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Question 1
Incorrect
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An 11 year old girl undergoes a delayed open reduction and fixation of a significantly displaced supracondylar fracture. She complains of paraesthesia of the hand and significant forearm pain. The radial pulse is normal. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Arrange a CT angiogram
Correct Answer: Fasciotomy
Explanation:Answer: Fasciotomy
Fasciotomy is a surgical procedure where the fascia is cut to relieve tension or pressure commonly to treat the resulting loss of circulation to an area of tissue or muscle. Fasciotomy is a limb-saving procedure when used to treat acute compartment syndrome. A delay in performing the procedure can lead to neurovascular complications or lead to the need for amputation of a limb. Complications can also involve the formation of scar tissue after the operation. A thickening of the surgical scars can result in the loss of mobility of the joint involved. This can be addressed through occupational or physical therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 27-year-old male is admitted with left-sided loin pain that radiates to his groin. His investigations demonstrate a 9mm left-sided calculus within the proximal ureter. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Arrange a percutaneous extra corporeal shock wave lithotripsy
Explanation:EAU Guidelines on Urolithiasis recommend that
Proximal Ureteral Stone:
< 10 mm: shock wave lithotripsy (SWL) or ureterorenoscopy (URS)
> 10 mm: 1. URS (ante- or retrograde) 2. SWLContraindications of extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy:
– Pregnancy, due to the potential effects on the foetus.
– Bleeding diatheses, which should be compensated for at least 24 hours before and 48 hours after
treatment.
– Uncontrolled UTIs
– Severe skeletal malformations and severe obesity, which prevent targeting of the stone.
– Arterial aneurysm in the vicinity of the stone.
– Anatomical obstruction distal to the stone.Lowering shock wave frequency from 120 to 60-90 shock waves/min improves SFRs.
The number of shock waves that can be delivered at each session depends on the type of lithotripter and shock wave power. There is no consensus on the maximum number of shock waves.
Starting SWL on a lower energy setting with stepwise power (and SWL sequence) ramping can achieve vasoconstriction during treatment, which prevents renal injury. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Urology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 9 year old boy is admitted with right iliac fossa pain and an appendicectomy is to be performed.Which of the following incision is the best for this procedure?
Your Answer: Lanz
Explanation:Answer: Lanz
The Lanz and Gridiron incisions are two incisions that can be used to access the appendix, predominantly for appendectomy.
Both incisions are made at McBurney’s point (two-thirds from the umbilicus to the anterior superior iliac spine). They involve passing through all of the abdominal muscles, transversalis fascia, and then the peritoneum, before entering the abdominal cavity.
The Lanz incision is a transverse incision, whilst the Gridiron incision is oblique (superolateral to inferomedial). Due to its continuation with Langer’s lines, the Lanz incision produces much more aesthetically pleasing results with reduced scarring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- The Abdomen
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Question 4
Correct
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A 48 year old woman with episodes of recurrent urinary tract sepsis presents with a staghorn calculus of the right kidney. Her urinary pH is 7.8. An abdominal x-ray shows a faint outline of the calculus. What would be the most likely composition of the stone?
Your Answer: Struvite
Explanation:Staghorn calculi refer to branched stones that fill all or part of the renal pelvis and branch into several or all of the calyces. They are most often composed of struvite (magnesium ammonium phosphate) and/or calcium carbonate apatite. These stones are often referred to as ‘infection stones’ since they are strongly associated with urinary tract infections with urea splitting organisms. Small struvite and/or calcium carbonate apatite stones can grow rapidly over a period of weeks to months into large staghorn calculi involving the calyces and entire renal pelvis. If left untreated, this can lead to deterioration of kidney function and end-stage renal disease. In addition, since the stones often remain infected, there is a risk of developing sepsis. Thus, most patients require definitive surgical treatment.
Struvite stones account for 15% of renal calculi. They are associated with chronic urinary tract infection (UTI) with gram-negative, urease-positive organisms that split urea into ammonia, which then combines with phosphate and magnesium to crystalize into a calculus. Usual organisms include Proteus, Pseudomonas, and Klebsiella species. Escherichia coli is not capable of splitting urea and, therefore, is not associated with struvite stones. Because ammonia, a base, is produced during the catalytic process, the urine pH is typically greater than 7.
Underlying anatomical abnormalities that predispose patients to recurrent kidney infections should be sought and corrected. UTI does not resolve until the stone is removed entirely.
This patient has a urine pH of 7.8 which is very alkaline. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Urology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 17 year old girl presents with enlarged tonsils that meet in the midline. Examination confirms the finding and petechial haemorrhages affecting the oropharynx are observed. Splenomegaly is seen on systemic examination. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Infection with Epstein Barr virus
Explanation:Answer: Acute Epstein Barr virus infection
The Epstein–Barr virus is one of eight known human herpesvirus types in the herpes family, and is one of the most common viruses in humans. Infection with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is common and usually occurs in childhood or early adulthood.
EBV is the cause of infectious mononucleosis, an illness associated with symptoms and signs like:
fever,
fatigue,
swollen tonsils,
headache, and
sweats,
sore throat,
swollen lymph nodes in the neck, and
sometimes an enlarged spleen.
Although EBV can cause mononucleosis, not everyone infected with the virus will get mononucleosis. White blood cells called B cells are the primary targets of EBV infection.
Petechiae on the palate are characteristic of streptococcal pharyngitis but also can be seen in Epstein–Barr virus infection, Arcanobacterium haemolyticum pharyngitis, rubella, roseola, viral haemorrhagic fevers, thrombocytopenia, and palatal trauma. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Head And Neck Surgery
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 61 year old man is admitted with sepsis secondary to an infected diabetic foot ulcer. He is seen with a necrotic and infected forefoot with necrosis of the heel. There is a boggy indurated swelling anterior to the ankle joint. The pulses however, are normal. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Incision and drainage of pus
Correct Answer: Below knee amputation
Explanation:The presence of a necrotic and infected forefoot with necrosis of the heel and a boggy indurated swelling anterior to the ankle joint in a patient with sepsis secondary to diabetic foot ulcer indicates that a below knee amputation is the best option.
Based on Wagner’s Classification of Diabetic Foot Ulcers, this patient has a grade of 5 where there is gangrene or necrosis of large portion of the foot
requiring major limb amputation.Infection in a diabetic foot is usually secondary to ulceration. Rarely, infection itself causes ulceration. It can either be local or systemic. Treatment requires early incision and drainage or debridement and empirical broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy. If there is co-exiting gangrene or extensive tissue loss, early amputation at the appropriate level should be considered to remove the focus of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Vascular
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Question 7
Correct
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A 27-year-old male presents with altered bowel habit. He is known to have familial polyposis coli. A colonoscopy shows widespread polyps, with high-grade dysplasia in a polyp removed from the rectum. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Undertake a pan proctocolectomy
Explanation:Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is an autosomal dominant, hereditary colon cancer syndrome that is characterized by the presence of innumerable adenomatous polyps in the colon and rectum. Gardner’s syndrome is a variant of FAP, which in addition to the colonic polyps, also presents extracolonic manifestations, including desmoid tumours, osteomas, epidermoid cysts, various soft tissue tumours, and a predisposition to the thyroid and periampullary cancers.
Of patients with FAP, 75%-80% have a family history of polyps and/or colorectal cancer at age 40 years or younger.
Mutations of the APC gene are thought to be responsible for the development of FAP, and the location of the mutation on the gene is thought to influence the nature of the extracolonic manifestations that a given patient might develop.
Though patients are often asymptomatic, bleeding, diarrhoea, abdominal pain and mucous discharge frequently occur. Diagnostic tools include genetic testing, endoscopy, and monitoring for extra-intestinal manifestations.
If left untreated, all patients with this syndrome will develop colon cancer by age 35-40 years. Besides, an increased risk exists for the development of other malignancies.
Currently, surgery is the only effective means of preventing progression to colorectal carcinoma. Restorative proctocolectomy with ileal pouch-anal anastomosis (RPC/IPAA) with mucosectomy is the preferred surgical procedure since it attempts to eliminate all colorectal mucosa without the need for an ostomy. Periampullary carcinoma and intra-abdominal desmoid tumours are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality in these patients after colectomy. Frequent endoscopy is needed to prevent the former, while there is no definitive treatment available yet for the latter. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal Surgery
- Generic Surgical Topics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old woman presents with an infected sebaceous cyst. On examination, it is swollen, erythematous, and discharging pus. What should be the most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer: Administration of oral co-amoxiclav and definitive surgery once the infection has cleared
Correct Answer: Incision and drainage with excision of the cyst wall and packing of the defect
Explanation:The correct treatment for an infected sebaceous cyst is incision and drainage with removal of the cyst wall. Conservation of the cyst wall invariably leads to recurrence. Furthermore, the infected wound must not be primarily closed. The administration of antibiotics without drainage of sepsis is futile.
A sebaceous cyst is a rounded swollen area of the skin formed by an abnormal sac of retained excretion (sebum) from the sebaceous follicles. It can occur anywhere but is most commonly formed on scalp, ears, back, face, and upper arm (not on palms of the hands and soles of the feet). The correct treatment for an infected sebaceous cyst is incision and drainage with removal of the cyst wall. Excision of the cyst wall needs to be complete to prevent recurrence.
Cock’s peculiar tumour is a suppurating and ulcerated sebaceous cyst, which may resemble a squamous cell carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Skin Lesions
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents to the A&E department after being shot in the back, in the lumbar region. On examination, he has increased tone and hyperreflexia of his right leg and hemianaesthesia of his left leg. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Epidural haematoma
Correct Answer: Brown-Sequard syndrome
Explanation:This is a case of Brown-Sequard syndrome.
Brown-Sequard syndrome is caused by hemisection of the spinal cord following stab injuries or lateral vertebral fractures. It results in ipsilateral paralysis (pyramidal tract), and also loss of proprioception and fine discrimination(dorsal columns). Pain and temperature sensations are lost on the contralateral side. This is because the fibres of the spinothalamic tract have decussated below the level of the cord transection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 33 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of a tender mass in the right groin area. Red streaks are also noted on the thigh that are extending from a small abrasion. Which of the following would be the most likely explanation?
Your Answer: Incarcerated hernia
Correct Answer: Lymphadenitis
Explanation:Lymphadenitis is the inflammation or enlargement of a lymph node. Lymph nodes are small, ovoid nodules normally ranging in size from a few millimetres to 2 cm. They are distributed in clusters along the course of lymphatic vessels located throughout the body. The primary function of lymph nodes is to filter out microorganisms and abnormal cells that have collected in lymph fluid. Lymph node enlargement is a common feature in a variety of diseases and may serve as a focal point for subsequent clinical investigation of diseases of the reticuloendothelial system or regional infection. The majority of cases represent a benign response to localized or systemic infection. The red streaks that are noted along the line of lymphatics are indicative of lymphadenitis.
Groin masses are common and include:
Herniae
Lipomas
Lymph nodes
Undescended testis
Femoral aneurysm
Saphena varix -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Vascular
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Question 11
Correct
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A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department following a crush injury to his right forearm. On examination, the arm is tender, red, and swollen. There is clinical evidence of an ulnar fracture, and the patient cannot move his fingers. What should be the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Fasciotomy
Explanation:The combination of a crush injury, limb swelling, and inability to move digits raises suspicion of compartment syndrome that would require a fasciotomy.
Compartment syndrome is a particular complication that may occur following fractures, especially supracondylar fractures and tibial shaft injuries. It is characterised by raised pressure within a closed anatomical space which may, eventually, compromise tissue perfusion, resulting in necrosis.
The clinical features of compartment syndrome include:
1. Pain, especially on movement
2. Paraesthesia
3. Pallor
4. Paralysis of the muscle group may also occurDiagnosis is made by measurement of intracompartmental pressure. Pressures >20mmHg are abnormal and >40mmHg are diagnostic.
Compartment syndrome requires prompt and extensive fasciotomy. Myoglobinuria may occur following fasciotomy, resulting in renal failure. Therefore, aggressive IV fluids are required. If muscle groups are frankly necrotic at fasciotomy, they should be debrided, and amputation may have to be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 12
Correct
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A 26-year-old rugby player falls directly on his right shoulder. He presents to the emergency department with pain and swelling of the shoulder joint. The right clavicle is prominent and there appears to be a step deformity. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acromioclavicular joint dislocation
Explanation:Acromioclavicular joint (ACJ) dislocation normally occurs secondary to direct injury to the superior aspect of the acromion. Loss of shoulder contour and prominent clavicle are the key features.
An ACJ dislocation, or AC separation, is a very frequent injury among physically active people. It is commonly caused by a fall directly on the shoulder or a direct blow received in a contact sport. Disruption of the ACJ results in pain and instability in the entire shoulder and arm. The pain is most severe when the patient attempts overhead movements or tries to sleep on the affected side.
In general, most AC injuries do not require surgery. There are certain situations, however, in which surgery may be necessary. Most patients recover with full function of the shoulder. The period of disability and discomfort ranges from a few days to 12 weeks depending on the severity of the separation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 13
Correct
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A 4 year old girl falls off the monkey bars in the park and lands on her left forearm. She is rushed to the hospital and on examination, she has bony tenderness and bruising. X-ray shows unilateral cortical disruption and development of periosteal haematoma. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Greenstick fracture
Explanation:A greenstick fracture is a fracture in a young, soft bone in which the bone bends and breaks. Greenstick fractures occur most often during infancy and childhood when bones are soft.
Some clinical features of a greenstick fracture are similar to those of a standard long bone fracture – greenstick fractures normally cause pain at the injured area. As these fractures are specifically a paediatric problem, an older child will be protective of the fractured part and babies may cry inconsolably. As per a standard fracture, the area may be swollen and either red or bruised. Greenstick fractures are stable fractures as a part of the bone remains intact and unbroken so this type of fracture normally causes a bend to the injured part, rather than a distinct deformity, which is problematic.
Radiographic features
-usually mid-diaphyseal
-occur in tandem with angulation
-incomplete fracture, with cortical breach of only one side of the bone -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 37 year old firefighter notices a swelling in his left hemiscrotum and visits his family doctor. A left sided varicocele was noticed when he was examined. The ipsilateral testis is normal on palpation. Which of the following would be the best course of action?
Your Answer: Scrotal exploration and ligation of the varicocele
Correct Answer: Abdominal ultrasound
Explanation:Abdominal Ultrasound is the imaging method of choice for varicocele.
A varicocele is abnormal dilation and enlargement of the scrotal venous pampiniform plexus which drains blood from each testicle. While usually painless, varicoceles are clinically significant because they are the most commonly identified cause of abnormal semen analysis, low sperm count, decreased sperm motility, and abnormal sperm morphology. Varicoceles are far more common (80% to 90%) in the left testicle. If a left varicocele is identified, there is a 30% to 40% probability it is a bilateral condition.There are three theories as to the anatomical cause:
– The Nutcracker effect which occurs when the left internal spermatic vein gets caught between the superior mesenteric artery and the aorta. This entrapment causes venous compression and spermatic vein obstruction.
– Failure of the anti-reflux valve where the internal spermatic vein joins the left renal vein. This failure causes reflux and retrograde flow in the testicular vein.
– Angulation at the juncture of the left internal spermatic vein and the left renal vein.Varicoceles are usually asymptomatic. The patient may describe a bag of worms if the varicocele is large enough. Varicoceles present as soft lumps above the testicle, usually on the left side of the scrotum. Patients may sometimes complain of pain or heaviness in the scrotum.
A sudden onset of varicocele in a man over the age of 30 years requires the exclusion of renal tumours, particularly in elderly patients. In such cases it is necessary to extend diagnostic ultrasonography with abdominal examination. The diagnosis of varicocele is based on medical history and physical examination, which involves palpation and observation of the scrotum at rest and during the Valsalva manoeuvre. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Urology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 56 year old mechanic undergoes a live related renal transplant. He had a good urine output and the graft appeared well perfused at the end of the operation. However, on the ward he suddenly becomes anuric. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Hyperacute rejection
Correct Answer: Renal artery thrombosis
Explanation:Acute renal artery thrombosis is a devastating complication of renal transplantation that can result in graft loss if not detected early. Surgical and technical errors are the major cause of renal artery thrombosis. Renal artery thrombosis usually presents with sudden onset oliguria or anuria accompanied by pain and tenderness over the graft site. Patients may develop thrombocytopenia due to platelet aggregation at the thrombosis site. The imaging modality of choice for diagnosis of renal artery thrombosis is colour Doppler sonography. Conventional, computed tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance (MR) angiography may also be used to confirm the presence of renal artery thrombosis. Although there are reports of successful resolution of post-transplant acute renal artery thrombosis with endovascular and surgical modalities such as percutaneous thrombus aspiration, intra-arterial injection of fibrinolytic agents and surgical thrombectomy, renal artery thrombosis usually results in ischemic necrosis and graft loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Organ Transplantation
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Question 16
Correct
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A 24 year old female is rushed to the emergency room after complaining of pain in the lower abdomen. She is diffusely tender on examination and a laparoscopy is performed. Multiple fine adhesions are seen between the liver and abdominal wall during the operation. However, her appendix is normal. Which of the following is her diagnosis?
Your Answer: Fitz Hugh Curtis Syndrome
Explanation:Answer: Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome is a rare disorder that occurs almost exclusively in women. It is characterized by inflammation of the membrane lining the stomach (peritoneum) and the tissues surrounding the liver (perihepatitis). The muscle that separates the stomach and the chest (diaphragm), which plays an essential role in breathing, may also be affected. Common symptoms include severe pain in the upper right area (quadrant) of the abdomen, fever, chills, headaches, and a general feeling of poor health (malaise). Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome is a complication of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), a general term for infection of the upper genital tract in women. Infection is most often caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis.
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome is characterized by the onset of sudden, severe pain in the upper right area of the abdomen. Pain may spread to additional areas including the right shoulder and the inside of the right arm. Movement often increases pain. The upper right area may be extremely tender.
Additional symptoms may occur in some cases including fever, chills, night sweats, vomiting and nausea. Some affected individuals may develop headaches, hiccupping, and a general feeling of poor health (malaise).
Some affected individuals may have symptoms associated with pelvic inflammatory disease including fever, vaginal discharge, and lower abdominal pain. Lower abdominal pain may precede, follow, or occur simultaneously with upper abdominal pain.
Most cases of Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome are caused by infection with the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis, which causes Chlamydia or the organism Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which causes gonorrhoea. Chlamydia and gonorrhoea are common sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). Researchers believe that more cases of Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome are caused by infection with Chlamydia trachomatis than with Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
The exact process by which such infections cause Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome (pathogenesis) is not completely understood. Some researchers believe that it occurs because of infection of the liver and surrounding tissue, which may result from bacteria traveling from the pelvis directly to the liver or via the bloodstream or lymphatic system. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome is characterized by the developed of string-like, fibrous scar tissue (adhesions) between the liver and the abdominal wall or the diaphragm.
Laparoscopy is the gold standard for diagnosing FHCS and PID. In the setting of PID, laparoscopy can show oedema with exudates on tubal surfaces, ectopic pregnancy, or tubo-ovarian abscess. FHCS can be diagnosed directly via visualization of adhesions between the diaphragm and liver or liver and the anterior abdominal wall.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- The Abdomen
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 31 year old banker with known multiple gastric ulcers visits the surgical clinic for a review. She has not improved despite taking proton pump inhibitors for two months. Tests show that she now has a gastrinoma. Which statement is false in relation to her diagnosis?
Your Answer: Secretory diarrhoea is a feature
Correct Answer: Most commonly found in the pancreas
Explanation:A gastrinoma is a gastrin-secreting tumour that can occur in the pancreas, although it is most commonly found in the duodenum. Duodenal wall gastrinomas have been identified in 40-50% of patients. These duodenal wall tumours are frequently small and multiple. Sporadic tumours occurring in the pancreas tend to be solitary and have a greater malignant potential as compared to duodenal gastrinomas.
Primary tumours also occur in a variety of ectopic sites, including the body of the stomach, jejunum, peripancreatic lymph nodes, splenic hilum, omentum, liver, gallbladder, common bile duct, and the ovary. Over 50% of gastrinomas are malignant and can metastasize to the regional lymph nodes and the liver. One fourth of gastrinomas are related to multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type I and are associated with hyperparathyroidism and pituitary adenomas.
The symptoms in 90-95% of patients with gastrinomas are similar to the symptoms of common peptic ulcer disease. Usually, persistent abdominal pain exists that is less responsive to medical treatment.
Sometimes, symptoms may relate to a complication of peptic ulcer disease, such as bleeding (e.g., melena, hematemesis), gastric outlet obstruction (e.g., vomiting), and perforation (e.g., peritoneal irritation).
Other symptoms include gastroesophageal reflux, diarrhoea, steatorrhea, and weight loss, all of which are secondary to acid hypersecretion. Vitamin B-12 malabsorption, which is not correctable by oral intrinsic factor, may also be observed.Somatostatin receptor scintigraphy (SRS) is very useful to identify the primary lesions preoperatively. SRS is the most sensitive non-invasive method for localizing the primary tumours and metastases. It also is helpful for detecting the presence of liver or bone metastasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 7 year old girl is taken to her family doctor because her mother is concerned that she has a small epithelial defect anterior to the left ear and it has been noted to discharge foul smelling material for the past 3 days. What is the most likely explanation?
Your Answer: Otitis externa
Correct Answer: Pre auricular sinus
Explanation:The preauricular sinus is a benign congenital malformation of the preauricular soft tissues. Mostly it is noted during routine ear, nose and throat examination, though can present as an infected and discharging sinus. Preauricular sinus is more often unilateral, only occasionally are bilateral forms inherited. The right side is more often involved and females more than males. Most sinuses are clinically silent, eventual, however not rare, appearance of symptoms is related to an infectious process. Erythema, swelling, pain and discharge are familiar signs and symptoms of infection. The most common pathogens causing infection are Staphylococcal species and, less frequently Proteus, Streptococcus and Peptococcus species.
Courses of treatment typically include the following:
– Draining the pus occasionally as it can build up a strong odour
– Antibiotics when infection occurs.
– Surgical excision is indicated with recurrent fistula infections, preferably after significant healing of the infection.
In case of a persistent infection, infection drainage is performed during the excision operation. The operation is generally performed by an appropriately trained specialist surgeon e.g. a otolaryngologist or a specialist General Surgeon.
The fistula can be excised as a cosmetic operation even though no infection appeared. The procedure is considered an elective operation in the absence of any associated complications. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Head And Neck Surgery
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 5 year old boy is taken to the doctor with symptoms of dysuria and frequency in urination. Blood and nitrites are shown positive on urine dipstick. A urinary tract infection is suspected. Which follow up strategy is the most appropriate?
Your Answer: CT scan of pelvis
Correct Answer: Watchful waiting
Explanation:In a child 3 months to 12 years of age who is afebrile and well-appearing, it is reasonable to consider withholding empiric treatment if urine analysis (UA) is mildly positive or equivocal e.g.: leukocyte esterase (LE0 only, low WBC count) while awaiting culture results. Conversely, if the history is very consistent with UTI and positive UA, start treatment empirically.
Positive leukocyte esterase: very sensitive, but less specific for true infection (false positives are common)
Note: if no WBC on microscopy, more likely to be a false positive
Positive nitrite: high specificity for UTI, but lower sensitivity i.e. positive nitrite means likely UTI, but negative nitrite does not rule out UTICan also see positive nitrite in contaminated specimen if left at room temperature for too long
• Positive blood and protein: not specific for UTI
• Microscopy:>10 WBC/mm3 is suggestive of UTIManagement
– A single isolated UTI (in girls) may be managed expectantly.
– > 2 UTI’s (or 1 in males) in a 6 month period should prompt further testing.
– Voiding cystourethrograms show the greatest anatomical detail and is the ideal first line test in males; isotope cystography has a lower radiation dose and is the first line test in girls.
– USS should also be performed.
– Renal cortical scintigraphy should be performed when renal scarring is suspected. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 20
Correct
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A 36 year old woman arrives at the emergency department with signs of hypovolemic shock. Abdominal CT reveals a haemorrhagic lesion in the right kidney. Surgical resection of this lesion is carried out followed by a biopsy which reveals an angiomyolipomata. which of the following would be the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Tuberous sclerosis
Explanation:Tuberous sclerosis is a genetic disorder characterized by the growth of numerous noncancerous (benign) tumours in many parts of the body. These tumours can occur in the skin, brain, kidneys, and other organs, in some cases leading to significant health problems. Tuberous sclerosis also causes developmental problems, and the signs and symptoms of the condition vary from person to person.
Virtually all affected people have skin abnormalities, including patches of unusually light-coloured skin, areas of raised and thickened skin, and growths under the nails. Tumours on the face called facial angiofibromas are also common beginning in childhood.
Tuberous sclerosis often affects the brain, causing seizures, behavioural problems such as hyperactivity and aggression, and intellectual disability or learning problems. Some affected children have the characteristic features of autism, a developmental disorder that affects communication and social interaction. Benign brain tumours can also develop and these tumours can cause serious or life-threatening complications.
Kidney tumours are common in people with tuberous sclerosis; these growths can cause severe problems with kidney function and may be life-threatening in some cases. Additionally, tumours can develop in the heart, lungs, and the retina.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Urology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 30 year old welder presents to his family doctor with symptoms of chronic ear discharge and a left-sided facial nerve palsy. On examination, he has foul smelling fluid draining from his left ear and a complete left-sided facial nerve palsy. What is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Chronic sinusitis
Correct Answer: Cholesteatoma
Explanation:A cholesteatoma consists of squamous epithelium that is trapped within the skull base and that can erode and destroy important structures within the temporal bone. They often become infected and can result in chronically draining ears. Treatment almost always consists of surgical removal. The majority (98%) of people with cholesteatoma have ear discharge or conductive hearing loss or both in the affected ear.
Other more common conditions (e.g. otitis externa) may also present with these symptoms, but cholesteatoma is much more serious and should not be overlooked. If a patient presents to a doctor with ear discharge and hearing loss, the doctor should consider cholesteatoma until the disease is definitely excluded.
Other less common symptoms (all less than 15%) of cholesteatoma may include pain, balance disruption, tinnitus, earache, headaches and bleeding from the ear. There can also be facial nerve weakness. Balance symptoms in the presence of a cholesteatoma raise the possibility that the cholesteatoma is eroding the balance organs in the inner ear.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Head And Neck Surgery
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 46 year old man had an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy and biopsies done which were reported by two gastrointestinal pathologists as being ‘indefinite for dysplasia.’ Repeat endoscopy and biopsies were repeated 6 months after completing treatment with proton pump inhibitors. The results revealed no definite evidence of dysplasia. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Continue 6-monthly surveillance
Correct Answer: Routine surveillance every 2–3 years
Explanation:This patient had endoscopy and biopsy done by different doctors and proton pump inhibitor therapy followed by repeat endoscopy and biopsy six months later which had no definite evidence of dysplasia.
British Society of Gastroenterology (BSG) guidelines state that for patients with Barrett’s oesophagus (BO) but without dysplasia, the recommended surveillance protocols are two yearly, four quadrant biopsies every 2 cm, but jumbo biopsies are not required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
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Question 23
Correct
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A 32-year-old male is admitted overnight, following a road traffic accident. He has an open tibial fracture with a 20 cm wound and extensive periosteal stripping. He is neurovascularly intact; IV antibiotics and wound dressing have been administered in the emergency department. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Combined skeletal and soft tissue reconstruction on a scheduled operating list
Explanation:The patient has Gustilo-Anderson Grade IIIb.
Options for wound closure in the treatment of open fractures include primary closure of the skin, split-thickness skin grafting, and the use of either free or local muscle flaps. The timing of open wound closure has proponents in the immediate, early, and delayed categories
Gustilo-Anderson classification
Type I – Open fracture with a wound less than 1 cm in length, and clean
Type II – Open fracture with a laceration more than 1 cm in length, without extensive soft-tissue damage, flaps, or avulsions
Type III – Either an open segmental fracture, an open fracture with extensive soft-tissue damage, or a traumatic amputation
The description of type III fractures was subsequently further refined and described by Gustilo et al in 1984, [6] as follows:
Type IIIa – Severe comminution or segmental fractures, but with adequate coverage of bone and a wound that is closable by simple means
Type IIIb – Extensive soft-tissue damage in association with the open fracture, with significant bone exposure and periosteal stripping, typically requiring tissue rotation or free tissue transfer for closure
Type IIIc – Any open fracture with an arterial injury that requires repair -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 32 year old woman who works as a teacher presents with a swollen, oedematous leg. She hails from Africa, from an area that is poorly sanitized and prevalent with mosquitoes. She travelled to England two weeks back. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Malaria
Correct Answer: Filariasis
Explanation:Lymphatic filariasis, commonly known as elephantiasis, is a painful and profoundly disfiguring disease. In communities where filariasis is transmitted, all ages are affected. While the infection may be acquired during childhood its visible manifestations may occur later in life, causing temporary or permanent disability. The disease is caused by three species of thread-like nematode worms, known as filariae – Wuchereria bancrofti, Brugia malayi and Brugia timori. Male worms are about 3–4 centimetres in length, and female worms 8–10 centimetres. The male and female worms together form “nests” in the human lymphatic system.
Filarial infection can cause a variety of clinical manifestations, including lymphoedema of the limbs, genital disease (hydrocele, chylocele, and swelling of the scrotum and penis) and recurrent acute attacks, which are extremely painful and are accompanied by fever. The vast majority of infected people are asymptomatic, but virtually all of them have subclinical lymphatic damage and as many as 40% have kidney damage, with proteinuria and haematuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Vascular
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Question 25
Correct
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A 34 year old woman of Singaporean descent arrives at clinic for a pre operative assessment of varicose veins. On auscultation, a mid diastolic murmur is heard at the apex. The murmur is accentuated when the patient lies in the left lateral position. Which of the following is the most likely underlying lesion?
Your Answer: Mitral valve stenosis
Explanation:A mid diastolic murmur at the apex is a classical description of a mitral stenosis (MS) murmur.
MS a valvular anomaly of the mitral valve that leads to obstruction of blood flow into the left ventricle. The most common cause of MS is rheumatic fever. The clinical manifestations depend on the extent of stenosis: reduced mitral opening leads to progressive congestion behind the stenotic valve. Acute decompensation can cause pulmonary oedema. Echocardiography is the main diagnostic tool for evaluating the mitral valve apparatus, left atrial size, and pulmonary pressure. In the event of high grade and/or symptomatic stenosis, percutaneous valvuloplasty or surgical valve replacement is often required.Types and causes of murmurs:
Ejection systolic: Aortic stenosis, pulmonary stenosis, HOCM, ASD, Fallot’s
Pan-systolic: Mitral regurgitation, tricuspid regurgitation, VSD
Late systolic: Mitral valve prolapse, coarctation of aorta
Early diastolic: Aortic regurgitation, Graham-Steel murmur (pulmonary regurgitation)
Mid diastolic: Mitral stenosis, Austin-Flint murmur (severe aortic regurgitation) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Vascular
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 39 year old male is identified as having gallstones after presenting with colicky right upper quadrant pain. An abdominal ultrasound scan was done. Which of the following is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
Correct Answer: Liver function tests
Explanation:In patients with suspected gallstone complications, blood tests should include a complete blood cell (CBC) count with differential, liver function panel, and amylase and lipase. Up to 24% of women and 12% of men may have gallstones. Of these up to 30% may develop local infection and cholecystitis.
Acute cholecystitis is associated with polymorphonuclear leucocytosis. However, up to one third of the patients with cholecystitis may not manifest leucocytosis. In severe cases, mild elevations of liver enzymes may be caused by inflammatory injury of the adjacent liver.
Patients with cholangitis and pancreatitis have abnormal laboratory test values. Importantly, a single abnormal laboratory value does not confirm the diagnosis of choledocholithiasis, cholangitis, or pancreatitis; rather, a coherent set of laboratory studies leads to the correct diagnosis.
Choledocholithiasis with acute common bile duct (CBD) obstruction initially produces an acute increase in the level of liver transaminases (alanine and aspartate aminotransferases), followed within hours by a rising serum bilirubin level. The higher the bilirubin level, the greater the predictive value for CBD obstruction. CBD stones are present in approximately 60% of patients with serum bilirubin levels greater than 3 mg/dL.
If obstruction persists, a progressive decline in the level of transaminases with rising alkaline phosphatase and bilirubin levels may be noted over several days. Prothrombin time may be elevated in patients with prolonged CBD obstruction, secondary to depletion of vitamin K (the absorption of which is bile-dependent). Concurrent obstruction of the pancreatic duct by a stone in the ampulla of Vater may be accompanied by increases in serum lipase and amylase levels.
Repeated testing over hours to days may be useful in evaluating patients with gallstone complications. Improvement of the levels of bilirubin and liver enzymes may indicate spontaneous passage of an obstructing stone. Conversely, rising levels of bilirubin and transaminases with progression of leucocytosis in the face of antibiotic therapy may indicate ascending cholangitis with the need for urgent intervention. Blood culture results are positive in 30%-60% of patients with cholangitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female presents with a nodule on the posterior aspect of her right calf. It has been present for the past six months and was initially formed at the site of an insect bite. On examination, the overlying skin is faintly pigmented, and the nodule appears small in size. However, on palpation, it appears to be nearly twice the size. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Basal cell carcinoma
Correct Answer: Dermatofibroma
Explanation:Dermatofibromas may be pigmented and are often larger than they appear. They frequently occur at the sites of previous trauma.
Dermatofibromas are small, noncancerous (benign) skin growths that can develop anywhere on the body but most often appear on the lower legs, upper arms, or upper back. These nodules are common in adults but are rare in children. They can be pink, grey, red, or brown in colour and may change colour over the years. They are firm and often feel like a stone under the skin. When pinched from the sides, the top of the growth may dimple inward. These lesions feel larger than they appear visually.
Dermatofibromas are usually painless, but some people experience tenderness or itching. Most often, a single nodule develops, but some can develop numerous dermatofibromas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Skin Lesions
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Question 28
Correct
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A 17 year old girl is taken to the hospital with a 10 hour history of pelvic pain. Her last normal menstrual cycle was 14 days ago and she is otherwise well. Her abdomen was soft with mild suprapubic pain on examination. What is the underlying cause?
Your Answer: Mittelschmerz
Explanation:Answer: Mittelschmerz
Mittelschmerz is midcycle abdominal pain due to leakage of prostaglandin-containing follicular fluid at the time of ovulation. It is self-limited, and a theoretical concern is treatment of pain with prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors, which could prevent ovulation. The pain of mittelschmerz usually occurs in the lower abdomen and pelvis, either in the middle or to one side. The pain can range from a mild twinge to severe discomfort and usually lasts from minutes to hours. In some cases, a small amount of vaginal bleeding or discharge might occur. Some women have nausea, especially if the pain is very strong.
Diagnosis of pelvic pain in women can be challenging because many symptoms and signs are insensitive and nonspecific. As the first priority, urgent life-threatening conditions (e.g., ectopic pregnancy, appendicitis, ruptured ovarian cyst) and fertility-threatening conditions (e.g., pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian torsion) must be considered.
Many women never have pain at ovulation. Some women, however, have mid-cycle pain every month, and can tell by the pain that they are ovulating.
As an egg develops in the ovary, it is surrounded by follicular fluid. During ovulation, the egg and the fluid, as well as some blood, are released from the ovary. While the exact cause of mittelschmerz is not known, it is believed to be caused by the normal enlargement of the egg in the ovary just before ovulation. Also, the pain could be caused by the normal bleeding that comes with ovulation.
Pelvic inflammatory disease can be ruled out if the patient is not sexually active. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- The Abdomen
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 20 year old female is rushed to the hospital after developing severe back pain and weakness in both legs after completing the long jump. She is seen with a prominent sacrum on examination and her lower back pain is severe. Which of the following is the underlying cause?
Your Answer: Spondylolysis
Correct Answer: Spondylolisthesis
Explanation:Answer: Spondylolisthesis
Spondylolisthesis is a condition in which a bone (vertebra) in the spine moves forward out of the proper position onto the bone below it.
Causes
In children, spondylolisthesis usually occurs between the fifth bone in the lower back (lumbar vertebra) and the first bone in the sacrum (pelvis) area. It is often due to a birth defect in that area of the spine or sudden injury (acute trauma).In adults, the most common cause is abnormal wear on the cartilage and bones, such as arthritis. The condition mostly affects people over 50 years old. It is more common in women than in men.
Bone disease and fractures can also cause spondylolisthesis. Certain sports activities, such as gymnastics, weightlifting, and football, greatly stress the bones in the lower back. They also require that the athlete constantly overstretch (hyperextend) the spine. This can lead to a stress fracture on one or both sides of the vertebra. A stress fracture can cause a spinal bone to become weak and shift out of place.
Symptoms
Symptoms of spondylolisthesis may vary from mild to severe. A person with spondylolisthesis may have no symptoms. Children may not show symptoms until they’re 18 years old.The condition can lead to increased lordosis (also called swayback). In later stages, it may result in kyphosis (round back) as the upper spine falls off the lower spine.
Symptoms may include any of the following:
Lower back pain
Muscle tightness (tight hamstring muscle)
Pain, numbness, or tingling in the thighs and buttocks
Stiffness
Tenderness in the area of the vertebra that is out of place
Weakness in the legsAnkylosing spondylitis (AS) is a type of arthritis in which there is a long-term inflammation of the joints of the spine.[2] Typically the joints where the spine joins the pelvis are also affected. Occasionally other joints such as the shoulders or hips are involved. Eye and bowel problems may also occur. Back pain is a characteristic symptom of AS, and it often comes and goes. Stiffness of the affected joints generally worsens over time.
Although the cause of ankylosing spondylitis is unknown, it is believed to involve a combination of genetic and environmental factors. More than 90% of those affected in the UK have a specific human leukocyte antigen known as the HLA-B27 antigen. The underlying mechanism is believed to be autoimmune or autoinflammatory. Diagnosis is typically based on the symptoms with support from medical imaging and blood tests. AS is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy, meaning that tests show no presence of rheumatoid factor (RF) antibodies. It is also within a broader category known as axial spondylarthritis.
The signs and symptoms of ankylosing spondylitis often appear gradually, with peak onset being between 20 and 30 years of age. Initial symptoms are usually a chronic dull pain in the lower back or gluteal region combined with stiffness of the lower back. Individuals often experience pain and stiffness that awakens them in the early morning hours.
As the disease progresses, loss of spinal mobility and chest expansion, with a limitation of anterior flexion, lateral flexion, and extension of the lumbar spine, are seen. Systemic features are common, with weight loss, fever, or fatigue often present. Pain is often severe at rest but may improve with physical activity, but inflammation and pain to varying degrees may recur regardless of rest and movement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 30
Correct
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A 37 year old female is admitted after she vomited blood. An upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is performed and a large ulcer in the first part of the duodenum is noted. Attempts are made to endoscopically clip and inject the ulcer which is bleeding profusely but they are unsuccessful. What is the most appropriate management option?
Your Answer: Laparotomy and underrunning of the ulcer
Explanation:Ulcer bleeding stops spontaneously in about 80% of patients. Only a small percentage require specific measures to stop bleeding. surgery remains the most definitive method of controlling ulcer haemorrhage, and is indicated when endoscopic haemostasis fails to control the bleeding, or when rebleeding occurs. The morbidity and mortality of emergency surgery for ulcer bleeding is high. In principle, the operation performed should be the minimum compatible with permanent haemostasis. The choice of operations is determined by the site and size of the ulcer as well as the experience and preference of the surgeon. Most bleeding duodenal ulcers may be managed by underrunning the bleeding vessel together with vagotomy and pyloroplasty.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
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