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  • Question 1 - A teenage patient has been diagnosed with a chlamydial infection following a recent...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage patient has been diagnosed with a chlamydial infection following a recent sexually transmitted infection (STI) screen. The patient has agreed to treatment of the infection and has no known allergies, however, you are concerned about compliance.
      Which of the following would be most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Ofloxacin

      Correct Answer: Azithromycin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Chlamydia: A Comparison of Antibiotics

      Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium C.trachomatis. It can be asymptomatic, particularly in females, and if left untreated, can lead to fertility issues and pelvic inflammatory disease. To combat this, national campaigns are encouraging testing and awareness. The recommended treatment for chlamydia is azithromycin, which is safe for patients with a penicillin allergy and has a short course of treatment. Erythromycin is an alternative for pregnant patients, while doxycycline and ofloxacin have similar efficacy but concerns regarding compliance and antibiotic resistance. Amoxicillin is only recommended for use in pregnancy or breastfeeding. It is important to consider the appropriate antibiotic based on the patient’s clinical situation and therapeutic indications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman, a mother of three, comes to see you on day...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman, a mother of three, comes to see you on day 20 postpartum and asks for contraception. She is currently alternating between breastfeeding and bottle-feeding her newborn, struggling with sleepless nights, and wants a referral for Fallopian tube ligation as she explains that, at present, she does not want any other children. She is a smoker.
      Which of the following is the best method of contraception in this patient?

      Your Answer: Progesterone-only pill

      Explanation:

      Contraception Options for Postpartum Women: A Guide for Healthcare Providers

      Postpartum women have unique contraceptive needs and considerations. In this guide, we will discuss the various contraception options available for postpartum women and their suitability based on individual circumstances.

      Progesterone-Only Pill

      The progesterone-only pill is a safe option for women who are breastfeeding and < six weeks postpartum. It can be started immediately after delivery and is the first-line management for women who cannot take the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). The pill thickens mucous, preventing sperm from entering the uterus, and suppresses ovulation. However, compliance can be an issue, and long-acting progesterone contraceptives may be more appropriate. Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill (COCP) The COCP should not be used before six weeks postpartum in breastfeeding women and before 21 days in non-breastfeeding women. A risk assessment should be performed, and contraindications, such as smoking and age over 35, should be considered. Intrauterine System The intrauterine system is a highly effective long-acting reversible contraceptive that can be inserted at the time of delivery or within the first 48 hours postpartum. Delayed insertion until after four weeks postpartum is recommended to reduce the risk of uterine perforation. No Contraception Required Breastfeeding can suppress ovulation, but if a woman is not exclusively breastfeeding, contraception should be offered. The patient’s wishes should be established, and contraception should be discussed at the 6-week postpartum check. Tubal Ligation (Sterilisation) Tubal ligation is a permanent form of contraception that should not be considered until after six weeks postpartum. The patient should be counselled regarding the risks and benefits, the low success of reversibility, and the possibility of future desire for children. Male sterilisation should be considered first, and both partners should be present for the consultation. In conclusion, healthcare providers should consider individual circumstances and preferences when discussing contraception options with postpartum women. A thorough risk assessment and counselling should be performed before recommending any form of contraception.

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      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old woman with two children visits the Gynaecology Clinic, referred by her...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman with two children visits the Gynaecology Clinic, referred by her general practitioner. She has decided that she wants to undergo a tubal ligation procedure to prevent any future pregnancies after discussing it with her partner. During her consultation, she asks about the potential risks associated with the procedure.
      What is a commonly acknowledged potential outcome of tubal ligation?

      Your Answer: Ectopic pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Potential Risks and Side Effects of Female Sterilisation

      Female sterilisation is a permanent contraceptive procedure that involves blocking the Fallopian tubes. While it is highly effective, it is important for women to understand the potential risks and side effects before undergoing the procedure.

      Risks and Side Effects of Female Sterilisation

      Explanation: Female sterilisation is a surgical procedure that permanently blocks the Fallopian tubes, preventing the passage of gametes. While it is a highly effective form of contraception, it is important for women to be aware of the potential risks and side effects before undergoing the procedure.

      One of the main risks of female sterilisation is the possibility of ectopic pregnancy, which occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside of the uterus. While the risk is low, it is important for women to be aware of this potential complication.

      Other risks and side effects of female sterilisation include complications during the procedure, such as the need for laparotomy under the same anesthesia, as well as the irreversibility of the procedure and the need to consider alternative contraceptive methods.

      It is also important to note that depression is a rare side effect of hormonal contraceptives, but is not seen with interventional approaches such as tubal ligation. Similarly, while unprotected intercourse can increase the risk of sexually transmitted infections (STIs), it would be unreasonable to label STIs after tubal ligation as a complication.

      Finally, weight gain is associated with hormonal contraceptives such as the combined oral contraceptive pill, but there is no evidence to suggest that tubal ligation causes weight gain. Women may also experience increased abdominal cramps during menstruation when using a non-hormonal intrauterine device (IUD) such as the copper IUD.

      Overall, it is important for women to have a thorough understanding of the potential risks and side effects of female sterilisation before making a decision about whether or not to undergo the procedure.

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      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician seeking the combined oral...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician seeking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease and had an ectopic pregnancy that was treated with methotrexate a year ago. Additionally, she is a heavy smoker, consuming 20 cigarettes per day. Her family history is significant for BRCA1 mutation in her mother and sister, but she declines genetic testing. What would be an absolute contraindication for the COCP in this patient?

      Your Answer: Smoker

      Explanation:

      The combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is a popular form of birth control, but it is not suitable for everyone. There are absolute contraindications, which mean that the COCP should not be used under any circumstances, and relative contraindications, which require careful consideration before prescribing.

      Absolute contraindications include smoking 15 or more cigarettes a day and being over 35 years old, hypertension, major surgery with prolonged immobilization, secondary Raynaud’s disease, systemic lupus erythematosus, positive for antiphospholipid syndrome, current or history of venous thromboembolism, migraine with aura, current breast cancer, liver cirrhosis, viral hepatitis, and diabetic nephropathy/retinopathy/neuropathy.

      Relative contraindications include smoking less than 15 cigarettes a day and being over 35 years old, being 6 weeks to 6 months postpartum and breastfeeding, being less than 21 days postpartum and not breastfeeding, having a body mass index of 35 or higher, having a family history of venous thromboembolism in a first-degree relative, having migraines without aura, having a history of breast cancer without recurrence for 5 years, using certain anticonvulsants, having dyslipidemia, undergoing rifampicin therapy, and having a previous use of methotrexate.

      A history of pelvic inflammatory disease or prior ectopic pregnancy is not considered a contraindication to the use of the COCP. The possibility of a BRCA mutation is a controversial topic, and while there is evidence of a small increase in breast cancer risk with COCP use, it is not an absolute contraindication. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best form of birth control for individual circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 5 - A 20-year-old student visits the Genitourinary Medicine (GUM) Clinic with concerns about a...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old student visits the Genitourinary Medicine (GUM) Clinic with concerns about a recent sexual encounter. He had unprotected sex with a woman and has since developed a purulent urethral discharge and painful urination. Gram-negative diplococci were identified in specimens taken from him. What is the probable causative organism for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing and Differentiating Sexually Transmitted Infections

      Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are a common health concern, and prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and further transmission. One such STI is gonorrhoeae, caused by the bacterium N. gonorrhoeae. Symptoms include purulent discharge, dysuria, and frequency, and if left untreated, can lead to infertility.

      Herpes simplex, another STI, typically presents with ulceration, which is not seen in this patient. Candida albicans, a type of yeast, is an unlikely diagnosis in men and would present with balanitis and white discharge. Chlamydia trachomatis, while similar in presentation, does not show Gram-negative diplococci on microscopy. However, up to 50% of patients with gonorrhoeae may also have coexisting chlamydia infection, so antibiotic regimes should cover both. Ciprofloxacin is effective, but drug-resistant strains of N. gonorrhoeae are emerging, so alternative antibiotics may be necessary.

      Finally, Trichomonas vaginalis, an anaerobic protozoan infection, is ruled out by the microscopy result. Accurate diagnosis and differentiation of STIs are essential for effective treatment and prevention of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old man presents to the Genitourinary Medicine (GUM) Clinic with a rash....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents to the Genitourinary Medicine (GUM) Clinic with a rash. Upon examination, the doctor observes numerous flesh-colored, hemispherical papules with a central indentation, measuring around 4 mm in diameter, covering the upper thighs and shaft of the penis. The diagnosis is molluscum contagiosum. What would be a suitable treatment plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No treatment is advised

      Explanation:

      Molluscum Contagiosum: Diagnosis and Treatment Options

      Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin disease that can be transmitted through sexual and non-sexual means. It results in flesh-colored, hemispherical papules with a central indentation, typically found on the genitalia, lower abdomen, and upper thighs. The incubation period is 3-12 weeks, and lesions can persist for up to two years before resolving on their own.

      Diagnosis is made through clinical examination and electron microscopy of lesion particles. Treatment is not routinely recommended due to the self-resolving nature of the disease. However, cosmetic treatments such as benzoyl peroxide and podophyllotoxin may be used in adults with unsightly lesions on exposed areas or affecting quality of life.

      Saline baths, acyclovir, corticosteroids, and metronidazole are not appropriate treatments for molluscum contagiosum. Saline baths are used for itch relief in conditions like eczema, acyclovir is for herpes zoster infection, corticosteroids are not recommended for viral skin diseases, and metronidazole is used for rosacea.

      In conclusion, molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin disease that can be diagnosed through clinical examination and electron microscopy. Treatment is not routinely recommended, but cosmetic options may be used in certain cases. Other treatments, such as saline baths, acyclovir, corticosteroids, and metronidazole, are not appropriate for this condition.

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      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 7 - You review a 35-year-old woman with a history of menorrhagia and dysmenorrhoea. She...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 35-year-old woman with a history of menorrhagia and dysmenorrhoea. She has started a new relationship and wants some advice on the best method of contraception.
      An ultrasound scan from six months ago showed three subserosal fibroids ranging in size from 1 to 2 cm in maximal dimension, without uterine distortion.
      Her medical history includes migraines with aura, which are well controlled at present.
      Which of the following is the best suited method of contraception for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Levonorgestrel intrauterine system

      Explanation:

      Contraceptive Options for Women with Menorrhagia and Fibroids

      Women with menorrhagia and small fibroids may benefit from the levonorgestrel intrauterine system as a first-line contraceptive option. This device reduces bleeding by 90% and offers a convenient, long-acting method of contraception with a low failure rate. However, if the intrauterine system is not acceptable, the progesterone-only pill is a reasonable alternative.

      For women with larger fibroids or uterine distortion, alternative forms of contraception should be offered, such as the COCP, progesterone implant, injections, or barrier methods. It is important to inform patients that any form of contraception they choose does not protect against sexually transmitted infections.

      The intrauterine copper device is another long-acting reversible contraceptive option, but it is not recommended for women with pre-existing menorrhagia due to the risk of heavier bleeding. While this device is non-hormonal and over 99% effective in preventing pregnancy, it is an invasive procedure and carries a risk of expulsion and uterine perforation.

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      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 8 - A health-conscious 29-year-old woman attends a drop-in Genito-urinary Medicine Clinic for a routine...

    Incorrect

    • A health-conscious 29-year-old woman attends a drop-in Genito-urinary Medicine Clinic for a routine sexual transmitted infection (STI) screen. Her results indicate that she has contracted Chlamydia.
      Which of the following would be the most suitable antibiotic treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline 100 mg 12 hourly for 7 days

      Explanation:

      Common Antibiotics for Chlamydia Treatment: Dosage and Suitability

      Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis. Antibiotics are the primary treatment for chlamydial infection. However, not all antibiotics are suitable for treating this infection. Here are some common antibiotics used for chlamydia treatment, their recommended dosage, and their suitability for this infection.

      Doxycycline 100 mg 12 hourly for 7 days
      This is the recommended treatment for Chlamydia in adults/children over 13 years, according to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines and British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) guidance.

      Doxycycline 100 mg 12-hourly for 3 days
      Even though doxycycline is used to treat infection with Chlamydia, a course of 100 mg 12-hourly over 3 days is not sufficient. Doxycycline 100 mg 12-hourly for 7 days is the recommended course.

      Amoxicillin 500 mg every 8 hours for 7 days
      Amoxicillin targets Gram-positive bacteria and is hence an unsuitable antibiotic for chlamydial infection.

      Azithromycin 3 g orally single dose
      A dose of 3 g per day is much too high. The recommended dose for azithromycin to treat chlamydial infection is 1 g orally per day.

      Clarithromycin 250 mg for 14 days
      Clarithromycin is not typically used to treat infection with C. trachomatis. It is most commonly used to treat respiratory tract infections, soft tissue infections and as part of the treatment for H. pylori eradication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 9 - A sexually active teenager has forgotten two of her combined contraceptive pills. The...

    Incorrect

    • A sexually active teenager has forgotten two of her combined contraceptive pills. The pills have been missed in the third week of the packet (days 15–21).
      What is the most appropriate advice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The most recent pill should be taken immediately and continue with the remaining pills. Condoms should be used until seven consecutive pills have been taken and omit the pill-free interval week. Start the new pack.

      Explanation:

      Guidance for Missed Birth Control Pills

      When a woman misses a birth control pill, it can be confusing to know what to do next. Here is some guidance for different scenarios:

      1. One missed pill: Take the most recent pill immediately and continue with the remaining pills. Use condoms until seven consecutive pills have been taken and omit the pill-free interval week. Start the new pack.

      2. One missed pill (less than 24 hours late): Take the missed pill as soon as possible. There is no need for extra precautions provided the woman omits the pill-free week and starts the new pack immediately. Use condoms until seven consecutive active pills have been taken.

      3. Two missed pills: Take both missed pills and use extra precautions for the next seven days. Continue the pack as usual.

      4. Two missed pills (less than 48 hours late): Take the most recently missed pill as soon as possible. There is no indication for emergency contraception if the preceding seven pills prior to the missed pills have been taken correctly. Use condoms until seven consecutive active pills have been taken after missing tablets. If this is not the case, emergency contraception should be considered.

      5. Two missed pills (more than 48 hours late): Do not take the missed pills. Continue the packet as usual but use condoms for the next seven days. Take the most recent pill as soon as possible and use condoms until seven consecutive active pills have been taken.

      Remember, it is important to always read the instructions that come with your specific birth control pill and to consult with a healthcare provider if you have any concerns or questions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 10 - A 42-year-old woman comes in seeking advice on contraception. She has recently entered...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman comes in seeking advice on contraception. She has recently entered a new relationship and has been using barrier methods of contraception, but would like to explore other options for convenience. Her periods have become irregular over the past year, but she is otherwise healthy with a history of mild hypertension that is managed with ramipril. She does not drink but is a smoker, consuming around 20 cigarettes per day. What would be the most suitable form of contraception for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Progesterone-only pill (POP)

      Explanation:

      The progesterone-only pill (POP) is a suitable contraceptive option for this patient, especially since she is over 35 years old and a smoker. Other options to consider include the copper intrauterine device (IUD), the levonorgestrel IUS, and sterilization. Natural family planning may not be effective due to the patient’s irregular periods, which could be a sign of approaching menopause. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is not a contraceptive and therefore not recommended. Even though the patient is approaching menopause, she is still having periods, so contraception is still necessary. The combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is not advisable due to the patient’s age and smoking status, but the POP or implant could be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Sexual Health (3/4) 75%
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