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  • Question 1 - Which of these laboratory findings will indicate a fetal neural tube defect when...

    Correct

    • Which of these laboratory findings will indicate a fetal neural tube defect when done between 15 and 20 weeks of pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Increased alpha-fetoprotein

      Explanation:

      Maternal serum screening during the second trimester is a non-invasive way of identifying women at increased risk of having children with a neural tube defect and should be offered to all pregnant women. The results are most accurate when the sample is taken between 15 and 20 weeks of gestation. Elevated levels of alpha-fetoprotein suggest open spina bifida, anencephaly, risk of pregnancy complications, or multiple pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The likely cause of a tender and swollen breast in a lactating mother...

    Correct

    • The likely cause of a tender and swollen breast in a lactating mother is:

      Your Answer: Acute mastitis

      Explanation:

      Acute mastitis results due to bacterial infection of the breast and results in signs of inflammation. It commonly occurs 2-3 weeks postpartum and common causative microorganisms are Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus species, and Escherichia coli. Complications like an abscess can be avoided by prompt treatment, which includes antibiotics and rest along with continued lactation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following arteries branches from the deep femoral artery and courses...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following arteries branches from the deep femoral artery and courses between the pectineus and iliopsoas muscles?

      Your Answer: Lateral ascending femoral circumflex

      Correct Answer: Medical femoral circumflex

      Explanation:

      The medial femoral circumflex artery is an artery in the upper thigh that supplies blood to the head and neck of the femur. It arises from the deep femoral artery and winds around the medial side of the femur. It passes first between pectineus and psoas major, and then between obturator externus and adductor brevis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The accumulation of eosinophils within tissues is mostly regulated by which of the...

    Correct

    • The accumulation of eosinophils within tissues is mostly regulated by which of the following cytokines?

      Your Answer: Interleukin-5

      Explanation:

      IL-5 is produced by TH2 helper cells and by mast cells. They stimulate increased secretion of immunoglobulins and stimulate B cell growth. They are the major regulators in eosinophil activation and control. They are also released from eosinophils and mast cells in asthmatic patients and are associate with a many other allergic conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old woman feels thirsty. This thirst is probably due to: ...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman feels thirsty. This thirst is probably due to:

      Your Answer: Increased level of angiotensin II

      Explanation:

      Thirst is the basic need or instinct to drink. It arises from a lack of fluids and/or an increase in the concentration of certain osmolites such as salt. If the water volume of the body falls below a certain threshold or the osmolite concentration becomes too high, the brain signals thirst. Excessive thirst, known as polydipsia, along with excessive urination, known as polyuria, may be an indication of diabetes. Angiotensin II is a hormone that is a powerful dipsogen (i.e. it stimulates thirst) that acts via the subfornical organ. It increases secretion of ADH in the posterior pituitary and secretion of ACTH in the anterior pituitary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following is NOT a nutritional factor involved in wound healing:...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a nutritional factor involved in wound healing:

      Your Answer: Vitamin B3

      Explanation:

      Vitamin B6 is required for collagen cross-links.
      Vitamin A is required for epithelial cell proliferation.
      Zinc is required for RNA and DNA synthesis.
      Copper is required for cross-linking of collagen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following organs is an ectoderm derivative? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following organs is an ectoderm derivative?

      Your Answer: Mesothelium

      Correct Answer: Adrenal medulla

      Explanation:

      Ectoderm derivatives include the adrenal medulla, posterior pituitary, the epidermis of the skin, nails, hair, sweat glands, mammary glands, sebaceous glands, the central nervous system, the peripheral nervous system, the retina and lens of eye, the pupillary muscle of the iris, melanocytes, Schwann cells and odontoblasts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A patient with a long standing lower motor neuron lesion will have: ...

    Correct

    • A patient with a long standing lower motor neuron lesion will have:

      Your Answer: Muscle wasting

      Explanation:

      Lower motor neurons (LMNs) connect the brainstem and spinal cord to muscle fibres. Damage to lower motor neurons is indicated by abnormal electromyographic potentials, fasciculations, paralysis, weakening and wasting of skeletal muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A patient in the recovery ward after cardiac surgery is noticed to have...

    Correct

    • A patient in the recovery ward after cardiac surgery is noticed to have a small effusion in the lowest extent of the pleural cavity, into which no lung tissue extends. What is the name of this part of the pleural cavity?

      Your Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Explanation:

      The costodiaphragmatic recess is the part of the pleural cavity where the costal pleura is in continuity with the diaphragmatic pleura. It forms the lowest extent of the pleural cavity.
      Costomediastinal recess: a tiny recess that is anteriorly located, where the costal pleura becomes continuous with the mediastinal pleura.
      The cupola is the pleural cavity that extends above the first rib.
      The inferior mediastinum refers to the posterior, middle and anterior mediastinal divisions together.
      The pulmonary ligament on the other hand, is a pleural fold that is situated beneath the root of the lung on the medial aspect of the lung.
      Oblique pericardial sinus is not part of the pleural cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      74.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 70-year-old man suffers an ischaemic stroke and develops a left homonymous hemianopia....

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man suffers an ischaemic stroke and develops a left homonymous hemianopia. Where is the likely infarct?

      Your Answer: Right occipital lobe

      Explanation:

      The man has a left homonymous hemianopia which means he is unable to view objects in the left visual field. This information is processed by the right primary visual cortex which lies in the right occipital lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 54-year-old woman is re-admitted to the hospital with shortness of breath and...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman is re-admitted to the hospital with shortness of breath and sharp chest pain 2 weeks after surgical cholecystectomy. The most probable cause of these clinical findings is:

      Your Answer: Pulmonary embolus

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary embolism is caused by the sudden blockage of a major lung blood vessel, usually by a blood clot. Symptoms include sudden sharp chest pain, cough, dyspnoea, palpitations, tachycardia or loss of consciousness. Risk factors for developing pulmonary embolism include long periods of inactivity, surgery, trauma, pregnancy, oral contraceptives, oestrogen replacement, malignancies and venous stasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The Brunner glands secrete an alkaline product that helps maintain an optimal pH...

    Correct

    • The Brunner glands secrete an alkaline product that helps maintain an optimal pH for pancreatic enzyme activity. Where are these glands located?

      Your Answer: Submucosa of the duodeneum

      Explanation:

      The Brunner glands are located in the submucosa of the duodenum. These glands are connected to the interstitial lumen by ducts that open into certain crypts. They secrete an alkaline product that protects the duodenal mucosa from the acidic chyme and helps achieve an optimal pH for the enzymes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following terms best describes the movement of leukocytes towards a...

    Correct

    • Which of the following terms best describes the movement of leukocytes towards a specific target?

      Your Answer: Chemotaxis

      Explanation:

      The movement of leukocytes towards a chemical mediator is termed chemotaxis and the mediators likewise called chemoattractants.
      Diapedesis is the squeezing of the leukocytes from the capillary wall into the intercellular space.
      Endocytosis is engulfing of a small substance by the cells e.g. glucose, protein, fats.
      Margination is lining of the WBC along the periphery of the blood vessel.
      Adhesion is attachment with the vessel wall.
      Phagocytosis is described as engulfing the bacteria or the offending substance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following organs is most likely to have dendritic cells? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following organs is most likely to have dendritic cells?

      Your Answer: Skin

      Explanation:

      Dendritic cells are part of the immune system and they function mainly as antigen presenting cells. They are present in small quantities in tissues which are in contact in the external environment. Mainly in the skin and to a lesser extent in the lining of the nose, lungs, stomach and intestines. In the skin they are known as Langerhans cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Diffusion is the movement of molecules from a region of high concentration to a...

    Correct

    • Diffusion is the movement of molecules from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration. Which of these changes will decrease the rate of diffusion of a substance?

      Your Answer: An increase in the molecular weight of the substance

      Explanation:

      Unless given IV, a drug must cross several semipermeable cell membranes before it reaches the systemic circulation. Drugs may cross cell membranes by diffusion, amongst other mechanisms. The rate of diffusion of a substance is proportional to the difference in the concentration of the diffusing substance between the two sides of the membrane, the temperature of the solution, the permeability of the membrane and, in the case of ions, the electrical potential difference between the two sides of the membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 55-year-old male has a mass on the right lung with involvement of...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male has a mass on the right lung with involvement of the right mediastinal lymph nodes. What is the nodal staging according to the TNM staging?

      Your Answer: N2

      Explanation:

      The N stages for lung cancer are from NO to N3 : NO, there is no lung cancer in any lymph nodes: N1, there is lung cancer in the proximal lymph nodes: N2, there is lung cancer in the mediastinal hilar lymph nodes, but on the same side as the affected lung or there is lung cancer in the carinal lymph nodes: N3, there is metastatic lung cancer in lymph nodes on the opposite side of the chest, in the cervical or apical lymph nodes. In this patient the ipsilateral mediastinal node is involved, thus it is classified as N2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      80.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Out of the following options, which malignancy has the highest potential for multicentricity?...

    Correct

    • Out of the following options, which malignancy has the highest potential for multicentricity?

      Your Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Transitional cell carcinomas can arise anywhere in the urothelium lining the urinary tract; and hence are known to be multicentric and recur commonly. Prostatic adenocarcinoma most commonly involves the posterior lobe of the prostate gland. Although renal cell carcinomas occasionally show multicentricity, it is not common. Penile carcinomas are usually locally infiltrative lesions. Wilm’s tumours are usually solitary, but can be bilateral or multicentric in 10% cases. Small cell carcinoma of lung and teratomas are usually solitary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain...

    Correct

    • A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain with progressive swelling and deformity over the last 4 years. Test results reveal a significantly reduced factor VIII activity. Which of the following is seen in the knee joint space after an acute painful episode?

      Your Answer: Cholesterol crystals

      Explanation:

      Due to breakdown of the red blood cell membrane in haemophilic patients, cholesterol crystals are formed by the lipids. On the other hand lipofuscin deposition does not occur in haemolysis or haemorrhage. Neutrophil accumulation suggests acute inflammation. Anthracotic pigment is an exogenous carbon pigment that deposits in the lung from dust. Russell bodies are intracellular accumulations of immunoglobins in plasma cells. Curschmann’s spirals and Charcot Leyden crystals are pathognomonic of asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - An operation to resect a tumour of the right lung was stopped as...

    Correct

    • An operation to resect a tumour of the right lung was stopped as the chest surgeon said that the tumour was crossing the oblique fissure. Which structures are separated by the oblique fissure of the right lung?

      Your Answer: Lower lobe from both upper and middle lobes

      Explanation:

      The oblique fissure on the right lung separates the lower lobe from both the middle and upper lobe. The lingual is only found on the left lung and is part of the upper lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      42.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - C5a (a complement component) is a potent? ...

    Correct

    • C5a (a complement component) is a potent?

      Your Answer: Anaphylotoxin

      Explanation:

      C5a is a strong chemoattractant as well as an anaphylotoxin and is involved in the recruitment of inflammatory cells such as neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes, and T lymphocytes. It is also involved in activation of phagocytic cells, release of granule-based enzymes and generation of oxidants. All of which contribute to innate immune functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 30 year old gym coach presented to the surgical out patient clinic...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old gym coach presented to the surgical out patient clinic with a lump in the inguinal region. He was booked for surgery, during which, the surgeon opened the inguinal region and found a hernial sac with a small segment of intestine projecting through the abdominal wall. It was located just above the inguinal ligament and lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. What type of hernia was this?

      Your Answer: An indirect inguinal hernia

      Explanation:

      An indirect inguinal hernia exits the abdominal cavity lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels and enters the inguinal canal through the deep inguinal ring. These are the most common types of hernias often caused by heavy weigh lifting. Direct inguinal hernias exit the abdominal cavity medial to the inferior epigastric vessels through weak fascia.
      Congenital inguinal hernias are indirect hernias that occur due to persistence of the processus vaginalis.
      Femoral hernias occur when abdominal viscera push through the femoral ring in the femoral canal.
      Incisional hernia occurs after surgery when the omentum or organ protrudes through a previous site of incision.
      Obturator hernia are a very rare type of hernia where the pelvic or abdominal contents protrude through the obturator foramen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      282
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which statement is true regarding the diaphragmatic openings: ...

    Correct

    • Which statement is true regarding the diaphragmatic openings:

      Your Answer: The thoracic duct passes through the opening at T12

      Explanation:

      The diaphragmatic openings are:
      T8 – opening for the inferior vena cavaand the right phrenic nerve
      T10 – opening for the oesophagusand the left gastric artery and vein
      T12 – opening for the aorta, the thoracic duct and azygos vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following is a likely consequence of severe diarrhoea? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a likely consequence of severe diarrhoea?

      Your Answer: An increase in the potassium content of the body

      Correct Answer: A decrease in the sodium content of the body

      Explanation:

      Diarrhoea can occur due to any of the numerous aetiologies, which include infectious, drug-induced, food related, surgical, inflammatory, transit-related or malabsorption. Four mechanisms have been implicated in diarrhoea: increased osmotic load, increased secretion, inflammation and decreased absorption time. Diarrhoea can result in fluid loss with consequent dehydration, electrolyte loss (Na+, K+, Mg2+, Cl–) and even vascular collapse. Loss of bicarbonate ions can lead to a metabolic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      50.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The left lateral pterygoid muscle is one of the muscles of mastication. When...

    Correct

    • The left lateral pterygoid muscle is one of the muscles of mastication. When acting alone, it will shift the mandible towards which direction?

      Your Answer: Laterally, to the right

      Explanation:

      The lateral pterygoid or external pterygoid is a muscle of mastication with two heads. It lies superiorly to the medial pterygoid. When acting alone, it will shift the mandible laterally and to the right.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 24-year-old patient with recurrent episodes of deep vein thrombosis presents again to...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old patient with recurrent episodes of deep vein thrombosis presents again to the clinic. Deficiency of which of the following blood proteins is the most probable cause of this episode?

      Your Answer: Alpha-2-antiplasmin

      Correct Answer: Antithrombin III

      Explanation:

      Antithrombin III (ATIII) is a blood protein that acts by inhibiting blood coagulation by neutralizing the enzymatic activity of thrombin.
      Antithrombin III deficiency is an autosomal dominant disorder that leads to an increased risk of venous and arterial thrombosis. Clinical manifestations typically appear in young adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      137.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The anatomical course of the phrenic nerve passes over the following muscle in...

    Incorrect

    • The anatomical course of the phrenic nerve passes over the following muscle in the neck?

      Your Answer: Posterior scalene

      Correct Answer: Anterior scalene

      Explanation:

      The phrenic nerve originates in the neck between C3-C5, mostly C4 spinal root. It enters the thoracic cavity past the heart and lungs to the diaphragm. In the neck, this nerve begins at the lateral border of the anterior scalene muscle, its course then continues inferiorly on the anterior aspect of the anterior scalene muscle as it moves towards the diaphragm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - The sciatic nerve does NOT supply which of the following muscles? ...

    Incorrect

    • The sciatic nerve does NOT supply which of the following muscles?

      Your Answer: Quadratus femoris

      Correct Answer: Obturator externus

      Explanation:

      The sciatic nerve supplies both gemellae, quadratus femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus, both heads of the biceps femoris, the hamstring half of abductor magnus and obturator internus. Obturator externus is supplied by the obturator nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A young women following a road traffic accident suffered heavy blood loss and...

    Correct

    • A young women following a road traffic accident suffered heavy blood loss and developed subsequent anaemia. Which of the following is a consequence of this?

      Your Answer: A high reticulocyte count

      Explanation:

      Anaemia refers to a decrease in the circulating levels of haemoglobin in the blood resulting in a reduced ability of the body to transport oxygen effectively. Anaemia from blood loss results in the body further compensating by releasing stored RBCs and immature RBCs from the bone marrow. Thus resulting in a high reticulocyte count.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Skeletal muscle fibres are divided into two basic types, type I (slow-twitch fibres)...

    Incorrect

    • Skeletal muscle fibres are divided into two basic types, type I (slow-twitch fibres) and type II (fast-twitch fibres). Fast muscle fibres do which of the following:

      Your Answer: Have relatively high endurance

      Correct Answer: Use anaerobic metabolism

      Explanation:

      Skeletal muscles are divided into two types:
      1) type I also known as the slow twitch fibres. They use oxygen for their metabolism and as a result they have a high endurance potential. To support this they have abundant mitochondria and myoglobin, so they appear red/dark.
      2) type II fibres also called fast twitch fibres, are low endurance fibres used during anaerobic metabolism. They are required for short bursts of strength and cannot sustain contractions for long periods of time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - How much blood can the pulmonary vessels of a 45-year-old healthy man accommodate...

    Correct

    • How much blood can the pulmonary vessels of a 45-year-old healthy man accommodate when he is at rest?

      Your Answer: 500 ml

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary circulation is the portion of the cardiovascular system which carries deoxygenated blood away from the heart, to the lungs, and returns oxygenated blood back to the heart. The vessels of the pulmonary circulation are very compliant (easily distensible) and so typically accommodate about 500 ml of blood in an adult man. This large lung blood volume can serve as a reservoir for the left ventricle, particularly during periods when left ventricular output momentarily exceeds venous return.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      27.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Basic Sciences (23/30) 77%
Pathology (9/10) 90%
Anatomy (6/10) 60%
Physiology (8/10) 80%
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