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Question 1
Correct
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A 68-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) visits his general practitioner (GP) complaining of increased wheezing, breathlessness, and a dry cough. He is able to speak in complete sentences.
During the examination, the following observations are made:
Temperature 37.2 °C
Respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute
Blood pressure 130/70 mmHg
Heart rate 90 bpm
Oxygen saturations 96% on room air
He has diffuse expiratory wheezing.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acute Exacerbation of COPD
When a patient presents with evidence of an acute non-infective exacerbation of COPD, treatment with oral corticosteroids is appropriate. Short-acting bronchodilators may also be necessary. If the patient’s observations are not grossly deranged, they can be managed in the community with instructions to seek further medical input if their symptoms worsen.
Antibiotics are not indicated for non-infective exacerbations of COPD. However, if the patient has symptoms of an infective exacerbation, antibiotics may be prescribed based on the Anthonisen criteria.
Referral to a hospital medical team for admission is not necessary unless the patient is haemodynamically unstable, hypoxic, or experiencing respiratory distress.
A chest X-ray is not required unless there is suspicion of underlying pneumonia or pneumothorax. If the patient fails to respond to therapy or develops new symptoms, a chest X-ray may be considered at a later stage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-day history of itching and watery discharge from both eyes.
On examination, the vision is 6/9 in both eyes. Both pupils are equally reactive to light. The conjunctivae are both chemosed with mild diffuse injection. The eyelids are slightly oedematous.
Her past medical history includes eczema. Her vital observations are as follows:
Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg
Heart rate 65 bpm
Respiratory rate 12
Temperature 36.7 °C
Oxygen saturation 99% on air
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Bacterial conjunctivitis
Correct Answer: Allergic conjunctivitis
Explanation:Distinguishing Different Types of Eye Infections: A Case Study
Upon examination of a patient with eye symptoms, it was determined that the presentation pointed towards the diagnosis of allergic conjunctivitis. This was due to the patient’s history of itchiness, watery discharge, slightly swollen eyelids, and atopy. It was ruled out that the patient had bacterial conjunctivitis, as it typically presents with more purulent discharges bilaterally. Orbital cellulitis was also ruled out, as the eyelids and orbit would be very swollen and red with restriction and pain in eye movements, and the vital observations were normal. Preseptal cellulitis can present with oedematous eyelids, but the eye itself should be quiet and white. While viral conjunctivitis can present with watery discharges, the patient’s history of atopy and itchiness made allergic conjunctivitis the more likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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What is the odds ratio of mortality between patients treated with drug A and those treated with drug B in a randomised controlled trial for acute myocardial infarction, where 100 patients were assigned to each group and the mortality rate in group A was 20% and in group B was 30%?
Your Answer: 0.67
Correct Answer: 0.58
Explanation:Odds Ratio
The Odds Ratio is a statistical measure used to determine the likelihood of an outcome occurring based on a specific exposure. It compares the odds of the outcome happening when exposed to a particular factor to the odds of the outcome happening in the absence of that factor. To calculate the Odds Ratio, a table is constructed with the number of individuals who experienced the outcome and those who did not, for both the exposed and unexposed groups. The Odds Ratio is then calculated by multiplying the number of individuals who experienced the outcome in the exposed group by the number of individuals who did not experience the outcome in the unexposed group, and dividing it by the product of the number of individuals who did not experience the outcome in the exposed group and the number of individuals who experienced the outcome in the unexposed group. The resulting value represents the Odds Ratio. the Odds Ratio is important in determining the impact of a particular exposure on an outcome and can aid in making informed decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 4
Correct
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A 65-year-old lady is admitted with severe pneumonia and, while on the ward, develops a warm, erythematosus, tender and oedematous left leg. A few days later, her breathing, which was improving with antibiotic treatment, suddenly deteriorated.
Which one of the following is the best diagnostic test for this patient?Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) pulmonary angiogram
Explanation:The Best Imaging Method for Dual Pathology: Resolving Pneumonia and Pulmonary Embolus
Computed tomography (CT) pulmonary angiography is the best imaging method for a patient with dual pathology of resolving pneumonia and a pulmonary embolus secondary to a deep vein thrombosis. This method uses intravenous contrast to image the pulmonary vessels and can detect a filling defect within the bright pulmonary arteries, indicating a pulmonary embolism.
A V/Q scan, which looks for a perfusion mismatch, may indicate a pulmonary embolism, but would not be appropriate in this case due to the underlying pneumonia making interpretation difficult.
A D-dimer test should be performed, but it is non-specific and may be raised due to the pneumonia. It should be used together with the Wells criteria to consider imaging.
A chest X-ray should be performed to ensure there is no worsening pneumonia or pneumothorax, but in this case, a pulmonary embolism is the most likely diagnosis and therefore CTPA is required.
An arterial blood gas measurement can identify hypoxia and hypocapnia associated with an increased respiratory rate, but this is not specific to a pulmonary embolism and many pulmonary diseases can cause this arterial blood gas picture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 5
Correct
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A 36-year-old man is one day postoperative, following an inguinal hernia repair. He has become extremely nauseated and is vomiting. He is complaining of general malaise and lethargy. His past medical history includes type 1 diabetes mellitus; you perform a capillary blood glucose which is 24 mmol/l and capillary ketone level is 4 mmol/l. A venous blood gas demonstrates a pH of 7.28 and a potassium level of 5.7 mmol/l.
Given the likely diagnosis, what is the best initial immediate management in this patient?Your Answer: 0.9% saline intravenously (IV)
Explanation:Management of Diabetic Ketoacidosis: Prioritizing Fluid Resuscitation and Insulin Infusion
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that requires prompt management. Diagnosis is based on elevated blood glucose and ketone levels, as well as low pH and bicarbonate levels. The first step in management is fluid resuscitation with 0.9% saline to restore circulating volume. This should be followed by a fixed-rate insulin infusion to address the underlying metabolic disturbance. Dextrose infusion should not be used in patients with high blood glucose levels. Potassium replacement is only necessary when levels fall below 5.5 mmol/l during insulin infusion. By prioritizing fluid resuscitation and insulin infusion, healthcare providers can effectively manage DKA and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 6
Correct
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A young woman in her early twenties visits your GP clinic. She plans to start trying for a baby in a year's time but wants to avoid pregnancy until then as she has important exams to take. She hopes to conceive soon after completing her exams. Which contraceptive method is known to cause a longer delay in the return to fertility?
Your Answer: Depo-Provera
Explanation:Condoms act as a barrier contraceptive and do not have any impact on ovulation, therefore they do not cause any delay in fertility. The intrauterine system (IUS) functions by thickening cervical mucous and may prevent ovulation in some women, but most women still ovulate. Once the IUS is removed, most women regain their fertility immediately.
The combined oral contraceptive pill may postpone the return to a normal menstrual cycle in some women, but the majority of them can conceive within a month of discontinuing it. The progesterone-only pill is less likely to delay the return to a normal cycle as it does not contain oestrogen.
Depo-Provera can last up to 12 weeks, and it may take several months for the body to return to a normal menstrual cycle, which can delay fertility. As a result, it is not the most suitable method for a woman who wants to resume ovulatory cycles immediately.
Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera
Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.
However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.
It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman attends a new patient health check at the General Practice surgery she has recently joined. She mentions she occasionally gets episodes of palpitations and light-headedness and has done so for several years. Her pulse is currently regular, with a rate of 70 bpm, and her blood pressure is 110/76 mmHg. A full blood count is sent, which comes back as normal. The general practitioner requests an electrocardiogram (ECG), which shows a widened QRS complex with a slurred upstroke and a shortened PR interval.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Ebstein’s anomaly
Correct Answer: Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome
Explanation:Common Cardiac Conditions and Their ECG Findings
Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is a condition that affects young people and is characterized by episodes of syncope and palpitations. It is caused by an accessory pathway from the atria to the ventricles that bypasses the normal atrioventricular node. The ECG shows a slurred upstroke to the QRS complex, known as a delta wave, which reflects ventricular pre-excitation. Re-entry circuits can form, leading to tachyarrhythmias and an increased risk of ventricular fibrillation.
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is an inherited condition that presents in young adulthood and is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in the young. Symptoms include syncope, dyspnea, palpitations, and abnormal ECG findings, which may include conduction abnormalities, arrhythmias, left ventricular hypertrophy, and ST or T wave changes.
First-degree heart block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval and may be caused by medication, electrolyte imbalances, or post-myocardial infarction. It may also be a normal variant in young, healthy individuals.
Ebstein’s anomaly typically presents in childhood and young adulthood with fatigue, palpitations, cyanosis, and breathlessness on exertion. The ECG shows right bundle branch block and signs of atrial enlargement, such as tall, broad P waves.
Mobitz type II atrioventricular block is a type of second-degree heart block that is characterized by a stable PR interval with some non-conducted beats. It often progresses to complete heart block. Mobitz type I (Wenckebach) block, on the other hand, is characterized by a progressively lengthening PR interval, followed by a non-conducted beat and a reset of the PR interval back to a shorter value.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male presents with painful, red bumps on his shins. The physician suspects erythema nodosum and inquires further, discovering that the patient has been experiencing joint pains and a non-productive cough. A chest x-ray is ordered and reveals bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. Routine blood tests are conducted. What abnormality is most commonly associated with this condition?
Your Answer: Thrombocytopenia
Correct Answer: Hypercalcaemia
Explanation:Sarcoidosis is the probable diagnosis based on the presence of erythema nodosum, a non-productive cough, arthralgia, and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy on chest x-ray. This condition is known to cause hypercalcaemia due to the macrophages inside the granulomas, which increase the conversion of vitamin D to its active form. However, sarcoidosis is not typically associated with hyperkalaemia, hyponatraemia, megaloblastic anaemia, or thrombocytopenia.
Investigating Sarcoidosis
Sarcoidosis is a disease that does not have a single diagnostic test, and therefore, diagnosis is mainly based on clinical observations. Although ACE levels may be used to monitor disease activity, they are not reliable in diagnosing sarcoidosis due to their low sensitivity and specificity. Routine blood tests may show hypercalcemia and a raised ESR. A chest x-ray is a common investigation that may reveal different stages of sarcoidosis, ranging from normal (stage 0) to diffuse fibrosis (stage 4). Other investigations, such as spirometry and tissue biopsy, may also be used to diagnose sarcoidosis. However, the Kveim test, which involves injecting part of the spleen from a patient with known sarcoidosis under the skin, is no longer performed due to concerns about cross-infection.
CT scans may also be used to investigate sarcoidosis, as they can reveal nodularity and patchy areas of consolidation, particularly in the upper lobes of the lungs. It is important to note that sarcoidosis predominantly affects the upper zones of the lungs, unlike other pulmonary fibrosis conditions that affect the lower zones. Overall, a combination of clinical observations and investigations is necessary to diagnose sarcoidosis accurately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 9
Correct
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Sarah is a 38-year-old female who was diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) following a car accident two years ago. Similar to Steven, Sarah has been experiencing difficulty with sleep since the accident. She frequently wakes up in the middle of the night due to nightmares and struggles to fall back asleep. This has been affecting her daily life as she no longer has the energy to keep up with her young children.
Sarah has undergone several sessions of cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT), but unfortunately, she has not seen any significant improvement in her symptoms.
What would be the appropriate medication to manage Sarah's condition?Your Answer: Venlafaxine
Explanation:If CBT or EMDR therapy prove ineffective in treating PTSD, the recommended first-line drug treatments are venlafaxine or a SSRI. Tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline may also be used under the supervision of a mental health specialist, but they are not currently part of NICE guidance. Diazepam and zopiclone are only recommended for short-term management of severe symptoms or acute exacerbations of insomnia, and do not address the underlying cause of PTSD. Risperidone may be considered for patients with disabling symptoms or behaviors that have not responded to other treatments.
Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.
Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.
It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 10
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents to a psychiatrist after his wife demands he sees someone to manage his ‘endless nagging’. He has no interest in being here. He reports that his wife is always frustrating him because she simply will not do things the right way. He cites frequent eruptions over how to load the dishwasher properly and how his wife continues to load it improperly. When asked what happens if she loads it her way, the patient describes feeling frustrated that it is not loaded the right way and expressing his frustration to his wife. When asked what he hopes to get out of this visit, the patient wants to learn if there are better ways of effectively communicating the right way to do things.
Which of the following is most likely?Your Answer: Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD)
Explanation:The patient’s behavior of being fixated on the right way to load a dishwasher could be indicative of either obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD) or obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). The key difference between the two is whether or not the individual experiences distress over their obsession. In this case, the patient does not seem to experience any distress and instead wants to control how his wife loads the dishwasher. This suggests OCPD rather than OCD. Histrionic personality disorder, antisocial personality disorder, and narcissistic personality disorder are not as applicable to this situation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not typically observed in coning caused by elevated intracranial pressure?
Your Answer: Cheyne Stokes style respiratory efforts
Correct Answer: Hypotension
Explanation:The three components of Cushings triad are changes in pulse pressure, respiratory patterns, and widening of the pulse pressure.
Coning and the Effects of Increased Intracranial Pressure
The cranial vault is a limited space within the skull, except in infants with an unfused fontanelle. When intracranial pressure (ICP) rises, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) can shift to accommodate the increase. However, once the CSF has reached its capacity, ICP will rapidly rise. The brain has the ability to regulate its own blood supply, and as ICP increases, the body’s circulation will adjust to meet the brain’s perfusion needs, often resulting in hypertension.
As ICP continues to rise, the brain will become compressed, leading to cranial nerve damage and compression of vital centers in the brainstem. If the cardiac center is affected, bradycardia may develop. This process is known as coning and can have severe consequences if left untreated. It is important to monitor ICP and intervene promptly to prevent coning and its associated complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 12
Correct
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A 63-year-old woman is concerned about the possibility of having bowel cancer. She has been experiencing bloating and abdominal discomfort for the past 6 months, as well as unintentional weight loss. Her cousin was recently diagnosed with colorectal cancer, which has prompted her to seek medical attention.
What is a red flag symptom for colorectal cancer?Your Answer: Weight loss
Explanation:Red Flag Symptoms for Suspected Cancer Diagnosis
When it comes to suspected cancer diagnosis, certain symptoms should be considered as red flags. Unintentional weight loss is one such symptom, which should be taken seriously, especially in older women. Bloating, while a general symptom, may also require further investigation if it is persistent and accompanied by abdominal distension. A family history of bowel cancer is relevant in first-degree relatives, but a diagnosis in a cousin may not be significant. Abdominal pain is a non-specific symptom, but if accompanied by other signs like weight loss and altered bowel habits, it may be a red flag. Finally, persistent abdominal distension in women over 50 should be investigated further to rule out ovarian malignancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 68 year old male has recently undergone transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) with the use of 1.5% glycine as the irrigation fluid. The operation took longer than expected (1 hour 45 minutes) due to the size of the resection required for optimal gland flow. The patient is now exhibiting signs of agitation, confusion, and worsening breathlessness. A venous blood gas reveals that the patient is hyponatremic (118 mmol/l). What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: TURP syndrome
Explanation:Transurethral resection of the prostate surgery can lead to a rare and potentially fatal complication known as TURP Syndrome. This condition is caused by the destruction of veins and absorption of the irrigation fluid. Certain factors increase the risk of developing this syndrome.
Understanding TURP Syndrome
TURP syndrome is a rare but serious complication that can occur during transurethral resection of the prostate surgery. This condition is caused by the use of large volumes of glycine during the procedure, which can be absorbed into the body and lead to hyponatremia. When the liver breaks down the glycine into ammonia, it can cause hyper-ammonia and visual disturbances.
The symptoms of TURP syndrome can be severe and include CNS, respiratory, and systemic symptoms. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing this condition, including a surgical time of more than one hour, a height of the bag greater than 70cm, resection of more than 60g, large blood loss, perforation, a large amount of fluid used, and poorly controlled CHF.
It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of TURP syndrome in order to quickly identify and treat this condition if it occurs. By taking steps to minimize the risk of developing TURP syndrome and closely monitoring patients during and after the procedure, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old male patient presents with sudden-onset severe headache and vomiting. He has a family history of subarachnoid haemorrhage.
Which of the following statements is true?Your Answer: Lumbar puncture to test for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) xanthochromia should be performed immediately to make a diagnosis
Correct Answer: Bradycardia with high blood pressure suggests increased intracranial pressure
Explanation:Diagnosing Subarachnoid Hemorrhage: Importance of Bradycardia and Lumbar Puncture
Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) is a medical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. One important clue to the presence of SAH is the combination of bradycardia and hypertension, known as the Cushing’s reflex. This suggests increased intracranial pressure, which is common in SAH.
When SAH is suspected, a CT scan of the head is often the first diagnostic test. However, it is important to note that CT can be normal in up to 10% of cases. Therefore, a lumbar puncture should be performed in those with a suspected SAH and a normal CT scan.
To ensure accurate diagnosis, the lumbar puncture should be delayed for 4-12 hours to detect the presence of xanthochromia, a yellow discoloration of the cerebrospinal fluid that indicates bleeding. Microscopy of the CSF may be unreliable due to the presence of red blood cells from a traumatic lumbar puncture.
It is also important to note that the location of the aneurysm causing the SAH can vary. Rupture of an anterior circulation aneurysm is more likely than a posterior circulation aneurysm.
In summary, the combination of bradycardia and hypertension should raise suspicion for SAH. A normal CT scan does not rule out SAH, and a lumbar puncture with delayed testing for xanthochromia is necessary for accurate diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosurgery
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Question 15
Incorrect
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What is the typical distribution of atopic eczema in a 12-month-old child?
Your Answer: Nappy area and flexor surfaces of arms and legs
Correct Answer: Face and trunk
Explanation:Eczema in Children: Symptoms and Management
Eczema is a common skin condition that affects around 15-20% of children and is becoming more prevalent. It usually appears before the age of 2 and clears up in around 50% of children by the age of 5 and in 75% of children by the age of 10. The symptoms of eczema include an itchy, red rash that can worsen with repeated scratching. In infants, the face and trunk are often affected, while in younger children, it typically occurs on the extensor surfaces. In older children, the rash is more commonly seen on the flexor surfaces and in the creases of the face and neck.
To manage eczema in children, it is important to avoid irritants and use simple emollients. Large quantities of emollients should be prescribed, roughly in a ratio of 10:1 with topical steroids. If a topical steroid is also being used, the emollient should be applied first, followed by waiting at least 30 minutes before applying the topical steroid. Creams are absorbed into the skin faster than ointments, and emollients can become contaminated with bacteria, so fingers should not be inserted into pots. Many brands have pump dispensers to prevent contamination.
In severe cases, wet wrapping may be used, which involves applying large amounts of emollient (and sometimes topical steroids) under wet bandages. Oral ciclosporin may also be used in severe cases. Overall, managing eczema in children involves a combination of avoiding irritants, using emollients, and potentially using topical steroids or other medications in severe cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Correct
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A 26-year-old man presents with visual impairment and is diagnosed with Leber's optic atrophy. Considering the mitochondrial inheritance pattern of this disorder, which of the following family members is at the highest risk of being affected?
Your Answer: Sister
Explanation:Mitochondrial diseases are inherited maternally, meaning that if a mother has the condition, all of her children will also inherit it. As a result, her sister will also be affected.
Mitochondrial Diseases: Inheritance and Histology
Mitochondrial diseases are caused by mutations in the small amount of double-stranded DNA present in the mitochondria. This DNA encodes protein components of the respiratory chain and some special types of RNA. Mitochondrial inheritance has unique characteristics, including inheritance only via the maternal line and none of the children of an affected male inheriting the disease. However, all of the children of an affected female will inherit the disease. These diseases generally encode rare neurological diseases and have a poor genotype-phenotype correlation due to heteroplasmy, where different mitochondrial populations exist within a tissue or cell.
Histologically, muscle biopsy shows red, ragged fibers due to an increased number of mitochondria. Some examples of mitochondrial diseases include Leber’s optic atrophy, MELAS syndrome (mitochondrial encephalomyopathy lactic acidosis and stroke-like episodes), MERRF syndrome (myoclonus epilepsy with ragged-red fibers), Kearns-Sayre syndrome (onset in patients < 20 years old, external ophthalmoplegia, retinitis pigmentosa, and ptosis may be seen), and sensorineural hearing loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman is considering taking folic acid.
What is the primary benefit of taking folic acid in preparation for pregnancy?Your Answer: It reduces the incidence of spina bifida in the baby
Explanation:The Importance of Folic Acid Supplementation in Pregnancy
Folic acid supplementation is highly recommended for pregnant women and those planning to conceive. While most women are advised to take a daily dose of 400 µg, those with chronic illnesses or taking certain medications may require a higher dose of 5 mg.
The primary goal of folic acid supplementation during pregnancy is to reduce the risk of neural tube defects in the developing fetus. These defects, such as spina bifida and anencephaly, occur early in fetal development and can have varying degrees of severity. Spina bifida can range from mild symptoms to severe neurological complications, while anencephaly results in malformation of the brain and upper spinal canal, leading to a short life expectancy for affected babies.
Folates play a crucial role in the synthesis of purine and pyrimidines, which are essential components of DNA. During early pregnancy, there is a rapid increase in cell growth and division, which increases the body’s demand for folate. Therefore, folic acid supplementation is crucial to ensure that the developing fetus receives adequate folate for proper neural tube development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl presents with a six-month history of fatigue, lethargy, and abdominal discomfort with constipation. Despite denying depression, her academic performance has declined. On examination, she appears pale and thin with a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg. Her laboratory results show low potassium levels, high bicarbonate levels, and a slightly elevated ESR. A chest X-ray is normal. Based on these findings, what is the most probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Addison's disease
Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Anorexia Nervosa and Electrolyte Imbalances
Anorexia nervosa is a possible diagnosis for a patient with low sodium and potassium levels, especially if vomiting is present. Interestingly, despite the severe weight loss associated with anorexia nervosa, albumin levels tend to remain normal. However, if albumin levels are reduced, other causes such as sepsis should be considered. Addison’s disease and Conn’s syndrome are also conditions that can cause electrolyte imbalances, but their clinical presentations differ from that of anorexia nervosa. Cushing’s disease, on the other hand, is not a likely diagnosis in this case. It is important to consider the underlying cause of electrolyte imbalances in order to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 19
Correct
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A 29-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with his friend after collapsing during a soccer match. He fell to the ground suddenly, losing consciousness. Witnesses reported jerking movements of his limbs and incontinence before the episode self-terminated after a few minutes. He has a history of psoriasis and takes methotrexate once weekly. He is urgently referred to a Neurology Clinic for review. Physical examination is normal, and investigations reveal no abnormalities except for a slightly elevated TSH level. What is the most likely cause of his presentation?
Your Answer: Epilepsy
Explanation:Understanding the Differential Diagnosis of a First Tonic-Clonic Seizure
A first tonic-clonic seizure can be a challenging diagnosis to make, and further investigation is required to determine the underlying cause. While an EEG can confirm seizure activity in around 70% of cases, it is not a definitive test and a negative result does not rule out epilepsy. However, given the history of a tonic-clonic seizure, epilepsy is the most likely diagnosis.
Other potential causes, such as head injury, hypothyroidism, methotrexate toxicity, and psychogenic seizure, should also be considered. Head injury is a risk factor for epilepsy, but there is no history of head injury in this scenario. Hypothyroidism is not clinically or biochemically present in the patient. Methotrexate toxicity may precipitate seizures in those with previously controlled epilepsy, but it is not a significant risk factor for first fits. Psychogenic non-epileptic seizures are an important differential, but the presence of incontinence and the characteristics of the seizure make it less likely.
Overall, a thorough investigation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of a first tonic-clonic seizure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 68-year-old rancher comes in with a small white spot on his right cheek that has been gradually increasing in size over the past few months. It has now developed a central ulcer. What is the probable type of this lesion?
Your Answer: Basal cell carcinoma
Explanation:Lesion on the Face: Indications of Basal Cell Carcinoma
A slow-growing lesion on the face with a central ulcer located above a line drawn from the angle of the mouth to the ear lobe is a possible indication of basal cell carcinoma. This type of cancer tends to develop slowly, and the presence of an ulcer in the center of the lesion is a common characteristic. In contrast, squamous cell carcinoma grows much faster than basal cell carcinoma.
Another skin condition that may be mistaken for basal cell carcinoma is seborrhoeic keratoses. However, seborrhoeic keratoses have a papillary warty surface, which is different from the smooth surface of basal cell carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 43-year-old man presents with intermittent claudication. He has a body mass index of 32 kg/m2 and smokes 40 cigarettes a day. He admits that he has an extremely unhealthy diet. There is no family history of cardiovascular disease but his father died of complications of diabetes. His blood pressure is 160/110 mmHg.
What is the most likely cause of the claudication?Your Answer: Atherosclerosis
Explanation:Atherosclerosis, a disease commonly associated with the elderly, is now being observed in younger patients. This patient exhibits all the risk factors for atherosclerosis, which is the leading cause of intermittent claudication. While diabetes is not a direct cause of limb ischaemia, it is a risk factor for atherosclerosis, which this patient may have. Buerger’s disease, an arthritis that affects young male smokers, is rare and unlikely in this patient who is obese, hypertensive, and has a family history of diabetes. Coarctation of the aorta, which is characterized by hypertension and radiofemoral delay, should be considered in young patients with intermittent claudication, but there are no other signs in this patient. Takayasu’s disease, a rare arthritis that causes claudication and neurological signs, is more common in women and often presents with pulseless upper limbs due to arterial occlusion caused by intimal fibrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old gentleman is admitted following a fall with a painful right knee. He has a history of osteoarthritis and atrial fibrillation (AF). Prior to admission, he was independent and living alone. While in the Emergency Department, he gives a history of falling on his knee. Staff reported an incident of urinary incontinence while in their care. No seizure activity was reported. While on the ward, he becomes sleepy but arousable. Later in the night, the nurses state he is no longer opening his eyes to voices and is making incomprehensible noises.
What is the most important potential diagnosis which requires exclusion?Your Answer: Stroke
Correct Answer: Subdural haematoma
Explanation:Diagnosing Acute Subdural Haematoma: Vital Clues and Differential Diagnoses
Acute subdural haematoma is a serious neurosurgical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and intervention. Elderly patients and those on anticoagulant medications are at higher risk. A fluctuating conscious level in an elderly patient should raise suspicion. Vital clues from the patient’s history, such as a history of AF and fall, episode of urinary incontinence, and rapid drop in conscious level, should be considered. Urgent computed tomography (CT) brain imaging is necessary to exclude this diagnosis.
Other possible diagnoses, such as stroke, postictal state, obstructive sleep apnoea, and hypoglycaemia, may present with similar symptoms. However, given the history of a recent fall and deteriorating GCS, an intracranial event must be investigated. Checking the patient’s capillary glucose level is reasonable, but excluding an acute subdural haematoma is paramount.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old postmenopausal woman with a 2-year history of invasive ductal carcinoma of the left breast with axillary lymph node involvement presents with confusion and lethargy. She had nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, constipation, polyuria and polydipsia for 1 week. Investigations show:
Investigation Result Normal values
Sodium (Na+) 144 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 3.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Bicarbonate (HCO3-) 23 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
PaCO2 5.6 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
Corrected Ca2+ 3.47 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
Phosphate (PO43-) 0.55 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
Magnesium (Mg2+) 1.9 mmol/l 0.75–1.00 mmol/l
Which of the following is the most likely cause of these manifestations?Your Answer: Excess parathyroid hormone (PTH) production
Correct Answer: Tumour release of parathyroid hormone-related peptide (PTHrP)
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Hypercalcaemia in Malignancy-Associated Hypercalcaemia
Malignancy-associated hypercalcaemia is a common complication in patients with advanced malignancies. The primary cause of hypercalcaemia in this condition is the release of parathyroid hormone-related peptide (PTHrP) by tumours. This can lead to symptoms such as confusion, lethargy, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, constipation, polyuria, and polydipsia.
While osteolytic bone metastasis is a common cause of hypercalcaemia in patients with advanced malignancies, the presence of hypophosphataemia in this patient suggests a different aetiology. In this case, the phosphaturic action of PTH or PTHrP is responsible for the hypophosphataemia.
Excess PTH production, bone metastasis and release of osteoclast activating factor, tumour production of 1-hydroxylase, and excess calcium and vitamin D intake are other potential causes of hypercalcaemia. However, in this patient, these causes can be ruled out based on the laboratory findings and symptoms.
Treatment of symptomatic hypercalcaemia involves addressing the underlying cause and administering bisphosphonates for long-term control. Understanding the causes of hypercalcaemia in malignancy-associated hypercalcaemia is crucial for effective management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Biochemistry
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Question 24
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman comes to you complaining of experiencing electric shock sensations and dizziness in her arms and legs for the past three days. She has a medical history of chronic pain, depression, and schizophrenia. When you inquire about her medications and drug use, she seems hesitant to provide a clear answer. What could be the probable reason behind her symptoms?
Your Answer: SSRI discontinuation syndrome
Explanation:If someone suddenly stops or reduces their use of SSRIs, they may experience symptoms of SSRI discontinuation syndrome, including dizziness, electric shock sensations, and anxiety. It is possible that this woman has decided to stop taking her antidepressants. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically include anxiety, tremors, and sweating. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare reaction that can occur with antipsychotic use and may present with fever, confusion, and muscle rigidity. Opiate withdrawal may cause anxiety, sweating, and gastrointestinal symptoms such as diarrhea and vomiting.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 25
Correct
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A 33-year-old woman presents to the haematology clinic after experiencing four consecutive miscarriages. Her GP ordered routine blood tests which revealed a prolonged APTT and the presence of lupus anticoagulant immunoglobulins. The patient is diagnosed with antiphospholipid syndrome and you recommend long-term pharmacological thromboprophylaxis. However, she has no history of venous or arterial clots. What would be the most appropriate form of thromboprophylaxis for this patient?
Your Answer: Low-dose aspirin
Explanation:For patients with antiphospholipid syndrome who have not experienced a thrombosis before, the recommended thromboprophylaxis is low-dose aspirin. The use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) is not advised as studies have shown a higher incidence of clots in antiphospholipid patients on DOACs compared to warfarin. Low-molecular-weight heparin is not recommended for long-term use as it is administered subcutaneously. Warfarin with a target INR of 2-3 is appropriate only for patients who have previously suffered from venous or arterial clots.
Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thrombosis, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.
Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 26
Correct
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A 20-year-old man with known type 1 diabetes is admitted to hospital with abdominal pain, drowsiness and severe dehydration. On examination he has a temperature of 38.2 degrees, and crackles at the bases of both lungs. Investigations show the following results:
Urinary ketones: 3+
Serum ketones: 3.6 mmol/l
Serum glucose: 21.8 mmol/l
pH 7.23
What is the most appropriate initial management?Your Answer: 1 litre 0.9% normal saline over 1 h
Explanation:Management of Diabetic Ketoacidosis: Medications and Fluids
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a life-threatening complication of diabetes that requires urgent treatment. The initial management of DKA involves fluid resuscitation with normal saline, followed by insulin infusion to correct hyperglycemia. Antibiotics are not the immediate management option of choice, even if an intercurrent infection is suspected. Glucose therapy should be administered only after initial fluid resuscitation and insulin infusion. Here is a breakdown of the medications and fluids used in the management of DKA:
1. 1 litre 0.9% normal saline over 1 h: This is the first-line treatment for DKA. Urgent fluid resuscitation is necessary to correct hypovolemia and improve tissue perfusion.
2. Amoxicillin 500 mg po TDS for 5 days: Antibiotics may be necessary if an intercurrent infection is suspected, but they are not the immediate management option of choice for DKA.
3. Clarithromycin 500 mg po bd for 5 days: Same as above.
4. Insulin 0.1 units/kg/h via fixed rate insulin infusion: After initial fluid resuscitation, insulin infusion is necessary to correct hyperglycemia and prevent further ketone production.
5. 1 litre 10% dextrose over 8 h: Glucose therapy is necessary to prevent hypoglycemia after insulin infusion, but it should not be administered initially as it can exacerbate hyperglycemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man with severe acute pancreatitis is transferred from the surgical ward to the Intensive Care Unit with rapidly worsening shortness of breath. He has a history of heavy smoking and alcohol use.
On examination, in the Intensive Care Unit, he is maintaining saturations of 91% only on the ‘non-rebreather’ mask. There is cyanosis around the lips; bilateral crackles are present on auscultation of the lungs.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
pH 7.32 7.35–7.45
pO2 8.1 kPa (on oxygen) 10.5–13.5 kPa
pCO2 4.8 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
Chest X-ray Bilateral pulmonary infiltrates
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Cardiac failure
Correct Answer: Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
Explanation:Understanding Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) and Differential Diagnoses
Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a severe condition that can be caused by various factors, including trauma, acute sepsis, and severe medical illnesses. It is characterized by a diffuse, acute inflammatory response that leads to increased vascular permeability of the lung parenchyma and loss of aerated tissue. Symptoms typically occur within 6-72 hours of the initiating event and progress rapidly, requiring high-level care. Hypoxia is difficult to manage, and pulmonary infiltrates are seen on chest X-ray. Careful fluid management and ventilation are necessary, as mortality rates can be as high as 30%. Corticosteroids may reduce late-phase damage and fibrosis.
While secondary pneumonia may be included in the differential diagnosis, the acute deterioration and bilateral infiltrates suggest ARDS. Unilateral radiographic changes are more commonly associated with pneumonia. Viral pneumonitis is another possible diagnosis, but the rapid onset of ARDS distinguishes it from viral pneumonitis. Fibrosing alveolitis, a chronic interstitial lung disease, is unlikely to present acutely. Cardiac failure is also unlikely, as there are no cardiac abnormalities described on examination and the chest radiograph does not demonstrate cardiomegaly, pulmonary venous congestion, Kerley B lines, or pulmonary effusions that are suggestive of a cardiac cause. Echocardiography may be helpful in assessing cardiac functionality.
In summary, ARDS is a serious condition that requires prompt and careful management. Differential diagnoses should be considered, but the acute onset and bilateral infiltrates seen on chest X-ray are suggestive of ARDS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female patient complains of a painless red eye that has been present for 2 days. She reports no other symptoms and has not experienced any vision changes. The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any long-term medications. During the examination, both eyes appear red and injected. When applying light pressure with a cotton bud, the injected vessels appear to move. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Anterior uveitis
Correct Answer: Episcleritis
Explanation:The vessels in episcleritis can be easily moved with gentle pressure on the sclera, while in scleritis, the vessels are deeper and do not move. Episcleritis is characterized by the absence of a decrease in visual acuity and mobile vessels, but the degree of pain can vary. Iritis, also known as anterior uveitis, is typically painful and causes photophobia and vision loss. Posterior uveitis often results in floaters and vision loss. Scleritis does not have mobile vessels due to the deeper location of the injected vessels.
Understanding Episcleritis
Episcleritis is a condition that involves the sudden onset of inflammation in the episclera of one or both eyes. While the majority of cases are idiopathic, there are some associated conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease and rheumatoid arthritis. Symptoms of episcleritis include a red eye, mild pain or irritation, watering, and mild photophobia. However, unlike scleritis, episcleritis is typically not painful.
One way to differentiate between the two conditions is by applying gentle pressure on the sclera. If the injected vessels are mobile, it is likely episcleritis. In contrast, scleritis involves deeper vessels that do not move. Phenylephrine drops may also be used to distinguish between the two conditions. If the eye redness improves after phenylephrine, a diagnosis of episcleritis can be made.
Approximately 50% of cases of episcleritis are bilateral. Treatment for episcleritis is typically conservative, with artificial tears sometimes being used. Understanding the symptoms and differences between episcleritis and scleritis can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for their eye condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman visits her GP for a wound check, one week after undergoing a total knee replacement surgery. Despite a smooth recovery and increased mobility, she complains of difficulty in dorsiflexing her foot while walking. Based on this information, which structure is most likely to have been affected during the TKA procedure?
Your Answer: Tibialis posterior
Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Explanation:Joint Replacement for Osteoarthritis
Joint replacement, also known as arthroplasty, is the most effective treatment for patients with osteoarthritis who experience significant pain. Around 25% of patients are now younger than 60 years old, and while obesity is often thought to be a barrier to joint replacement, there is only a slight increase in short-term complications. There is no difference in long-term joint replacement survival.
For hips, the most common type of operation is a cemented hip replacement, where a metal femoral component is cemented into the femoral shaft, accompanied by a cemented acetabular polyethylene cup. However, uncemented hip replacements are becoming increasingly popular, particularly in younger and more active patients, despite being more expensive than conventional cemented hip replacements. Hip resurfacing is also sometimes used, where a metal cap is attached over the femoral head, often in younger patients, and has the advantage of preserving the femoral neck, which may be useful if conventional arthroplasty is needed later in life.
Post-operative recovery involves both physiotherapy and a course of home-exercises. Walking sticks or crutches are usually used for up to 6 weeks after hip or knee replacement surgery. Patients who have had a hip replacement operation should receive basic advice to minimize the risk of dislocation, such as avoiding flexing the hip more than 90 degrees, avoiding low chairs, not crossing their legs, and sleeping on their back for the first 6 weeks.
Complications of joint replacement surgery include wound and joint infection, thromboembolism, and dislocation. NICE recommends that patients receive low-molecular weight heparin for 4 weeks following a hip replacement to reduce the risk of thromboembolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 30
Correct
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A 32-year-old patient complains of a painful lump on their eyelid. The lump has been present for about 3 days and is gradually increasing in size. Upon examination, a tender, smooth lump measuring approximately 3 mm in diameter is observed, originating from the outer edge of the left upper eyelid. There is no redness in the eye, no orbital or periorbital erythema, and normal visual acuity.
What would be the most suitable approach to managing this condition?Your Answer: Provide advice on application of hot compresses and simple analgesia
Explanation:Management of Stye or Hordeolum: Hot Compresses and Simple Analgesia
A stye or hordeolum is a common condition that presents as an acute and painful swelling of the eyelid, usually around a single eyelash follicle. While it does not affect visual acuity, it can make the eye watery. The first-line management for a stye is the application of warm compresses a few times a day, which can help the stye resolve or drain. Incision and drainage is rarely used and should only be considered if symptoms do not resolve and needs to be performed by an experienced individual in the hospital setting/Eye Casualty. There is no indication to prescribe systemic antibiotics, as the patient is well and there are no signs of cellulitis over the eyelid. Topical antibiotics are not recommended in the absence of conjunctivitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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