00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A husband visits the clinic with his wife because he wants to be...

    Incorrect

    • A husband visits the clinic with his wife because he wants to be screened for cystic fibrosis. His brother and wife had a child with cystic fibrosis so he is concerned. His wife is currently 10 weeks pregnant. When screened, he was found to be a carrier of the DF508 mutation for cystic fibrosis but despite this result, the wife declines testing. What are the chances that she will have a child with cystic fibrosis, given that the gene frequency for this mutation in the general population is 1/20?

      Your Answer: 1/160

      Correct Answer: 1/80

      Explanation:

      The chance of two carriers of a recessive gene having a child that is homozygous for that disease (that is both genes are transmitted to the child) is 25%. Therefore, the chances of this couple having a child with CF are 25%(1/4) x 1/20 = 1/80.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 27-year-old lady presents with severe morning headaches associated with nausea. Head MRI...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old lady presents with severe morning headaches associated with nausea. Head MRI reveals a large compressive tumour arising from the falx cerebri. The tumour is well delineated. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Meningioma

      Explanation:

      Meningiomas are the most common benign tumours of the brain. Their name is derived from the fact that they arise from the dura mater which together with the pia matter and arachnoid mater form the meninges. The chances that a meningioma is benign are almost 98%. They are non-invasive and well delineated, causing sign and symptoms of brain compression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      1.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 32 year old female is diagnosed with SLE based on her complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old female is diagnosed with SLE based on her complaints of polyarthralgia, mouth ulcers and ANA positivity. Labs reveal normal urinalysis, urea and electrolytes. ESR is 90mm in the first hour. How will you manage this patient?

      Your Answer: Six monthly pulses of cyclophosphamide (2 mg/kg)

      Correct Answer: Hydroxychloroquine 200 mg/day

      Explanation:

      Hydroxychloroquine is used in the management of SLE as it prevents disease progression and has relatively mild side effects, for instance headache, nausea etc. Its use reduces the usage of corticosteroids. It is particularly effective when the disease is less severe and there is no organ involvement. Cyclophosphamide and prednisolone are indicated in cases of renal, neurological and lung involvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      68.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 52-year-old man has squamous-cell carcinoma of his lower lip. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man has squamous-cell carcinoma of his lower lip. Which of the following is most likely to be a feature of this type of carcinoma?

      Your Answer: It commonly spreads to distant sites by venous channels

      Correct Answer: It is capable of metastasising via the lymphatics

      Explanation:

      Squamous-cell skin cancer usually presents as a hard lump with a scaly top but can also form an ulcer. Onset is often over months and it is more likely to spread to distant areas than basal cell cancer vie the lymphatics. The greatest risk factor is high total exposure to ultraviolet radiation from the Sun. Other risks include prior scars, chronic wounds, actinic keratosis, lighter skin, Bowen’s disease, arsenic exposure, radiation therapy, poor immune system function, previous basal cell carcinoma, and HPV infection. While prognosis is usually good, if distant spread occurs five-year survival is ,34%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 41-year-old female is referred to medical assessment unit by her physician for...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old female is referred to medical assessment unit by her physician for querying thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) after she presented with a temperature of 38.9C. Her subsequent urea and electrolytes showed deteriorating renal function with a creatinine 3 times greater than her baseline. What is the underlying pathophysiology of TTP?

      Your Answer: Autoimmune destruction of platelets

      Correct Answer: Failure to cleave von Willebrand factor normally

      Explanation:

      Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is characterised by the von Willebrand factor (vWF) microthrombi within the vessels of multiple organs. In this condition, the ADAMTS13 metalloprotease enzyme which is responsible for the breakdown of vWF multimer, is deficient, causing its build-up and leading to platelet clots that then decreases the circulating platelets, leading to bleeding in the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old woman presents at clinic complaining of worsening hoarseness of voice and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents at clinic complaining of worsening hoarseness of voice and dyspnoea over the past month. She has a history of toxic multinodular goitre successfully treated with radioiodine. On examination, she has a firm asymmetrical swelling of the thyroid gland. Laryngoscopy demonstrates a right vocal cord paralysis and apparent external compression of the trachea. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anaplastic thyroid cancer

      Explanation:

      Thyroid malignancies are divided into papillary carcinomas (80%), follicular carcinomas (10%), medullary thyroid carcinomas (5-10%), anaplastic carcinomas (1-2%), primary thyroid lymphomas (rare), and primary thyroid sarcomas (rare).
      Hürthle cell carcinoma is a rare thyroid malignancy that is often considered a variant of follicular carcinoma.
      – Papillary and Follicular carcinoma are slow-growing tumours
      – Sporadic cases of Medullary thyroid carcinoma also typically manifest with painless solitary thyroid nodules in the early stages.
      – Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma has the most aggressive biologic behaviour of all thyroid malignancies and has one of the worst survival rates of all malignancies in general. It manifests as a rapidly growing thyroid mass in contrast to a well-differentiated carcinoma, which are comparatively slow-growing. Patients commonly present with associated symptoms due to local invasion. Hoarseness and dyspnoea resulting from the involvement of the recurrent laryngeal nerve and airway occur in as many as 50% of patients.
      – Almost all patients with primary thyroid lymphoma have either a clinical history or histological evidence of chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis. The risk of primary thyroid lymphoma increases 70-fold in patients with chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis compared with the general population. Regional and distant lymphadenopathy is common.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 60-year-old man with a history of recent thyrotoxicosis underwent major surgery a...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with a history of recent thyrotoxicosis underwent major surgery a week ago. He now presents with altered mental status, tachycardia, high-grade fever, vomiting and cardiac failure. A diagnosis of thyroid storm (crisis) is made. What is the most important next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transfer the patient to ITU

      Explanation:

      Thyroid storm, also referred to as thyrotoxic crisis, is an acute, life-threatening, hypermetabolic state induced by excessive release of thyroid hormones (THs) in individuals with thyrotoxicosis.
      Patients with thyroid storm should be treated in an ICU setting for close monitoring of vital signs and for access to invasive monitoring and inotropic support, if necessary.
      – Supportive measures
      If needed, immediately provide supplemental oxygen, ventilatory support, and intravenous fluids. Dextrose solutions are the preferred intravenous fluids to cope with continuously high metabolic demand.
      – Correct electrolyte abnormalities.
      – Treat cardiac arrhythmia, if necessary.
      – Aggressively control hyperthermia by applying ice packs and cooling blankets and by administering acetaminophen (15 mg/kg orally or rectally every 4 hours).
      – Antiadrenergic drugs.
      – Thionamides: Correct the hyperthyroid state. Administer antithyroid medications to block further synthesis of thyroid hormones (THs).
      High-dose propylthiouracil (PTU) or methimazole may be used for treatment of thyroid storm.
      – Administer glucocorticoids to decrease peripheral conversion of T4 to T3. This may also be useful in preventing relative adrenal insufficiency due to hyperthyroidism and improving vasomotor symptoms.
      – Bile acid sequestrants prevent reabsorption of free THs in the gut (released from conjugated TH metabolites secreted into bile through the enterohepatic circulation).
      – Treat the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Osteopetrosis occurs as a result of a defect in: ...

    Incorrect

    • Osteopetrosis occurs as a result of a defect in:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoclast function

      Explanation:

      It is a metabolic bone disease caused by defective osteoclastic resorption of immature bone. Osteopetrosis is also known as marble bone disease. Osteoclasts are unable to adequately acidify bone matrix. Impaired bone resorption leads to overly dense bone that is more likely to fracture. It is usually treated with bone marrow transplant and high dose calcitriol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An elderly woman is admitted to the hospital with a community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)....

    Incorrect

    • An elderly woman is admitted to the hospital with a community-acquired pneumonia (CAP). Her medical notes state that she developed a skin rash after taking penicillin a few years ago. She has a CURB score of 4 and adverse prognostic features. Which of the following would be an appropriate empirical antibiotic choice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cefotaxime and erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is one of the most common infectious diseases and is an important cause of mortality and morbidity worldwide. Typical bacterial pathogens that cause CAP include Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Moraxella catarrhalis.
      The CURB-65 is used as a means of deciding the action that is needed to be taken for that patient.
      Score 3-5: Requires hospitalization with consideration as to whether they need to be in the intensive care unit

      Recent studies have suggested that the use of a beta-lactam alone may be noninferior to a beta-lactam/macrolide combination or fluoroquinolone therapy in hospitalized patients.

      Therapy in ICU patients includes the following:
      – Beta-lactam (ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, or ampicillin/sulbactam) plus either a macrolide or respiratory fluoroquinolone
      – For patients with penicillin allergy, a respiratory fluoroquinolone and aztreonam

      Therefore the appropriate treatment would be Cefotaxime and erythromycin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old woman with lung cancer develops deep vein thrombosis (DVT). She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with lung cancer develops deep vein thrombosis (DVT). She is reviewed in the hospital clinic and started on low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH). Which of the following should be the most appropriate treatment plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue on LMWH for 6 months

      Explanation:

      Patients with active cancer are at a continuous risk of having venous thromboembolism (VTE), such as DVT. Therefore, a six-month course of an anticoagulant such as LMWH is recommended. LMWH is the drug of choice since its side effects can be reversed and it can be stopped easily in case of a cancer-related bleed, for example, massive haemoptysis in a patient with lung cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 36 year old man arrives at the clinic complaining of pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 36 year old man arrives at the clinic complaining of pain and swelling of the left knee, ankles and right hallux. He has acute conjunctivitis, and dysuria. He suffered from an episode of gastroenteritis two weeks back. Clinical examination shows left Achilles tendonitis and right plantar fasciitis. Radiological examination reveals left sacroiliitis, with evidence of enthesitis, joint erosions and periostitis. HLA-B27 is positive. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reiter’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. extraarticular dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum), oral ulcers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old woman is referred to the acute medical unit with a 5...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is referred to the acute medical unit with a 5 day history of polyarthritis and a low-grade fever. Examination reveals shin lesions which the patient states are painful. Chest x-ray shows a bulky mediastinum. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lofgren's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Lofgren’s syndrome is an acute form of sarcoidosis characterized by erythema nodosum, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL), and polyarthralgia or polyarthritis. Other symptoms include anterior uveitis, fever, ankle periarthritis, and pulmonary involvement.

      Löfgren syndrome is usually an acute disease with an excellent prognosis, typically resolving spontaneously from 6-8 weeks to up to 2 years after onset. Pulmonologists, ophthalmologists, and rheumatologists often define this syndrome differently, describing varying combinations of arthritis, arthralgia, uveitis, erythema nodosum, hilar adenopathy, and/or other clinical findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - An 88-year-old retired firefighter presents with loss of vision in his left eye...

    Incorrect

    • An 88-year-old retired firefighter presents with loss of vision in his left eye since this morning. He is otherwise asymptomatic and of note has had no associated eye pain or headaches. His past medical history includes ischaemic heart disease but he is otherwise well. On examination he has no vision in his left eye. The left pupil responds poorly to light but the consensual light reaction is normal. Fundoscopy reveals a red spot over a pale and opaque retina. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Central retinal artery occlusion

      Explanation:

      The most common causes of a sudden painless loss of vision are:
      – ischaemic optic neuropathy
      – occlusion of central retinal vein or artery
      – vitreous haemorrhage
      – retinal detachment.
      Central retinal artery occlusion is due to thromboembolism (from atherosclerosis) or arteritis (e.g. temporal arteritis). Features include afferent pupillary defects, and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 60–year-old woman comes to the hospital for chemotherapy for breast cancer. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 60–year-old woman comes to the hospital for chemotherapy for breast cancer. On examination, her pulse is 120 bpm and regular and BP is 90/60. Her JVP is not seen, her heart sounds are normal, and her chest is clear. There is evidence of a right mastectomy. Abdominal and neurological examination is normal. Short synacthen test was ordered and the results came as follows: Time (min): 0, 30, 60. Cortisol (nmol/l): 90, 130, 145. Which two of the following would be your immediate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous normal saline 1l in first hour

      Explanation:

      Synacthen test interpretation:
      – Basal Cortisol level should be greater than 180nmol/L
      – 30min or 60min Cortisol should be greater than 420nmol/L (whatever the basal level)
      – The increment should be at least 170nmol/L, apart from in severely ill patients where adrenal output is already maximal.
      The patient’s results show that she has Acute Adrenal Insufficiency
      The guidelines include the following recommendations for emergency treatment:
      Administer hydrocortisone: Immediate bolus injection of 100 mg hydrocortisone intravenously or intramuscularly followed by continuous intravenous infusion of 200 mg hydrocortisone per 24 hours (alternatively, 50 mg hydrocortisone per intravenous or intramuscular injection every 6 h)
      Rehydrate with rapid intravenous infusion of 1000 mL of isotonic saline infusion within the first hour, followed by further intravenous rehydration as required (usually 4-6 L in 24 h; monitor for fluid overload in case of renal impairment and elderly patients)
      Contact an endocrinologist for urgent review of the patient, advice on further tapering of hydrocortisone, and investigation of the underlying cause of the disease, including the diagnosis of primary versus secondary adrenal insufficiency
      Tapering of hydrocortisone can be started after clinical recovery guided by an endocrinologist; in patients with primary adrenal insufficiency, mineralocorticoid replacement must be initiated (starting dose 100 μg fludrocortisone once daily) as soon as the daily glucocorticoid dose is below 50 mg of hydrocortisone every 24 hours

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 72-year-old man is referred to the haematology department with raised haemoglobin and...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man is referred to the haematology department with raised haemoglobin and platelet levels. A diagnosis of polycythaemia vera is suspected. Which other abnormality of the blood would be most consistent with this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neutrophilia

      Explanation:

      Neutrophilia is also commonly associated with polycythaemia vera.

      Polycythaemia vera (PV), also known as polycythaemia rubra vera, is a myeloproliferative disorder caused by clonal proliferation of marrow stem cells leading to an increase in red cell volume, often accompanied by overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. It has peak incidence in the sixth decade of life, with typical features including hyperviscosity, pruritus, splenomegaly, haemorrhage (secondary to abnormal platelet function), and plethoric appearance.

      Some management options of PV include lose-dose aspirin, venesection (first-line treatment), hydroxyurea (slightly increased risk of secondary leukaemia), and radioactive phosphorus (P-32) therapy.

      In PV, thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. 5–15% of the cases progress to myelofibrosis or AML. The risk of having AML is increased with chemotherapy treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 35 year old lady presented with a hyperkeratotic, scaly rash over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old lady presented with a hyperkeratotic, scaly rash over the palmar aspect of her hands and interdigital spaces. The most likely diagnosis would be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tinea manum

      Explanation:

      Tinea manum is a superficial fungal infection of the hands characterised by dry scaly rash and also involves the interdigital spaces of the hands.

      Tinea pedis is a fungal infection of feet, whereas onychomycosis represents a fungal infection of the nails, characterised by nail dystrophy, hyperkeratosis.

      Kerion is the name given to secondarily infected tinea capitis leading to a soft boggy swelling over the scalp.

      Psoriasis presents as silvery scales over the extensors of the body and it may involve the nails, scalp and joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors listed below has the highest incidence of discontinuation...

    Incorrect

    • Which selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors listed below has the highest incidence of discontinuation symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paroxetine

      Explanation:

      A couple of papers written by the same authors indicate that children and adolescents taking an SSRI definitely experience discontinuation reactions that can be mild, moderate or severe when the medication is stopped suddenly or high doses are reduced substantially. Among the SSRIs paroxetine seems to be the worst offender and fluoxetine the least while sertraline and fluvoxamine tend to be intermediate. The rate of discontinuation syndrome varies with the particular SSRI involved. It is generally quoted as 25% but is higher for SSRIs with shorter half-lives. Paroxetine has been associated with more frequent discontinuation symptoms than the other SSRIs.

      The use of fluoxetine with its long half-life appears safer in this respect than paroxetine and venlafaxine causing the most concerns.

      Paroxetine has the shortest half-life with 21 hours of all listed SSRIs and as such it would be expected to have a higher incidence or severity (greater number of symptoms) and fluoxetine would have the least since it has a half life of 96 hours. Citalopram has a half-life of 35 hours while escitalopram has a half-life of 30 hours.

      The most common symptoms reported are: dizziness, light-headedness, drowsiness, poor concentration, nausea, headache and fatigue.
      Another common symptom in adults is paraesthesia described as burning, tingling, numbness or electric shock feelings usually in the upper half of the body or proximal lower limbs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 42 yr. old previously well woman presented with acute severe central chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 yr. old previously well woman presented with acute severe central chest pain for the past 2 hours. She has a family history of premature coronary artery disease. Her husband passed away recently due to prostate cancer. On examination her blood pressure was 130/80 mmHg and pulse rate was 80 bpm. Her ECG showed ST segment elevation and her troponin was slightly elevated. Emergency angiogram revealed slight wall irregularities with no luminal obstruction. Cardiovascular MR showed an apical ballooning of the myocardium resembling an octopus pot. Which of the following is the most likely cause for the ST segment elevation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Causes for ST segment elevation other than myocardial infarction
      Natural variants
      -Early repolarization
      -Left ventricular hypertrophy and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
      -Left bundle branch block
      Artefacts
      -Leads mispositioning
      -Electrical cardioversion
      Cardiovascular diseases
      -Pericarditis/ Myocarditis
      -Aortic dissection
      -Prinzmetal’s angina
      -Takotsubo Cardiomyopathy
      -Brugada Syndrome and arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy/dysplasia
      Pulmonary diseases
      -Pulmonary thromboembolism
      -Pneumothorax
      -Atelectasis and pulmonary metastases
      Gastrointestinal diseases
      -Acute pancreatitis
      -Acute cholecystitis
      Other conditions
      -Hyperkalaemia
      -Drug induced ST segment elevation (e.g. – clozapine)
      -Haemorrhagic cerebrovascular disease

      Coronary artery disease and myocardial infarction can be excluded with a negative angiogram and a slightly elevated troponin. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy can be excluded with cardiovascular MR findings. Left ventricular aneurysm usually occurs following a myocardial infarction, but there is no positive history for that. The characteristic findings on cardiovascular MR confirms the diagnosis of Takotsubo cardiomyopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 60-year-old male is under treatment with azathioprine after a renal transplant. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male is under treatment with azathioprine after a renal transplant. During his review, he complains of pain and swelling over his left great toe. Investigations reveal hyperuricemia. Suspecting gout, he was started on allopurinol. Subsequently, he develops aplastic anaemia. Which of the following is the most appropriate reason for his bone marrow failure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mercaptopurine toxicity

      Explanation:

      The cause for bone marrow suppression in this patient is most probably mercaptopurine toxicity.
      Azathioprine is metabolized to 6-mercaptopurine (6-MP), which itself is metabolized by xanthine oxidase.
      Xanthine oxidase inhibition by allopurinol leads to the accumulation of 6-MP which then precipitates bone marrow failure.
      This may be potentially fatal if unrecognized.
      Clinical presentation:
      Toxicity symptoms include gastrointestinal symptoms, bradycardia, hepatotoxicity, myelosuppression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 30-year-old man presented with polydipsia and polyuria for the last two years....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presented with polydipsia and polyuria for the last two years. Investigations reveal: Serum urea 9.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), Serum creatinine 108 mol/L (60-110), Serum corrected calcium 2.9 mmol/L (2.2-2.6), Serum phosphate 0.7 mmol/L (0.8-1.4), Plasma parathyroid hormone 6.5 pmol/L (0.9-5.4). Which of the following is directly responsible for the increase in intestinal calcium absorption?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1,25 Dihydroxy vitamin D

      Explanation:

      This patient has hypercalcaemia due to hyperparathyroidism. However, the intestinal absorption of calcium is mainly controlled by 1,25 dihydroxy-vitamin D. Under the influence of calcitriol (active form of vitamin D), intestinal epithelial cells increase their synthesis of calbindin (calcium-binding carrier protein) necessary for active calcium ion absorption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Rheumatology (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Nephrology (0/1) 0%
Passmed