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Question 1
Correct
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A 43-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of colicky abdominal pain and vomiting. His medical history shows that he has had previous abdominal surgery. During the examination, you notice that his abdomen is distended, and upon auscultation, you hear 'tinkling' bowel sounds. An abdominal radiograph reveals multiple loops of dilated bowel centrally, with valvulae conniventes present. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Adhesions
Explanation:Causes of Bowel Obstruction: Understanding the Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Bowel obstruction is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In young patients, adhesions secondary to previous surgery are the most common cause of bowel obstruction, particularly in the small intestine. The four classical features of bowel obstruction are abdominal pain, vomiting, abdominal distension, and absolute constipation. It is important to differentiate between small bowel and large bowel obstruction, with age being a helpful factor in determining the latter.
While colorectal carcinoma is a significant cause of large bowel obstruction, it only accounts for about 5% of cases in the UK. Hernias are the second most common cause of small bowel obstruction, but adhesions are more likely in patients with a history of abdominal surgery. Crohn’s disease typically presents with diarrhea, abdominal pain, and weight loss, while diverticulitis is more common in older patients and is unlikely to cause the symptoms described.
In conclusion, understanding the various causes of bowel obstruction and their associated symptoms is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 2
Correct
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A 68-year-old man presents with sudden-onset abdominal pain, rectal bleeding and diarrhoea. On examination, he appears uncomfortable, with a heart rate of 105 bpm, blood pressure 124/68 mmHg, oxygen saturations on room air of 95%, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute and a temperature of 37.4 °C. His cardiovascular and respiratory examinations are unremarkable, except for a previous median sternotomy scar. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness throughout the abdomen, which is significantly worse on the left with guarding. Urgent blood tests are taken, and chest and abdominal X-rays are performed. The chest X-ray is normal, except for an increased cardiothoracic ratio, but the abdominal X-ray shows thumbprinting in the left colon but an otherwise normal gas pattern.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Ischaemic colitis
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Acute Abdominal Pain: A Guide
When a patient presents with sudden-onset abdominal pain, it is important to consider the underlying cause in order to provide prompt and appropriate treatment. Here are some key points to consider when differentiating between potential causes:
Ischaemic colitis: This can occur as a result of atherosclerosis in the mesenteric arteries, leading to tissue death and subsequent inflammation. It is a surgical emergency that requires urgent investigation and treatment.
Angiodysplasia: This is a small vascular malformation that typically presents with melaena, unexplained PR bleeding, or anaemia. It is unlikely to cause an acute abdomen.
Infectious colitis: While infectious colitis can cause abdominal pain and diarrhoea, it typically does not come on as rapidly as other causes. Clostridium difficile colitis is a subtype that can be particularly severe and difficult to manage.
Ulcerative colitis: This is a form of inflammatory bowel disease that usually presents with abdominal pain, bloody diarrhoea, and other symptoms. It is unlikely to be a first presentation in a 69-year-old patient.
Diverticulitis: This is a common cause of left-sided abdominal pain, especially in older patients. It occurs when diverticula become infected or inflamed, but can be treated with antibiotics. Complications such as perforation or PR bleeding may require urgent intervention.
By considering these potential causes and their associated symptoms, healthcare providers can more effectively diagnose and treat patients with acute abdominal pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 3
Correct
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A 73-year-old woman with a history of diverticular disease undergoes emergency abdominal surgery. When examining this patient after her surgery, you notice she has an end colostomy.
What feature in particular will suggest that this patient has had a Hartmann’s procedure and not an abdominoperineal (AP) resection?Your Answer: Presence of rectum
Explanation:The patient has a presence of rectum, indicating that they have undergone a Hartmann’s procedure, which is commonly performed for perforated diverticulitis or to palliate rectal carcinoma. This involves resecting the sigmoid colon and leaving the rectal stump, which is oversewn. An end colostomy is created in the left iliac fossa, which can be reversed later to restore intestinal continuity. The midline scar observed is not exclusive to a Hartmann’s procedure, as AP resections and other abdominal surgeries can also be carried out via a midline incision. The presence of an end colostomy confirms that a Hartmann’s procedure has been performed. The Rutherford-Morison scar, a transverse scar used for colonic procedures and kidney transplants, is not unique to either an AP resection or a Hartmann’s procedure. The presence of solid faeces in the stoma bag is expected for a colostomy, while ileostomies typically contain liquid faeces and are usually located in the right lower quadrant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman who is 21 weeks pregnant presents with abdominal pain associated with a loss of appetite and nausea. On examination, the patient is apyrexial, with a blood pressure of 122/80 mmHg and a heart rate of 92 bpm. Palpation of the abdomen reveals tenderness at McBurney’s point. Urine dip reveals a trace of glucose.
What would be the most appropriate investigation to diagnose the patient's condition?Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) abdomen
Correct Answer: Ultrasound abdomen
Explanation:Imaging and Blood Tests for Suspected Appendicitis in Pregnancy
Appendicitis is a common surgical problem during pregnancy, often presenting with non-specific symptoms and a positive McBurney’s sign. Pregnant women may not exhibit the classic low-grade fever and may experience loss of appetite and nausea. Ultrasound of the abdomen is the preferred imaging study for suspected appendicitis, with MRI used when ultrasound is inconclusive. Blood tests, including FBC, urea and electrolytes, and LFTs, may show a raised white cell count but are not definitive for diagnosis. CT scan is a last resort and not preferred in pregnancy. Ultrasound KUB is useful for renal causes of abdominal pain but not for diagnosing appendicitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 5
Correct
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You are asked to see an elderly patient who has not opened their bowels for several days. Their abdomen is distended, and they describe cramping abdominal pain that comes and goes. A supine abdominal X-ray is performed to identify features of bowel obstruction and suggest the location of the obstruction.
Which of the following is more characteristic of the large bowel, rather than the small bowel, on an abdominal X-ray?Your Answer: Haustral folds
Explanation:Characteristics of Small and Large Bowel Anatomy
The human digestive system is composed of various organs that work together to break down food and absorb nutrients. Two important parts of this system are the small and large bowel. Here are some characteristics that differentiate these two structures:
Haustral Folds and Valvulae Conniventes
Haustral folds are thick, widely separated folds that are characteristic of the large bowel. In contrast, valvulae conniventes are thin mucosal folds that pass across the full width of the small bowel.Location
The small bowel is located towards the center of the abdomen, while the large bowel is more peripheral and frames the small bowel.Diameter
The normal maximum diameter of the small bowel is 3 cm, while the large bowel can have a diameter of up to 6 cm. The caecum, a part of the large bowel, can have a diameter of up to 9 cm.Air-Fluid Levels in Obstruction
The appearance of air-fluid levels is characteristic of small bowel obstruction.Remembering the 3/6/9 Rule
To help remember the normal diameters of the small and large bowel, use the 3/6/9 rule: the small bowel has a diameter of 3 cm, the large bowel can have a diameter of up to 6 cm, and the caecum can have a diameter of up to 9 cm.Understanding the Differences Between Small and Large Bowel Anatomy
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 6
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of rectal bleeding that has been going on for 2 days. The bleeding worsens after passing stools. He has recently increased his fibre intake, but he still finds it very difficult to pass stools. Defecation causes him severe pain that lasts for hours. During the examination, you try to perform a DRE, but the patient experiences severe pain, making it impossible to complete the procedure. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Anal fissure
Explanation:Common Anal Conditions and Their Differentiating Features
Anal conditions can cause discomfort and pain, but each has its own unique symptoms and characteristics. Anal fissures, for example, are caused by a tear in the sensitive skin-lined lower anal canal and cause acute pain on defecation. Treatment involves analgesia or topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) or diltiazem to relax the sphincter. Rectal prolapse, on the other hand, causes a mass protruding through the anus and may also result in constipation and/or faecal incontinence. Fistula in ano is an abnormal connection between the anal canal and perianal skin, while anal carcinoma is a rare but serious condition that presents with rectal bleeding, unexplained weight loss, persistent change in bowel habit, iron deficiency anaemia, and abdominal or rectal mass. Finally, haemorrhoids are vascular cushions in the anal canal that usually cause painless PR bleeding, but rarely cause discomfort. Understanding the differentiating features of these common anal conditions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman is admitted to the Surgical Unit with a painful, distended abdomen. The pain started 4 days ago and was initially colicky in nature but is now continuous. She has vomited several times and only emptied her bowels once in the last 3 days, which is unusual for her. She had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy 3 weeks ago, from which she made a rapid recovery. There is no past medical history of note. On examination, she appears unwell. The abdomen is tender and mildly distended. Bowel sounds are reduced. Observations: pulse rate 119 bpm, blood pressure 130/90 mmHg, temperature 38.7 °C.
What is the single most appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer: Rest and observation, with the patient kept nil by mouth
Correct Answer: Preoperative preparation and consideration for surgery
Explanation:Preoperative Preparation and Consideration for Bowel Obstruction Surgery
When a patient presents with colicky abdominal pain, vomiting, constipation, recent abdominal surgery, a distended abdomen, and reduced bowel sounds, the most likely diagnosis is bowel obstruction. If the patient appears unwell, as in the case of tachycardia and fever, urgent investigation and/or intervention is necessary.
While an urgent CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis would be ideal, the patient in this scenario requires immediate surgery. Keeping the patient nil by mouth and providing intravenous fluids are important, but they do not treat or investigate the underlying cause. Placing a nasogastric tube can help relieve symptoms and reduce the risk of aspiration, but it is not enough on its own.
In summary, preoperative preparation and consideration for bowel obstruction surgery involve urgent investigation and/or intervention, keeping the patient nil by mouth, providing intravenous fluids, and potentially placing a nasogastric tube. Conservative management is not suitable for an unwell patient with bowel obstruction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a lump in his groin that he noticed while lifting weights. Upon examination, a soft palpable mass is found in the scrotum that can be reduced with gentle massage. What structure is most likely ascending along the deep inguinal ring through which this mass has passed?
Your Answer: Rectus abdominis muscle
Correct Answer: Inferior epigastric artery and vein
Explanation:Anatomy Landmarks in Inguinal Hernias
Inguinal hernias are a common condition that occurs when abdominal contents protrude through the inguinal canal. Understanding the anatomy landmarks involved in inguinal hernias is crucial for diagnosis and treatment. Here are some important landmarks to consider:
1. Inferior epigastric artery and vein: These vessels lie immediately medial to the deep inguinal ring and are important landmarks when performing laparoscopic indirect inguinal hernia repair.
2. Rectus abdominis muscle: This muscle forms the medial border of a spigelian hernia and also a direct inguinal hernia.
3. Inguinal ligament: This represents the inferior limit of the deep inguinal ring.
4. Femoral artery and vein: These vessels lie inferior to the inguinal ligament which forms the inferior boundary on the deep inguinal ring.
5. Superficial inguinal ring: This lies medial to the deep inguinal ring but is not considered to form its medial border. Indirect hernias then travel through the inguinal canal after passing through the deep inguinal ring.
In conclusion, understanding the anatomy landmarks involved in inguinal hernias is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You are called to see an 80-year-old man who was admitted for an anterior resection for sigmoid cancer. His operation was uncomplicated, and he is now three days post operation. He has hypercholesterolaemia and hypertension, but was otherwise fit before diagnosis. You find that the man is in atrial fibrillation. Nursing staff report that he is increasingly confused and appears to be in pain despite postoperative pain relief. They also report decreased urine output and tachycardia when they last took observations.
What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?Your Answer: Consequences of having just had major abdominal surgery
Correct Answer: Anastomotic leak
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Signs of Sepsis Post-Abdominal Surgery
When a patient presents with signs of sepsis post-abdominal surgery, it is important to consider the possible causes. While anastomotic leak is a common complication, hospital-acquired pneumonia, consequences of surgery, pulmonary embolus, and pre-existing cardiac conditions can also be potential factors. However, it is crucial to note that each condition presents with distinct symptoms and signs. Therefore, a thorough evaluation and investigation are necessary to determine the underlying cause and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 10
Incorrect
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At an outpatient clinic, you see a 30-year-old patient referred by a gastroenterologist for a colectomy. The referral letter mentions that the patient has been screened for a genetic abnormality and that a mutation was found in a gene on chromosome 5q21.
What is the most likely underlying condition?Your Answer: Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer
Correct Answer: Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)
Explanation:Inherited Conditions Predisposing to Colorectal Carcinoma
There are several inherited conditions that increase an individual’s risk of developing colorectal carcinoma. These conditions can be divided into two groups: polyposis syndromes and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer.
The polyposis syndromes can be further divided into adenomatous polyposis and hamartomatous polyposis. Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is the most common and important of the polyposis syndromes. It is an autosomal dominant condition caused by a mutation in the APC gene and is associated with the development of over 100 polyps in the large bowel by the mid-teens. Patients with FAP typically undergo prophylactic colectomy before the age of 30.
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is one of the hamartomatous polyposis conditions and is characterized by the presence of pigmented lesions on the lips. Patients with this syndrome are predisposed to cancers of the small and large bowel, testis, stomach, pancreas, and breast.
Familial juvenile polyposis is another hamartomatous polyposis condition that occurs in children and teenagers.
Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer is the most common inherited condition leading to colorectal cancer. It is caused by defects in mismatch repair genes and carries a 70% lifetime risk of developing colorectal cancer.
Cowden’s disease is another hamartomatous polyposis condition that causes macrocephaly, hamartomatous polypoid disease, and benign skin tumors.
In summary, understanding these inherited conditions and their associated risks can aid in early detection and prevention of colorectal carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 11
Correct
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A junior resident performing his first appendectomy was unable to locate the base of the appendix due to extensive adhesions in the peritoneal cavity. The senior physician recommended identifying the caecum first and then locating the base of the appendix.
What anatomical feature(s) on the caecum would have been utilized to locate the base of the appendix?Your Answer: Teniae coli
Explanation:Anatomy of the Large Intestine: Differentiating Taeniae Coli, Ileal Orifice, Omental Appendages, Haustra Coli, and Semilunar Folds
The large intestine is a vital part of the digestive system, responsible for absorbing water and electrolytes from undigested food. It is composed of several distinct structures, each with its own unique function. Here, we will differentiate five of these structures: taeniae coli, ileal orifice, omental appendages, haustra coli, and semilunar folds.
Taeniae Coli
The taeniae coli are three bands of longitudinal muscle on the surface of the large intestine. They are responsible for the characteristic haustral folds of the large intestine and meet at the appendix.Ileal Orifice
The ileal orifice is the opening where the ileum connects to the caecum. It is surrounded by the ileocaecal valve and is not useful in locating the appendix.Omental Appendages
The omental appendages, also known as appendices epiploicae, are fatty appendages unique to the large intestine. They are found all over the large intestine and are not specifically associated with the appendix.Haustra Coli
The haustra are multiple pouches in the wall of the large intestine, formed where the longitudinal muscle layer of the wall is deficient. They are not useful in locating the appendix.Semilunar Folds
The semilunar folds are the folds found along the lining of the large intestine and are not specifically associated with the appendix.Understanding the anatomy of the large intestine and its various structures is crucial in diagnosing and treating gastrointestinal disorders. By differentiating these structures, healthcare professionals can better identify and address issues related to the large intestine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A woman was brought to the Emergency Department after being stabbed in the abdomen, one inch (2.54 cm) superior to the umbilicus in the midline.
Assuming the knife entered the peritoneal cavity, which one of the following abdominal wall structures would the knife penetrate first?Your Answer: Aponeurosis of the transversus abdominis muscle
Correct Answer: Aponeurosis of the external oblique and internal oblique muscles
Explanation:Layers of the Anterior Abdominal Wall
The anterior abdominal wall is composed of several layers that provide support and protection to the abdominal organs. Understanding the layers of the abdominal wall is important for surgical procedures and diagnostic imaging.
Skin and Superficial Fascia
The outermost layer of the abdominal wall is the skin, followed by the superficial fascia. The superficial fascia contains adipose tissue and is important for insulation and energy storage.Anterior Rectus Sheath
The anterior rectus sheath is formed by the fusion of the aponeuroses of the external oblique and internal oblique muscles. It covers the rectus muscle and provides additional support to the abdominal wall.Rectus Muscle
The rectus muscle is located deep to the anterior rectus sheath and is responsible for flexing the trunk. It is an important muscle for maintaining posture and stability.Posterior Rectus Sheath
The posterior rectus sheath is formed by the fusion of the aponeuroses of the internal oblique and transversus muscles. It provides additional support to the rectus muscle and helps to maintain the integrity of the abdominal wall.Transversalis Fascia
The transversalis fascia is a thin layer of connective tissue that lies deep to the posterior rectus sheath. It separates the abdominal wall from the peritoneum and provides additional support to the abdominal organs.Extraperitoneal Fat and Peritoneum
The extraperitoneal fat is a layer of adipose tissue that lies deep to the transversalis fascia. It provides insulation and energy storage. The peritoneum is a thin layer of tissue that lines the abdominal cavity and covers the abdominal organs.Conclusion
Understanding the layers of the anterior abdominal wall is important for surgical procedures and diagnostic imaging. Each layer provides important support and protection to the abdominal organs. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 13
Incorrect
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You are the F2 in the Surgical Outpatient Clinic and have been asked to see Mrs Jones by the consultant. Mrs Jones is a 56-year-old lady who presents with trouble defecating, and although she still passes her motions normally, over the past month, she has noticed the uncomfortable feeling of still wanting to defecate after passing her motions. During the past 2 weeks, she has noticed she has been passing mucous and some blood but no change in colour. Examination is unremarkable.
Which of the following does the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidance recommend as an initial investigation?Your Answer: Rigid sigmoidoscopy
Correct Answer: Colonoscopy
Explanation:Choosing the Right Investigation for Bowel Habit Changes: A Guide
When a patient experiences changes in bowel habit, it is important to choose the right investigation to determine the underlying cause. In this scenario, the patient is having difficulty defecating, feels incomplete emptying, and is passing mucous per rectum. The main differential diagnoses include colorectal cancer, colorectal polyps, and diverticular disease. Here are some options for investigations and their appropriateness:
Colonoscopy: NICE recommends colonoscopy as the initial investigation for those without major co-morbidities. If a lesion is visualized, it can be biopsied, allowing for a diagnosis of colon cancer. Flexible sigmoidoscopy, followed by barium enema, can be offered in those with major co-morbidities.
Barium enema: This may be considered in patients for whom colonoscopy is not suitable. However, it would not be the first investigation of choice in this patient without major co-morbidities.
Faecal occult blood testing: This is a screening test offered to men and women aged 60-74 in the general population. It would not be appropriate to request this test in the above scenario, as it is not specific and would not offer any extra information for diagnosis. Plus, the patient already has signs of bleeding.
Rigid sigmoidoscopy: This would be a valid option in the outpatient setting, as it allows quick visualization of the anorectal region. However, NICE guidance recommends colonoscopy as first line as it allows visualization of a much greater length of the bowel.
Computerized tomography (CT) abdomen: For patients who present as emergencies, this may be more appropriate. However, in this case, in the outpatient setting, this is unlikely to be the investigation of choice.
In summary, choosing the right investigation for bowel habit changes depends on the patient’s individual circumstances and the suspected underlying cause. Colonoscopy is often the first line investigation recommended by NICE, but other options may be appropriate in certain situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old professional bodybuilder comes to the clinic with a lump in the left groin that appears on and off. The patient reports that the lump is influenced by posture and coughing but does not cause any pain. Upon examination, the doctor diagnoses the patient with a hernia.
What is a true statement regarding groin hernias?Your Answer: An inguinal hernia usually emerges lateral to the pubic tubercle
Correct Answer: A direct inguinal hernia lies medial to the inferior epigastric vessels
Explanation:Understanding Groin Hernias: Types, Location, and Risks
Groin hernias are a common condition that occurs when an organ or tissue protrudes through a weak spot in the abdominal wall. There are different types of groin hernias, including direct inguinal hernias and femoral hernias.
A direct inguinal hernia occurs when there is a weakness in the posterior wall of the inguinal canal, and the protrusion happens medial to the inferior epigastric vessels. On the other hand, a femoral hernia emerges lateral to the pubic tubercle.
Contrary to popular belief, femoral hernias are more common in women than in men. While direct inguinal hernias can become incarcerated, only a small percentage of them will become strangulated per year. Femoral hernias, however, are at a much higher risk of becoming strangulated.
While most groin hernias should be repaired, especially when they become symptomatic, patients who are unfit for surgery should be treated conservatively. This may include using a truss to support the hernia.
In conclusion, understanding the different types and locations of groin hernias, as well as their risks, can help patients make informed decisions about their treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 15
Correct
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A 70-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe lower abdominal pain. The pain started yesterday and is increasing in intensity. She has had loose stools for a few days and has been feeling nauseated. She has not vomited. There is no past medical history of note. On examination, there is tenderness and guarding in the left iliac fossa. Bloods: haemoglobin (Hb) 116 g/l; white cell count (WCC) 15 × 109/l.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Diverticulitis
Explanation:Diverticulitis is a condition where small pouches in the bowel wall become inflamed, often due to blockages. This is more common in older individuals and can cause symptoms such as fever, nausea, and abdominal pain. Treatment typically involves antibiotics and rest, but surgery may be necessary in severe cases. It is important to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other conditions, such as colorectal cancer, with lower gastrointestinal endoscopy. In contrast, Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis are less likely diagnoses in a 75-year-old patient without prior gastrointestinal history. Diverticulosis, the presence of these pouches without inflammation, is often asymptomatic and more common in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 16
Correct
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A 76-year-old man has been diagnosed with colon cancer and is a candidate for an extended left hemicolectomy. The tumour is located in the descending colon and the surgery will involve ligating the blood vessel that supplies it. What is the name of the artery that provides the primary blood supply to the descending colon?
Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery
Explanation:Arteries of the Abdomen: Supplying the Digestive System
The digestive system is supplied by several arteries in the abdomen. The inferior mesenteric artery provides blood to the colon from the splenic flexure to the upper part of the rectum. On the other hand, the superior mesenteric artery branches into several arteries, including the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery, intestinal arteries, ileocolic artery, and right and middle colic arteries. It supplies up to the splenic flexure. The cystic artery, as its name suggests, supplies the gallbladder. Lastly, the ileocolic artery supplies the caecum, ileum, and appendix, while the middle colic artery supplies the transverse colon up to the splenic flexure. These arteries play a crucial role in ensuring the proper functioning of the digestive system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with a 2-day history of abdominal pain and fever, associated with vomiting. Following examination, the GP suspects a diagnosis of acute appendicitis and refers the patient to the surgical assessment unit at the local hospital. With regard to acute appendicitis, which one of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer: It classically refers pain to the epigastric region
Correct Answer: It can result in thrombosis of the appendicular artery (endarteritis obliterans)
Explanation:Appendicitis is a common condition that occurs when the appendix becomes inflamed and infected. It can be caused by obstruction of the appendix, usually by a faecolith, leading to the build-up of mucinous secretions and subsequent infection. Alternatively, pressure within the closed system can compress the superficial veins and eventually lead to thrombosis of the appendicular artery, resulting in ischaemic necrosis and gangrene. Appendicitis is most common between the ages of 10 and 30 years, and conservative management is rarely effective. Without treatment, appendicitis can progress to perforation and generalised peritonitis, which can be life-threatening. The pain associated with appendicitis is initially referred to the epigastric region and later localises to the right iliac fossa. Surgical intervention is almost always required, except in the case of an appendix mass or abscess, where removal is advised after an interval of 6-8 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old diabetic arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe abdominal pain. The pain started suddenly and he has been experiencing bloody diarrhoea for the past six hours. Despite his discomfort, his physical examination does not reveal any significant findings. The patient has a notable medical history, having previously suffered a myocardial infarction that necessitated the placement of a pacemaker.
What test is most likely to confirm a diagnosis of mesenteric ischemia?Your Answer: Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA)
Correct Answer: Abdominal computed tomography (CT)
Explanation:Diagnostic Imaging Techniques for Mesenteric Ischaemia
Mesenteric ischaemia is a condition that occurs when there is a lack of blood flow to the intestines, which can lead to serious complications. There are several diagnostic imaging techniques that can be used to identify mesenteric ischaemia, including abdominal computed tomography (CT), abdominal ultrasound, abdominal X-ray, colonoscopy, and magnetic resonance angiography (MRA).
Abdominal CT is often the first-line investigation used to rule out other causes and can identify signs of mesenteric ischaemia, such as gas in the intestinal wall and portal vein. Abdominal ultrasound is not useful in assessing bowel lesions but may indicate perforation and free fluid in the abdomen. Abdominal X-ray findings are non-specific and may not be helpful in narrowing down the differential. Colonoscopy can be helpful in looking at mucosal lesions of the bowel but carries a risk of perforation. MRA can be useful in assessing vascular pathology but is not recommended for patients with pacemakers.
In conclusion, a combination of diagnostic imaging techniques may be necessary to accurately diagnose mesenteric ischaemia and determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 19
Correct
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A 65-year-old male patient is admitted with severe abdominal pain and is diagnosed with mesenteric vascular occlusion. The small bowel becomes gangrenous and requires resection. What is a potential complication of this surgical procedure?
Your Answer: Nephrolithiasis
Explanation:Complications of Short Bowel Syndrome
Short bowel syndrome refers to clinical problems that arise from the removal of varying lengths of the small bowel. One common complication is nephrolithiasis, which is caused by enteric hyperoxaluria resulting from increased absorption of oxalate in the large intestine. Bile acids and fatty acids increase colonic mucosal permeability, leading to increased oxalate absorption. Steatorrhoea is also common due to fat malabsorption in the small bowel. Weight loss, not weight gain, is a complication of this syndrome. Diarrhoea is a severe complication, especially after ileal resection, which results in malabsorption of bile acid and stimulates fluid secretion in the intestinal lumen. Nutritional deficiencies of vitamins A, D, E, K, folate, and B12 are also seen. Gastric hypersecretion is common, but achlorhydria is not a complication of small bowel resection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 20
Correct
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A 9-year-old girl is brought to the paediatrics department with a 2-day history of worsening abdominal pain, accompanied by fever, nausea and vomiting. The pain initially started in the middle of her abdomen but has now become focused on the right lower quadrant.
What is the most frequent surgical diagnosis in children of this age group?Your Answer: Appendicitis
Explanation:Common Causes of Acute Abdominal Pain in Children
Acute abdominal pain is a common complaint among children, and it can be caused by a variety of conditions. Among the most common surgical diagnoses in children with acute abdominal pain is appendicitis, which typically presents with central colicky abdominal pain that localizes to the right iliac fossa. However, over half of children with abdominal pain have no identifiable cause.
Intussusception is another common surgical diagnosis in children under two years of age, characterized by the telescoping of one portion of bowel over another. Symptoms include loud crying, drawing up of the knees, vomiting, and rectal bleeding that resembles redcurrant jelly.
Mesenteric adenitis is a self-limiting condition that can present similarly to appendicitis but is not a surgical diagnosis. Cholecystitis, a common cause of abdominal pain in adults, is rare in children. Ovarian torsion is also a rare cause of acute abdominal pain in children, accounting for less than 5% of cases.
Prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial for conditions like appendicitis and intussusception, as delays can increase the risk of complications. However, it is important to consider a range of potential causes for acute abdominal pain in children and to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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