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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 30 yr. old primigravida in her 23rd week of pregnancy presented with palpitations. Her ECG showed supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). 15 minutes after admission the SVT spontaneously reverted to sinus rhythm. She had two episodes of SVT later which were associated with palpitations. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this presentation?
Your Answer: Flecainide
Correct Answer: Verapamil
Explanation:Both long-acting calcium channel blockers and beta blockers improve symptoms of patients with SVT. Verapamil does not have adverse maternal or fetal side effects which would suggest that the use of verapamil in the treatment of supraventricular arrhythmias in pregnancy is safe and effective. Beta blockers are associated with intrauterine fetal growth restriction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 48 yr. old male presented with exertional angina for 2 weeks. He has no significant past medical history or cardiac risk factors except a total cholesterol of 5.8 mmol/L. He has been already started on aspirin. Which of the following is the most suitable drug combination for him?
Your Answer: Diltiazem and statin
Correct Answer: B-blocker and statin
Explanation:Beta blockers and calcium channel blockers have proven prognostic benefits. Nitrates don’t have any proven prognostic benefits. A statin is indicated for a patient with angina and cholesterol level of 5.5 to 8.5 to prevent risk of myocardial infarction. So the preferred combination from the given answers is beta blocker + statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Correct
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In which one of the following diseases does the patient have to be isolated?
Your Answer: Measles
Explanation:Measles and chickenpox are spread by droplets. Thus, patients should be isolated.
Rheumatic fever and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis are immune mediated diseases that don’t require isolation.
Herpetic gingivostomatitis spreads by direct transmission of infected secretions to the stratified squamous epithelium.
HSP is not an infectious disease. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Question 5
Correct
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A 28-year-old man is investigated for cervical lymphadenopathy. Lymph node biopsy reveals nodular sclerosing Hodgkin lymphoma. Which one of the following factors is associated with a poor prognosis?
Your Answer: Night sweats
Explanation:Night sweats are a B symptom in Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) and imply a poor prognosis.
HL is a malignant proliferation of lymphocytes characterised by the presence of distinctive giant cells known as Reed-Sternberg cells. It has a bimodal age distribution being most common in the third and seventh decades of life.
Staging of HL is done according to the Ann Arbor staging system:
Stage
I: Single lymph node region (I) or one extra lymphatic site (IE)II: Two or more lymph node regions on same side of the diaphragm (II) or local extra lymphatic extension plus one or more lymph node regions on same side of the diaphragm (IIE)
III: Lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III) which may be accompanied by local extra lymphatic extension (IIIE)
IV: Diffuse involvement of one or more extra lymphatic organs or sites
Suffix
A: No B symptomsB: Presence of at least one of the following: unexplained weight loss >10% baseline during 6 months before staging; recurrent unexplained fever >38°C; recurrent night sweats—poor prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 66 year-old marketing analyst presents to the respiratory clinic with a 2-month history of progressive weakness and shortness of breath. He finds it difficult to stand from sitting, and struggles climbing stairs. He is an ex-smoker with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). He had a recent exacerbation one month ago for which he was treated by the GP with a course of oral prednisolone, during which time his weakness transiently improved. On examination, you note a left-sided monophonic wheeze and reduced breath sounds at the left lung base. Blood tests and a chest x-ray are requested. Hb 145 g/L WCC10.5 109/L, Na+136 mmol/L, K+ 4.3 mmol/L, Urea 6.8 mmol/L, Creatinine 93 mmol/L, Calcium 2.62 mmol/L, Phosphate 1.44 mmol/L, Chest x-ray shows hyperinflated lungs, left lower lobe collapse and a bulky left hilum What is the most likely cause of this patient's weakness?
Your Answer: Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome
Explanation:This man has a small-cell lung cancer (SCLC) and associated Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome – a well-recognized paraneoplastic manifestation of SCLC. This classically affects the proximal muscles, especially in the legs, causing difficulty in standing from a seated position and climbing stairs. In contrast to myasthenia gravis, eye involvement is uncommon. Treatment with steroids is often helpful, which explains his transient symptomatic improvement during treatment for his COPD exacerbation. Steroid myopathy does not fit as the symptoms started well before his course of prednisolone. Although the patient is mildly hypercalcaemic, this would not be sufficient to produce his presenting symptoms, although it does reinforce the suspicion of lung malignancy. Motor neurone disease would be unlikely in this context and would not improve with steroids. Myasthenia gravis could produce these symptoms, but in the context of a new lung mass is a less viable diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old psychologist with small cell lung cancer complains of muscle weakness. Each one of the following are features of Lambert-Eaton syndrome, except:
Your Answer: Impotence
Correct Answer: Repeated muscle contractions lead to decreased muscle strength
Explanation:In myasthenia gravis, repeated muscle contractions lead to reduced muscle strength. The opposite is however classically seen in the related disorder Lambert-Eaton syndrome. Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome is seen in association with small cell lung cancer, and to a lesser extent breast and ovarian cancer. It may also occur independently as an autoimmune disorder. Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome is caused by an antibody directed against pre-synaptic voltage gated calcium channel in the peripheral nervous system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman is HIV positive. She is very concerned that she is at increased risk of cancer. Which one of the following cancers is NOT increased in HIV positive people?
Your Answer: Non-small cell lung cancer
Correct Answer: Breast cancer
Explanation:Breast cancer has a lower incidence in HIV positive patients. Seminoma, Hodgkin’s disease, anal cancer, and non-small cell lung cancer are all increased incidence. Memorize this breast cancer fact.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 39 year-old engineer presents with progressive weakness of his hands. Upon examination, you notice wasting of the small muscles of the hand. A diagnosis of syringomyelia is suspected. Which one of the following features would most support this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Fasciculation of the small muscles of the hand
Correct Answer: Loss of temperature sensation in the hands
Explanation:Syringomyelia is a development of a cavity (syrinx) within the spinal cord. Signs and symptoms include loss of feeling, paralysis, weakness, and stiffness in the back, shoulders, and extremities. Syringomyelia may also cause a loss of the ability to feel extremes of hot or cold, especially in the hands. Symptoms typically vary depending on the extent and, often more critically, on the location of the syrinx within the spinal cord.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 39-year-old accountant with long-standing gastro-oesophageal reflux disease is reviewed in clinic. He has recently switched from ranitidine to omeprazole. What is the main benefit of omeprazole compared to ranitidine?
Your Answer: Irreversible blockade of H+/K+ ATPase
Explanation:Proton pump inhibitors can reduce gastric acid secretion by up to 99%. Acid production resumes following the normal renewal of gastric parietal cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman diagnosed with non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma is about to be started on the CHOP regimen (cyclophosphamide, hydroxydaunorubicin, vincristine, and prednisolone). Her pre-chemotherapy blood investigations show: Hb: 11.8 g/dL, Platelets: 423 x 109/L, WBC: 11.2 x 109/L, Na+: 143 mmol/L, K+: 3.9 mmol/L, Urea: 6.2 mmol/L, Creatinine: 78 μmol/L, Uric acid: 0.45 mmol/L, Ciprofloxacin is prescribed in addition to the CHOP regimen to reduce the risk of neutropenic sepsis. Which of the following drugs should be added to lower the risk of other complications?
Your Answer: Allopurinol
Explanation:Tumour lysis syndrome (TLS) occurs most notably in patients with haematological malignancies including, Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (NHL) and Acute Lymphocytic Leukaemia (ALL).
Risk factors for TLS include:
• Large tumour burden
• Sensitivity of the tumour to chemotherapy
• Rapid tumour growth rate
TLS is characterized by:
• Hyperuricemia
• Hyperkalaemia
• Hyperphosphatemia
• Hypocalcaemia
Treatment of TLS:
• Allopurinol: It is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor, it reduces the conversion of nucleic acid by-products to uric acid. Thus, it prevents urate nephropathy and subsequent oliguric renal failure. Note: dose reduction is essential in renal failure or if given along with mercaptopurine or azathioprine.
Alternatives to Allopurinol: Febuxostat; Rasburicase are useful in patients with hyperuricemia.
• Hydration
• Diuresis: Should be considered in well hydrated patients with insufficient urine output. Furosemide to be considered in normo-volemic patients with hyperkalaemia. Urine alkalization can be considered for promoting alkaline diuresis.
• Treatment of electrolyte imbalances including hyperkalaemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hypocalcaemia.
• Dialysis can be considered in refractory cases. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A study is carried out to assess the efficacy of a new anti-epileptic drug for children with absence seizures. The total number of the children selected for the study was 400, from which 150 children were assigned to take the new drug and 250 children were assigned in the control group. After a period of four months, only 15 children taking the new drug had a seizure compared to 100 children from the control group who had seizure. What is the correct value regarding the relative risk reduction?
Your Answer: 3.33
Correct Answer: 75%
Explanation:Relative risk reduction (RRR) tells you by how much the treatment reduced the risk of bad outcomes relative to the control group who did not have the treatment. In the previous example, the relative risk reduction of fever and rash in the group of the children on the intervention was 40 per cent (1 – 0.6 = 0.4 or 40 per cent). RRR = (EER -CER) / CER = (0.1 – 0.4) / 0.4 = -0.75 or 75% reduction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old patient, previously fit and well, is admitted with fluctuating confusion and frank haematuria. He has recently been complaining of generalised malaise and joint pains. Examination reveals jaundice, splenomegaly, and petechiae. His blood pressure is 155/84 mmHg, temperature 37.9oC. Initial investigations reveal: Haemoglobin 9.5 g/dL, White cell count 12 × 109/L, Platelets 40 × 109/L, Creatinine 142 μmol/L, Sodium 139 mmol/L, Potassium 4.5 mmol/L, Urea 9.2 mmol/L, Lactate dehydrogenase 495 U/l (10–250) Urinalysis Protein ++, blood +++ Blood film shows schistocytes What treatment should NOT be given to this patient?
Your Answer: Fresh frozen plasma infusion
Correct Answer: Platelet transfusion
Explanation:There is a strong suspicion of Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP) in this patient as he presents with neurological changes (from confusion to convulsions and coma), fever, haemolysis, thrombocytopenia, and renal failure. Additionally, TTP cases may present with jaundice, splenomegaly, and hypertension as seen in this patient. With a diagnosis of TTP, recent studies have shown that platelet transfusion is not recommended in this case because it has been shown to increase the risk for arterial thrombosis and mortality possibly due to increased aggregations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 53 year old female, longstanding case of rheumatoid arthritis comes for a review. Which of the following features are commonly associated with her condition?
Your Answer: Proximal interphalangeal joint involvement in the hands
Explanation:Rheumatoid arthritis is a polyarthritis that results in symmetrical pain and swelling of the affected joints (also at rest). It particularly affects the metacarpophalangeal joints (MCPJs) and proximal interphalangeal joints (PIPJs), not the distal interphalangeal joints (DIPs).
Ulcerative colitis and IBD are associated with seronegative arthritides, not RA. The condition can also cause various extra-articular manifestations such as ocular symptoms, rheumatoid nodules and pulmonary fibrosis. Scleritis, episcleritis and keratoconjunctivitis sicca are more common than uveitis. Early intervention with disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) plays a decisive role in successful treatment. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A study is done on 1000 patients to assess the specificity of a new rapid finger-prick blood test developed to help diagnose deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The new test was positive on 200 patients with DVT and on 100 patients without DVT. It was also negative on 20 patients with DVT and 680 without DVT. What is the specificity of the new test?
Your Answer: 680/700
Correct Answer: 680/780
Explanation:Specificity (negative in health)
The ability of a test to correctly classify an individual as disease- free is called the test′s specificity. [Table 2]Specificity = d / b+d
= d (true negative) / b+d (true negative + false positive)
= Probability of being test negative when disease absent.
Example: One hundred persons with normal angles (diagnosed by ′gold standard′: gonioscopy) are examined by peripheral angle chamber depth examination. Eighty-five persons had normal peripheral angle chamber depth [Table 3]. The specificity of the peripheral angle chamber depth examination to PACG is therefore –
85 / 100 = 85%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man known to have renal cell carcinoma, is currently undergoing treatment. He presents to the acute medical ward with one month history of worsening central lower back pain, which becomes worse at night and cannot be managed with an analgesia at home. He has no other new symptoms. Out of the following, which investigation should be performed next?
Your Answer: MRI lumbar spine
Correct Answer: MRI whole spine
Explanation:An MRI whole spine should be performed in a patient suspected of spinal metastasis which can occur before developing metastatic spinal cord compression. This patient has renal cell carcinoma, which readily metastasises to the bones and also has progressive back pain. He, therefore, needs urgent imaging of his spine before any neurological compromise develops. MRI whole spine is preferable because patients with spinal metastasis often have metastases at multiple levels within the spine. Plain radiographs and CT scans should not be performed as they have a lower sensitivity for revealing lesions and cannot exclude cord compression.
In general, imaging should be performed within one week if symptoms suspicious of spinal metastasis without neurological symptoms are present. If there are symptoms suggestive of malignant spinal cord compression, then imaging should be done within 24 hours.
The signs and symptoms of spinal metastases include:
1. Unrelenting lumbar back pain
2. Thoracic or cervical back pain
3. Pain associated with tenderness and worsens with sneezing, coughing, or straining
4. Nocturnal pain -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 45-year-old man with diabetes comes to the clinic for his annual review. He has had diabetes for eight years and he is also being treated for hypertension. He is on the following medications: metformin 500 mg tds, gliclazide 80 mg daily, atorvastatin 10 mg/d, Ramipril 10 mg/d and Bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg/d. He is noted to be obese (130kg). Physical examination is otherwise unremarkable. Investigations reveal: HbA1c 8.1% (3.8-6.4), Fasting glucose 9 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), 24hr Urine free cortisol 354 mmol/d (<250), 9am Plasma ACTH 4 ng/dL (10-50). CT abdomen 3cm right adrenal mass. Which of the following is most likely to be the adrenal mass?
Your Answer: Cortisol secreting adenoma
Explanation:The patient has Cushing syndrome suggested by the elevated 24hr urine free cortisol. Hence, the mass is most probably a cortisol secreting adenoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 75 yr. old male with rheumatoid arthritis underwent a colectomy 2 days ago for colon cancer. He was put on a prophylactic dose of low molecular weight heparin post operatively as well as prednisolone. Now he complains of central chest pain and his ECG revealed an acute ST elevation myocardial infarction. He was given aspirin and oxygen as the initial treatment. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer: IV diamorphine + arrange percutaneous coronary intervention
Explanation:There is a high risk of bleeding due to recent surgery and heparin. So thrombolysis is not an option. The most appropriate management is percutaneous coronary intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man presents with numbness and tingling in his left hand. On examination he has weakness of elbow extension, metacarpophalangeal joint flexion and extension and distal interphalangeal joint flexion. All other movements and reflexes are normal. Sensation is normal apart from reduced pin-prick sensation over the medial aspect of the hand. An MRI scan of the cervical spine is performed due to suspicion of a nerve lesion. Which of the following pathologies is most likely to be found on the scan based on the clinical findings?
Your Answer: Disc herniation between C5 and C6
Correct Answer: Disc herniation between C7 and T1
Explanation:The C8 nerve forms part of the radial and ulnar nerves via the brachial plexus, and therefore has motor and sensory function in the upper limb. It originates from the spinal column from below the cervical vertebra 7 (C7).
The C8 nerve receives sensory afferents from the C8 dermatome. This consists of all the skin on the little finger, and continuing up slightly past the wrist on the palmar and dorsal aspects of the hand and forearm.
The other options available correspond to the C6 or C7 roots and these are unaffected as evidenced by normal elbow flexion and thumb sensation (C6) and normal sensation over the middle finger (C7). Elbow extension is weak as it has roots from both C7 and C8 and so cannot be used alone to decide between the two levels clinically.
The C8 nerve contributes to the motor innervation of many of the muscles in the trunk and upper limb. Its primary function is the flexion of the fingers, and this is used as the clinical test for C8 integrity, in conjunction with the finger jerk reflex.Trunk:
– Pectoralis major – Medial and lateral pectoral nerves (C5, C6, C7, C8, T1)
– Pectoralis minor – Medial pectoral nerve (C5, C6, C7,C8, T1)
– Latissimus dorsi – Thoracodorsal nerve (C6, C7, C8)
Upper arm:
– Triceps brachii – Radial nerve (C6, C7,C8)
Forearm
– Flexor carpi ulnaris – Ulnar nerve (C7, C8, T1)
– Palmaris longus – Median nerve (C7,C8)
– Flexor digitorum superficialis – Median nerve (C8, T1)
– Flexor digitorum profundus – Median and Ulnar nerves (C8, T1)
– Flexor pollicis longus – Median nerve (C7,C8)
– Pronator quadratus – Median nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor carpi radialis brevis – Deep branch of the radial nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor digitorum – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor digiti minimi – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor carpi ulnaris – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
– Anconeus – Radial nerve (C6, C7,C8)
– Abductor pollicis longus – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor pollicis brevis – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor pollicis longus – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor indicis – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
Hand
– Palmaris brevis – Superficial branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
– Dorsal interossei – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
– Palmar interossei – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
– Adductor pollicis – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
– Lumbricals – Deep branch of ulnar, Digital branches of median nerve
– Opponens pollicis – Recurrent branch of median nerve (C8, T1)
– Abductor pollicis brevis – Recurrent branch of median nerve (C8, T1)
– Flexor pollicis brevis – Recurrent branch of median nerve (C8, T1)
– Opponens digiti minimi – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
– Abductor digiti minimi – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
– Flexor digiti minimi brevis – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 20
Correct
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A 3-year-old boy presents with recurrent urinary tract infections. What is the most common cause for this problem in a child of this age?
Your Answer: Vesicoureteric reflux
Explanation:Vesicoureteral reflux is the condition when the urine flows backwards from the bladder into the kidneys, which is the most common cause of UTI in patients this age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 20-year-old gentleman presents with drop foot following a sports injury. On examination there is weakness of ankle dorsiflexion and eversion, and weakness of extension of the big toe. He has some sensory loss restricted to the dorsum of his foot surrounding the base of his big toe. Other examination is within normal limits. Where is the most likely site of the lesion?
Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve at the head of the fibula
Explanation:Peroneal nerve injury is also known as foot drop. The common peroneal nerve supplies the ankle and toe extensor muscle groups as well as sensation over the dorsum of the foot; thus, there is also loss of sensation in these cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 22
Correct
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Following a head injury, a 22-year-old patient develops polyuria and polydipsia. He is suspected to have cranial diabetes insipidus so he undergoes a water deprivation test. Which one of the following responses would most indicate a positive (abnormal) result?
Your Answer: Failure to concentrate the urine during water deprivation, but achievement of urine osmolality of 720 mmol/kg following the administration of desmopressin
Explanation:The water deprivation test (i.e., the Miller-Moses test), is a semiquantitative test to ensure adequate dehydration and maximal stimulation of ADH for diagnosis. It is typically performed in patients with more chronic forms of Diabetes Insipidus (DI). The extent of deprivation is usually limited by the patient’s thirst or by any significant drop in blood pressure or related clinical manifestation of dehydration.
In healthy individuals, water deprivation leads to a urinary osmolality that is 2-4 times greater than plasma osmolality. Additionally, in normal, healthy subjects, administration of ADH produces an increase of less than 9% in urinary osmolality. The time required to achieve maximal urinary concentration ranges from 4-18 hours.
In central and nephrogenic DI, urinary osmolality will be less than 300 mOsm/kg after water deprivation. After the administration of ADH, the osmolality will rise to more than 750 mOsm/kg in central DI but will not rise at all in nephrogenic DI. In primary polydipsia, urinary osmolality will be above 750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation.
A urinary osmolality that is 300-750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation and remains below 750 mOsm/kg after administration of ADH may be seen in partial central DI, partial nephrogenic DI, and primary polydipsia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman presents with weakness and is found to have a serum potassium of 2.2 mmol/l and pH 7.1. Which of the following would be LEAST useful in differentiating between renal tubular acidosis Types 1 and 2?
Your Answer: Urinary pH 6.5
Correct Answer: Osteomalacia
Explanation:Osteomalacia is a marked softening of the bones that can present in both type I and type II Renal Tubular Acidosis (RTA) and will thus not differentiate the two types in any case. The other measures will allow differentiation of the two types.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 36 year old female who has been suffering from depression for the past 5 years was recently admitted to the psychiatric intensive care unit. She is currently being managed on Sertraline. In clinic she was observed to be sitting in a fixed position for several hours, awake but unable to move. What would be an appropriate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Olanzapine
Correct Answer: ECT
Explanation:Catatonia is a state of apparent unresponsiveness to external stimuli and apparent inability to move normally in a person who is apparently awake. Catatonia can be acute and occur in severely ill patients with underlying psychiatric or other medical disorders.
A history of behavioural responses to others usually includes the presence of the following:
– Mutism (absence of speech)
– Negativism (performing actions contrary to the commands of the examiner)
– Echopraxia (repeating the movements of others)
– Echolalia (repeating the words of others)
– Waxy flexibility (slight, even resistance to positioning by examiner)
– Withdrawal (absence of responses to the environment).In the presence of a catatonic state, both first and second generation antipsychotics (SGA) may contribute to maintaining or worsening the catatonic state and increase the risk of developing NMS (neuroleptic malignant syndrome).
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is effective in all forms of catatonia, even after pharmacotherapy with benzodiazepines has failed. Response rate ranges from 80% to 100% and results superior to those of any other therapy in psychiatry. ECT should be considered first-line treatment in patients with malignant catatonia, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, delirious mania or severe catatonic excitement, and in general in all catatonic patients that are refractory or partially responsive to benzodiazepines. Early intervention with ECT is encouraged to avoid undue deterioration of the patient’s medical condition.
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a procedure, done under general anaesthesia, in which small electric currents are passed through the brain, intentionally triggering a brief seizure. ECT seems to cause changes in brain chemistry that can quickly reverse symptoms of certain mental health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A literature review of a number of studies was conducted to assess the potential efficacy of a new drug, which may reduce the chance of patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) developing gout. In one study 120 out of 1,200 patients receiving the new drug developed gout. The total number of the patients were 2,000 and the remaining 800 individuals received a placebo. From the patients that had received the placebo, 200 developed gout. What is the absolute risk reduction of developing gout?
Your Answer: 6.66
Correct Answer: 15%
Explanation:Absolute risk reduction (ARR) – also called risk difference (RD) – is the most useful way of presenting research results to help your decision-making. Absolute risk reduction = (Control event rate) – (Experimental event rate) = 0.15 = 15%
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 26
Correct
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A 74-year-old woman referred by her GP because of increasing weight loss, early satiety and increasing anorexia. She admits to 2 or 3 episodes of vomiting blood. The GP feels an epigastric mass. There is both a microcytic anaemia and abnormal liver enzymes. Her past history, which may be of importance, includes excess consumption of sherry and spirits, and a 30 pack-year smoking history. Which diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?
Your Answer: Gastric carcinoma
Explanation:With a clinical history of weight loss, smoking, drinking alcohol, and hematemesis, the most likely answer is gastric carcinoma (also a mass). Based on symptomatology alone this is more likely than gastric lymphoma, as she has many risk factors for adenocarcinoma and/or squamous cell carcinoma. Helicobacter gastritis would not likely present with the severity of symptoms, neither would benign gastric ulcers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 32-year-old man presents with progressive central abdominal pain and vomiting associated with significant weight loss (five stone in 3 months).He gives a history of binge drinking and depression, and smokes twenty cigarettes per day. Because eating provokes abdominal pain and vomiting, he has eaten virtually nothing for a month. CT scanning of his abdomen showed a normal pancreas but dilated loops of small bowel with a possible terminal ileal stricture. His albumin level was 20 and C-reactive protein level was 50. Which statement is NOT true?
Your Answer: Infliximab should be prescribed as soon as possible
Explanation:Stricturing is associated with Crohn’s disease, and elevated CRP supports this diagnosis in this patient, as well. Infliximab should not yet be started. Acute treatment is steroids (of a flare) however this man needs surgery. Although surgery should be avoided if at all possible in Crohn’s disease, and minimal surgery should occur (resecting as little as possible, given possible need for future resections), including possible stricturoplasty instead of resection. Chronic pancreatitis is unlikely given it would not cause stricture. Patients undergoing surgery should always have informed consent, which always includes risk of a stoma for any bowel surgery. Given the amount of weight he has lost he is at significant risk for refeeding syndrome, which can cause hypokalaemia, hypophosphatemia and hypomagnesemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Briefly state the mechanism of action of salbutamol.
Your Answer: Beta2 receptor agonist which increases cGMP levels and leads to muscle relaxation and bronchodilation
Correct Answer: Beta2 receptor agonist which increases cAMP levels and leads to muscle relaxation and bronchodilation
Explanation:Salbutamol stimulates beta-2 adrenergic receptors, which are the predominant receptors in bronchial smooth muscle (beta-2 receptors are also present in the heart in a concentration between 10% and 50%).
Stimulation of beta-2 receptors leads to the activation of enzyme adenyl cyclase that forms cyclic AMP (adenosine-mono-phosphate) from ATP (adenosine-tri-phosphate). This increase of cyclic AMP relaxes bronchial smooth muscle and decrease airway resistance by lowering intracellular ionic calcium concentrations. Salbutamol relaxes the smooth muscles of airways, from trachea to terminal bronchioles.
Increased cyclic AMP concentrations also inhibits the release of bronchoconstrictor mediators such as histamine and leukotriene from the mast cells in the airway.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 29
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A 78 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of left sided temporal headaches and jaw claudication that has been going on for a month. A left temporal artery biopsy is negative. Results show: Hb: 130g/l Platelets: 359*109/L, WBC: 10*109/L, CRP: 89mg/l Which of the following options would be the next best step in the management of this patient?
Your Answer: Commence prednisolone
Explanation:Temporal arteritis is a chronic large- and medium-sized vessel vasculitis that typically involves the temporal arteries. Classical symptoms include temporal headaches, jaw claudication, amaurosis fugax. Physical exam shows scalp tenderness, palpation of the temporal area may demonstrate an absent pulse, knot-like swelling and vision loss. Lab results reveal an increased erythematous sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Management approach: high-dose systemic corticosteroids should be promptly administered even before the diagnosis is established. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Inability to manage this or administer glucocorticoids might lead to development of blindness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A new study was developed to assess the benefit of omega-3 fish oils in patients with established ischaemic heart disease. The power of the study is equal to:
Your Answer: standard deviation / square root of sample size
Correct Answer: 1 - probability of making a type II error
Explanation:The power of a test is defined as 1 − the probability of Type II error. The Type II error is concluding at no difference (the null is not rejected) when in fact there is a difference, and its probability is named β. Therefore, the power of a study reflects the probability of detecting a difference when this difference exists. It is also very important to medical research that studies are planned with an adequate power so that meaningful conclusions can be issued if no statistical difference has been shown between the treatments compared. More power means less risk for Type II errors and more chances to detect a difference when it exists.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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