-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 41 year old lawyer presents with diarrhoea and bleeding from the rectum which has been occurring for the past 16 days. She has also noticed that she has had incontinence at night. What is her most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Inflammatory bowel disease
Explanation:Answer: Inflammatory bowel disease
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is an idiopathic disease caused by a dysregulated immune response to host intestinal microflora. The two major types of inflammatory bowel disease are ulcerative colitis (UC), which is limited to the colonic mucosa, and Crohn disease (CD), which can affect any segment of the gastrointestinal tract from the mouth to the anus, involves skip lesions, and is transmural. There is a genetic predisposition for IBD, and patients with this condition are more prone to the development of malignancy.
Generally, the manifestations of IBD depend on the area of the intestinal tract involved. The symptoms, however, are not specific for this disease. They are as follows:
Abdominal cramping
Irregular bowel habits, passage of mucus without blood or pus
Weight loss
Fever, sweats
Malaise, fatigue
Arthralgias
Growth retardation and delayed or failed sexual maturation in children
Extraintestinal manifestations (10-20%): Arthritis, uveitis, or liver disease
Grossly bloody stools, occasionally with tenesmus: Typical of UC, less common in CD
Perianal disease (e.g., fistulas, abscesses): Fifty percent of patients with CD
The World Gastroenterology Organization (WGO) indicates the following symptoms may be associated with inflammatory damage in the digestive tract [1] :
Diarrhoea: mucus or blood may be present in the stool; can occur at night; incontinence may occur
Constipation: this may be the primary symptom in ulcerative colitis, when the disease is limited to the rectum; obstipation may occur and may proceed to bowel obstruction
Bowel movement abnormalities: pain or rectal bleeding may be present, as well as severe urgency and tenesmus
Abdominal cramping and pain: commonly present in the right lower quadrant in Crohn disease; occur peri umbilically or in the left lower quadrant in moderate to severe ulcerative colitis
Nausea and vomiting: occurs more often in Crohn disease than in ulcerative colitis
The nocturnal diarrhoea and incontinence are important symptoms in diagnosis IBD.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal Surgery
- Generic Surgical Topics
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 52 year old man complains of significant abdominal pain and presents to his family doctor. Past medical history shows that he is recovering following a live donor related renal transplant. Which analgesic drug would be avoided in this patient?
Your Answer: Diclofenac
Explanation:As a class, NSAIDs are known to have direct nephrotoxic effects including afferent vasoconstriction leading to reduced glomerular filtration; allergic reactions leading to tubulointerstitial nephritis; nephrotic syndromes, which commonly include minimal change disease and membranous glomerulonephropathy; fluid and sodium retention; worsening of pre-existing hypertension; papillary necrosis and various electrolyte disturbances, including hyponatremia, hyperkalaemia and type 4 renal tubular acidosis.
The use of NSAIDs should be minimized among patients with Stage 3 CKD and avoided in those with Stage 4 or Stage 5 CKD with residual kidney function or recipients of kidney transplant regardless of CKD stage. It is conceivable that compromised intraglomerular hemodynamic may be potentiated with concurrent use of NSAIDs and calcineurin inhibitors in the transplant setting.
Diclofenac which is an NSAID should therefore be avoided in this patient. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Organ Transplantation
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 60 year old woman develops an enterocutaneous fistula which is high output following a recent stricturoplasty. Her medical history shows that she has been suffering from small bowel Crohn's disease for the past 17 years. A small bowel follow through shows it to be 14 cm from the DJ flexure and her overlying skin is becoming excoriated. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Commence TPN and octreotide
Explanation:Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is usually indicated with suspected gastric, duodenal, or small-bowel fistula. When the fistula output is very high, discontinuance of oral intake is recommended because oral intake stimulates further losses of fluids, electrolytes, and protein via the fistula. A decrease in fistula output frequently occurs with the initiation of TPN.
Volume depletion from a proximal high-output fistula can be controlled with the use of the long-acting somatostatin analogue octreotide, which acts by inhibiting GI hormones. The administration of octreotide reportedly diminishes fistula output, but whether it shortens the time required for fistula closure remains to be determined.
Draus et al recommended a 3-day trial of octreotide, maintaining that if the fistula output is reduced during this time, then administration of the drug should be continued. Two meta-analyses showed that somatostatin and its analogues decreased the time for fistula closure and increased the closure rate. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- The Abdomen
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 32 year old woman complains of a sudden, severe headache, the worst one she has ever experienced and collapses. CT scan shows a subarachnoid haemorrhage. However, she currently has no signs of an elevated ICP. Which of the following drugs should be administered?
Your Answer: Nimodipine
Explanation:Nimodipine, a calcium-channel antagonist with a relatively selective vasodilatory effect on cerebral blood vessels, has been approved for improvement of neurologic deficits due to spasm following subarachnoid haemorrhage. Oral nimodipine is the most studied calcium channel blocker for prevention of vasospasm after Subarachnoid haemorrhage.
An American Heart Association/American Stroke Association guideline recommends its use for this purpose (class I, level of evidence A). Calcium channel blockers have been shown to reduce the incidence of ischemic neurologic deficits, and nimodipine has been shown to improve overall outcome within 3 months of aneurysmal SAH. Calcium channel blockers and other antihypertensives should be used cautiously to avoid the deleterious effects of hypotension. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Surgical Disorders Of The Brain
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 35 year old woman presents to her family physician complaining of perianal discomfort. She is diagnosed with pruritis ani. Which of the following would not be associated with this condition?
Your Answer: Tuberculosis
Explanation:Tuberculosis is least likely to be associated with this condition. Anal pruritus affects up to 5% of the population. It is often persistent and the constant urge to scratch the area can cause great distress. Although usually caused by a combination of irritants, particularly faecal soiling and dietary factors, it can be a symptom of serious dermatosis, skin or generalised malignancy or systemic illness.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal Surgery
- Generic Surgical Topics
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 32 year old man is brought to the emergency department in a collapsed state with an episode of melaena. Previous history is significant for post prandial abdominal pain for 5 weeks and is usually worse after having a meal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this presentation?
Your Answer: Anterior duodenal ulcer
Correct Answer: Posterior duodenal ulcer
Explanation:Duodenal ulcers are more common than gastric ulcers and unlike gastric ulcers, are caused by increased gastric acid secretion. Duodenal ulcers are commonly located anteriorly, and rarely posteriorly. Anterior ulcers can be complicated by perforation, while the posterior ones bleed. The reason for that is explained by their location. The peritoneal or abdominal cavity is located anterior to the duodenum. Therefore, if the ulcer grows deep enough, it will perforate, whereas if a posterior ulcer grows deep enough, it will perforate the gastroduodenal artery and bleed.
Patients with duodenal ulcers will usually have a history of epigastric pain that occurs several hours after eating. The pain is often improved by eating food. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 21-year-old woman presents with an episode of greenish discharge from the left nipple. Clinical examination of the breast is normal. Her breast USS report is U1 (normal). What should be the best course of action?
Your Answer: Reassure and discharge
Explanation:This is likely to be a case of simple duct ectasia. Normal USS report coupled with normal examination would favour discharge from the clinic. Mammography is generally not helpful in this age group.
Possible causes of nipple discharge include:
1. Abscess
2. Birth control pills
3. Breast cancer
4. Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)
5. Endocrine disorders
6. Excessive breast stimulation
7. Fibrocystic breasts (lumpy or rope-like breast tissue)
8. Galactorrhoea
9. Injury or trauma to the breast
10. Intraductal papilloma (benign, wart-like growth in a milk duct)
11. Mammary duct ectasia
12. Mastitis (an infection in breast tissue that most commonly affects women who are breast-feeding)
13. Medication use
14. Menstrual cycle hormone changes
15. Paget’s disease of the breast
16. Periductal mastitis
17. Pregnancy and breast-feeding
18. ProlactinomaAssessment and management of non-malignant nipple discharge includes:
1. Exclude endocrine disease
2. Nipple cytology is not carried out as it would be unhelpful
3. Smoking cessation advice given for duct ectasia
4. Total duct excision may be warranted for duct ectasia with severe symptoms -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Breast And Endocrine Surgery
- Generic Surgical Topics
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 44 year old actor presents with an attack of mild acute pancreatitis. Imaging identifies gallstones but a normal calibre bile duct, and a peripancreatic fluid collection. Which management option would be the most appropriate?
Your Answer: Cholecystectomy once the attack has settled
Explanation:Pancreatitis is inflammation of the pancreas with variable involvement of regional tissues or remote organ systems. Acute pancreatitis (AP) is characterized by severe pain in the upper abdomen and elevation of pancreatic enzymes in the blood. In the majority of patients,
Biliary pancreatitis should always be treated eventually with a cholecystectomy after the process has subsided.
Feeding should be introduced enterally as the patient’s anorexia and pain resolves.
The use of nasogastric aspiration offers no clear advantage in patients with mild AP, but is beneficial in patients with profound pain, severe disease, paralytic ileus, and intractable vomiting.
AP is a mild, self-limiting disease that resolves spontaneously without complications. Patients can be initiated on a low-fat diet initially and need not invariably start their dietary advancement using a clear liquid diet. Systematic reviews and meta-analyses have shown that administration of enteral nutrition may reduce mortality and infectious complications compared with parenteral nutrition. Although the ideal timing to initiate enteral feeding remains undetermined, administration within 48 hours appears to be safe and tolerated. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 34 year old athlete presents to the clinic after receiving a hard blow to his palm that has resulted into a painful swelling over the volar aspect of his hand. On examination, pain is felt on wrist movement and longitudinal compression of the thumb. Which of the following is the most likely injury?
Your Answer: Scaphoid fracture
Explanation:The scaphoid bone is the most commonly fractured carpal bone. Fractures are most often localized in the middle third of the scaphoid bone.
Generally, scaphoid bone fractures result from indirect trauma when an individual falls onto the outstretched hand with a hyperextended and radially deviated wrist. Pain when applying pressure to the anatomical snuffbox is highly suggestive of a scaphoid bone fracture.
X-ray is the initial test of choice for diagnosis. Computer tomography and magnetic resonance imaging may be indicated, if x-ray findings are negative but clinical suspicion is high.
Treatment can be conservative (e.g., wrist immobilization) or in certain cases surgical (e.g., proximal pole fracture). Complications include non-union and avascular necrosis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 60 year old alcoholic man is seen in the A&E department. When asked his reason for being there, he says he is looking for a place to sleep for the night. He is examined by one of the doctors and has no evidence of trauma, a skull x-ray fails to show any evidence of fracture. He is placed on observation and ten hours later, he develops a sudden onset headache, falls into a coma and then dies. What is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Sub arachnoid haemorrhage
Explanation:The classic symptom of subarachnoid haemorrhage is thunderclap headache (a headache described as like being kicked in the head, or the worst ever, developing over seconds to minutes). This headache often pulsates towards the occiput (the back of the head). About one-third of people have no symptoms apart from the characteristic headache, and about one in ten people who seek medical care with this symptom are later diagnosed with a subarachnoid haemorrhage. Vomiting may be present, and 1 in 14 have seizures. Confusion, decreased level of consciousness or coma may be present, as may neck stiffness and other signs of meningism.
In 85 percent of spontaneous cases the cause is a cerebral aneurysm—a weakness in the wall of one of the arteries in the brain that becomes enlarged. They tend to be located in the circle of Willis and its branches. While most cases are due to bleeding from small aneurysms, larger aneurysms (which are less common) are more likely to rupture. Aspirin also appears to increase the risk.
In 15–20 percent of cases of spontaneous SAH, no aneurysm is detected on the first angiogram. About half of these are attributed to non-aneurysmal perimesencephalic haemorrhage, in which the blood is limited to the subarachnoid spaces around the midbrain (i.e. mesencephalon). In these, the origin of the blood is uncertain. The remainder are due to other disorders affecting the blood vessels (such as cerebral arteriovenous malformations), disorders of the blood vessels in the spinal cord, and bleeding into various tumours.
Genetics may play a role in a person’s disposition to SAH; risk is increased three- to fivefold in first-degree relatives of people having had a subarachnoid haemorrhage. But lifestyle factors are more important in determining overall risk. These risk factors are smoking, hypertension (high blood pressure), and excessive alcohol consumption.
The absence of trauma and skull fracture rules out the other types of haemorrhages and haematomas. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Surgical Disorders Of The Brain
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
A 23-year-old man presents to the hospital with complaints of pain in the lower limbs after walking for five minutes, which improves after three minutes of stopping. On examination, he is found to have reduced hair growth on the lower limbs, and his calf muscles appear atrophied. There is a weak popliteal pulse and it remains intact when the knee is fully extended. What could be the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Adductor canal compression syndrome
Explanation:Adductor canal compression syndrome most commonly presents in young males, and it is important to differentiate it from acute limb ischaemia on exertion. Of the listed options, popliteal fossa entrapment is the main differential diagnosis. However, the popliteal pulse disappears when the knee is fully extended in popliteal fossa entrapment.
Adductor canal compression syndrome is caused by compression of the femoral artery by the musculotendinous band of adductor magnus muscle. The treatment consists of division of the abnormal band and restoration of the arterial circulation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Vascular
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
A 26-year-old man sustains a Holstein-Lewis fracture of the left arm. Which of the following nerves is at risk of damage?
Your Answer: Radial
Explanation:Holstein-Lewis fracture is a fracture of the distal third of the humerus resulting in entrapment of the radial nerve. The radial nerve is one of the major peripheral nerves of the upper limb. It innervates all the muscles in the extensor compartments of the arm.
Conservative treatment for this fracture includes reduction and use of a functional brace. However, vascular injury may require open surgery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
A 63 year old man presents with recurrent colicky abdominal pain. A CT scan demonstrates a hernia lateral to the rectus muscle at the level of the arcuate line. What type of hernia would this be classified as?
Your Answer: Spigelian
Explanation:A Spigelian hernia (or lateral ventral hernia) is a hernia through the Spigelian fascia, which is the aponeurotic layer between the rectus abdominis muscle medially, and the semilunar line laterally. These are generally interparietal hernias, meaning that they do not lie below the subcutaneous fat but penetrate between the muscles of the abdominal wall; therefore, there is often no notable swelling.
Spigelian hernias are usually small and therefore risk of strangulation is high. Most occur on the right side. (4th–7th decade of life.) Compared to other types of hernias they are rare.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- The Abdomen
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
A 30-year-old male falls on the back of his hand. On x-ray, he has a fractured distal radius demonstrating volar displacement of the fracture. What eponymous term is used to describe this?
Your Answer: Smith's
Explanation:The Frykman classification of distal radial fractures is based on the AP appearance and encompasses the eponymous entities of Colles fracture, Smith fracture, Barton fracture, chauffeur fracture.
Colles fractures are very common extra-articular fractures of the distal radius that occur as the result of a fall onto an outstretched hand. They consist of a fracture of the distal radial metaphyseal region with dorsal angulation and impaction, but without the involvement of the articular surface.
Colles fractures are the most common type of distal radial fracture and are seen in all adult age groups and demographics. They are particularly common in patients with osteoporosis, and as such, they are most frequently seen in elderly women.Smith fractures, also known as Goyrand fractures in the French literature 3, are fractures of the distal radius with associated volar angulation of the distal fracture fragment(s). Classically, these fractures are extra-articular transverse fractures and can be thought of like a reverse Colles fracture.
The term is sometimes used to describe intra-articular fractures with volar displacement (reverse Barton fracture) or juxta-articular fracturesBarton fractures are fractures of the distal radius. It is also sometimes termed the dorsal type Barton fracture to distinguish it from the volar type or reverse Barton fracture.
Barton fractures extend through the dorsal aspect to the articular surface but not to the volar aspect. Therefore, it is similar to a Colles fracture. There is usually associated with dorsal subluxation/dislocation of the radiocarpal joint.Chauffeur fractures (also known as Hutchinson fractures or backfire fractures) are intra-articular fractures of the radial styloid process. The radial styloid is within the fracture fragment, although the fragment can vary markedly in size.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
A 21-year-old woman is admitted with loin pain and fever. She has given a history of haematuria for the past one week with associated dysuria, for which she was started on trimethoprim as an empirical outpatient treatment.What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pyelonephritis
Explanation:This is most likely a case of pyelonephritis.
Acute pyelonephritis is a common bacterial infection of the renal pelvis and kidneys most often seen in young adult women. History and physical examination are the most important tools for diagnosis. Most patients have fever, although it may be absent early in the illness. E. coli is the most common pathogen in acute pyelonephritis.
For diagnosing the disease:
1. A positive urinalysis confirms the diagnosis in patients with a compatible history and physical examination.
2. Urine culture should be obtained in all patients to guide antibiotic therapy if the patient does not respond to initial empirical antibiotic regimens.
3. Imaging, usually with contrast-enhanced CT scan, is not necessary unless there is no improvement in the patient’s symptoms or if there is recurrence of symptoms after initial improvement.Outpatient treatment is appropriate for most patients. Inpatient therapy is recommended for patients who have severe illness or in whom a complication is suspected. Oral beta-lactam antibiotics and trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole are generally inappropriate for outpatient therapy because of high resistance rates. Several antibiotic regimens can be used for inpatient treatment, including fluoroquinolones, aminoglycosides, and cephalosporins.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Urology
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
A 38 year old teacher presents with a mass lesion in her left breast. A biopsy and imaging confirmed a 2.5cm lesion in the upper inner quadrant of her left breast and a 1.5cm lesion at the central aspect of the same breast. Examination of her axilla revealed lymphadenopathy and a fine needle aspirate from the node showed malignant cells. Which of the following would be the best course of action?
Your Answer: Simple mastectomy and axillary node clearance
Explanation:Indications for a simple mastectomy with a concomitant axillary procedure, which may be either a sentinel node biopsy or an axillary clearance, are as follows:
– Locally advanced breast cancer
– Multifocal breast cancer
– Large tumour relative to the size of the breast, excision of which may compromise final cosmesis
– Extensive ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)Multifocality and multicentricity (MFMC) are frequently used descriptors to assess the extent of disease in patients presenting breast cancer. The presence of two or more foci of cancer within the same breast quadrant is defined as multifocal, while the presence of two or more foci of cancer in different quadrants of the same breast is defined as multicentric. A simple mastectomy involves removing the breast along with an ellipse of skin that encompasses the nipple-areola complex. Unlike a radical mastectomy, it does not involve removal of the underlying muscles and uninvolved lymph nodes.
Patient unsuitability for breast-conserving approaches as a result of contraindications for radiation therapy – Such contraindications include a previous history of chest wall irradiation, either after previous breast-conserving therapy or in mantle field radiation therapy for lymphoma; severe skin disorders, such as scleroderma and psoriasis; and severe pulmonary dysfunction
Patient preference for mastectomy – A patient who is a suitable candidate for breast conservation may opt for a mastectomy instead.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Breast And Endocrine Surgery
- Generic Surgical Topics
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
A 27-year-old ski instructor who falls off a ski lift and sustains a spiral fracture of the midshaft of the tibia. Attempts to achieve a satisfactory position in plaster have failed. Overlying tissues are healthy. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Intramedullary nail
Explanation:Initially, all tibial shaft fractures should be stabilized with a long posterior splint with the knee in 10-15° of flexion and the ankle flexed at 90°
Closed fractures with minimal displacement or stable reduction may be treated nonoperatively with a long leg cast, but cast application should be delayed for 3-5 days to allow early swelling to diminish. The cast should extend from the midthigh to the metatarsal heads, with the ankle at 90° of flexion and the knee extended. The cast increases tibial stability and can decrease pain and swelling.
Despite proper casting techniques and adequate follow-up, not all nonoperatively treated tibial shaft fractures heal successfully.
Operative fixation is required when fractures are unstable. Surgical options include plating, external fixation, intramedullary nailing, and, in some cases, amputation.
Intramedullary nailing with locking screws (see the image below) has become the treatment of choice for most tibial shaft fractures. The prevalence of non-union and malunion is greatly decreased in comparison with the other methods of fixation. Patients are also able to return to low-impact activities much sooner than they can with the other treatments. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old man presents to the A&E department after being shot in the back, in the lumbar region. On examination, he has increased tone and hyperreflexia of his right leg and hemianaesthesia of his left leg. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Transverse myelitis
Correct Answer: Brown-Sequard syndrome
Explanation:This is a case of Brown-Sequard syndrome.
Brown-Sequard syndrome is caused by hemisection of the spinal cord following stab injuries or lateral vertebral fractures. It results in ipsilateral paralysis (pyramidal tract), and also loss of proprioception and fine discrimination(dorsal columns). Pain and temperature sensations are lost on the contralateral side. This is because the fibres of the spinothalamic tract have decussated below the level of the cord transection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
A three week old baby is referred to surgery by his paediatrician because she has a painful area of macerated tissue at the site of the umbilicus. When he cries, a clear-yellowish fluid is seen to be draining from the umbilicus. Which of the following would be the correct diagnosis?
Your Answer: Patent urachus
Explanation:A patent urachus is one of the spectrum of congenital urachal anomalies. It has occasionally been termed urachal fistula. In an open (or patent) urachus, there is an opening between the bladder and the belly button (navel). The urachus is a tube between the bladder and the belly button that is present before birth. In most cases, it closes along its full length before the baby is born. An open urachus occurs mostly in infants. A patent urachus is often diagnosed in neonates when urine is noted leaking from the umbilicus. The umbilicus may also have an abnormal appearance on physical exam.
A patent urachus predisposes to infection. If the urachal disorder presents with an infection, the infection is treated first. This requires antibiotics, possible admission for intravenous antibiotics, and occasional surgical drainage of any infected cyst or poorly draining cavity. Once the infection is under control, excision of the urachus is usually performed. This can usually be done laparoscopically or with a small incision on the lower abdomen. Patients usually stay in the hospital 1-2 days after the surgery. The urachus can be excised because in normal development it usually obliterates anyway. The umbilicus is not removed.
Omphalitis is an infection of the umbilicus and/or surrounding tissues, occurring primarily in the neonatal period. Omphalitis is primarily a disease of the neonate and is characterized by tenderness, erythema, and induration of the umbilicus and surrounding tissues. Early on, patients may only have superficial cellulitis but, if untreated, this can progress to involve the entire abdominal wall. Patients may also have purulent drainage or be bleeding from the umbilical cord stump. Foul-smelling drainage should raise the suspicion of anaerobic infection.
Patent vitellointestinal or persistent omphalomesenteric duct is a very unusual congenital anomaly which occurs in 2% of population related with the embryonic yolk stalk. A persistent vitellointestinal duct can induce abdominal pain, bowel obstruction, intestinal haemorrhage and umbilical sinus, fistula or hernia which commonly occurs in children.
An umbilical granuloma is a moist, red lump of tissue that can form on a baby’s navel (belly button). It can be seen in the first few weeks of life, after the umbilical cord has dried and fallen off. It’s usually a minor problem that looks worse than it is. An umbilical granuloma does not cause pain. It may ooze a small amount of fluid that can make the skin around it red and irritated.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Paediatric Surgery
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
A 36 year old woman who smokes heavily arrives at the clinic complaining of frequent stools and crampy abdominal pain that has been occurring for some time. She undergoes colonoscopy (which is macroscopically normal) and several pan colonic biopsies are taken. Histologic analysis reveals a thickened sub apical collagen layer and increased lymphocytes in the lamina propria. Which of the following diagnosis is most likely?
Your Answer: Microscopic colitis
Explanation:Microscopic colitis is an inflammation of the large intestine (colon) that causes persistent watery diarrhoea. The disorder gets its name from the fact that it’s necessary to examine the colon tissue under a microscope to identify it, since the tissue may appear normal with a colonoscopy or flexible sigmoidoscopy. It is characterised by normal endoscopic appearances, microscopic features of colonic inflammation and thickening of the sub epithelial collagen layer. Features such as granulomas are absent. It is the normal endoscopic appearance that makes the other options less likely.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- The Abdomen
-
-
Question 21
Correct
-
A 30-year-old male is reviewed in the clinic. He has suffered from Crohn's disease for many years, he has recently undergone a subtotal colectomy. However, he has residual Crohns in his rectum causing the ongoing symptoms. Medical therapy is ineffective. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Proctectomy
Explanation:Treatment of Crohn’s disease is based on the disease site, pattern, activity, and severity. The general goals of treatment for Crohn’s disease are as follows:
To achieve the best possible clinical, laboratory, and histologic control of the inflammatory disease with the least adverse effects from medication.
To permit the patient to function as normally as possible.
Therapy for mild Crohn’s disease is typically administered in a sequential “step-up” approach, in which less aggressive and less toxic treatments are initiated first, followed by more potent medications or procedures if the initial therapy fails.
Patients are treated with preparations of 5-aminosalicylic acid (5-ASA), antibiotics, and nutritional therapy. However, the use of 5-ASA for the treatment of Crohn’s disease is controversial; only a small subset of patients may benefit from this agent. Although 5-ASA is effective for reducing disease activity in active Crohn’s disease, it typically has a lower efficacy for Crohn’s disease than for ulcerative colitis, and its efficacy for maintenance of remission remains unproven.If no response occurs or if the disease is more severe than initially thought, corticosteroids and inhibitors of DNA synthesis (i.e., immunomodulators) with 6-mercaptopurine (6-MP)/azathioprine or methotrexate are administered. Finally, biologic agents (infliximab, adalimumab, certolizumab pegol, and natalizumab) and surgical therapies can be useful.
For the treatment of moderate to severe Crohn’s disease, current recommendations include the “top-down” approach, which differs from the conventional step-up approach in that more potent agents are administered initially. Top-down therapies include biologic agents and steroids as needed versus combination therapy with both biologic drugs and immunomodulatory agents.
Azathioprine or 6-MP is effective for maintenance of remission in Crohn’s disease; each is effective for avoiding surgery and for preventing postoperative and endoscopic relapse. Both agents can be used in combination with infliximab.
If medical therapy for active Crohn’s disease fails, surgical resection of the inflamed bowel, with the restoration of continuity, is indicated.
Recommended indications for surgical intervention include the following:
Failed medical therapy
Persistent symptoms despite high-dose corticosteroid therapy
Treatment-related complications, including intra-abdominal abscesses
Medically intractable fistulae
Fibrotic strictures with obstructive symptoms
Toxic megacolon
Intractable haemorrhage
Perforation
CancerFor Rectal Crohn’s: Proctectomy is appropriate, and in published series, it is required in 10 to 20% of cases. Unfortunately, proctectomy can be complicated by poor wound healing and perineal sinus formation in up to 25 to 50% of patients. A gracillis flap can be helpful.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal Surgery
- Generic Surgical Topics
-
-
Question 22
Correct
-
A 37 year old female is admitted after she vomited blood. An upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is performed and a large ulcer in the first part of the duodenum is noted. Attempts are made to endoscopically clip and inject the ulcer which is bleeding profusely but they are unsuccessful. What is the most appropriate management option?
Your Answer: Laparotomy and underrunning of the ulcer
Explanation:Ulcer bleeding stops spontaneously in about 80% of patients. Only a small percentage require specific measures to stop bleeding. surgery remains the most definitive method of controlling ulcer haemorrhage, and is indicated when endoscopic haemostasis fails to control the bleeding, or when rebleeding occurs. The morbidity and mortality of emergency surgery for ulcer bleeding is high. In principle, the operation performed should be the minimum compatible with permanent haemostasis. The choice of operations is determined by the site and size of the ulcer as well as the experience and preference of the surgeon. Most bleeding duodenal ulcers may be managed by underrunning the bleeding vessel together with vagotomy and pyloroplasty.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
A 1 day old premature baby boy is observed to be hypotonic and unresponsive. He was born by emergency caesarean section. Which of the following is most likely the cause?
Your Answer: Intraventricular haemorrhage
Explanation:Germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH) is a complication of premature delivery that can result in life-long medical and developmental consequences. Although GM/IVH can occur in term infants, haemorrhage in this group of infants remains distinct from periventricular haemorrhage (PVH)/IVH of the preterm infant. Several acquired lesions of the central nervous system (CNS) specifically affect infants born prematurely and result in long-term disability, including GM/IVH, periventricular white matter injury (e.g., cystic periventricular leukomalacia [CPVL], periventricular haemorrhagic infarction [PVHI]), haemorrhage, and diffuse injury to the developing brain.
The physical examination is usually negative in germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH). Occasionally, severe GM/IVH may present with nonspecific systemic findings suggestive of cardiovascular collapse.One subgroup of infants with GM/IVH presents with the following:
– A sudden unexplained drop in haematocrit levels
– Possible physical findings related to anaemia (e.g., pallor, poor perfusion) or haemorrhagic shockAnother subgroup of infants with GM/IVH presents with extreme signs, including the following:
– A sudden and significant clinical deterioration associated with anaemia, metabolic acidosis, glucose instability, respiratory acidosis, apnoea, hypotonia, and stupor is present.Physical findings related to these signs include poor perfusion, pallor or an ashen colour, irregularities of respiratory pattern, signs of respiratory distress including retractions and tachypnoea, hypotonia, and altered mental status (e.g., decreased responsiveness, coma).
Additional neurologic signs, such as fullness of the fontanelles, seizures, and posturing, may also be observed. Progression can be rapid and may result in shock and death.
Extradural haemorrhage also known as an epidural hematoma, is a collection of blood that forms between the inner surface of the skull and outer layer of the dura, which is called the endosteal layer. They are usually associated with a history of head trauma and frequently associated skull fracture. The source of bleeding is usually arterial, most commonly from a torn middle meningeal artery.
A subdural haemorrhage (or hematoma) is a type of bleeding that often occurs outside the brain as a result of a severe head injury. It takes place when blood vessels burst between the brain and the leather-like membrane that wraps around the brain (the dura mater). The pooling blood creates pressure on the surface of the brain, causing a variety of problems.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Surgical Disorders Of The Brain
-
-
Question 24
Correct
-
A 24-year-old rugby player sustains a fracture of the distal radius after falling on his outstretched right hand during the game. X-ray shows a dorsally angulated comminuted fracture. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Admit for open reduction and internal fixation
Explanation:This is a case of a high-velocity injury and, therefore, requires surgical fixation.
Bony injury resulting in a fracture may occur due to trauma (excessive force applied to bone), stress (repetitive low-velocity injury), or underlying pathology (abnormal bone which fractures during normal use or following minimal trauma).
Diagnosis involves not just evaluating the fracture, such as the site and type of injury, but also other associated injuries and distal neurovascular status. This may entail not just clinical examination but radiographs of proximal and distal joints. When assessing x-rays, it is important to assess for changes in the length of the bone, the angulation of the distal bone, rotational effects, and the presence of a foreign body such as glass.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 25
Correct
-
A 2-day old neonate is developing increasing problems with feeding. On examination, she has a pan systolic murmur and her forearms have not developed properly. What is the most likely underlying problem?
Your Answer: Oesophageal atresia
Explanation:The child has VACTERL
Over 50% of infants with oesophageal atresia have one or more additional anomalies.
The VATER association consists of a combination of anomalies including vertebral, anorectal, tracheooesophageal and renal or radial abnormalities. This association was later expanded as the VACTERL association to include cardiac and limb defects.
Other associations which may include oesophageal atresia are the CHARGE association (coloboma, heart defects, atresia choanal, retarded growth and development, genital hypoplasia and ear deformities), POTTER’S syndrome (renal agenesis, pulmonary hypoplasia, typical dysmorphic facies) and SCHISIS association (omphalocele, cleft lip and/or palate, genital hypoplasia). Genetic defects associated with oesophageal atresia include Trisomy 21 and 18, and 13q deletion. Of the cardiac anomalies, the most common are ventricular septal defect and tetralogy of Fallot. Major cardiac malformations are one of the main causes of mortality in infants with oesophageal atresia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Paediatric Surgery
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old man has a long history of ulcerative colitis. His symptoms are well-controlled with steroids. However, attempts at steroid weaning and use of steroid-sparing drugs have repeatedly failed. He wishes to avoid a permanent stoma. Which of the following should be the best operative strategy?
Your Answer: Pan-proctolectomy and end ileostomy
Correct Answer:
Explanation:In patients with ulcerative colitis (UC) where medical management is not successful, surgical resection (pan-proctocolectomy) may offer a chance of cure. Those patients wishing to avoid a permanent stoma may be considered for an ileoanal pouch. However, this procedure is only offered in the elective setting.
Patients with inflammatory bowel disease (UC and Crohn’s disease) frequently present in surgical practice. Elective indications for surgery in UC include disease that requires maximal therapy or prolonged courses of steroids.
Long-standing UC is associated with a risk of malignant transformation. Dysplastic transformation of the colonic epithelium with associated mass lesions is an absolute indication for a proctocolectomy. Restorative options in UC include an ileoanal pouch. Complications of such a pouch include anastomotic dehiscence, pouchitis, and poor physiological function with seepage and soiling.
.
Emergency presentation of poorly-controlled colitis that fails to respond to medical therapy should usually be managed with a subtotal colectomy. Excision of the rectum is a procedure with a higher morbidity and is not generally performed in the emergency setting. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal Surgery
- Generic Surgical Topics
-
-
Question 27
Correct
-
A 48 year old woman with episodes of recurrent urinary tract sepsis presents with a staghorn calculus of the right kidney. Her urinary pH is 7.8. An abdominal x-ray shows a faint outline of the calculus. What would be the most likely composition of the stone?
Your Answer: Struvite
Explanation:Staghorn calculi refer to branched stones that fill all or part of the renal pelvis and branch into several or all of the calyces. They are most often composed of struvite (magnesium ammonium phosphate) and/or calcium carbonate apatite. These stones are often referred to as ‘infection stones’ since they are strongly associated with urinary tract infections with urea splitting organisms. Small struvite and/or calcium carbonate apatite stones can grow rapidly over a period of weeks to months into large staghorn calculi involving the calyces and entire renal pelvis. If left untreated, this can lead to deterioration of kidney function and end-stage renal disease. In addition, since the stones often remain infected, there is a risk of developing sepsis. Thus, most patients require definitive surgical treatment.
Struvite stones account for 15% of renal calculi. They are associated with chronic urinary tract infection (UTI) with gram-negative, urease-positive organisms that split urea into ammonia, which then combines with phosphate and magnesium to crystalize into a calculus. Usual organisms include Proteus, Pseudomonas, and Klebsiella species. Escherichia coli is not capable of splitting urea and, therefore, is not associated with struvite stones. Because ammonia, a base, is produced during the catalytic process, the urine pH is typically greater than 7.
Underlying anatomical abnormalities that predispose patients to recurrent kidney infections should be sought and corrected. UTI does not resolve until the stone is removed entirely.
This patient has a urine pH of 7.8 which is very alkaline. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Urology
-
-
Question 28
Correct
-
A 39 year old man presents with dysphagia, which he has had for several years. Medical history shows that he has achalasia and has had numerous dilatations. Over the past month, his dysphagia has worsened. At endoscopy, a friable mass is noted in the oesophagus. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma
Explanation:Achalasia is a rare neurological deficit of the oesophagus that produces an impaired relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter and decreased motility of the oesophageal body. Achalasia is generally accepted to be a pre-malignant disorder, since, particularly in the mega-oesophagus, chronic irritation by foods and bacterial overgrowth may contribute to the development of dysplasia and carcinoma.
When oesophageal cancer develops in patients with underlying achalasia, diagnosis tends to be in the more advanced stages of cancer, compared to cases with no achalasia, because both physicians and patients often regard symptoms such as dysphagia and chest discomfort as attributable to the achalasia, rather than to other causes. Therefore, additional approaches that would lead to earlier diagnosis might be pursued less aggressively.
Achalasia is a predisposing factor for oesophageal squamous cell carcinoma. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
-
-
Question 29
Correct
-
A 46 year old policeman was admitted with peritonitis secondary to a perforated appendix. A laparoscopic appendicectomy was done but he had a stormy post operative course. He has now started to develop increasing abdominal pain and has been vomiting. A laparotomy is performed and at operation a large amount of small bowel shows evidence of patchy areas of infarction. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Mesenteric venous thrombosis
Explanation:Mesenteric venous thrombosis (MVT) is a blood clot in one or more of the major veins that drain blood from the intestine. The superior mesenteric vein is most commonly involved. The exact cause of MVT is unknown. However, there are many diseases that can lead to MVT. Many of the diseases cause swelling (inflammation) of the tissues surrounding the veins, and include:
Appendicitis
Cancer of the abdomen
Diverticulitis
Liver disease with cirrhosis
High blood pressure in the blood vessels of the liver
Abdominal surgery or trauma
Pancreatitis
Inflammatory bowel disorders
Heart failure
Protein C or S deficiencies
Polycythaemia vera
Essential thrombocythemia
People who have disorders that make the blood more likely to stick together (clot) have a higher risk for MVT. Birth control pills and oestrogen medicines also increase risk.MVT is more common in men than women. It mainly affects middle aged or older adults. Symptoms may include any of the following:
Abdominal pain, which may get worse after eating and over time; Bloating; Constipation; Bloody diarrhoea; Fever; Septic shock; Lower gastrointestinal bleeding; Vomiting and nausea.
Blood thinners (most commonly heparin or related medicines) are used to treat MVT when there is no associated bleeding. In some cases, medicine can be delivered directly into the clot to dissolve it. This procedure is called thrombolysis. Less often, the clot is removed by thrombectomy. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Vascular
-
-
Question 30
Correct
-
A 27-year-old male is admitted with left-sided loin pain that radiates to his groin. His investigations demonstrate a 9mm left-sided calculus within the proximal ureter. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Arrange a percutaneous extra corporeal shock wave lithotripsy
Explanation:EAU Guidelines on Urolithiasis recommend that
Proximal Ureteral Stone:
< 10 mm: shock wave lithotripsy (SWL) or ureterorenoscopy (URS)
> 10 mm: 1. URS (ante- or retrograde) 2. SWLContraindications of extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy:
– Pregnancy, due to the potential effects on the foetus.
– Bleeding diatheses, which should be compensated for at least 24 hours before and 48 hours after
treatment.
– Uncontrolled UTIs
– Severe skeletal malformations and severe obesity, which prevent targeting of the stone.
– Arterial aneurysm in the vicinity of the stone.
– Anatomical obstruction distal to the stone.Lowering shock wave frequency from 120 to 60-90 shock waves/min improves SFRs.
The number of shock waves that can be delivered at each session depends on the type of lithotripter and shock wave power. There is no consensus on the maximum number of shock waves.
Starting SWL on a lower energy setting with stepwise power (and SWL sequence) ramping can achieve vasoconstriction during treatment, which prevents renal injury. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Urology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)