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  • Question 1 - Which of the options below is not considered a primary delusion? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the options below is not considered a primary delusion?

      Your Answer: Delusional perception

      Correct Answer: Delusional guilt

      Explanation:

      Delusional guilt is an intense feeling of remorse or guilt that lacks a rational basis and is often associated with depression. It is not classified as a primary delusion.

      Borderline Learning Disability

      Borderline learning disability is a term used to describe individuals with an IQ between 70-85. This category is not officially recognized as a diagnosis by the ICD-11. It is estimated that approximately 15% of the population falls within this range (Chaplin, 2005). Unlike mild learning disability, borderline learning disability is not typically associated with deficits in adaptive functioning, such as grooming, dressing, safety, of money management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A client in their 50s taking risperidone reports an atypical feeling during ejaculation...

    Incorrect

    • A client in their 50s taking risperidone reports an atypical feeling during ejaculation and absence of semen. Which receptor is responsible for this side effect due to the medication's antagonism?

      Your Answer: Cholinergic

      Correct Answer: Adrenergic

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic medications change the tension of the bladder of urethral sphincter, which can result in the backward flow of semen into the bladder during ejaculation. This effect is believed to be caused by blocking the 1-adrenergic receptor.

      Antipsychotics: Common Side Effects and Relative Adverse Effects

      Antipsychotics are medications used to treat various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. However, they can also cause side effects that can be bothersome of even serious. The most common side effects of antipsychotics are listed in the table below, which includes the adverse effects associated with their receptor activity.

      Antidopaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block dopamine receptors in the brain. They can cause galactorrhoea, gynecomastia, menstrual disturbance, lowered sperm count, reduced libido, Parkinsonism, dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia.

      Anticholinergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block acetylcholine receptors in the brain. They can cause dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation.

      Antiadrenergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block adrenaline receptors in the body. They can cause postural hypotension and ejaculatory failure.

      Histaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block histamine receptors in the brain. They can cause drowsiness.

      The Maudsley Guidelines provide a rough guide to the relative adverse effects of different antipsychotics. The table below summarizes their findings, with +++ indicating a high incidence of adverse effects, ++ indicating a moderate incidence, + indicating a low incidence, and – indicating a very low incidence.

      Drug Sedation Weight gain Diabetes EPSE Anticholinergic Postural Hypotension Prolactin elevation
      Amisulpride – + + + – – +++
      Aripiprazole – +/- – +/- – – –
      Asenapine + + +/- +/- – – +/-
      Clozapine +++ +++ +++ – +++ +++ –
      Flupentixol + ++ + ++ ++ + +++
      Fluphenazine + + + +++ ++ + +++
      Haloperidol + + +/- +++ + + +++
      Olanzapine ++ +++ +++ +/- + + +
      Paliperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
      Pimozide + + – + + + +++
      Quetiapine ++ ++ ++ – + ++ –
      Risperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
      Zuclopenthixol ++ ++ + ++ ++ + +++

      Overall, it is important to discuss the potential side effects of antipsychotics with a healthcare provider and to monitor for any adverse effects while taking these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      2457.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which process breaks down dopamine? ...

    Correct

    • Which process breaks down dopamine?

      Your Answer: COMT and both forms of MAO

      Explanation:

      COMT and both types of MAO are responsible for the metabolism of dopamine.

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      156.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - If we consider Kohlberg's theory of moral development, what would be the expected...

    Correct

    • If we consider Kohlberg's theory of moral development, what would be the expected stage of moral development for a 12-year-old boy?

      Your Answer: Conventional

      Explanation:

      Developmental Stages

      There are four main developmental models that are important to understand: Freud’s theory of psychosexual development, Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development, Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, and Kohlberg’s theory of moral development.

      Freud’s theory of psychosexual development includes five stages: oral, anal, phallic, latency, and genital. These stages occur from birth to adulthood and are characterized by different areas of focus and pleasure.

      Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development includes eight stages, each with a specific crisis to be resolved. These stages occur from infancy to old age and are focused on developing a sense of self and relationships with others.

      Piaget’s theory of cognitive development includes four stages: sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational. These stages occur from birth to adulthood and are focused on the development of cognitive abilities such as perception, memory, and problem-solving.

      Kohlberg’s theory of moral development includes three stages: preconventional, conventional, and postconventional. These stages occur from childhood to adulthood and are focused on the development of moral reasoning and decision-making.

      Understanding these developmental models can help individuals better understand themselves and others, as well as provide insight into how to support healthy development at each stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      125.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of these options represents a primary reinforcer? ...

    Correct

    • Which of these options represents a primary reinforcer?

      Your Answer: Food

      Explanation:

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      57.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following statements is the most effective demonstration of strong interviewing...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is the most effective demonstration of strong interviewing abilities? Can you provide an example of a skillful interview technique?

      Your Answer: Premature assurances which are helpful

      Correct Answer: The use of non-verbal methods of communication

      Explanation:

      Effective interview techniques involve utilizing open-ended inquiries, actively listening to the interviewee, facilitating the conversation, being attentive to verbal, non-verbal, and vocal cues, seeking clarification when necessary, requesting specific examples, addressing emotional responses, reflecting on the information provided, using empathetic language, comprehending hypotheses, directly acknowledging emotions, verifying information, promoting accuracy, managing the pace of the interview, utilizing transitional statements, and summarizing key points.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Assessment
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which one of the following statements would be correct concerning phobias in a...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements would be correct concerning phobias in a 3-year-old girl?

      Your Answer: A 3-year-old girl will be scared of strangers

      Correct Answer: A 3-year-old girl will be scared of monsters

      Explanation:

      The types of fear that arise during childhood and adolescence vary depending on the age of the individual. Fear of new things, like strangers, is common at 6 months and peaks at 2 years old. Fear of heights typically starts at 6 to 8 months and intensifies when the child begins to walk. From 3 to 5 years old, children often fear animals, the dark, and monsters. Between 6 and 11 years old, fear of embarrassing social situations, such as being made fun of, may develop. During adolescence, fear of death, failure, social events like parties, and even nuclear war may become more prevalent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      168
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old man from a Latin American background arrives at the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man from a Latin American background arrives at the emergency department with a chief complaint of overwhelming anxiety. He expresses concern that his soul has departed from his body. What is the name of this cultural affliction?

      Your Answer: Amok

      Correct Answer: Susto

      Explanation:

      Susto is an anxiety disorder prevalent in South and Central America that is linked to the loss of soul. It typically occurs after experiencing a traumatic emotional of physical event.

      Amok is a dissociative state that is more commonly observed in Malaysia. It is characterized by symptoms such as neurasthenia, depersonalization, rage, automatism, and violent acts.

      Koro is a belief that the penis is shrinking and will retract into the abdomen, leading to death.

      Latah is a condition similar to Tourette’s syndrome, where an exaggerated startle response results in abnormal behaviors.

      Wendigo is a depressive disorder that involves the delusion of becoming cannibalistic. It is primarily observed in Native American communities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Stigma And Culture
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 60-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of nausea and...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of nausea and muscular weakness. He appears restless and mentions that he has recently been prescribed 'water pills'. His medical history reveals previous hospital visits for manic episodes. During the physical examination, you observe hypertonia. What is your suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Clozapine toxicity

      Correct Answer: Lithium toxicity

      Explanation:

      The term ‘water pills / tablets’ is sometimes used by patients to describe diuretics. When taking thiazide diuretics, there is a risk of elevated lithium levels, which can lead to symptoms indicative of lithium toxicity.

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      641.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Where are Lewy bodies commonly located within the basal ganglia in individuals with...

    Incorrect

    • Where are Lewy bodies commonly located within the basal ganglia in individuals with Parkinson's disease?

      Your Answer: The globus pallidus

      Correct Answer: The pars compacta

      Explanation:

      The midbrain contains a section called the pars compacta, which is made up of neurons that produce dopamine and is situated next to the pars reticulata. Parkinson’s disease is identified by the loss of these dopamine-producing neurons in this area.

      Parkinson’s Disease Pathology

      Parkinson’s disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that affects the central nervous system. The pathology of Parkinson’s disease is very similar to that of Lewy body dementia. The macroscopic features of Parkinson’s disease include pallor of the substantia nigra (midbrain) and locus coeruleus (pons). The microscopic changes include the presence of Lewy bodies, which are intracellular aggregates of alpha-synuclein. Additionally, there is a loss of dopaminergic cells from the substantia nigra pars compacta. These changes contribute to the motor symptoms of Parkinson’s disease, such as tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. Understanding the pathology of Parkinson’s disease is crucial for developing effective treatments and improving the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      195.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the term used to describe the condition where a person cannot...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe the condition where a person cannot identify faces?

      Your Answer: Prosopagnosia

      Explanation:

      Agnosia is a condition where a person loses the ability to recognize objects, persons, sounds, shapes, of smells, despite having no significant memory loss of defective senses. There are different types of agnosia, such as prosopagnosia (inability to recognize familiar faces), anosognosia (inability to recognize one’s own condition/illness), autotopagnosia (inability to orient parts of the body), phonagnosia (inability to recognize familiar voices), simultanagnosia (inability to appreciate two objects in the visual field at the same time), and astereoagnosia (inability to recognize objects by touch).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the term used to describe the inability to perceive multiple objects...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe the inability to perceive multiple objects in the visual field simultaneously?

      Your Answer: Simultanagnosia

      Explanation:

      Agnosia is a condition where a person loses the ability to recognize objects, persons, sounds, shapes, of smells, despite having no significant memory loss of defective senses. There are different types of agnosia, such as prosopagnosia (inability to recognize familiar faces), anosognosia (inability to recognize one’s own condition/illness), autotopagnosia (inability to orient parts of the body), phonagnosia (inability to recognize familiar voices), simultanagnosia (inability to appreciate two objects in the visual field at the same time), and astereoagnosia (inability to recognize objects by touch).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      31.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old male with a history of bipolar disorder experiences a relapse. During...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male with a history of bipolar disorder experiences a relapse. During examination, he repeatedly taps his foot on the ground for a few minutes at a time and then stops. He repeats this movement several times over the next hour.
      What type of motor disorder is he displaying?

      Your Answer: Stereotypy

      Explanation:

      Stereotypy is a repetitive and purposeless movement pattern that is often distractible and is a feature of catatonia in schizophrenia. Ambitendency involves alternating between cooperation and opposition, resulting in unpredictable behavior. Mannerisms are voluntary and odd movements that typically have some functional significance, unlike stereotyped movements. Schnauzkrampf, a facial expression where the nose and lips are drawn together in a pout, is one of the abnormal movement disorders seen in schizophrenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      108
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Who was the originator of the term 'stigma'? ...

    Correct

    • Who was the originator of the term 'stigma'?

      Your Answer: Erving Goffman

      Explanation:

      Erving Goffman was a prominent sociologist who made significant contributions to the field. He is well-known for his works such as The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life, Asylums, and Stigma. In fact, he is credited with introducing the term stigma into the sociological lexicon. Goffman’s ideas and theories have had a lasting impact on the study of sociology and continue to be studied and applied today.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      103.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A woman in her mid-thirties who works as a full-time employee at the...

    Correct

    • A woman in her mid-thirties who works as a full-time employee at the municipal office is experiencing symptoms of headache, dizziness, fatigue, and fever.

      Your Answer: Illness

      Explanation:

      Pilowsky introduced the term ‘abnormal illness behaviour’ to describe excessive of inadequate responses to symptoms, including hypochondriasis, somatisation, and denial of illness, which are all considered unhealthy conditions. On the other hand, healthy behaviour refers to actions taken by individuals to maintain, attain, of regain good health and prevent illness, which are influenced by their health beliefs. Illness behaviour, on the other hand, refers to how individuals perceive, evaluate, and respond to their own health status when they are sick. The sick role is a term used to describe the expectations and responsibilities society assigns to individuals who are ill, including being excused from responsibilities and seeking help to recover. However, in the scenario above, the behaviour relating to illness is not described.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Assessment
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the options experiences the lowest level of metabolism in the liver?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the options experiences the lowest level of metabolism in the liver?

      Your Answer: Bupropion

      Correct Answer: Gabapentin

      Explanation:

      Gabapentin, lithium, and topiramate require minimal of no hepatic metabolism, allowing them to be excreted without undergoing significant liver alteration.

      Drug Clearance: Understanding the Rate of Drug Removal from the Body

      Drug clearance refers to the efficiency of drug removal from the plasma, and is measured as the volume of plasma cleared of a drug over a specific time period. The unit of measurement for drug clearance is volume per time. Clearance of a drug involves both metabolism and excretion. When drug intake equals clearance, it is referred to as a steady state, which is usually achieved by 4.5 half-lives. The time taken to reach steady state depends on the half-life of the drug.

      There are two main types of clearance: hepatic and renal. Hepatic clearance involves the conversion of the parent drug into a different chemical entity by the liver enzymes, while renal clearance involves the removal of the drug from the plasma into the urine. The clearance of a drug can take one of two forms: zero and first-order kinetics. In zero-order reactions, the clearance of a drug is constant and not related to the concentration of the drug in the plasma. This type of reaction is typically found when the material needed for the reaction to proceed (e.g. enzyme) is saturated. Ethanol and Phenytoin are good examples of this.

      Most drugs tend to follow first-order reactions, where the clearance is related to the concentration of the drug in the plasma. The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall by half. In first-order reactions, this is constant. In zero-order reactions, it gets progressively shorter.

      It is important to note that elimination and clearance are not the same. Elimination is the irreversible removal of the drug from the body, while clearance is a theoretical volume of blood that is cleared of the drug per unit of time, which is independent of the drug dose of concentration. Understanding drug clearance is crucial in determining the appropriate dosing regimen for a drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      11.7
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  • Question 17 - What structure is impacted in the pathology of Parkinson's disease? ...

    Correct

    • What structure is impacted in the pathology of Parkinson's disease?

      Your Answer: Substantia nigra

      Explanation:

      Brain Structures and Functions

      The brain is a complex organ that is responsible for controlling various bodily functions. Among the important structures in the brain are the substantia nigra, hippocampus, hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and thalamus.

      The substantia nigra is a part of the basal ganglia located in the midbrain. It contains dopamine-producing neurons that regulate voluntary movement and mood. Parkinson’s disease is associated with the degeneration of the melanin-containing cells in the pars compacta of the substantia nigra.

      The hippocampus is a part of the limbic system that is involved in memory, learning, attention, and information processing.

      The hypothalamus is located at the base of the brain near the pituitary gland. It regulates thirst, hunger, circadian rhythm, emotions, and body temperature. It also controls the pituitary gland by secreting hormones.

      The pituitary gland is a small endocrine organ located below the hypothalamus in the middle of the base of the brain. It controls many bodily functions through the action of hormones and is divided into an anterior lobe, intermediate lobe, and posterior lobe.

      The thalamus is located above the brainstem and processes and relays sensory and motor information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      6.8
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  • Question 18 - Which statement accurately describes Ainsworth's strange situation procedure? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes Ainsworth's strange situation procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is done on children aged 12 to 18 months

      Explanation:

      Attachment (Ainsworth)

      Psychologist Mary Ainsworth developed the ‘Strange Situation procedure’ to study and categorize attachment in children aged 12 to 18 months. The procedure involves seven steps, including two separations and two reunions, and takes place in one room. The child’s attachment is classified into one of three styles: secure, anxious-resistant, and anxious-avoidant. A fourth category, disorganized, is sometimes observed. Ainsworth suggested that the child’s attachment style is determined by the primary caregiver’s behavior.

      Mary Main later developed the Adult Attachment Interview and identified four categories of attachment in adults that correspond to those observed in the strange situation. The distribution of adult attachment styles correlates with those of the strange situation, with 70% of children and adults having secure attachment. Attachment styles also seem to be passed on to subsequent generations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 19 - Which of the following is not a component of the syndrome of frontotemporal...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a component of the syndrome of frontotemporal lobe degeneration (FTLD)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior cortical atrophy

      Explanation:

      Frontotemporal lobe degeneration (FTLD) encompasses various syndromes, such as Pick’s disease, primary progressive aphasia (which impacts speech), semantic dementia (affecting conceptual knowledge), and corticobasal degeneration (characterized by asymmetrical akinetic-rigid syndrome and apraxia). It is important to note that posterior cortical atrophy, which involves tissue loss in the posterior regions and affects higher visual processing, is not considered a part of the FTLD syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      0
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  • Question 20 - One of Kraepelin's mixed affective states was which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • One of Kraepelin's mixed affective states was which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Depression with flight of ideas

      Explanation:

      Inhibited Mania

      Inhibited mania is one of the six mixed affective states identified by Kraepelin. It is characterized by symptoms of both mania and depression, but with a predominance of depressive features. Patients with inhibited mania may experience feelings of sadness, guilt, and worthlessness, as well as decreased energy and motivation. At the same time, they may also exhibit symptoms of mania, such as increased activity, impulsivity, and irritability.

      Inhibited mania is considered an autonomous mixed episode, meaning that the patient consistently experiences symptoms of both mania and depression. This type of mixed state is associated with a poorer prognosis compared to those occurring between transitions from one mood state to another.

      Treatment for inhibited mania typically involves a combination of mood stabilizers, antidepressants, and psychotherapy. It is important for clinicians to carefully monitor patients with inhibited mania, as they may be at increased risk for suicide and other adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 21 - At what level of Maslow's original hierarchy are the highest level needs addressed?...

    Incorrect

    • At what level of Maslow's original hierarchy are the highest level needs addressed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Self-actualisation

      Explanation:

      It is not uncommon for questions that we have written to end up on the exam. This has been a frequent occurrence throughout the years.

      Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs is a theory of motivation introduced by Abraham Maslow. The hierarchy consists of five levels, with the most basic needs at the bottom and the most advanced needs at the top. Maslow proposed that a person would only become concerned with the needs of a particular level when all the needs of the lower levels had been satisfied. The levels include physiological needs, safety needs, social needs, esteem needs, and self-actualization needs. Maslow also made a distinction between D-needs (deficiency needs) and B-needs (being needs), with B-needs allowing us to reach our full potential but only after D-needs have been satisfied. Later in life, Maslow expanded upon the model and included cognitive, aesthetic, and transcendence needs, resulting in an eight-staged model. The cognitive needs include knowledge and understanding, while aesthetic needs involve appreciation and search for beauty. Transcendence needs are motivated by values that transcend beyond the personal self.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 22 - What is a known risk factor for QT prolongation when analyzing an ECG?...

    Incorrect

    • What is a known risk factor for QT prolongation when analyzing an ECG?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypokalemia

      Explanation:

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      0
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  • Question 23 - Which of the following conditions is an example of the principle of locus...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is an example of the principle of locus heterogeneity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alzheimer's

      Explanation:

      Understanding Locus Heterogeneity in Genetic Disorders

      Locus heterogeneity is a term used to describe a genetic disorder of trait that is caused by mutations in genes located at different chromosomal loci. This means that multiple genes can contribute to the development of the same disorder of trait. For instance, Alzheimer’s disease is a classic example of locus heterogeneity. The condition can be caused by mutations in three different genes: presenilin 1, presenilin 2, and APP.

      The concept of locus heterogeneity is important in genetics because it highlights the complexity of genetic disorders. It means that a single genetic test may not be sufficient to diagnose a particular condition, as mutations in different genes can produce similar symptoms. Therefore, a comprehensive genetic analysis that examines multiple genes and loci may be necessary to accurately diagnose and treat a patient.

      In summary, locus heterogeneity is a common phenomenon in genetic disorders, where mutations in different genes can lead to the same condition. Understanding this concept is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment of genetic disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 24 - Which statement about the anatomy of the basal ganglia is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about the anatomy of the basal ganglia is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The subthalamic nucleus is part of the basal ganglia

      Explanation:

      The Basal Ganglia: Functions and Disorders

      The basal ganglia are a group of subcortical structures that play a crucial role in controlling movement and some cognitive processes. The components of the basal ganglia include the striatum (caudate, putamen, nucleus accumbens), subthalamic nucleus, globus pallidus, and substantia nigra (divided into pars compacta and pars reticulata). The putamen and globus pallidus are collectively referred to as the lenticular nucleus.

      The basal ganglia are connected in a complex loop, with the cortex projecting to the striatum, the striatum to the internal segment of the globus pallidus, the internal segment of the globus pallidus to the thalamus, and the thalamus back to the cortex. This loop is responsible for regulating movement and cognitive processes.

      However, problems with the basal ganglia can lead to several conditions. Huntington’s chorea is caused by degeneration of the caudate nucleus, while Wilson’s disease is characterized by copper deposition in the basal ganglia. Parkinson’s disease is associated with degeneration of the substantia nigra, and hemiballism results from damage to the subthalamic nucleus.

      In summary, the basal ganglia are a crucial part of the brain that regulate movement and some cognitive processes. Disorders of the basal ganglia can lead to significant neurological conditions that affect movement and other functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      0
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  • Question 25 - What is a true statement about GABA? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about GABA?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flumazenil is a GABA-A antagonist

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 26 - Which of the following indicates evidence of linkage based on the LOD score?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following indicates evidence of linkage based on the LOD score?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: > 3

      Explanation:

      Linkage and LOD Scores in Genetics

      In genetics, when genes are located close to each other on a chromosome, they tend to be inherited together and are referred to as linked genes. Conversely, genes that are far apart of located on different chromosomes are inherited independently and are said to follow independent assortment. To determine the relative distance between two genes, scientists can analyze the offspring of an organism that displays two strongly linked traits and calculate the percentage of offspring where the traits do not co-segregate.

      To determine if there is evidence for linkage between two genes, scientists use a statistical method called the LOD score (logarithm of the odds). A LOD score of >3 is considered significant evidence for linkage, while a LOD score of <-2 excludes linkage. The LOD score is calculated by comparing the likelihood of the observed data under the assumption of linkage to the likelihood of the data under the assumption of independent assortment. The LOD score provides a measure of the strength of evidence for linkage between two genes and is widely used in genetic research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 27 - What is the theory that suggests emotions and physiological responses happen at the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the theory that suggests emotions and physiological responses happen at the same time called?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cannon-Bard theory

      Explanation:

      Theories and Concepts in Psychology

      The field of psychology has developed various theories and concepts to explain human behavior and emotions. One of these is the Cannon-Bard theory, which proposes that emotions and physiological reactions occur simultaneously in response to a stimulus. However, this theory has been criticized for disregarding the influence of bodily functions on emotions.

      Another theory is the James-Lange theory, which suggests that physiological reactions precede emotions. However, studies have shown that emotions can still be felt even when somatic signals are removed, challenging this theory.

      The Thurstone Scale is a technique used to measure attitudes, while Maslow’s hierarchy of needs proposes that basic needs must be met before higher ones can be achieved. This hierarchy is often represented as a pyramid, with physiological needs at the base and self-actualization at the top.

      The Papez circuit, on the other hand, is a precursor to the limbic system, which is responsible for emotions, motivation, and memory. These theories and concepts continue to shape our understanding of human behavior and emotions in psychology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Psychological Processes
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  • Question 28 - What are the differences between CT and MRI? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the differences between CT and MRI?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CT is very good for imaging bone structures

      Explanation:

      Neuroimaging techniques can be divided into structural and functional types, although this distinction is becoming less clear as new techniques emerge. Structural techniques include computed tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), which use x-rays and magnetic fields, respectively, to produce images of the brain’s structure. Functional techniques, on the other hand, measure brain activity by detecting changes in blood flow of oxygen consumption. These include functional MRI (fMRI), emission tomography (PET and SPECT), perfusion MRI (pMRI), and magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS). Some techniques, such as diffusion tensor imaging (DTI), combine both structural and functional information to provide a more complete picture of the brain’s anatomy and function. DTI, for example, uses MRI to estimate the paths that water takes as it diffuses through white matter, allowing researchers to visualize white matter tracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 29 - Which individual delved into the field of medical sociology regarding the concept of...

    Incorrect

    • Which individual delved into the field of medical sociology regarding the concept of 'the sick role'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parson's

      Explanation:

      The Sick Role and Illness Behavior

      Mechanic and Volkart (1961) introduced the term illness behavior to describe how individuals perceive, evaluate, and respond to symptoms of physical dysfunction. Meanwhile, Talcott Parsons (1951) introduced the concept of the sick role as a temporary form of deviant behavior that is medically sanctioned.

      According to Parsons, a sick person experiences conflicting desires to recover from the illness and to enjoy the secondary gains of attention and exemption from normal duties. The sick role is characterized by several rules, including the exemption of the sick person from their normal social roles, which is legitimized by society through the physician. The severity of the illness determines the strength of the exemption.

      Additionally, sick persons are not held responsible for their illnesses, as they are beyond personal control. However, they have a duty to try to get well, as sickness is considered undesirable by society. Seeking competent technical help and cooperating with caregivers are also expected of sick persons.

      In summary, the sick role and illness behavior are important concepts in understanding how individuals respond to physical dysfunction and how society legitimizes and responds to illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 30 - Which of the following approaches could potentially decrease a patient's compliance with their...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following approaches could potentially decrease a patient's compliance with their prescribed treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Focusing on the expected positive outcomes of the treatment and not telling the patient about expected side effects

      Explanation:

      Patients who are not informed about the potential side effects of a medication may initially agree to treatment, but are less likely to follow through if they experience adverse effects. To improve adherence, healthcare providers can implement various strategies. These include educating patients about the treatment, discussing the benefits and drawbacks of different options, and promoting insight into the importance of prophylactic treatment. Encouraging patients to be open about any side effects they experience, even if they are embarrassing, can also help. Regular reviews of the medication plan, including discussions about side effects and the possibility of stopping medication if necessary, can further improve adherence. Simplifying the medication regimen and choosing medications with tolerable side effect profiles can also be helpful. Communication between the patient and their GP should be clear and in writing. Finally, the use of depot antipsychotics may be considered as an option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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  • Question 31 - Which condition is most commonly associated with the presence of eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusion...

    Incorrect

    • Which condition is most commonly associated with the presence of eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusion bodies containing alpha-synuclein?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia

      Explanation:

      Lewy body dementia is a neurodegenerative disorder that is characterized by both macroscopic and microscopic changes in the brain. Macroscopically, there is cerebral atrophy, but it is less marked than in Alzheimer’s disease, and the brain weight is usually in the normal range. There is also pallor of the substantia nigra and the locus coeruleus, which are regions of the brain that produce dopamine and norepinephrine, respectively.

      Microscopically, Lewy body dementia is characterized by the presence of intracellular protein accumulations called Lewy bodies. The major component of a Lewy body is alpha synuclein, and as they grow, they start to draw in other proteins such as ubiquitin. Lewy bodies are also found in Alzheimer’s disease, but they tend to be in the amygdala. They can also be found in healthy individuals, although it has been suggested that these may be pre-clinical cases of dementia with Lewy bodies. Lewy bodies are also found in other neurodegenerative disorders such as progressive supranuclear palsy, corticobasal degeneration, and multiple system atrophy.

      In Lewy body dementia, Lewy bodies are mainly found within the brainstem, but they are also found in non-brainstem regions such as the amygdaloid nucleus, parahippocampal gyrus, cingulate cortex, and cerebral neocortex. Classic brainstem Lewy bodies are spherical intraneuronal cytoplasmic inclusions, characterized by hyaline eosinophilic cores, concentric lamellar bands, narrow pale halos, and immunoreactivity for alpha synuclein and ubiquitin. In contrast, cortical Lewy bodies typically lack a halo.

      Most brains with Lewy body dementia also show some plaques and tangles, although in most instances, the lesions are not nearly as severe as in Alzheimer’s disease. Neuronal loss and gliosis are usually restricted to brainstem regions, particularly the substantia nigra and locus ceruleus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 32 - For which condition is the Addenbrooke's exam (ACE-III) most beneficial in evaluating? ...

    Incorrect

    • For which condition is the Addenbrooke's exam (ACE-III) most beneficial in evaluating?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dementia

      Explanation:

      The Addenbrooke’s Cognitive Exam: A Brief Screening Tool for Dementia

      The Addenbrooke’s cognitive examination (ACE) is a cognitive screening tool developed to detect dementia and differentiate Alzheimer’s dementia from frontotemporal dementia. It was created to address the limitations of the MMSE, which lacked sensitivity for frontal-executive dysfunction and visuospatial defects. The ACE is a brief test that takes 15-20 minutes to administer and is divided into five domains: attention and orientation, memory, verbal fluency, language, and visuospatial abilities. The total score is based on a maximum score of 100, with higher scores indicating better cognitive functioning.

      The ACE has been shown to be a valid tool for detecting dementia, with two cut-off points often used depending on the required sensitivity and specificity. A score of less than 88 has 100% sensitivity for detecting dementia, while a score of less than 82 has 93% sensitivity and 100% specificity. It has also been useful in differentiating dementia from pseudo dementia and detecting cognitive impairment in atypical Parkinson syndromes. However, while the test has shown 100% sensitivity and specificity in studies, its performance may vary in clinical practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 33 - A 25 year old woman is feeling nervous while walking alone at night....

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old woman is feeling nervous while walking alone at night. She spots what appears to be a figure of a person in the distance and decides to cross the street. Upon approaching, she realizes that it was just a shadow created by a nearby streetlight. What is the term used to describe this phenomenon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An illusion

      Explanation:

      An affect illusion is when a person’s perception is distorted by the shadow cast from a tree. Hallucinations, on the other hand, occur when there is no external stimulus present. It is important to note that a delusion is a belief, rather than a perception.

      Altered Perceptual Experiences

      Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.

      Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.

      Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 34 - What is the likely cause of absent light reflex but normal accommodation in...

    Incorrect

    • What is the likely cause of absent light reflex but normal accommodation in a patient with dementia during an eye examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Argyll Robertson pupils

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s dementia history, the diagnosis is supported.

      Argyll Robertson Pupil: Accommodation Retained

      The Argyll Robertson pupil is a notable topic in medical exams, as it is associated with tertiary syphilis, which is a crucial differential diagnosis for various psychiatric conditions like mood disorders, dementia, and psychosis. This type of pupil reacts poorly to light but normally to near stimuli, such as accommodation and convergence. They are typically small and irregular in shape, but they do not usually affect visual acuity. Mydriatic agents are not effective in dilating the Argyll Robertson pupil. Although this type of pupil is often considered pathognomonic of tertiary syphilis, it has also been observed in diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 35 - Which statement about the glossopharyngeal nerve is false? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about the glossopharyngeal nerve is false?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Controls the muscles of mastication

      Explanation:

      The trigeminal nerve is responsible for controlling the muscles involved in chewing, while the glossopharyngeal nerves consist of both motor and sensory fibers that originate from nuclei in the medulla oblongata. The motor fibers of the glossopharyngeal nerves stimulate the pharyngeal muscles and parotid gland secretory cells, while the sensory fibers transmit impulses from the posterior third of the tongue, tonsils, and pharynx to the cerebral cortex.

      Overview of Cranial Nerves and Their Functions

      The cranial nerves are a complex system of nerves that originate from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. There are twelve cranial nerves, each with a specific function and origin. The following table provides a simplified overview of the cranial nerves, including their origin, skull exit, modality, and functions.

      The first cranial nerve, the olfactory nerve, originates from the telencephalon and exits through the cribriform plate. It is a sensory nerve that controls the sense of smell. The second cranial nerve, the optic nerve, originates from the diencephalon and exits through the optic foramen. It is a sensory nerve that controls vision.

      The third cranial nerve, the oculomotor nerve, originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement, pupillary constriction, and lens accommodation. The fourth cranial nerve, the trochlear nerve, also originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement.

      The fifth cranial nerve, the trigeminal nerve, originates from the pons and exits through different foramina depending on the division. It is a mixed nerve that controls chewing and sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the scalp. It also tenses the tympanic membrane to dampen loud noises.

      The sixth cranial nerve, the abducens nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement. The seventh cranial nerve, the facial nerve, also originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a mixed nerve that controls facial expression, taste of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, and tension on the stapes to dampen loud noises.

      The eighth cranial nerve, the vestibulocochlear nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a sensory nerve that controls hearing. The ninth cranial nerve, the glossopharyngeal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls taste of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, elevation of the larynx and pharynx, and swallowing.

      The tenth cranial nerve, the vagus nerve, also originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls swallowing, voice production, and parasympathetic supply to nearly all thoracic and abdominal viscera. The eleventh cranial nerve, the accessory nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a motor nerve that controls shoulder shrugging and head turning.

      The twelfth cranial nerve, the hypoglossal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the hypoglossal canal. It is a motor nerve that controls tongue movement. Overall, the cranial nerves play a crucial role in controlling various functions of the head and neck, and any damage of dysfunction can have significant consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 36 - Who is credited with developing the theory of prima facie duties, which played...

    Incorrect

    • Who is credited with developing the theory of prima facie duties, which played a significant role in establishing the four principles of medical ethics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ross

      Explanation:

      Ross proposed the idea of prima facie duties, which were later modified by Beauchamp and Childress to form the four principles approach to medical ethics. The prima facie duties identified by Ross encompassed fidelity, reparation, gratitude, non-injury, harm-prevention, beneficence, self-improvement, and justice.

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 37 - What is a true statement about the endocannabinoid system? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the endocannabinoid system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CB2 receptors are expressed at much lower levels in the central nervous system compared to CB1

      Explanation:

      The Endocannabinoid System and its Role in Psychosis

      The endocannabinoid system (ECS) plays a crucial role in regulating various physiological functions in the body, including cognition, sleep, energy metabolism, and inflammation. It is composed of endogenous cannabinoids, cannabinoid receptors, and proteins that transport, synthesize, and degrade endocannabinoids. The two best-characterized cannabinoid receptors are CB1 and CB2, which primarily couple to inhibitory G proteins and modulate different neurotransmitter systems in the brain.

      Impairment of the ECS after cannabis consumption has been linked to an increased risk of psychotic illness. However, enhancing the ECS with cannabidiol (CBD) has shown anti-inflammatory and antipsychotic outcomes in both healthy study participants and in preliminary clinical trials on people with psychotic illness of at high risk of developing psychosis. Studies have also found increased anandamide levels in the cerebrospinal fluid and blood, as well as increased CB1 expression in peripheral immune cells of people with psychotic illness compared to healthy controls. Overall, understanding the role of the ECS in psychosis may lead to new therapeutic approaches for treating this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 38 - Which CNS histopathological characteristic is the most distinctive for prion diseases? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which CNS histopathological characteristic is the most distinctive for prion diseases?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spongiform (vacuolation) change

      Explanation:

      The presence of spongiform (vacuolation) change is a highly specific indicator of prion diseases. While neuronal loss and gliosis are common in many CNS disorders, spongiform change is unique to prion diseases. This change is characterized by the appearance of vacuoles in the deep cortical layers, cerebellar cortex, of subcortical grey matter. Scar formation and acute immune responses are associated with reactive proliferation of astrocytes and microglia, respectively. In contrast, Alzheimer’s dementia is characterized by the presence of amyloid plaques.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 39 - What is an example of a type of passive thinking? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is an example of a type of passive thinking?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thought broadcast

      Explanation:

      Patients may feel that they have lost control over their thoughts, which can manifest as passivity of thought. This refers to the belief that an external agency is controlling one’s thoughts. Passivity can take different forms, such as thought withdrawal, thought insertion, and thought broadcasting.

      Ego (Boundary) Disturbances

      Ego (boundary) disturbances refer to experiences where there is a disturbance in the perception of self as distinct from the environment of the integrity of self. It also includes instances where bodily processes, personal thought processes, feelings, and actions are experienced as being externally directed. These phenomena are referred to as passivity phenomena, and some of the symptom characteristics are classified as bizarre delusional phenomena in the DSM.

      Derealization is when a patient experiences their surroundings of time as if they are unreal and changed, losing all feelings of familiarity and trust in the environment. People, objects, and surroundings appear unreal, unfamiliar, of spatially altered. The sensations may be intense of weak in nature.

      Depersonalization is when a patient perceives themselves as alien, unreal, changed, of as a stranger. The disturbances of depersonalization may be of a transient nature only of become more persistent over a longer period of time. It is generally felt to be both strange and unpleasant.

      Thought broadcasting is when a patient’s personal thoughts are experienced as no longer belonging to the patient alone but accessible by others who will know what the patient is thinking (mind reading). Thought withdrawal is when a patient’s thoughts are being removed of stripped from them. Thought insertion is when patients experience their thoughts and ideas as being externally influenced, made externally, controlled, directed, entered/ of externally imposed.

      Other feelings of alien influence refer to feelings, intentions, behavior, of bodily functions that are experienced as externally controlled of made by others (passivity phenomena). The patient feels externally compelled to say something specific, to scream, to act of behave in a particular way, to attack someone, to throw a tantrum, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 40 - A 9-year-old child with emerging evidence of a learning disability is referred by...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old child with emerging evidence of a learning disability is referred by the paediatricians. They have an unusual facial appearance consisting of a broad, flat nasal bridge and a high forehead. The paediatrician describes this as a 'Greek warrior helmet' appearance. The eyes are widely spaced and may be protruding.
      The child had recurrent seizures as a child, but this have begun to resolve.
      Which of the following chromosomal abnormalities do you most suspect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A deletion near the end of 4p

      Explanation:

      Wolf-Hirschhorn syndrome, also referred to as 4p deletion syndrome, is caused by the loss of genetic material located towards the end of the short arm (p) of chromosome 4. This condition is often characterized by a distinct facial appearance resembling a Greek warrior helmet.

      Chromosomal location is an important factor in understanding genetic conditions. As a candidate for the MRCPsych, it is essential to be able to link specific disorders to their corresponding chromosomes. For instance, Presenilin 2 is associated with Alzheimer’s disease and is located on chromosome 1. Similarly, DISC-1 and DISC-2 are linked to schizophrenia and are located on chromosome 1 and 6, respectively. RGS-4, which interacts with neuregulin, is also associated with schizophrenia and is located on chromosome 1.

      Other disorders linked to specific chromosomes include Huntington’s disease (chromosome 4), Cri-du-Chat syndrome (chromosome 5), and Prader-Willi and Angelman syndromes (chromosome 15). Chromosome 17 is associated with familial frontotemporal dementia, Smith-Magenis syndrome, and neurofibromatosis 1. Chromosome 21 is linked to Down’s syndrome, while chromosome X/Y is associated with Fragile X, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, Turners syndrome, and Klinefelter’s syndrome.

      In summary, understanding the chromosomal location of genetic disorders is crucial for psychiatrists and other medical professionals. It helps in the diagnosis, treatment, and management of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 41 - For which medical conditions is Modafinil prescribed? ...

    Incorrect

    • For which medical conditions is Modafinil prescribed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Narcolepsy

      Explanation:

      Modafinil: A Psychostimulant for Wakefulness and Attention Enhancement

      Modafinil is a type of psychostimulant that is known to improve wakefulness, attention, and vigilance. Although it is similar to amphetamines, it does not produce the same euphoric effects and is not associated with dependence of tolerance. Additionally, it does not seem to cause psychosis. Modafinil is approved for the treatment of narcolepsy, obstructive sleep apnea, and chronic shift work. It is also suggested as an adjunctive treatment for depression by the Maudsley. Recently, it has gained popularity as a smart drug due to its potential to enhance cognitive functioning in healthy individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 42 - The catharsis hypothesis proposes which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • The catharsis hypothesis proposes which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: That participating in violent sports such as boxing can provide a means of discharging feelings of anger

      Explanation:

      The Catharsis Hypothesis and Its Effectiveness in Reducing Aggressive Feelings

      The catharsis hypothesis proposes that individuals can release their feelings of frustration and aggression through indirect means, such as engaging in aggressive activities like boxing of venting their emotions through talking. However, there is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of these methods in reducing aggressive feelings over the long term.

      Some individuals believe that engaging in physical activities like boxing can help release pent-up aggression and reduce the likelihood of future aggressive behavior. Others argue that this approach may actually reinforce aggressive tendencies and lead to an increase in violent behavior.

      Similarly, some individuals believe that venting one’s emotions through talking can be an effective way to reduce feelings of frustration and aggression. However, others argue that this approach may actually intensify negative emotions and lead to further aggression.

      Overall, the effectiveness of the catharsis hypothesis in reducing aggressive feelings remains a topic of debate. While some individuals may find these methods helpful in managing their emotions, others may require alternative approaches to address their aggressive tendencies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 43 - A comparison of antipsychotics for treating schizophrenia was conducted through a network meta-analysis....

    Incorrect

    • A comparison of antipsychotics for treating schizophrenia was conducted through a network meta-analysis. The ranking of antipsychotics was evaluated based on their efficacy and all-cause discontinuation. According to this assessment, which antipsychotic was ranked second highest after clozapine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amisulpride

      Explanation:

      In comparison with the other medications listed, Amisulpride showed indications of being more effective and better tolerated. The remaining antipsychotics were ranked in the following order: Olanzapine, Risperidone, Paliperidone, and Zotepine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 44 - Which of the following is not a risk factor associated with low socioeconomic...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a risk factor associated with low socioeconomic class?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Social Class and Mental Disorder

      There is a consistent finding that shows an inverse relationship between social class and rates of mental illness. This means that individuals from lower social classes are more likely to experience mental health issues compared to those from higher social classes. However, this inverse relationship is not observed in the case of anorexia nervosa. This suggests that factors other than social class may play a more significant role in the development of this particular disorder. Overall, the relationship between social class and mental health is complex and requires further investigation to fully understand the underlying factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 45 - Which of the following is not considered a known factor that increases the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not considered a known factor that increases the risk of lithium toxicity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatic impairment

      Explanation:

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 46 - Which part of a neuron is accountable for generating energy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which part of a neuron is accountable for generating energy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitochondria

      Explanation:

      Melanin

      Melanin is a pigment found in various parts of the body, including the skin, hair, and eyes. It is produced by specialized cells called melanocytes, which are located in the skin’s basal layer. The function of melanin in the body is not fully understood, but it is thought to play a role in protecting the skin from the harmful effects of ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun. Additionally, melanin may be a by-product of neurotransmitter synthesis, although this function is not well established. Overall, the role of melanin in the body is an area of ongoing research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 47 - During which stage of clinical trials are drugs evaluated against existing market options...

    Incorrect

    • During which stage of clinical trials are drugs evaluated against existing market options with the goal of obtaining a license?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phase III

      Explanation:

      Clinical Trials: Phases and Objectives

      Clinical trials are conducted in four phases to evaluate the safety and efficacy of drugs of treatments. In Phase I, a small group of healthy individuals (15-20) is given the drug to determine its safety, dosage range, and side effects. Phase II involves a larger group (100-300) to assess the drug’s effectiveness and safety. In Phase III, the drug is given to a larger population (1,000-3,000) to confirm its efficacy, compare it with existing treatments, and collect data for safe use. Phase IV, also known as post-marketing trials, is conducted after the drug is licensed to gather additional information on safety and potential uses. These trials are crucial in determining the safety and efficacy of drugs and treatments before they are made available to the public.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 48 - What type of personality test is projective in nature? ...

    Incorrect

    • What type of personality test is projective in nature?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thematic Apperception Test

      Explanation:

      Personality Testing

      There are two main types of personality tests: projective and objective. Projective tests aim to assess unconscious material by presenting subjects with ambiguous pictures of phrases to elicit an unconscious response. Examples of projective tests include the Rorschach Inkblot, Thematic Apperception Test, Draw-A-Person test, and sentence completion tests. On the other hand, objective tests have structured and clear questions and aims. Examples of objective tests include the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory, Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16PF), NEO Personality Inventory, and Eysenck Personality Test (EPQ).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 49 - What is a characteristic of the alcohol dependency syndrome according to the guidelines...

    Incorrect

    • What is a characteristic of the alcohol dependency syndrome according to the guidelines in ICD-10?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Salience

      Explanation:

      The alcohol dependence syndrome, as defined in ICD-10, includes salience (of primacy) as a key feature. This refers to a state where obtaining of consuming alcohol becomes more important than previously significant aspects of a person’s life, such as family, relationships, of employment. Increased tolerance is also a part of this syndrome. However, narrowing of repertoire and relief drinking are not included in the ICD-10 definition. It is important to note that binge drinking is not considered a feature of the alcohol dependence syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 50 - A 50-year-old man presents for a psychiatric assessment. He had a manic episode...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents for a psychiatric assessment. He had a manic episode after several years of being in remission without requiring psychotropic medication. Haloperidol was initiated, and he responded positively. He is now interested in exploring long-term management options.
      He has a history of untreated hypertension, resulting in severe chronic kidney disease.
      What would be the most appropriate choice for long-term management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Valproate

      Explanation:

      For the long-term management of mania, NICE (CG185) recommends offering a psychological intervention designed for bipolar disorder to prevent relapse. Additionally, lithium should be offered as the first-line, long-term pharmacological treatment. If lithium is not effective, valproate may be considered as an alternative. If lithium is not well-tolerated of not suitable due to reasons such as the person not agreeing to routine blood monitoring, olanzapine or quetiapine may be considered instead, with quetiapine being a viable option if it has been effective during an episode of mania of bipolar depression. It is important to note that valproate would be the next best option if lithium is contraindicated due to severe renal impairment.

      Renal Impairment and Psychotropic Drugs

      The following table provides recommendations for drug treatment in patients with renal impairment, based on the Maudsley 14th guidelines. When a new drug treatment is required, the suggestions below should be followed.

      Drug Group Recommendation

      Antipsychotics: It is recommended to avoid sulpiride and amisulpride. Otherwise, no agent is clearly preferable to another. For first-generation antipsychotics, haloperidol (2-6 mg/day) is the best choice. For second-generation antipsychotics, olanzapine (5mg/day) is the best choice.

      Antidepressants: No agent is clearly preferable to another. Reasonable choices include sertraline (although there is poor efficacy data in renal disease), citalopram (with care over QTc prolongation), and fluoxetine (with care over long half-life).

      Mood stabilizers: Lithium is nephrotoxic and contraindicated in severe renal impairment. Otherwise, no agent is clearly preferable to another. Valproate of lamotrigine are suggested.

      Anxiolytics: No agent is clearly preferable to another. Lorazepam and zopiclone are suggested.

      Anti-dementia drugs: No agent is clearly preferable to another. Rivastigmine is suggested.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 51 - What is the term used to describe the approach of an Asian immigrant...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the approach of an Asian immigrant in England who practices his religion and cultural traditions at home but adapts well to the English language and culture at work?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Integration

      Explanation:

      Multiculturalism is the coexistence of various cultural of ethnic groups within a shared social and political framework. Acculturation is the process of cultural and psychological change that occurs when different cultural groups come into contact with each other. Canadian psychologist John Berry identified four paths to acculturation: assimilation, integration, separation, and marginalization. Assimilation involves giving up one’s home culture and adopting the dominant culture, while integration involves maintaining one’s home culture while also embracing the dominant culture. Separation involves maintaining one’s home culture while being isolated from the dominant culture, and marginalization involves giving up one’s home culture and failing to related properly to the dominant culture. There is a cultural debate regarding assimilation and multiculturalism, with two forms of assimilation recognized: total assimilation, which involves the obliteration of the non-dominant culture, and melting pot assimilation, which refers to a less extreme version where a new form of the dominant culture emerges. Laissez-faire multiculturalism refers to multiculturalism that occurs without planning, such as the existence of Chinatowns in most cities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 52 - A person who struggles with reproducing intersecting pentagons on the MMSE at an...

    Incorrect

    • A person who struggles with reproducing intersecting pentagons on the MMSE at an older age is likely to experience difficulties with which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Non dominant parietal lobe

      Explanation:

      The inability to accurately replicate intersecting pentagons may indicate a constructional apraxia, which is a symptom of non-dominant parietal lobe dysfunction.

      Parietal Lobe Dysfunction: Types and Symptoms

      The parietal lobe is a part of the brain that plays a crucial role in processing sensory information and integrating it with other cognitive functions. Dysfunction in this area can lead to various symptoms, depending on the location and extent of the damage.

      Dominant parietal lobe dysfunction, often caused by a stroke, can result in Gerstmann’s syndrome, which includes finger agnosia, dyscalculia, dysgraphia, and right-left disorientation. Non-dominant parietal lobe dysfunction, on the other hand, can cause anosognosia, dressing apraxia, spatial neglect, and constructional apraxia.

      Bilateral damage to the parieto-occipital lobes, a rare condition, can lead to Balint’s syndrome, which is characterized by oculomotor apraxia, optic ataxia, and simultanagnosia. These symptoms can affect a person’s ability to shift gaze, interact with objects, and perceive multiple objects at once.

      In summary, parietal lobe dysfunction can manifest in various ways, and understanding the specific symptoms can help diagnose and treat the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 53 - What factor is associated with an increased likelihood of developing torsade de pointes?...

    Incorrect

    • What factor is associated with an increased likelihood of developing torsade de pointes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      In December 2011, the MHRA (Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency) issued guidance regarding citalopram and escitalopram. These medications have been found to cause QT interval prolongation, which can lead to torsade de pointes, ventricular fibrillation, and sudden death. Therefore, they should not be used in individuals with congenital long QT syndrome, pre-existing QT interval prolongation, of in combination with other medications that prolong the QT interval. Patients with cardiac disease should have ECG measurements taken, and any electrolyte imbalances should be corrected before starting treatment. Additionally, new restrictions on the maximum daily doses of citalopram have been put in place: 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients over 65 years old, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      Antidepressants and Their Cardiac Effects

      SSRIs are generally recommended for patients with cardiac disease as they may protect against myocardial infarction (MI). Untreated depression worsens prognosis in cardiovascular disease. Post MI, SSRIs and mirtazapine have either a neutral of beneficial effect on mortality. Sertraline is recommended post MI, but other SSRIs and mirtazapine are also likely to be safe. However, citalopram is associated with Torsades de pointes (mainly in overdose). Bupropion, citalopram, escitalopram, moclobemide, lofepramine, and venlafaxine should be used with caution of avoided in those at risk of serious arrhythmia (those with heart failure, left ventricular hypertrophy, previous arrhythmia, of MI).

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have established arrhythmogenic activity which arises as a result of potent blockade of cardiac sodium channels and variable activity at potassium channels. ECG changes produced include PR, QRS, and QT prolongation and the Brugada syndrome. Lofepramine is less cardiotoxic than other TCAs and seems to lack the overdose arrhythmogenicity of other TCAs. QT changes are not usually seen at normal clinical doses of antidepressants (but can occur, particularly with citalopram/escitalopram). The arrhythmogenic potential of TCAs and other antidepressants is dose-related.

      Overall, SSRIs are recommended for patients with cardiac disease, while caution should be exercised when prescribing TCAs and other antidepressants, especially in those at risk of serious arrhythmia. It is important to monitor patients closely for any cardiac effects when prescribing antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 54 - Which of the following is a fundamental rule of how our brain organizes...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a fundamental rule of how our brain organizes what we see?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The cocktail party effect is an example of figure-ground perceptual organisation

      Explanation:

      Perception is an active process that involves being aware of and interpreting sensations received through our sensory organs. When we perceive something, we tend to focus on patterns that stand out from their background, such as when we hear our name being mentioned in a crowded room (known as the cocktail party phenomenon). Our brain also tends to group similar items together and perceive interrupted lines as continuous (known as the law of continuity). Additionally, our eyes have the ability to adjust their focus from distant objects to closer ones (known as accommodation), which helps us perceive depth and distance. Pictorial depth, such as in a painting of photograph, can enhance our perception by providing more detailed and realistic visual cues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Psychological Processes
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  • Question 55 - A 42 year old man with depression and reduced sexual desire has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old man with depression and reduced sexual desire has been referred to our clinic. Following a thorough discussion of his symptoms, he has agreed to a trial of antidepressants. However, he is concerned about potential side effects and specifically requests a medication that is less likely to exacerbate his sexual dysfunction. What antidepressant would you recommend in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mirtazapine

      Explanation:

      To ensure adherence, it is crucial to prescribe medication based on the individual’s needs to prevent sexual issues. Among the options provided, mirtazapine has the least occurrence of sexual dysfunction.

      Antidepressants can cause sexual dysfunction as a side-effect, although the rates vary. The impact on sexual desire, arousal, and orgasm can differ depending on the type of antidepressant. It is important to rule out other causes and consider non-pharmacological strategies such as reducing the dosage of taking drug holidays. If necessary, switching to a lower risk antidepressant of using pharmacological options such as phosphodiesterase inhibitors of mirtazapine augmentation can be considered. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition provides a helpful table outlining the risk of sexual dysfunction for different antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 56 - From which embryonic structure does the thalamus originate? ...

    Incorrect

    • From which embryonic structure does the thalamus originate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diencephalon

      Explanation:

      Neurodevelopment: Understanding Brain Development

      The development of the central nervous system begins with the neuroectoderm, a specialized region of ectoderm. The embryonic brain is divided into three areas: the forebrain (prosencephalon), midbrain (mesencephalon), and hindbrain (rhombencephalon). The prosencephalon further divides into the telencephalon and diencephalon, while the hindbrain subdivides into the metencephalon and myelencephalon.

      The telencephalon, of cerebrum, consists of the cerebral cortex, underlying white matter, and the basal ganglia. The diencephalon includes the prethalamus, thalamus, hypothalamus, subthalamus, epithalamus, and pretectum. The mesencephalon comprises the tectum, tegmentum, ventricular mesocoelia, cerebral peduncles, and several nuclei and fasciculi.

      The rhombencephalon includes the medulla, pons, and cerebellum, which can be subdivided into a variable number of transversal swellings called rhombomeres. In humans, eight rhombomeres can be distinguished, from caudal to rostral: Rh7-Rh1 and the isthmus. Rhombomeres Rh7-Rh4 form the myelencephalon, while Rh3-Rh1 form the metencephalon.

      Understanding neurodevelopment is crucial in comprehending brain development and its complexities. By studying the different areas of the embryonic brain, we can gain insight into the formation of the central nervous system and its functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 57 - Which of the following is an instance of tertiary intervention? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an instance of tertiary intervention?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rehabilitation

      Explanation:

      The prevention of a disease can be divided into three levels: primary, secondary, and tertiary. Tertiary prevention focuses on minimizing the effects of an existing disease and helping individuals achieve their optimal level of functioning. Primary prevention involves implementing broad changes to decrease the overall risk of a disease in a population, such as promoting healthy nutrition, positive parenting, and smoking cessation. Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention through screening programs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
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  • Question 58 - Which of the following is excluded from the field of pharmacodynamics? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is excluded from the field of pharmacodynamics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Drug metabolism

      Explanation:

      Pharmacokinetics includes the study of drug metabolism.

      Receptor Binding

      Receptor binding is a crucial aspect of pharmacodynamics, which involves the study of how drugs affect the body. Receptors are specialized proteins located on the surface of inside cells that interact with specific molecules, such as neurotransmitters, hormones, of drugs. When a drug binds to a receptor, it can either activate or inhibit its function, leading to various biological effects. The affinity and efficacy of a drug for a receptor depend on its chemical structure, concentration, and the properties of the receptor. Understanding receptor binding is essential for developing safe and effective drugs, as well as for predicting drug interactions and side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 59 - What factor has been demonstrated to have a notable impact on the QTc...

    Incorrect

    • What factor has been demonstrated to have a notable impact on the QTc interval?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Grapefruit juice

      Explanation:

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 60 - A 35-year-old man with treatment-resistant depression has been prescribed tranylcypromine, the only class...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with treatment-resistant depression has been prescribed tranylcypromine, the only class of antidepressants he has not yet tried. What dietary restriction should he follow to prevent a hypertensive crisis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Broad bean pods

      Explanation:

      When monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are present, the enzyme that breaks down norepinephrine is inhibited. This can lead to a hypertensive crisis if a high tyramine meal is consumed. Broad bean pods contain tyramine, which increases the release of norepinephrine. Therefore, it is important to avoid certain foods when taking MAOIs, including dried, aged, smoked, fermented, spoiled of improperly stored meat, poultry and fish, aged cheese, tap and unpasteurized beers, Marmite, and soy products.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 61 - What has been demonstrated to have a protective effect on the nervous system?...

    Incorrect

    • What has been demonstrated to have a protective effect on the nervous system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Memantine

      Explanation:

      Studies have demonstrated that memantine possesses neuroprotective properties for individuals with Alzheimer’s disease and those who have suffered from traumatic brain injury.

      Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.

      Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.

      Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 62 - What substance acts on the alpha-2-delta subunit of voltage-gated calcium channels in the...

    Incorrect

    • What substance acts on the alpha-2-delta subunit of voltage-gated calcium channels in the central nervous system to produce its effects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pregabalin

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 63 - When treating a 30-year-old patient with schizophrenia who has a history of epilepsy,...

    Incorrect

    • When treating a 30-year-old patient with schizophrenia who has a history of epilepsy, which antipsychotic medication should be avoided due to its potential to induce seizures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic medications have been associated with an increased risk of seizures, with second generation antipsychotics (SGAs) being more likely to cause seizures than first generation antipsychotics (FGAs). Among SGAs, clozapine has the highest risk of inducing seizures, while olanzapine and quetiapine also carry a relatively high risk. On the other hand, risperidone, haloperidol, and aripiprazole are considered to be relatively low risk in terms of inducing seizures. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risks and monitor patients accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 64 - Who is the well-known British psychiatrist, known for his affiliation with the antipsychiatry...

    Incorrect

    • Who is the well-known British psychiatrist, known for his affiliation with the antipsychiatry movement, and is recognized for his statement that 'Madness does not necessarily have to be a complete breakdown, but can also be a breakthrough'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Laing

      Explanation:

      Apart from Bleuler who is Swiss, all the other psychiatrists in the list of options are German – Kraepelin and…

      Antipsychiatry is a movement that emerged in the 1960s and challenges the traditional medical model of mental illness. It argues that mental illnesses are not biological of medical conditions but rather social constructs that reflect deviations from social norms. The movement has been associated with several famous figures, including Thomas Szasz, R.D. Laing, Michel Foucault, and Franco Basaglia. These individuals have criticized the psychiatric profession for its use of involuntary hospitalization, medication, and other forms of coercion in the treatment of mental illness. They have also advocated for alternative approaches to mental health care, such as community-based care and psychotherapy. Despite its controversial nature, the antipsychiatry movement has had a significant impact on the field of mental health and continues to influence the way we think about and treat mental illness today.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 65 - A 35-year-old male is prescribed semisodium valproate (Depakote) as a mood stabiliser. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male is prescribed semisodium valproate (Depakote) as a mood stabiliser. What is the most important adverse effect to discuss with him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neural tube defects

      Explanation:

      While weight gain is a known side effect of valproate, the most significant consideration when prescribing it to women of childbearing age is the significant risk of neural tube defects in the fetus if taken during pregnancy. Effective contraception should be carefully considered. Hair loss is usually transient and hypotension and Stevens-Johnson syndrome are not commonly associated with valproate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 66 - Which gene is mutated to cause the CGG repeats observed in fragile X...

    Incorrect

    • Which gene is mutated to cause the CGG repeats observed in fragile X syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: FMR1

      Explanation:

      Fragile X is caused by a mutation in FMR1 that leads to the presence of CGG trinucleotide repeats. The remaining genes mentioned are associated with dementia.

      Fragile X Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder Causing Learning Disability and Psychiatric Symptoms

      Fragile X Syndrome is a genetic disorder that causes mental retardation, an elongated face, large protruding ears, and large testicles in men. Individuals with this syndrome tend to be shy, avoid eye contact, and have difficulties reading facial expressions. They also display stereotypic movements such as hand flapping. Fragile X Syndrome is the most common inherited cause of learning disability.

      The speech of affected individuals is often abnormal, with abnormalities of fluency. This disorder is caused by the amplification of a CGG repeat in the 5 untranslated region of the fragile X mental retardation 1 gene (FMR1). These CGG repeats disrupt synthesis of the fragile X protein (FMRP), which is essential for brain function and growth. The gene is located at Xq27. The greater number of repeats, the more severe the condition, as with other trinucleotide repeat disorders.

      The fragile X phenotype typically involves a variety of psychiatric symptoms, including features of autism, attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder, anxiety, and aggression. Both males and females can be affected, but males are more severely affected because they have only one X chromosome. The prevalence estimate of Fragile X Syndrome is 1/3600-4000.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 67 - What is the definition of the Hawthorne effect? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of the Hawthorne effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alterations in behaviour due to subjective awareness of being observed

      Explanation:

      The Hawthorne Effect and Its Impact on Research

      The Hawthorne effect is a type of observer bias that occurs when individuals modify their behavior because they believe they are being observed. This phenomenon can have a significant impact on research outcomes, as subjects may alter their actions of responses in an attempt to please the observer of researcher. For instance, if a person knows they are being watched while performing a task, they may complete it more quickly of with greater accuracy than they would otherwise. As a result, researchers must be aware of the Hawthorne effect and take steps to minimize its influence on their studies. Failure to do so can lead to inaccurate of misleading results, which can have serious consequences for the validity of the research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 68 - Which antihistamine should be avoided when a patient is taking an MAOI medication?...

    Incorrect

    • Which antihistamine should be avoided when a patient is taking an MAOI medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chlorpheniramine

      Explanation:

      According to Gillman (1998), it is recommended to avoid using the antihistamines brompheniramine and chlorpheniramine as they act as serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SRIs). However, all other antihistamines are considered safe for use. Gillman’s study focused on the history and risk of serotonin syndrome.

      MAOIs: A Guide to Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Dietary Restrictions

      First introduced in the 1950s, MAOIs were the first antidepressants introduced. However, they are not the first choice in treating mental health disorders due to several dietary restrictions and safety concerns. They are only a treatment option when all other medications are unsuccessful. MAOIs may be particularly useful in atypical depression (over eating / over sleeping, mood reactivity).

      MAOIs block the monoamine oxidase enzyme, which breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, as well as tyramine. There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MOA A are mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MOA B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.

      The most common adverse effects of MAOIs occurring early in treatment are orthostatic hypotension, daytime sleepiness, insomnia, and nausea; later common effects include weight gain, muscle pain, myoclonus, paraesthesia, and sexual dysfunction.

      Pharmacodynamic interactions with MAOIs can cause two types of problem: serotonin syndrome (mainly due to SSRIs) and elevated blood pressure (caused by indirectly acting sympathomimetic amines releasers, like pseudoephedrine and phenylephrine). The combination of MAOIs and some TCAs appears safe. Only those TCAs with significant serotonin reuptake inhibition (clomipramine and imipramine) are likely to increase the risk of serotonin syndrome.

      Tyramine is a monoamine found in various foods, and is an indirect sympathomimetic that can cause a hypertensive reaction in patients receiving MAOI therapy. For this reason, dietary restrictions are required for patients receiving MAOIs. These restrictions include avoiding matured/aged cheese, fermented sausage, improperly stored meat, fava of broad bean pods, and certain drinks such as on-tap beer. Allowed foods include fresh cottage cheese, processed cheese slices, fresh packaged of processed meat, and other alcohol (no more than two bottled or canned beers of two standard glasses of wine, per day).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 69 - What is the characteristic feature of EEG in individuals with Huntington's disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the characteristic feature of EEG in individuals with Huntington's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Shows a flattened trace

      Explanation:

      Huntington’s Disease: Genetics and Pathology

      Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance. It is caused by a mutation in the Huntington gene, which is located on chromosome 4. The mutation involves an abnormal expansion of a trinucleotide repeat sequence (CAG), which leads to the production of a toxic protein that damages brain cells.

      The severity of the disease and the age of onset are related to the number of CAG repeats. Normally, the CAG sequence is repeated less than 27 times, but in Huntington’s disease, it is repeated many more times. The disease shows anticipation, meaning that it tends to worsen with each successive generation.

      The symptoms of Huntington’s disease typically begin in the third of fourth decade of life, but in rare cases, they can appear in childhood of adolescence. The most common symptoms include involuntary movements (chorea), cognitive decline, and psychiatric disturbances.

      The pathological hallmark of Huntington’s disease is the gross bilateral atrophy of the head of the caudate and putamen, which are regions of the brain involved in movement control. The EEG of patients with Huntington’s disease shows a flattened trace, indicating a loss of brain activity.

      Macroscopic pathological findings include frontal atrophy, marked atrophy of the caudate and putamen, and enlarged ventricles. Microscopic findings include neuronal loss and gliosis in the cortex, neuronal loss in the striatum, and the presence of inclusion bodies in the neurons of the cortex and striatum.

      In conclusion, Huntington’s disease is a devastating genetic disorder that affects the brain and causes a range of motor, cognitive, and psychiatric symptoms. The disease is caused by a mutation in the Huntington gene, which leads to the production of a toxic protein that damages brain cells. The pathological changes in the brain include atrophy of the caudate and putamen, neuronal loss, and the presence of inclusion bodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 70 - A psychology graduate student is interested in studying the psychosocial factors related to...

    Incorrect

    • A psychology graduate student is interested in studying the psychosocial factors related to alcohol misuse. They decide to use the health belief model as a framework for their research. One of the constructs of the health belief model pertains to the severity of the illness and its outcomes. How can this construct be applied to the study of alcohol abuse?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perceived severity

      Explanation:

      The health belief model is a social cognition model that aims to predict and understand health-related behaviors. It consists of four main constructs: perceived susceptibility, perceived severity, perceived benefits, and perceived barriers. Perceived severity refers to an individual’s understanding of the seriousness of a disease. Perceived susceptibility, also known as perceived vulnerability, refers to an individual’s perception of their risk of contracting the disease if they continue with their current behavior. Perceived benefits refer to an individual’s perception of the advantages of adopting a different course of action, including the extent to which it reduces the risk of the disease of its severity. Perceived barriers refer to an individual’s perception of the disadvantages of adopting the recommended action, as well as any obstacles that may hinder its successful implementation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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  • Question 71 - What product is licensed to assist individuals in quitting smoking? ...

    Incorrect

    • What product is licensed to assist individuals in quitting smoking?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varenicline

      Explanation:

      Varenicline is a medication that helps people quit smoking by partially activating specific nicotine receptors in the body.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 72 - How can you differentiate between an obsession and a compulsion? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can you differentiate between an obsession and a compulsion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeatedly imagining violent scenes

      Explanation:

      The question implies that obsessions are characterized by urges, images, of thoughts, while compulsions involve acts, either motor of mental. However, it is important to note that in order to be classified as an obsession of compulsion according to DSM-5 and ICD-11 criteria, the behavior must be time-consuming (taking more than 1 hour per day) of cause significant distress of impairment in important areas of functioning.

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition characterized by the presence of either obsessions or compulsions, and often both. Obsessions are repetitive and persistent thoughts, images, of impulses that are intrusive and unwanted, while compulsions are repetitive behaviors of rituals that an individual feels driven to perform in response to an obsession of according to rigid rules. The symptoms can cause significant functional impairment and/of distress. To diagnose OCD, the essential features include the presence of persistent obsessions and/of compulsions that are time-consuming of result in significant distress of impairment in important areas of functioning. The symptoms cannot be attributed to another medical condition of the effects of a substance of medication on the central nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 73 - What is a common compulsion that may be present in individuals with OCD?...

    Incorrect

    • What is a common compulsion that may be present in individuals with OCD?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Checking locks

      Explanation:

      The typical compulsive behaviors in OCD involve checking locks, taps, and safety issues, which serve to alleviate anxiety and reinforce the behavior. Breath-holding is not a common manifestation of OCD, nor is hand-wringing of stepping on cracks in the pavement. While fear of contamination is a common obsession, it is not a compulsion in and of itself. Instead, the compulsion typically involves behaviors aimed at avoiding contamination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
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  • Question 74 - What is the most prevalent type of Down's syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most prevalent type of Down's syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trisomy 21

      Explanation:

      Down Syndrome: Causes and Risk Factors

      Down syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of extra genetic material from chromosome 21. There are three different types of Down syndrome, each with its own cause and inheritance pattern. The most common form, full trisomy 21, is not inherited and accounts for 95% of cases. It occurs when there is a failure of chromosome 21 to separate properly during cell division, resulting in an extra copy of the chromosome. This can happen randomly, with the extra chromosome coming from the mother 88% of the time and from the father 12% of the time.

      The second type, translocation Down syndrome, is inherited and accounts for 2-3% of cases. It occurs when a piece of chromosome 21 breaks off and attaches to another chromosome, resulting in extra genetic material. This type of Down syndrome is caused by a balanced translocation, which means that the parent carrying the translocation has no signs of symptoms of the disorder.

      The third type, mosaic Down syndrome, is not inherited and also accounts for 2-3% of cases. It occurs as a random event during cell division early in fetal development, resulting in some cells having an extra copy of chromosome 21 while others do not.

      The risk of having a child with Down syndrome increases as a mother gets older. At age 35, the risk is 1 in 385; at age 40, the risk is 1 in 106; and at age 45, the risk is 1 in 30. It is important for women to be aware of these risk factors and to discuss them with their healthcare provider if they are planning to have a child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 75 - An agitated elderly patient requires restraint. Following the restraint, your examination of the...

    Incorrect

    • An agitated elderly patient requires restraint. Following the restraint, your examination of the patient reveals an inability to shrug the shoulders. Which nerve is most likely to have been damaged?

      Accessory

      91%

      Hypoglossal

      4%

      Abducent

      4%

      Oculomotor

      0%

      Glossopharyngeal

      1%

      This elderly patient has most likely suffered a traumatic injury to the accessory nerve.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Accessory

      Explanation:

      It is probable that this individual has experienced a traumatic injury affecting the accessory nerve.

      Overview of Cranial Nerves and Their Functions

      The cranial nerves are a complex system of nerves that originate from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. There are twelve cranial nerves, each with a specific function and origin. The following table provides a simplified overview of the cranial nerves, including their origin, skull exit, modality, and functions.

      The first cranial nerve, the olfactory nerve, originates from the telencephalon and exits through the cribriform plate. It is a sensory nerve that controls the sense of smell. The second cranial nerve, the optic nerve, originates from the diencephalon and exits through the optic foramen. It is a sensory nerve that controls vision.

      The third cranial nerve, the oculomotor nerve, originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement, pupillary constriction, and lens accommodation. The fourth cranial nerve, the trochlear nerve, also originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement.

      The fifth cranial nerve, the trigeminal nerve, originates from the pons and exits through different foramina depending on the division. It is a mixed nerve that controls chewing and sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the scalp. It also tenses the tympanic membrane to dampen loud noises.

      The sixth cranial nerve, the abducens nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement. The seventh cranial nerve, the facial nerve, also originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a mixed nerve that controls facial expression, taste of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, and tension on the stapes to dampen loud noises.

      The eighth cranial nerve, the vestibulocochlear nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a sensory nerve that controls hearing. The ninth cranial nerve, the glossopharyngeal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls taste of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, elevation of the larynx and pharynx, and swallowing.

      The tenth cranial nerve, the vagus nerve, also originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls swallowing, voice production, and parasympathetic supply to nearly all thoracic and abdominal viscera. The eleventh cranial nerve, the accessory nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a motor nerve that controls shoulder shrugging and head turning.

      The twelfth cranial nerve, the hypoglossal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the hypoglossal canal. It is a motor nerve that controls tongue movement. Overall, the cranial nerves play a crucial role in controlling various functions of the head and neck, and any damage of dysfunction can have significant consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 76 - Which hypnosis demonstration in 1886 piqued the curiosity of Sigmund Freud about psychological...

    Incorrect

    • Which hypnosis demonstration in 1886 piqued the curiosity of Sigmund Freud about psychological therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Charcot

      Explanation:

      Hypnosis and its origins

      Jean-Marie Charcot, a renowned French neurologist, was known for his captivating personality. In 1886, Freud witnessed Charcot’s demonstration of hypnosis in Paris, which sparked his interest in the field. Initially, Freud experimented with hypnosis in his practice before developing his own psychoanalytic therapy. The term ‘hypnosis’ was coined by James Braid in 1841. However, it is important to note that hypnosis is different from Franz Mesmer’s theory of ‘animal magnetism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
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  • Question 77 - What is a true statement about attachment? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about attachment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Separation anxiety tends to occur after stranger anxiety

      Explanation:

      The critical period for development of attachment and social skills is between 6 and 36 months of age. During this time, infants and toddlers are particularly sensitive to their caregivers’ responses and interactions, which can shape their emotional and social development. This period is crucial for establishing secure attachments and developing social skills that will influence their relationships throughout their lives.

      Attachment Theory and Harlow’s Monkeys

      Attachment theory, developed by John Bowlby, suggests that children have an innate tendency to form relationships with people around them to increase their chance of survival. This attachment is different from bonding, which concerns the mother’s feelings for her infant. Children typically single out a primary caregiver, referred to as the principle attachment figure, from about 1-3 months. The quality of a person’s early attachments is associated with their adult behavior, with poor attachments leading to withdrawn individuals who struggle to form relationships and good attachments leading to socially competent adults who can form healthy relationships.

      Bowlby’s attachment model has four stages: preattachment, attachment in the making, clear-cut attachment, and formation of reciprocal attachment. The time from 6 months to 36 months is known as the critical period, during which a child is most vulnerable to interruptions in its attachment. Attachments are divided into secure and insecure types, with insecure types further divided into avoidant and ambivalent types.

      Harlow’s experiment with young rhesus monkeys demonstrated the importance of the need for closeness over food. The experiment involved giving the monkeys a choice between two different mothers, one made of soft terry cloth but provided no food and the other made of wire but provided food from an attached baby bottle. The baby monkeys spent significantly more time with their cloth mother than with their wire mother, showing the importance of attachment and closeness in early development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 78 - Your elderly client informs you that she had a sudden realization that she...

    Incorrect

    • Your elderly client informs you that she had a sudden realization that she was a member of the senior center's board. This awareness came out of nowhere.

      Is this an instance of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autochthonous delusion

      Explanation:

      Delusions that originate within the mind without any external influence are known as autochthonous. This term, derived from the Greek word for from the soil, emphasizes that the idea is self-generated rather than being triggered by a sensory experience of other external factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History And Mental State
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  • Question 79 - What is the most probable outcome of the occlusion of the main trunk...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most probable outcome of the occlusion of the main trunk of the middle cerebral artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hemiparesis of the contralateral face and limbs

      Explanation:

      Brain Blood Supply and Consequences of Occlusion

      The brain receives blood supply from the internal carotid and vertebral arteries, which form the circle of Willis. The circle of Willis acts as a shunt system in case of vessel damage. The three main vessels arising from the circle are the anterior cerebral artery (ACA), middle cerebral artery (MCA), and posterior cerebral artery (PCA). Occlusion of these vessels can result in various neurological deficits. ACA occlusion may cause hemiparesis of the contralateral foot and leg, sensory loss, and frontal signs. MCA occlusion is the most common and can lead to hemiparesis, dysphasia/aphasia, neglect, and visual field defects. PCA occlusion may cause alexia, loss of sensation, hemianopia, prosopagnosia, and cranial nerve defects. It is important to recognize these consequences to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 80 - What term did Allport use to describe a personality trait that has a...

    Incorrect

    • What term did Allport use to describe a personality trait that has a significant impact on almost all of a person's actions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardinal

      Explanation:

      Trait Theory: Understanding Personality Traits

      Trait theory is a psychological approach that seeks to understand personality by identifying and categorizing specific traits. The theory was first introduced by Gordon Allport, who classified personality traits into three levels.

      At the highest level, we have cardinal traits. These are traits that are so pervasive that they dominate a person’s behavior and activities. Only a few people possess cardinal traits, but for those who do, these traits are the ruling force of their personality. Cardinal traits are usually evident to most people who know the individual.

      The second level of traits is central traits. These are easily detected characteristics within a person, traits that all people have a certain number of, usually around five to ten on average. Central traits are the building blocks of personality and help to define a person’s overall character.

      Finally, we have secondary traits. These are less evident and only manifest in select circumstances. They are not as important as central of cardinal traits, but they still play a role in shaping a person’s behavior and personality.

      Overall, trait theory provides a useful framework for understanding personality and how it develops over time. By identifying and categorizing specific traits, psychologists can gain insights into why people behave the way they do and how they can change their behavior to achieve their goals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 81 - Which of the following is not considered a stage of grief in Kubler-Ross'...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not considered a stage of grief in Kubler-Ross' classification system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rejection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Grief: Normal and Abnormal Phases

      Grief is a natural response to loss, and it is a complex process that can take different forms and durations. John Bowlby and Kubler-Ross have proposed models to describe the typical phases of grief, which can vary in intensity and duration for each individual. Bowlby’s model includes shock-numbness, yearning-searching, disorganization-despair, and reorganization, while Kubler-Ross’s model includes denial-dissociation-isolation, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.

      However, some people may experience abnormal grief, which can be categorized as inhibited, delayed, of chronic/prolonged. Inhibited grief refers to the absence of expected grief symptoms at any stage, while delayed grief involves avoiding painful symptoms within two weeks of loss. Chronic/prolonged grief is characterized by continued significant grief-related symptoms six months after loss.

      It is important to distinguish between normal grief and major depression, as a high proportion of people may meet the criteria for major depression in the first year following bereavement. Some features that can help differentiate between the two include generalized guilt, thoughts of death unrelated to the deceased, feelings of worthlessness, psychomotor retardation, and prolonged functional impairment.

      Overall, understanding the phases and types of grief can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the grieving process and seek appropriate support and resources.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 82 - In a patient with chronic schizophrenia on a stable dose of 2mg risperidone...

    Incorrect

    • In a patient with chronic schizophrenia on a stable dose of 2mg risperidone for 2 years, who develops worsening symptoms and is given an increased dose of 4 mg risperidone, what is the most likely cause of his current presentation of stiffness, fever, breathlessness, and sweating?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

      Explanation:

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 83 - What is a known factor that can lead to hypercalcemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a known factor that can lead to hypercalcemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypercalcemia and its Causes

      Hypercalcemia is a medical condition that can cause fatigue, confusion, and depression. It is characterized by the classic symptoms of bone pain, abdominal pain, renal stones, and psychic moans. This condition can be triggered by the use of lithium and thiazide diuretics.

      It is important to note that around 50% of serum calcium is bound to plasma proteins, particularly albumin. This means that any abnormalities in albumin levels can lead to inaccurate calcium results. To address this issue, a corrected calcium test is usually included in a patient’s blood work to ensure accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 84 - What is the typical number of autosomes found in a human somatic cell?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the typical number of autosomes found in a human somatic cell?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 44

      Explanation:

      Aneuploidy: Abnormal Chromosome Numbers

      Aneuploidy refers to the presence of an abnormal number of chromosomes, which can result from errors during meiosis. Typically, human cells have 23 pairs of chromosomes, but aneuploidy can lead to extra of missing chromosomes. Trisomies, which involve the presence of an additional chromosome, are the most common aneuploidies in humans. However, most trisomies are not compatible with life, and only trisomy 21 (Down’s syndrome), trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome), and trisomy 13 (Patau syndrome) survive to birth. Aneuploidy can result in imbalances in gene expression, which can lead to a range of symptoms and developmental issues.

      Compared to autosomal trisomies, humans are more able to tolerate extra sex chromosomes. Klinefelter’s syndrome, which involves the presence of an extra X chromosome, is the most common sex chromosome aneuploidy. Individuals with Klinefelter’s and XYY often remain undiagnosed, but they may experience reduced sexual development and fertility. Monosomies, which involve the loss of a chromosome, are rare in humans. The only viable human monosomy involves the X chromosome and results in Turner’s syndrome. Turner’s females display a wide range of symptoms, including infertility and impaired sexual development.

      The frequency and severity of aneuploidies vary widely. Down’s syndrome is the most common viable autosomal trisomy, affecting 1 in 800 births. Klinefelter’s syndrome affects 1-2 in 1000 male births, while XYY syndrome affects 1 in 1000 male births and Triple X syndrome affects 1 in 1000 births. Turner syndrome is less common, affecting 1 in 5000 female births. Edwards syndrome and Patau syndrome are rare, affecting 1 in 6000 and 1 in 10,000 births, respectively. Understanding the genetic basis and consequences of aneuploidy is important for diagnosis, treatment, and genetic counseling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 85 - Which of the following is associated with a senile pupil? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is associated with a senile pupil?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sluggish response to light and accommodation

      Explanation:

      Senile Pupil: A Common Age-Related Condition

      The senile pupil, also known as senile miosis, is a condition commonly observed in older individuals. It is characterized by a small pupil that does not dilate in the dark, and may also be associated with reduced reaction to light and accommodation. This condition is often a result of age-related changes in the muscles that control the pupil, and can be exacerbated by certain medications of medical conditions. While it may not cause significant vision problems, it is important for individuals with senile pupil to have regular eye exams to monitor any changes in their vision and ensure proper eye health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 86 - Which of the options below indicates a strong urge of need to perform...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the options below indicates a strong urge of need to perform a certain behavior repeatedly?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeating certain phrases in your mind that you feel driven to perform

      Explanation:

      The act of repeating phrases that one feels compelled to perform is considered a compulsion. Compulsions are actions, either physical or mental, that one feels driven to perform. Obsessions, on the other hand, are recurrent and intrusive thoughts, urges, of images. The urge to hoard, for example, is an obsession rather than a compulsion. Compulsions are not inherently pleasurable and are performed to reduce anxiety. It is important to note that in order to qualify as a compulsion under DSM-5, the behavior must be time-consuming (taking more than 1 hour per day) of cause significant distress of impairment in important areas of functioning. Therefore, the behavior that is most suggestive of a compulsion is one that meets these criteria.

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition characterized by the presence of either obsessions or compulsions, and often both. Obsessions are repetitive and persistent thoughts, images, of impulses that are intrusive and unwanted, while compulsions are repetitive behaviors of rituals that an individual feels driven to perform in response to an obsession of according to rigid rules. The symptoms can cause significant functional impairment and/of distress. To diagnose OCD, the essential features include the presence of persistent obsessions and/of compulsions that are time-consuming of result in significant distress of impairment in important areas of functioning. The symptoms cannot be attributed to another medical condition of the effects of a substance of medication on the central nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 87 - Which antidepressant works by inhibiting the reuptake of dopamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which antidepressant works by inhibiting the reuptake of dopamine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bupropion

      Explanation:

      Bupropion inhibits the reuptake of noradrenaline and dopamine, making it an NDRI.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 88 - What is the term used to describe the mutual agreement between a doctor...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the mutual agreement between a doctor and their patient regarding treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Concordance

      Explanation:

      While adherence, compliance, and capacitance all refer to how well a patient follows a doctor’s instructions, they do not have the same meaning as concordance, which specifically refers to the agreement between patient and doctor on a treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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  • Question 89 - Which statement accurately describes the placebo effect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes the placebo effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Placebo response tends to be greater in milder forms of illness

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Placebo Effect

      In general, a placebo is an inert substance that has no pharmacological activity but looks, smells, and tastes like the active drug it is compared to. The placebo effect is the observable improvement seen when a patient takes a placebo, which results from patient-related factors such as expectations rather than the placebo itself. Negative effects due to patient-related factors are termed the nocebo effect.

      Active placebos are treatments with chemical activity that mimic the side effects of the drug being tested in a clinical trial. They are used to prevent unblinding of the drug versus the placebo control group. Placebos need not always be pharmacological and can be procedural, such as sham electroconvulsive therapy.

      The placebo effect is influenced by factors such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the branding of the compound. The placebo response is greater in mild illness, and the response rate is increasing over time. Placebo response is usually short-lived, and repeated use can lead to a diminished effect, known as placebo sag.

      It is difficult to separate placebo effects from spontaneous remission, and patients who enter clinical trials generally do so when acutely unwell, making it challenging to show treatment effects. Breaking the blind may influence the outcome, and the expectancy effect may explain why active placebos are more effective than inert placebos. Overall, understanding the placebo effect is crucial in clinical trials and personalized medicine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 90 - Anomic aphasia is most likely to occur due to a lesion in which...

    Incorrect

    • Anomic aphasia is most likely to occur due to a lesion in which area?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Angular gyrus

      Explanation:

      The parahippocampal gyrus is located surrounding the hippocampus and is involved in memory processing. Asymmetry in this area has also been observed in individuals with schizophrenia.

      Aphasia is a language impairment that affects the production of comprehension of speech, as well as the ability to read of write. The areas involved in language are situated around the Sylvian fissure, referred to as the ‘perisylvian language area’. For repetition, the primary auditory cortex, Wernicke, Broca via the Arcuate fasciculus (AF), Broca recodes into articulatory plan, primary motor cortex, and pyramidal system to cranial nerves are involved. For oral reading, the visual cortex to Wernicke and the same processes as for repetition follows. For writing, Wernicke via AF to premotor cortex for arm and hand, movement planned, sent to motor cortex. The classification of aphasia is complex and imprecise, with the Boston Group classification and Luria’s aphasia interpretation being the most influential. The important subtypes of aphasia include global aphasia, Broca’s aphasia, Wernicke’s aphasia, conduction aphasia, anomic aphasia, transcortical motor aphasia, and transcortical sensory aphasia. Additional syndromes include alexia without agraphia, alexia with agraphia, and pure word deafness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 91 - What defence mechanism is commonly observed in individuals in the paranoid-schizoid position? ...

    Incorrect

    • What defence mechanism is commonly observed in individuals in the paranoid-schizoid position?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Splitting

      Explanation:

      Melanie Klein, a prominent psychoanalyst, introduced two significant concepts in her work: the paranoid-schizoid position and the depressive position. The paranoid-schizoid position is a state of mind where the individual perceives the world as fragmented, dividing it into good and bad. This position is characterized by the defense mechanism of splitting, where the individual separates the good and bad aspects of themselves and others.

      On the other hand, the depressive position follows the paranoid-schizoid position and is characterized by the ability to accept ambivalence, where something can be both good and bad. This position represents a more integrated state of mind, where the individual can hold conflicting emotions and thoughts simultaneously. These concepts have been influential in psychoanalytic theory and have contributed to our understanding of the human psyche.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 92 - What is the main reason for the absence of staff uniforms in therapeutic...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main reason for the absence of staff uniforms in therapeutic communities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Communalism

      Explanation:

      Principles of Therapeutic Communities

      Therapeutic communities are based on four main principles that guide their operations. The first principle is communalism, which emphasizes that staff and service users should not be separated by uniforms of behaviours. This means that everyone in the community is treated equally and with respect. The second principle is democratisation, which involves shared decision-making and unit management. This means that everyone in the community has a say in how things are run and decisions are made collectively. The third principle is permissiveness, which involves accepting and tolerating occasional unpredictable behaviour. This means that members of the community are encouraged to be themselves and express their emotions freely. The fourth principle is reality confrontation, which involves group members challenging self-deception among others. This means that members of the community are encouraged to be honest with themselves and others.

      Group cohesion is another important aspect of therapeutic communities. It refers to the sense of belonging and acceptance that members of the community feel. This sense of belonging is fostered by the shared goal that the community is working towards. Members of the community understand that they are all in this together and that they need to support each other to achieve their goals. The sense of belonging and acceptance that comes with group cohesion is essential for the success of therapeutic communities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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  • Question 93 - Acamprosate is believed to produce its positive effects in the treatment of alcohol...

    Incorrect

    • Acamprosate is believed to produce its positive effects in the treatment of alcohol dependence by targeting which type of receptors?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metabotropic glutamate receptors

      Explanation:

      The exact way in which acamprosate helps maintain alcohol abstinence is not fully understood. However, it is believed that chronic alcohol exposure disrupts the balance between neuronal excitation and inhibition. Studies conducted on animals suggest that acamprosate may interact with the glutamate and GABA neurotransmitter systems in the brain, which may help restore this balance. Acamprosate is thought to inhibit glutamate receptors while activating GABA receptors, specifically GABA-A and metabotropic glutamate receptors. It should be noted that some sources suggest that acamprosate affects NMDA receptors, which are a type of ionotropic glutamate receptor. However, this is not entirely accurate and may not be reflected in exam questions.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 94 - Which drug interacts with an ionotropic receptor to produce its effects? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug interacts with an ionotropic receptor to produce its effects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Benzodiazepines

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of action for illicit drugs can be classified based on their effects on ionotropic receptors of ion channels, G coupled receptors, of monoamine transporters. Cocaine and amphetamine both increase dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft, but through different mechanisms. Cocaine directly blocks the dopamine transporter, while amphetamine binds to the transporter and increases dopamine efflux through various mechanisms, including inhibition of vesicular monoamine transporter 2 and monoamine oxidase, and stimulation of the intracellular receptor TAAR1. These mechanisms result in increased dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft and reuptake inhibition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 95 - What is the name of the opioid antagonist that is used for the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the name of the opioid antagonist that is used for the treatment of opioid and alcohol dependence and has a long-lasting effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Naltrexone

      Explanation:

      There exist two primary opioid antagonists.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 96 - What is the name for an organism that develops from a single zygote...

    Incorrect

    • What is the name for an organism that develops from a single zygote but has multiple genetically distinct populations of cells?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mosaic

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Difference between Chimeras and Mosaics

      Chimeras and mosaics are two types of animals that have multiple genetically distinct populations of cells. However, it is important to understand the clear distinction between these two forms, which is often ignored of misused.

      Mosaics are animals that have different cell types that all originate from a single zygote. This means that during development, some cells may acquire genetic mutations of changes that make them different from the rest of the cells in the organism. These changes can occur randomly of due to environmental factors, and can result in different physical characteristics of traits within the same individual.

      On the other hand, chimeras are animals that originate from more than one zygote. This can happen when two fertilized eggs fuse together early in development, of when two embryos merge into a single individual. As a result, chimeras have distinct populations of cells with different genetic makeups, which can lead to unique physical characteristics of traits.

      A plasmid is an autonomously replicating, extrachromosomal circular DNA molecule, distinct from the normal bacterial genome and nonessential for cell survival under nonselective conditions. Some plasmids are capable of integrating into the host genome. A number of artificially constructed plasmids are used as cloning vectors.
      A clone is an organism that is genetically identical to the unit of individual from which it was derived.
      A morula is the term given to the spherical embryonic mass of blastomeres formed before the blastula and resulting from cleavage of the fertilized ovum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 97 - What is the characteristic feature that is specific to Wilson's disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the characteristic feature that is specific to Wilson's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kayser-Fleischer Ring

      Explanation:

      While other conditions may also present with the same symptoms, a Kayser-Fleischer Ring, characterized by a golden-brown corneal ring due to copper deposits at the Descemet’s membrane, is considered a definitive indicator of Wilson’s disease.

      Understanding Wilson’s Disease: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Wilson’s disease, also known as hepatolenticular degeneration, is a genetic disorder that affects copper storage in the body. This condition is caused by a defect in the ATP7B gene, which leads to the accumulation of copper in the liver and brain. The onset of symptoms usually occurs between the ages of 10 and 25, with liver disease being the most common presentation in children and neurological symptoms in young adults.

      The excessive deposition of copper in the tissues can cause a range of symptoms, including hepatitis, cirrhosis, basal ganglia degeneration, speech and behavioral problems, asterixis, chorea, dementia, Kayser-Fleischer rings, sunflower cataract, renal tubular acidosis, haemolysis, and blue nails. Diagnosis is based on reduced serum ceruloplasmin, reduced serum copper, and increased 24-hour urinary copper excretion.

      The traditional first-line treatment for Wilson’s disease is penicillamine, which chelates copper. Trientine hydrochloride is an alternative chelating agent that may become first-line treatment in the future. Tetrathiomolybdate is a newer agent that is currently under investigation.

      In summary, Wilson’s disease is a genetic disorder that affects copper storage in the body, leading to a range of symptoms that can affect the liver, brain, and eyes. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 98 - A teenager seeks help for the first time with symptoms of depression. She...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager seeks help for the first time with symptoms of depression. She undergoes extensive treatment from a youth mental health team with counseling and antidepressants. What level of prevention has she received?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secondary prevention

      Explanation:

      Secondary prevention aims to decrease the prevalence of a disorder by targeting individuals in the early stages of the disorder, with the goal of reducing its severity and duration and preventing it from becoming chronic. Primary prevention, on the other hand, aims to decrease the incidence of a disorder by targeting individuals who are at risk of developing the disorder but do not yet have it. Selected prevention is a type of primary prevention that focuses on individuals who are at an increased risk of developing the disorder due to factors such as family history. Tertiary prevention is aimed at individuals who already have the disorder, with the goal of reducing the associated disability. Universal prevention is a type of primary prevention that targets the entire population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Prevention Of Psychological Disorder
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  • Question 99 - A 45-year-old man seeks psychological evaluation for potential obsessive compulsive disorder. His therapist...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man seeks psychological evaluation for potential obsessive compulsive disorder. His therapist collaborates with him to establish a therapy goal to be achieved over the course of sixteen weeks.
      Throughout their sessions, the therapist proposes a formulation of the client's challenges that addresses his conscious thoughts and emotions. They also engage in exercises where the client is urged to refrain from performing the checking rituals that have been consuming his time.
      What type of psychotherapy aligns with this method?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Cognitive behavioural therapy aims to address specific disorders by challenging negative thought patterns through conscious cognitive processes. Behavioural experiments are conducted with therapist guidance to gather evidence for and against interpretations of experiences. Analytic psychotherapy involves the therapist interpreting the client’s experiences based on joint experiences. Cognitive analytic therapy involves exploring past relationships and identifying repetitive behavioural patterns. Interpersonal theory focuses on problem areas in the client’s life, such as grief of role disputes. Motivational interviewing helps clients identify motivation for change and move through the stages of change.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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  • Question 100 - A child believes that their teacher is actually their parent in disguise. What...

    Incorrect

    • A child believes that their teacher is actually their parent in disguise. What is the term for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Frégoli syndrome

      Explanation:

      Frégoli syndrome is a type of delusional misidentification syndrome where a person believes that a familiar person is taking on the appearance of other people. It is named after Leopold Frégoli, a famous impersonator known for his quick changes. In contrast, Capgras syndrome involves the belief that a familiar person has been replaced by an imposter, while Cotard’s syndrome is characterized by nihilistic delusions such as the belief that one is dead. Intermetamorphosis is another delusional misidentification syndrome where a person thinks they can see others physically and physiologically transform into someone else. Finally, the syndrome of subjective doubles involves the belief that another person has become a copy of oneself.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Classification And Assessment (0/1) 0%
Psychopharmacology (0/3) 0%
Neurosciences (4/5) 80%
Psychological Development (1/2) 50%
Social Psychology (2/2) 100%
Assessment (1/2) 50%
Stigma And Culture (0/1) 0%
Descriptive Psychopathology (1/1) 100%
Passmed