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  • Question 1 - Which ethical principle is violated when the truth about a patient's illness is...

    Correct

    • Which ethical principle is violated when the truth about a patient's illness is not disclosed?

      Your Answer: Autonomy

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Autonomy, Informed Consent, Justice, Bolam Principle, and Beneficence in Medical Practice

      In medical practice, it is crucial to uphold the patient’s autonomy by providing them with all the necessary information about their illness. Failure to do so would mean taking away their ability to make decisions for themselves, leaving their relatives and healthcare providers to make decisions on their behalf. This is a violation of their autonomy, which is a fundamental principle in medical ethics.

      Informed consent is an essential aspect of medical practice that relies on providing patients with all the information generated from the investigations they have consented to. This principle ensures that patients are fully aware of the risks and benefits of any medical procedure or treatment, allowing them to make informed decisions about their healthcare.

      Justice is another critical principle in medical ethics that requires healthcare providers to balance conflicting interests and make decisions that are fair and equitable for all patients. This principle goes beyond personal feelings, prejudices, and desires to ensure that all patients receive the same level of care and treatment.

      The Bolam principle is a legal standard used to judge a doctor’s actions, which must be considered appropriate and reasonable by a responsible body of their peers in similar circumstances. This principle ensures that doctors are held accountable for their actions and that patients receive the best possible care.

      Finally, beneficence is a principle that requires all choices to be made in the patient’s best interest, with the aim of doing good. This principle ensures that healthcare providers prioritize the patient’s well-being above all else, making decisions that are in their best interest.

      In conclusion, upholding the principles of autonomy, informed consent, justice, Bolam principle, and beneficence is crucial in medical practice. These principles ensure that patients receive the best possible care and that healthcare providers act ethically and responsibly in all situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Miscellaneous
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 67-year-old woman presents with right-sided pleural effusion. Thoracentesis is performed and the...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with right-sided pleural effusion. Thoracentesis is performed and the pleural fluid analysis reveals the following results:
      Pleural fluid Pleural fluid analysis Serum Normal value
      Protein 2.5 g/dl 7.3 g/dl 6-7.8 g/dl
      Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) 145 IU/l 350 IU/l 100-250 IU/l
      What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Viral pleuritic

      Correct Answer: Heart failure

      Explanation:

      Causes of Transudative and Exudative Pleural Effusions

      Pleural effusion is the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space, which can be classified as transudative or exudative based on Light’s criteria. The most common cause of transudative pleural effusion is congestive heart failure, which can also cause bilateral or unilateral effusions. Other causes of transudative effusions include cirrhosis and nephrotic syndrome. Exudative pleural effusions are typically caused by pneumonia, malignancy, or pleural infections. Nephrotic syndrome can also cause transudative effusions, while breast cancer and viral pleuritis are associated with exudative effusions. Proper identification of the underlying cause is crucial for appropriate management of pleural effusions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      55.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 3-month-old infant is presented to the emergency department with abdominal distension and...

    Correct

    • A 3-month-old infant is presented to the emergency department with abdominal distension and tenderness. The parents report observing a small amount of blood in the diaper and some bilious vomit. They have also noticed reduced movement and difficulty feeding over the past few days. The infant was born prematurely at 29 weeks after premature rupture of membranes. What investigation is most likely to provide a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Abdominal x-ray

      Explanation:

      The definitive test for diagnosing necrotising enterocolitis is an abdominal x-ray. If the x-ray shows pneumatosis intestinalis (gas in the gut wall), it confirms the presence of NEC. Treatment involves stopping oral feeds, providing barrier nursing, and administering antibiotics such as cefotaxime and vancomycin. In severe cases, a laparotomy may be necessary, but this is a poor prognostic indicator and is not performed for diagnostic purposes. While a stool culture is often performed in cases of NEC, it is not a definitive test. It is important not to confuse NEC with intussusception, which typically affects older children (5-12 months) and presents with a distended abdomen and the passage of red currant jelly stool. In such cases, an ultrasound scan is usually the initial investigation and will show a target sign. A digital rectal exam is not a diagnostic test and only confirms the presence of feces in the rectum.

      Understanding Necrotising Enterocolitis

      Necrotising enterocolitis is a serious condition that is responsible for a significant number of premature infant deaths. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as feeding intolerance, abdominal distension, and bloody stools. If left untreated, these symptoms can quickly progress to more severe symptoms such as abdominal discolouration, perforation, and peritonitis.

      To diagnose necrotising enterocolitis, doctors often use abdominal x-rays. These x-rays can reveal a number of important indicators of the condition, including dilated bowel loops, bowel wall oedema, and intramural gas. Other signs that may be visible on an x-ray include portal venous gas, pneumoperitoneum resulting from perforation, and air both inside and outside of the bowel wall. In some cases, an x-ray may also reveal air outlining the falciform ligament, which is known as the football sign.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and diagnostic indicators of necrotising enterocolitis is crucial for early detection and treatment of this serious condition. By working closely with healthcare professionals and following recommended screening protocols, parents and caregivers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for premature infants at risk for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      24
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  • Question 4 - A researcher is planning a study to evaluate the effectiveness of a new...

    Correct

    • A researcher is planning a study to evaluate the effectiveness of a new treatment for arthritis. What information is necessary to determine the appropriate sample size for the study?

      Your Answer: Expected standard deviation

      Explanation:

      Factors to Consider in Determining the Appropriate Size of a Clinical Trial

      A clinical trial’s appropriate size is determined by several factors. One of these factors is the expected standard deviation, which can be obtained from the literature or a pilot study. For instance, the standard deviation of blood pressure within a population of patients with type 2 diabetes can be used to determine the expected standard deviation. Another factor is the minimum clinically-relevant difference, which can be challenging to establish, especially in a new field or where measurement could be difficult. For example, determining the minimum clinically-relevant difference for a drug that enhances quality of sleep can be challenging.

      The standardised difference is used to combine these two factors. It is calculated by dividing the minimum clinically-relevant difference by the anticipated standard deviation. The result is then used to determine the total sample size by reading it off a nomogram or using a statistical software package.

      When planning a study, it is essential to consider recruitment. The population must be chosen carefully, and thought should be given to whether it is appropriate to have a mixed gender population or if an age limit should be introduced. However, these issues do not directly impact the required sample size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An 80-year-old woman came in with an acute myocardial infarction. The ECG revealed...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman came in with an acute myocardial infarction. The ECG revealed ST segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is the most probable to be blocked?

      Your Answer: Left anterior descending artery

      Correct Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      Localisation of Myocardial Infarction

      Myocardial infarction (MI) is a medical emergency that occurs when there is a blockage in the blood flow to the heart muscle. The location of the blockage determines the type of MI and the treatment required. An inferior MI is caused by the occlusion of the right coronary artery, which supplies blood to the bottom of the heart. This type of MI can cause symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, and nausea. It is important to identify the location of the MI quickly to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further damage to the heart muscle. Proper diagnosis and management can improve the patient’s chances of survival and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      27
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  • Question 6 - A young man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, tiredness, and pallor....

    Correct

    • A young man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, tiredness, and pallor. Upon conducting a full blood count, it is revealed that he has acute lymphoblastic leukemia. Among the following options, which is linked to the poorest prognosis in ALL?

      Your Answer: Philadelphia chromosome present

      Explanation:

      Prognostic Factors in Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. There are several factors that can affect the prognosis of a patient with ALL. Good prognostic factors include having the FAB L1 type, common ALL, a pre-B phenotype, and a low initial white blood cell count. On the other hand, poor prognostic factors include having the FAB L3 type, B or T cell type, the Philadelphia translocation (t(9;22)), increasing age at diagnosis, male sex, CNS involvement, and a high initial white blood cell count (e.g. > 100).

      It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these prognostic factors when diagnosing and treating patients with ALL. By identifying these factors, they can better predict the outcome of the disease and tailor treatment plans accordingly. Patients with good prognostic factors may have a better chance of survival and may require less aggressive treatment, while those with poor prognostic factors may need more intensive therapy. Overall, the prognostic factors in ALL can help healthcare professionals provide the best possible care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      8.6
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  • Question 7 - A 40-year-old farmer presents to the clinic with muscle pain in his lower...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old farmer presents to the clinic with muscle pain in his lower back, calves and neck. He takes regular paracetamol but this has not helped his symptoms. For the past four weeks, he has become increasingly agitated and reports that he can no longer sleep for more than a few hours because the pain wakes him up. He feels increasingly lethargic and helpless. He also reports that as a result of his pain, he feels that his memory has worsened and he reports a low mood. A Kessler Psychological Distress Scale screening questionnaire is performed and he has a score of 30. His laboratory blood tests are unremarkable.
      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Psychotherapy

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological Treatments for Fibromyalgia Pain: Choosing the Right Option

      Fibromyalgia is a chronic pain disorder that can be challenging to manage. Duloxetine, pregabalin, and tramadol are all appropriate pharmacological treatments for severe pain disturbance in fibromyalgia. However, the choice of which treatment to use depends on the patient’s co-morbidities, clinical presentation, and patient preference.

      In this case, the patient has comorbid low mood and possible depression, making duloxetine a reasonable choice. Venlafaxine, another serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor, may be theoretically useful, but there is insufficient evidence for its use. Codeine and paracetamol have been shown to be ineffective in treating fibromyalgia pain.

      While psychotherapy may be considered for patients with pain-related depression and adverse coping mechanisms, it is not the correct answer for this patient. Overall, choosing the right pharmacological treatment for fibromyalgia pain requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual needs and circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      60.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A client of yours has been diagnosed with Horner's syndrome. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A client of yours has been diagnosed with Horner's syndrome. What is the most probable symptom that will be observed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Miosis + ptosis + enophthalmos

      Explanation:

      Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.

      Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.

      There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
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  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old man visits his optometrist for a check-up. He has hyperopia and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man visits his optometrist for a check-up. He has hyperopia and his current prescription is +3/+3.25 without any astigmatism or myopia. What is the primary eye condition that this patient is susceptible to with his present eye condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute angle-closure glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Hypermetropia is linked to acute angle-closure glaucoma, while myopia is associated with primary open-angle glaucoma. This is because those with hypermetropia have smaller eyes, shallower anterior chambers, and narrower angles. The connection between myopia and primary open-angle glaucoma is not as clear, but it may be due to the optic nerve head being more vulnerable to damage from increased intraocular pressure. Cataracts are commonly linked to aging and severe short-sightedness, while central retinal artery occlusion is associated with aneurysms, arterial disease, and emboli.

      Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is important in draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals and those with a family history of the condition. It may present insidiously with symptoms such as peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping. Diagnosis is made through a series of investigations including automated perimetry, slit lamp examination, applanation tonometry, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy. It is important to assess the risk of future visual impairment based on factors such as IOP, CCT, family history, and life expectancy. Referral to an ophthalmologist is typically done through a GP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
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  • Question 10 - A middle-aged woman presents with increasing fatigue and daytime exhaustion that is starting...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged woman presents with increasing fatigue and daytime exhaustion that is starting to affect her work as a receptionist. She has been referred to the gynaecology clinic for evaluation of menorrhagia. What results would you anticipate on her complete blood count (CBC)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemoglobin - low, MCV - reduced

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Blood Results for Anaemia: Understanding the Relationship between Haemoglobin and MCV

      When interpreting blood results for anaemia, it is important to understand the relationship between haemoglobin and mean corpuscular volume (MCV). A low haemoglobin and reduced MCV may indicate iron deficiency anaemia secondary to menorrhagia, which is a common cause of microcytosis. Treatment for this would involve managing the underlying menorrhagia and supplementing with iron. On the other hand, a low haemoglobin and raised MCV may indicate macrocytic anaemia, commonly associated with vitamin B12 or folate deficiency. It is important to note that a normal haemoglobin with a reduced MCV or a normal haemoglobin and MCV is unlikely in cases of significant symptoms and abnormal bleeding. Understanding these relationships can aid in the diagnosis and management of anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old male with non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) presents to the emergency department complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male with non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) presents to the emergency department complaining of fever, chills, and feeling generally unwell. Upon examination, his temperature is 38.6ºC, pulse rate is 116 beats/min, blood pressure is 102/62 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 24 beats/min. Crackles and bronchial breathing are heard in the left upper zone of his chest. A urine dip is negative for leucocytes and blood tests reveal a neutrophil count of 0.4. He received his last cycle of chemotherapy 10 days ago. What is the most appropriate antibiotic treatment to initiate for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin)

      Explanation:

      Neutropenic sepsis is a serious condition that requires immediate treatment with antibiotics. Piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin) is the preferred antibiotic for this condition, even before neutropenia is confirmed on blood testing. This combination works by breaking down the cell walls of bacteria and preventing bacterial resistance to piperacillin. However, if a patient is unable to tolerate Tazocin, alternative antibiotics should be considered based on local guidelines or microbiology advice.

      Amoxicillin with clavulanic acid and gentamicin are other antibiotics that can be used for severe infections, but they are not the best choice for neutropenic sepsis. Aztreonam and vancomycin can be used in combination when Tazocin is not an option, but a third antibiotic may be necessary for additional coverage. It is important to note that gentamicin should be used with caution due to the risk of kidney damage and ototoxicity.

      Neutropenic Sepsis: A Common Complication of Cancer Therapy

      Neutropenic sepsis is a frequent complication of cancer therapy, particularly chemotherapy. It typically occurs within 7-14 days after chemotherapy and is characterized by a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 in patients undergoing anticancer treatment who exhibit a temperature higher than 38ºC or other signs or symptoms consistent with clinically significant sepsis.

      To prevent neutropenic sepsis, patients who are likely to have a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 as a result of their treatment should be offered a fluoroquinolone. In the event of neutropenic sepsis, antibiotics must be initiated immediately, without waiting for the white blood cell count.

      According to NICE guidelines, empirical antibiotic therapy should begin with piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin) immediately. While some units may add vancomycin if the patient has central venous access, NICE does not support this approach. After initial treatment, patients are typically assessed by a specialist and risk-stratified to determine if they may be able to receive outpatient treatment.

      If patients remain febrile and unwell after 48 hours, an alternative antibiotic such as meropenem may be prescribed, with or without vancomycin. If patients do not respond after 4-6 days, the Christie guidelines suggest ordering investigations for fungal infections (e.g. HRCT) rather than blindly initiating antifungal therapy. In selected patients, G-CSF may be beneficial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      0
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  • Question 12 - A patient visits her General Practitioner (GP) with some questions about the Breast...

    Incorrect

    • A patient visits her General Practitioner (GP) with some questions about the Breast Cancer Screening Programme, regarding which she has recently received a letter.

      Which of the following most accurately describes the components of breast cancer screening for a patient who is in her 50s?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mammogram every three years

      Explanation:

      Breast Cancer Screening and Assessment: What to Expect Every Three Years

      The NHS offers routine breast cancer screening every three years for patients aged 50 to 70. This involves a mammogram, an X-ray of the breast tissue. If a suspicious lesion is found, the patient will be referred for triple assessment, which includes history taking, examination, imaging (mammography or ultrasound), and biopsy.

      Ultrasound scans are not used for screening but may be used as an alternative to mammography in younger patients or men. A breast examination by a doctor is not part of the screening program but is performed as part of the triple assessment.

      MRI scans are not used for screening but may be used for further assessment after a lesion has been identified. Knowing what to expect every three years can help patients feel more prepared and informed about their breast health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Breast
      0
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  • Question 13 - A 57-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of shortness of breath and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of shortness of breath and a cough with green sputum for the past week. She has no known drug allergies and is not taking any medication. Upon examination, her respiratory rate is 18/min, and her oxygen saturation is 95%. Her blood pressure is 126/74 mmHg, and her pulse rate is 84 bpm. She has a body temperature of 37.8 ºC. A chest x-ray is ordered. What is the most appropriate drug treatment for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Amoxicillin is the recommended first-line antibiotic for treating low-severity community-acquired pneumonia (CAP). In this case, the patient’s CRB-65 score indicates that she has low-severity CAP, making amoxicillin the appropriate choice for treatment. Clarithromycin and doxycycline are also used to treat pneumonia, but they are typically reserved for cases caused by atypical organisms. Co-amoxiclav and co-amoxiclav with clarithromycin are not recommended for low-severity CAP, as they are typically used for more severe cases. To be classified as high-severity CAP, a patient would need to meet specific criteria, such as confusion, a respiratory rate over 30 breaths/min, and being 65 years or older.

      Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that requires prompt assessment and management. In the primary care setting, the CRB65 criteria are used to stratify patients based on their risk of mortality. Patients with a score of 0 are considered low risk and may be treated at home, while those with a score of 3 or 4 are high risk and require urgent admission to hospital. The use of a point-of-care CRP test can help guide antibiotic therapy. In the secondary care setting, the CURB65 criteria are used, which includes an additional criterion of urea > 7 mmol/L. Chest x-rays and blood and sputum cultures are recommended for intermediate or high-risk patients. Treatment for low-severity community acquired pneumonia typically involves a 5-day course of amoxicillin, while moderate and high-severity cases may require dual antibiotic therapy for 7-10 days. Discharge criteria and advice post-discharge are also provided, including information on expected symptom resolution timeframes and the need for a repeat chest x-ray at 6 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      0
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  • Question 14 - A clinical trial was conducted to compare operative treatment with bracing therapy for...

    Incorrect

    • A clinical trial was conducted to compare operative treatment with bracing therapy for scoliosis. Thirty patients who met the criteria for surgery were assigned to group A, while 60 patients who refused surgery or had contraindications were treated with bracing alone in group B. The patients in group A were older and had a poorer performance status compared to group B. Three patients in each group were lost to follow-up for unknown reasons. What is the most probable bias in this study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Selection bias

      Explanation:

      Types of Bias in Medical Studies

      Medical studies can be affected by various types of bias that can impact the accuracy of the results. One type of bias is selection bias, which occurs when the allocation of patients into different treatment groups is not randomised. This can lead to a systematic difference in the outcomes between the groups, as low-risk patients may be more likely to receive a certain treatment. Another type of bias is response bias, which can occur in questionnaire studies when there is a systematic difference between those who participate and those who do not.

      Performance bias is another type of bias that can occur when there is a systematic difference in the treatments received by the two groups other than the study treatments. Attrition bias can also occur when a significant proportion of subjects are lost to follow up, with proportions or reasons different between the treatment groups. However, in the described study, the proportion of attrition is low, so this type of bias is not very likely. Confounding factors may also bias the results, but this can be reduced during the data analysis stage using multivariate or stratified analyses. Overall, it is important to consider and address these types of bias in medical studies to ensure accurate and reliable results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 15 - A 68-year-old man was recently admitted to hospital with small bowel obstruction. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man was recently admitted to hospital with small bowel obstruction. A nasogastric (NG) tube was inserted, and he has been prescribed intravenous (IV) fluids. Three days later, he reports feeling short of breath, and on examination, he has widespread fine crackles and pitting sacral oedema. His notes show that he has been receiving 2 litres of fluid a day and that he weighs 50 kg. You treat him, and once his symptoms have resolved, you're-calculate his daily maintenance fluid requirements.
      Which of the following options is the most suitable amount of daily fluid to give to the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1000–1500 ml

      Explanation:

      Calculating Fluid Requirements for a Patient with Fluid Overload

      When determining a patient’s fluid requirements, it is important to consider their weight and any underlying medical conditions. For this particular patient, who weighs 48 kg, her maintenance fluid requirement is between 1200-1440 ml per day, calculated using 25-30 ml/kg/day.

      However, this patient has developed fluid overload and pulmonary edema, likely due to receiving 2 liters of fluid per day. While this may have been necessary initially due to fluid loss from bowel obstruction, it is now important to step down to normal maintenance levels.

      Giving the patient 1500-2000 ml of fluid per day would still be too much, as evidenced by examination findings of pitting sacral edema and widespread fine crackles. The maximum amount of fluid needed for maintenance therapy is 1440 ml per day.

      It is crucial to monitor fluid intake and adjust as necessary to prevent further complications from fluid overload. Giving too much fluid, such as 2500-3500 ml per day, can be harmful for a patient with fluid overload and should be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
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  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the obstetric clinic during her 28th week of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the obstetric clinic during her 28th week of pregnancy. She has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes and has been taking metformin for the past two weeks. However, her blood glucose levels are still elevated despite following a strict diet and taking the maximum dose of metformin. What is the next best course of action to manage her blood glucose levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add on insulin therapy

      Explanation:

      When a woman has gestational diabetes, it is important to control her blood glucose levels to prevent complications such as premature birth, stillbirth, and macrosomia. If diet and exercise changes along with metformin do not meet blood glucose targets, insulin therapy should be added, according to NICE guidelines. Sulfonylureas are not recommended for gestational diabetes as they are less effective than the metformin and insulin combination and have been shown to be teratogenic in animals. Metformin should not be stopped as it increases insulin sensitivity, which is lacking during pregnancy. SGLT-2 antagonists are also not recommended due to their teratogenic effects in animals. Continuing metformin alone for two weeks despite high blood glucose levels increases the risk of complications, so insulin therapy should be added at this stage.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 17 - A 33-year-old male arrives at the emergency department following a car accident. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old male arrives at the emergency department following a car accident. He reports experiencing intense pain in his right ankle and is unable to put any weight on it. Upon examination, tenderness is noted over the distal tibia and there is an absence of the dorsalis pedis pulse on the right side. No neurological symptoms are observed. An X-ray confirms the presence of a displaced fracture in the ankle. What is the most appropriate initial course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduce the fracture

      Explanation:

      Prompt reduction of an ankle fracture is crucial to avoid skin damage, as pressure on the skin can result in skin necrosis.

      Before contacting a vascular surgeon, it is essential to reduce the fracture to prevent bone displacement from compressing the artery. If the pulse remains absent after reduction, then it is appropriate to call a vascular surgeon.

      Ankle Fractures and their Classification

      Ankle fractures are a common reason for emergency department visits. To minimize the unnecessary use of x-rays, the Ottawa ankle rules are used to aid in clinical examination. These rules state that x-rays are only necessary if there is pain in the malleolar zone and an inability to weight bear for four steps, tenderness over the distal tibia, or bone tenderness over the distal fibula. There are several classification systems for describing ankle fractures, including the Potts, Weber, and AO systems. The Weber system is the simplest and is based on the level of the fibular fracture. Type A is below the syndesmosis, type B fractures start at the level of the tibial plafond and may extend proximally to involve the syndesmosis, and type C is above the syndesmosis, which may itself be damaged. A subtype known as a Maisonneuve fracture may occur with a spiral fibular fracture that leads to disruption of the syndesmosis with widening of the ankle joint, requiring surgery.

      Management of Ankle Fractures

      The management of ankle fractures depends on the stability of the ankle joint and patient co-morbidities. Prompt reduction of all ankle fractures is necessary to relieve pressure on the overlying skin and prevent necrosis. Young patients with unstable, high velocity, or proximal injuries will usually require surgical repair, often using a compression plate. Elderly patients, even with potentially unstable injuries, usually fare better with attempts at conservative management as their thin bone does not hold metalwork well. It is important to consider the patient’s overall health and any other medical conditions when deciding on the best course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant with twins presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant with twins presents to the early pregnancy unit with a 3-day history of vomiting and postural dizziness. The patient is gravida 2, parity 0, and never had such severe sickness in her previous pregnancy. No one else in the family is sick.

      She has a past medical history of hypothyroidism and takes levothyroxine.

      During examination, her BMI is 16 kg/m² and she has lost >5% of her body weight in the last 3 days. She is visibly dehydrated and her blood pressure is 98/75 mmHg.

      What aspect of the patient's history poses the highest risk for the development of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pregnant with twins

      Explanation:

      The risk of hyperemesis gravidarum is higher in women who are pregnant with twins. This is because each twin produces hCG, which can increase the levels of hCG in the body and lead to hyperemesis gravidarum. Hypothyroidism is not a risk factor, but hyperthyroidism is because it can increase levels of TSH, which is chemically similar to hCG. Age and previous pregnancies do not increase the risk of hyperemesis gravidarum, but a history of hyperemesis gravidarum in a previous pregnancy can increase the likelihood of developing it in future pregnancies.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 19 - A large area of grey-blue pigment is noted over the left buttock of...

    Incorrect

    • A large area of grey-blue pigment is noted over the left buttock of a 6-month-old baby by the pediatrician during a routine check-up. There are no other signs of bleeding or bruising visible on the baby. The baby was born full-term and the mother has no health conditions.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dermal melanocytosis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Bruising in Newborns

      Newborns may develop bruises for various reasons, and it is essential to identify the cause to ensure appropriate management. Here are some common causes of bruising in newborns:

      1. Dermal melanocytosis: These blue-grey birthmarks are common in babies of African, Middle Eastern, Mediterranean, or Asian descent. They usually appear on the lower back or buttocks and do not require any treatment.

      2. Haemophilia: This inherited clotting disorder may present later in childhood as prolonged bleeding following an injury or haemarthrosis.

      3. Haemorrhagic disease of the newborn: This condition is caused by vitamin K deficiency and may present with bleeding from the GI tract, umbilical cord, or venipuncture sites.

      4. Non-accidental injury: While rare in newborns, non-accidental injury can cause bruising. However, this is not a consideration in a newborn who has not yet been exposed to any risk of abuse.

      5. Osteogenesis imperfecta: This genetic condition affects bone strength and may present with multiple fractures from minimal-impact injuries. A sign of the condition is blue-grey tingling of the sclera but not of the skin.

      It is crucial to consult a healthcare provider if you notice any unexplained bruising in your newborn to rule out any underlying medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old woman is prescribed tamoxifen for the management of an oestrogen receptor...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman is prescribed tamoxifen for the management of an oestrogen receptor positive breast cancer. What types of cancers are linked to the use of tamoxifen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endometrial cancer

      Explanation:

      Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.

      When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 21 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to a Paediatrician due to learning and behavioural...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to a Paediatrician due to learning and behavioural difficulties. During the examination, the doctor observes symmetrical muscle weakness and notes that the child has only recently learned to walk. The girl requires assistance from her hands to stand up. The Paediatrician suspects that she may have Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) and orders additional tests.
      What is the protein that is missing in DMD?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dystrophin

      Explanation:

      Proteins and Genetic Disorders

      Dystrophin, Collagen, Creatine Kinase, Fibrillin, and Sarcoglycan are all proteins that play important roles in the body. However, defects or mutations in these proteins can lead to various genetic disorders.

      Dystrophin is a structural protein in skeletal and cardiac muscle that protects the muscle membrane against the forces of muscular contraction. Lack of dystrophin leads to Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD), a debilitating and life-limiting condition.

      Collagen is a protein found in connective tissue and defects in its structure, synthesis, or processing can lead to Ehlers Danlos syndrome, a genetic connective-tissue disorder.

      Creatine kinase is an enzyme released from damaged muscle tissue and elevated levels of it are seen in children with DMD.

      Fibrillin is a protein involved in connective tissue formation and mutations in the genes that code for it are found in Marfan syndrome, a connective tissue disorder.

      Sarcoglycans are transmembrane proteins and mutations in the genes that code for them are involved in limb-girdle muscular dystrophy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 22 - A 10-year-old girl is brought to the attention of a psychiatrist by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl is brought to the attention of a psychiatrist by her father with complaints of difficulty concentrating at home and at school. She is reported by the teachers to be easily distracted which is adversely affecting her learning. She also shows repeated outbursts of anger and her father thinks she has 'too much energy'. The psychiatrist diagnoses her with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and starts her on methylphenidate (Ritalin).

      What parameter must be monitored every 6 months in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weight and height

      Explanation:

      Regular monitoring of weight and height is recommended every 6 months for patients taking methylphenidate, a stimulant medication. This is important as the drug may cause appetite suppression and growth impairment in children. Additionally, blood pressure and pulse should also be monitored regularly.

      In March 2018, NICE released new guidelines for identifying and managing Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). This condition can have a significant impact on a child’s life and can continue into adulthood, making accurate diagnosis and treatment crucial. According to DSM-V, ADHD is characterized by persistent features of inattention and/or hyperactivity/impulsivity, with an element of developmental delay. Children up to the age of 16 must exhibit six of these features, while those aged 17 or over must exhibit five. ADHD has a UK prevalence of 2.4%, with a higher incidence in boys than girls, and there may be a genetic component.

      NICE recommends a holistic approach to treating ADHD that is not solely reliant on medication. After presentation, a ten-week observation period should be implemented to determine if symptoms change or resolve. If symptoms persist, referral to secondary care is necessary, typically to a paediatrician with a special interest in behavioural disorders or to the local Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service (CAMHS). A tailored plan of action should be developed, taking into account the patient’s needs and wants, as well as how their condition affects their lives.

      Drug therapy should be considered a last resort and is only available to those aged 5 years or older. Parents of children with mild/moderate symptoms can benefit from attending education and training programmes. For those who do not respond or have severe symptoms, pharmacotherapy may be considered. Methylphenidate is the first-line treatment for children and should be given on a six-week trial basis. It is a CNS stimulant that primarily acts as a dopamine/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. Side effects include abdominal pain, nausea, and dyspepsia. Weight and height should be monitored every six months in children. If there is an inadequate response, lisdexamfetamine should be considered, followed by dexamfetamine if necessary. In adults, methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine are the first-line options, with switching between drugs if no benefit is seen after a trial of the other. All of these drugs are potentially cardiotoxic, so a baseline ECG should be performed before starting treatment, and referral to a cardiologist should be made if there is any significant past medical history or family history, or any doubt or ambiguity.

      As with most psychiatric conditions, a thorough history and clinical examination are essential, particularly given the overlap of ADHD with many other psychiatric and

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 23 - A 29-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after taking an overdose 48...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after taking an overdose 48 hours ago following an argument with his girlfriend. He was intoxicated at the time and cannot recall what he ingested. Recently, his General Practitioner had prescribed him antidepressants. Laboratory tests reveal abnormal results, including elevated liver enzymes and prolonged prothrombin time. Based on these findings, which medication is the most probable cause of his overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Drug Overdose: Identifying the Culprit

      One patient presents with a prolonged prothrombin time and elevated ALT, indicating hepatic damage and metabolic acidosis. Among the drugs provided, paracetamol is the most likely culprit, known for causing hepatic injury in overdose. On the other hand, amitriptyline can cause various symptoms but not the prolonged prothrombin time seen in this case. Aspirin overdose can result in mixed acid-base pictures, while benzodiazepine overdose can lead to respiratory depression and cardiac arrest. Fluoxetine overdose can cause hepatotoxicity but is more commonly associated with paracetamol overdose. Identifying the specific drug involved is crucial in managing drug overdose cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 24 - A 68-year-old man comes in with bilateral ankle swelling. During the examination, an...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man comes in with bilateral ankle swelling. During the examination, an elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP) of 7 cm above the sternal angle and large V waves are observed. Upon listening to the heart, a soft pansystolic murmur is heard at the left sternal edge. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Common Heart Murmurs and Their Characteristics

      Tricuspid Regurgitation: This condition leads to an elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP) with large V waves and a pan-systolic murmur at the left sternal edge. Other features include pulsatile hepatomegaly and left parasternal heave.

      Tricuspid Stenosis: Tricuspid stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur.

      Pulmonary Stenosis: This condition produces an ejection systolic murmur.

      Mitral Regurgitation: Mitral regurgitation causes a pan-systolic murmur at the apex, which radiates to the axilla.

      Aortic Stenosis: Aortic stenosis causes an ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the neck.

      Mitral Stenosis: Mitral stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur at the apex, and severe cases may have secondary pulmonary hypertension (a cause of tricuspid regurgitation).

      These common heart murmurs have distinct characteristics that can aid in their diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 25 - A 6-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department with periorbital pain, ascites, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department with periorbital pain, ascites, and oedema. He has no past medical history and is typically healthy, without recent illnesses. Upon examination, his serum urea is elevated and protein in his urine is ++++. What is the probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Minimal change glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Overview of Different Types of Glomerulonephritis

      Glomerulonephritis is a group of kidney diseases that affect the glomeruli, the tiny blood vessels in the kidneys that filter waste and excess fluids from the blood. Here are some of the different types of glomerulonephritis:

      1. Minimal Change Glomerulonephritis: This is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children. It is caused by T-cell-mediated injury to the podocytes of the epithelial cells. The diagnosis is made by electron microscopy, and treatment is with steroids.

      2. Membranous Glomerulonephritis: This is the second most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults. It can be primary or secondary, and some causes of secondary membranous glomerulonephritis include autoimmune conditions, malignancy, viral infections, and drugs. On light microscopy, the basement membrane has characteristic spikes.

      3. Mesangiocapillary Glomerulonephritis: This is associated with immune deposition in the glomerulus, thickening of the basement membrane, and activation of complement pathways leading to glomerular damage. It presents with nephrotic syndrome and is seen in both the pediatric and adult population. It is the most common glomerulonephritis associated with hepatitis C.

      4. Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis: This presents with haematuria, oedema, hypertension, fever, or acute kidney failure following an upper respiratory tract infection or pharyngitis from Streptococcus spp.

      5. IgA Nephropathy Glomerulonephritis: This is a condition associated with IgA deposition within the glomerulus, presenting with haematuria following an upper respiratory tract infection. It is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis in adults.

      Understanding the Different Types of Glomerulonephritis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 26 - A 13-year-old girl presented with cystic hygroma and significant oedema. At the age...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl presented with cystic hygroma and significant oedema. At the age of 27, she had a short stature, a webbed neck and a broad, shield-like chest. She did not develop secondary sexual characteristics at the appropriate age. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Genetic Disorders Affecting Sexual Development

      Turner Syndrome, Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia, Klinefelter’s Syndrome, Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome, and 5-α Reductase Deficiency are genetic disorders that affect sexual development.

      Turner Syndrome is a condition where a woman is missing a whole or part of an X chromosome. This can cause delayed puberty, failure to develop normal secondary sexual characteristics, and cardiovascular abnormalities.

      Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia is a group of conditions associated with abnormal enzymes involved in the production of hormones from the adrenals. This can cause ambiguous genitalia at birth and symptoms of polycystic ovary syndrome in women, and hyperpigmentation in men.

      Klinefelter’s Syndrome is a chromosomal aneuploidy where men carry an extra X chromosome. This can cause tall stature, hypogonadism, gynaecomastia, and delayed motor and language development.

      Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome is a condition where patients with a male karyotype fail to respond to androgen hormones and thus develop female external genitalia and characteristics. Treatment involves careful gender assignment and hormone replacement therapy.

      5-α Reductase Deficiency is a condition associated with an inability to convert testosterone to dihydrotestosterone, leading to abnormal sexual development and infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 27 - A 57-year-old man presented to the Emergency Department with a 1-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man presented to the Emergency Department with a 1-day history of blurring of vision and headache. He does not complain of any pain when touching the scalp or any pain when eating and chewing food.
      Past medical history includes hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled with metformin.
      On further history taking, he tells you that he has a family history of brain cancer and he is afraid that this could be relevant to his symptoms.
      On examination, his visual acuity is 6/18 in both eyes. On dilated fundoscopy, you could see some arterioles narrower than others. You also see venules being compressed by arterioles. There are also some dot-and-blot and flame-shaped haemorrhages, as well as some cotton-wool spots.
      His vital observations are as follows:
      Heart rate 80 bpm
      Blood pressure 221/119 mmHg
      Oxygen saturation 98% on room air
      Respiratory rate 14 per minute
      Temperature 37 °C
      According to the Keith-Wagener-Barker classification of hypertensive retinopathy, what grade of hypertensive retinopathy is this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Grade 3

      Explanation:

      Stages of Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a condition that affects the eyes of people with diabetes. It is important to detect and treat it early to prevent vision loss. There are different stages of diabetic retinopathy, each with its own set of features.

      Grade 1 is characterized by arteriolar narrowing. Grade 2 includes features of grade 1 and arteriovenous nipping. Grade 3 includes features of grade 2 and microaneurysms, dot-and-blot haemorrhages, flame-shaped haemorrhages, cotton-wool spots, and hard exudates. Grade 4 includes features of grade 3 and optic disc swelling.

      It is important to have regular eye exams if you have diabetes to detect any signs of diabetic retinopathy early. With proper management and treatment, vision loss can be prevented or delayed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 28 - You are asked to see a 33-year-old G1P0 woman who is 39 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to see a 33-year-old G1P0 woman who is 39 weeks pregnant. She has had an uncomplicated pregnancy so far. The obstetrician has recommended induction of labour and she has agreed. What medication would be administered for this purpose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      The medication used for induction of labour is oxytocin, which has a synthetic version called Syntocinon. It can also be used in the active management of the third stage of labour by causing the uterus to contract. Ergometrine is an alternative medication used to reduce blood loss in the third stage of labour, but it is not used for induction of labour. Magnesium sulphate is used in women with pre-eclampsia or as a neuroprotective agent in premature birth, but it is not indicated for this patient who is at full term and has had no pregnancy issues. Mifepristone is a prostaglandin analogue used for termination of pregnancy and not for induction of labour.

      Drugs Used in Obstetrics and Gynaecology

      Syntocinon is a synthetic form of oxytocin that is utilized in the active management of the third stage of labour. It works by stimulating the contraction of the uterus, which reduces the risk of postpartum haemorrhage. Additionally, it is used to induce labour. Ergometrine, on the other hand, is an ergot alkaloid that can be used as an alternative to oxytocin in the active management of the third stage of labour. It works by constricting the vascular smooth muscle of the uterus, which can decrease blood loss. Its mechanism of action involves stimulating alpha-adrenergic, dopaminergic, and serotonergic receptors. However, it can cause coronary artery spasm as an adverse effect.

      Mifepristone is another drug used in obstetrics and gynaecology. It is used in combination with misoprostol to terminate pregnancies. Misoprostol is a prostaglandin analog that causes uterine contractions. Mifepristone’s mechanism of action involves being a competitive progesterone receptor antagonist. However, it can cause menorrhagia as an adverse effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old man with a history of severe mental illness presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man with a history of severe mental illness presents to the Emergency Department with emesis, abdominal pain and stupor. The paramedic reports that the patient was found unconscious with a container of windshield washer fluid in his hands.
      During examination, the patient's breath has a strong smell of alcohol. As part of the initial assessment, an arterial blood gas (ABG) is performed.
      Investigation Result Normal value
      pH 7.25 7.35–7.45
      pCO2 4.6 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
      pO2 13.2 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
      HCO3- 14 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Chloride (Cl-) 102 mmol/l 98–106 mmol/l
      What is the most appropriate therapeutic option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fomepizole

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Methanol Toxicity: Fomepizole vs. Ethanol vs. Gastric Lavage

      Methanol toxicity can be identified from a history of ingestion of substances such as windshield washer fluid. This results in a raised anion gap metabolic acidosis, which is caused by the formation of formic acid. Fomepizole is a competitive inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, which prevents the formation of toxic metabolites and is the most appropriate therapeutic option for methanol toxicity. Ethanol can also compete with methanol for metabolism by alcohol dehydrogenase, but it is less commonly used in clinical practice. Ethylene glycol toxicity requires treatment with fomepizole as well. Gastric lavage is not commonly used due to questions surrounding its efficacy and is not the best option for methanol toxicity. Nutritional supplementation with thiamine and vitamin B is not effective in improving the clinical state of methanol toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 30 - A 57-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) with a severe exacerbation of COPD. Despite full intervention, being intubated and ventilated, he fails to respond to treatment and continues to steadily deteriorate. It is believed that the patient is now brain dead.
      The patient is unconscious, fails to respond to outside stimulation and it is believed that his heart rate and breathing are only being maintained by the ventilator. The patient has agreed in the past to be an organ donor, and brainstem death verification is sought. The consultant with six years’ experience is present to certify brainstem death; however, a further person is needed for the process.
      Which of the following people is most appropriate to certify brainstem death along with the consultant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An ST4 doctor with five years full GMC registration

      Explanation:

      Certification of Brainstem Death: Who Can Verify and Who Cannot

      Brain death is the irreversible loss of brain function, including the brainstem. To diagnose brainstem death, all three criteria of apnoea, coma, and absence of brainstem reflexes must be present. The verification of brainstem death is typically done in the ICU, where patients are mechanically ventilated.

      According to the guidelines set by the Academy of Medical Royal Colleges, two doctors must verify brainstem death. Both doctors must have at least five years of full medical registration and be trained and competent in performing the assessment. At least one of the two doctors must be a consultant. They must both agree that all three criteria are met and that there is no reversible cause that can be treated.

      It is important to note that any doctor who has received training in death certification can certify a death following cardiorespiratory arrest. However, only doctors who meet the above criteria can verify brainstem death.

      The coroner is not involved in death verification unless the circumstances of the death are suspicious or meet strict referral criteria.

      Nursing staff should not verify death unless they have received specific training. In certifying brainstem death, two qualified doctors, one of whom must be a consultant, and both of whom must have been fully registered with the GMC for at least five years, must perform the tests.

      Relatives and next of kin should not be involved in the verification of death. They can be informed of the death as soon as it is confirmed by medical practitioners.

      Who Can Verify Brainstem Death? A Guide to Certification.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Miscellaneous (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Emergency Medicine (0/1) 0%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Rheumatology (0/1) 0%
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