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  • Question 1 - A 20-year-old talented violinist is brought by her parents as they are concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old talented violinist is brought by her parents as they are concerned that she had a stroke as she is reporting weakness on her right side. Neurological examination is inconsistent with the provided history, suspecting a non-organic cause for her symptoms her GP provides reassurance. Despite it, the girl remains unable to move her right arm. What is the most probable diagnosis of this patient?

      Your Answer: Somatisation disorder

      Correct Answer: Conversion disorder

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient is conversion disorder.

      There may be underlying tension regarding her musical career which could be manifesting as apparent limb weakness.

      Conversion disorder typically involves loss of motor or sensory function. The patient doesn’t consciously feign the symptoms (factitious disorder) or seek material gain (malingering). Patients may be indifferent to their apparent disorder – la belle indifference – although this has not been backed up by studies.

      Other options:
      Unexplained symptoms
      There are a wide variety of psychiatric terms for patients who have symptoms for which no organic cause can be found:

      Somatization disorder
      Multiple physical symptoms present for at least 2 years
      the patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results

      Hypochondriacal disorder
      The persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, e.g. cancer.
      The patient again refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results

      Dissociative disorder
      Dissociation is a process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness
      Unlike conversion disorder, it involves psychiatric symptoms e.g. amnesia, fugue, stupor
      Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the new term for multiple personality disorder as is the most severe form of dissociative disorder

      Munchausen’s syndrome
      Also known as factitious disorder
      The intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms

      Malingering
      Fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or another gain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following is most consistent with small cell lung cancer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most consistent with small cell lung cancer?

      Your Answer: syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) is rarely seen

      Correct Answer: hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is rarely seen

      Explanation:

      The clinical manifestations of Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) can result from local tumour growth, intrathoracic spread, distant spread, and/or paraneoplastic syndromes.
      Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPO) is a rare paraneoplastic syndrome that is frequently associated with lung cancer; however, the incidence of clinically apparent HPO is not well known.
      SIADH is present in 15% of cases and most commonly seen.
      Although hypercalcaemia is frequently associated with malignancy, it is very rare in small cell lung cancer despite the high incidence of lytic bone metastases.
      Ectopic Cushing’s syndrome in SCLC does not usually exhibit the classic signs of Cushing’s syndrome and Cushing’s syndrome could also appear during effective chemotherapy.
      Chemotherapy is the treatment of choice in SCLC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old female presents to the acute medical unit with several lumps in...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presents to the acute medical unit with several lumps in her neck and under her arms, weight loss, vomiting, and low mood. She is investigated and is found to have several areas of suspicious lymphadenopathy including in the neck, both axillae, and mediastinum. She also has multiple lesions in her liver which are confirmed to be the manifestations of Hodgkin lymphoma after biopsy. Which stage of the disease is the patient currently at?

      Your Answer: IV

      Explanation:

      The patient is on stage IV according to the Ann Arbor staging system for Hodgkin lymphoma (HL). The disease has spread beyond the lymph nodes into the liver (involvement of extra lymphatic organ).

      HL is a malignant proliferation of lymphocytes characterised by the presence of distinctive giant cells known as Reed-Sternberg cells. It has a bimodal age distribution being most common in the third and seventh decades of life.

      Staging of HL is done according to the Ann Arbor staging system:
      Stage
      I: Single lymph node region (I) or one extra lymphatic site (IE)

      II: Two or more lymph node regions on same side of the diaphragm (II) or local extra lymphatic extension plus one or more lymph node regions on same side of the diaphragm (IIE)

      III: Lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III) which may be accompanied by local extra lymphatic extension (IIIE)

      IV: Diffuse involvement of one or more extra lymphatic organs or sites

      Suffix
      A: No B symptoms

      B: Presence of at least one of the following: unexplained weight loss >10% baseline during 6 months before staging; recurrent unexplained fever >38°C; recurrent night sweats

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 40-year-old man has had multiple blood transfusions for sideroblastic anaemia. However, this...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man has had multiple blood transfusions for sideroblastic anaemia. However, this time, 15 minutes into the blood transfusion, he complains of severe breathlessness. CXR shows diffuse bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)

      Explanation:

      Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) is a serious complication of blood transfusion characterised by the acute onset of non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema following transfusion of blood products.

      TRALI is a more severe manifestation of the febrile non-haemolytic group of transfusion reactions and usually occur in patients who have had multiple previous transfusions. TRALI is related to leucocyte antibodies which are present in the plasma of the blood donor. Multiparous women are the highest-risk donors for TRALI.

      For management, leucocyte-depleted blood is now used for transfusion and this is associated with a reduced risk of this type of transfusion reaction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 42-year-old man presents with a watery eye and some purulent discharge. Mucoid...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents with a watery eye and some purulent discharge. Mucoid discharge can be expressed from the lacrimal punctum. His eye is painful and red while the nasal end of his lower eyelid is swollen. The redness extends further to reach the nasal peri-orbital area. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute dacryocystitis

      Explanation:

      Acute dacryocystitis presents as inflammation of the lacrimal sac and is typically caused by infection. Symptoms of acute dacryocystitis can be pain, redness of the eye and swelling of the nasal aspect of the eye. The eye is usually watery and discharge can be expressed through the lacrimal punctum which is generally mucoid but can also be purulent. Patient can also present with fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 50 yr. old male with a history of type II diabetes mellitus...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 yr. old male with a history of type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension presented with exertional dyspnoea and chest pain for 2 weeks. On examination his blood pressure was 145/80 mmHg. On auscultation reversed splitting of the second heart sound and bibasal crepitations were detected. What would be the most likely finding on his ECG?

      Your Answer: P mitrale

      Correct Answer: Left bundle branch block

      Explanation:

      When closure of the pulmonary valve occurs before the aortic valve, reversed splitting occurs. The causes of reversed splitting are aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, left bundle branch block (LBBB), and a ventricular pacemaker.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old man was brought to the ER with acute confusion. He's a...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man was brought to the ER with acute confusion. He's a known case of bipolar disorder under treatment with mood stabilizers. Blood investigations revealed lithium toxicity. A decision is made to start the patient on sodium bicarbonate. What is the rationale behind the use of sodium bicarbonate in this patient?

      Your Answer: Increases urine alkalinity

      Explanation:

      The rationale behind the use of sodium bicarbonate is that it increases the alkalinity of the urine promoting lithium excretion. The preferred treatment in severe cases would be haemodialysis.

      Lithium is a mood-stabilizing drug used most commonly prophylactically in bipolar disorder but also as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a very narrow therapeutic range (0.4-1.0 mmol/L) and a long plasma half-life being excreted primarily by the kidneys. Lithium toxicity generally occurs following concentrations > 1.5 mmol/L.

      Toxicity may be precipitated by dehydration, renal failure, diuretics (especially Bendroflumethiazide), ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs and metronidazole.

      Features of toxicity
      Coarse tremor (a fine tremor is seen in therapeutic levels)
      Hyperreflexia
      Acute confusion
      Seizure
      Coma

      Management
      Mild-moderate toxicity may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline
      Haemodialysis may be needed in severe toxicity
      Sodium bicarbonate is sometimes used but there is limited evidence to support this. By increasing the alkalinity of the urine it promotes lithium excretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35 year old soldier presented with a painless, erythematous crusted plaque over...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old soldier presented with a painless, erythematous crusted plaque over the dorsum of his hand, after serving in a hilly area of Columbia for 2 months. The most likely diagnosis will be?

      Your Answer: Trypanosomiasis

      Correct Answer: Leishmaniasis

      Explanation:

      The chief presentation in Leishmaniasis is a non healing, ulcerated, painless and non pruritic plaque, which does not respond to oral antibiotics. It can be classified into cutaneous and visceral forms and is caused by the sand fly. It is more prevalent in the hilly areas. Fusobacterium causes a tropical ulcer which is painful and shallow, while Troanasomiasis causes sleeping sickness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      3172
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old student consumed a bottle of vodka at a party, the next...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old student consumed a bottle of vodka at a party, the next day he finds that he feels excessively thirsty and is passing more urine than usual. Which of the following mechanisms best explains the polyuria due to excessive alcohol consumption?

      Your Answer: Osmotic diuresis induced by ethanol

      Correct Answer: Ethanol inhibits ADH secretion

      Explanation:

      Ethanol reduces the calcium-dependent secretion of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) by blocking channels in the neurohypophyseal nerve terminal.
      Thus, ethanol’s inhibitory effect helps to explain the increased diuresis experienced during intoxicated states as well as increased free water loss; without appropriate ADH secretion, more water is excreted by the kidneys.

      Nausea associated with hangovers is mainly due to vagal stimulation to the vomiting centre.
      Following a particularly severe episode of alcohol excess, people may experience tremors due to increased glutamate production by neurons to compensate for the previous inhibition by ethanol.

      Management of alcoholism:
      Nutritional support:
      – Alcoholic patients should receive oral thiamine if their ‘diet may be deficient’.
      Pharmacological management:
      – Benzodiazepines for acute withdrawal
      – Disulfiram promotes abstinence – alcohol intake causes a severe reaction due to inhibition of acetaldehyde dehydrogenase. Patients should be aware that even small amounts of alcohol (e.g. In perfumes, foods, mouthwashes) can produce severe symptoms. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease and psychosis.
      – Acamprosate reduces craving, known to be a weak antagonist of NMDA receptors, improves abstinence in placebo-controlled trials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 67 year-old attorney presents with a 2 month history of tremors affecting...

    Correct

    • A 67 year-old attorney presents with a 2 month history of tremors affecting his left arm. He suffers from depressive psychosis for the last 10 years, for which he has been receiving intermittent chlorpromazine and amitriptyline but has not been on any therapy for the last 4 months. He describes that his two brothers also had tremors. Upon examination, he has a resting tremor of his left hand with cogwheel rigidity of that arm and mild generalized bradykinesia. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic Parkinson’s disease

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis is idiopathic Parkinson’s disease because of the unilateral presentation. In addition, cogwheel rigidity is a classic presenting symptom. Neuroleptic-induced parkinsonism is usually bilateral and symmetrical. Essential tremors do not cause rest tremors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      3.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Haematology & Oncology (2/2) 100%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
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