limbs, but no neurological deficits are observed, and his Glasgow coma score (GCS) is 15. The patient himself can recall events leading up to and after the fall, and has not experienced vomiting or seizures since the incident. Additionally, there are no indications of a skull fracture. The patient has a medical history of hypertension that is managed with amlodipine. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Perform CT head within 1 hour
Correct Answer: Perform CT head within 8 hours
Explanation:For patients over 65 years old who have experienced some form of loss of consciousness or amnesia after a head injury, a CT scan should be performed within 8 hours. This is important to assess the risk of complications from the injury. While this patient does not have any immediate indications for a CT scan, as they did not have a GCS score below 13 on initial assessment, suspected skull fractures, seizures, focal neurological deficits, or vomiting, they did lose consciousness during the fall. NICE guidelines recommend that any patient over 65 years old who experiences a loss of consciousness or amnesia following a fall should be offered a CT head 8 hours post-injury to identify potential complications such as intracranial bleeds. A CT scan within 1 hour is not necessary in this case.
NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults
Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for healthcare professionals to determine which adult patients need further investigation with a CT head scan. Patients who require immediate CT head scans include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, suspected open or depressed skull fractures, signs of basal skull fractures, post-traumatic seizures, focal neurological deficits, and more than one episode of vomiting.
For patients with any loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury, a CT head scan within 8 hours is recommended for those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury, or have more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury. Additionally, patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury without other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a scan within 8 hours of the injury.
It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their head injuries. By identifying those who require further investigation, healthcare professionals can provide the necessary treatment and support to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 30
Correct
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A 26-year-old man has arrived at the Emergency Department with sudden-onset, deteriorating right lower quadrant abdominal pain. He has a significantly decreased appetite and has vomited multiple times in the past few days. During the examination, there is notable tenderness upon palpation in the right iliac fossa. A CT scan of the abdomen confirms the diagnosis of acute appendicitis. After consulting with a surgeon, it is decided that an emergency open appendectomy is necessary. What is the most suitable preoperative management for this patient?
Your Answer: A single dose of intravenous (iv) TazocinĀ® 30 minutes before the procedure
Explanation:Preoperative Management for Gastrointestinal Surgery
Surgical site infections are a common complication of gastrointestinal surgery, with up to 60% of emergency procedures resulting in infections. To prevent this, a single dose of broad-spectrum antibiotics, such as TazocinĀ®, should be given intravenously 30 minutes before the procedure. Patients should also be hydrated with iv fluids and be nil by mouth for at least six hours before surgery. In cases of potential post-operative intestinal obstruction or ileus, a nasogastric tube may be necessary. However, narrow-spectrum antibiotics like iv flucloxacillin are not appropriate for prophylaxis in this case. Finally, VTE prophylaxis with LMWH should be given preoperatively but stopped 12 hours before the procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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