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  • Question 1 - A 6-year-old boy presents to the clinic after experiencing his seventh fracture. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy presents to the clinic after experiencing his seventh fracture. Upon examination, his x-rays reveal dense bones with multiple cortical layers. He also has a mild normocytic anemia and low platelets, but his sclera appear white. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aplastic anaemia

      Correct Answer: Osteopetrosis

      Explanation:

      Osteopetrosis and its Distinction from Other Bone Disorders

      Osteopetrosis is a congenital condition that affects bone reabsorption, leading to the appearance of a ‘bone within a bone’ from multiple cortical layers. Despite the increased density, bones become brittle and prone to fracture, and there is no room for the marrow to grow, causing bone marrow failure and peripheral cytopenias. Additionally, bones expand and frequently cause neural compression symptoms.

      When diagnosing osteopetrosis, it is important to exclude non-accidental injury (NAI) due to the repeated bone injury, but NAI alone cannot account for the x-ray findings or the blood counts. However, a diagnosis of osteopetrosis does not rule out the possibility of NAI co-existing with the condition.

      Other bone disorders, such as acute lymphocytic leukemia and aplastic anemia, may present with peripheral cytopenias but not the x-ray appearances or multiple fractures. On the other hand, osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) is a congenital condition of brittle bones susceptible to multiple fractures due to a mutation in type I collagen. The most common form, type I OI, is inherited as an autosomal dominant condition and is associated with blue sclerae and neural deafness from bone overgrowth. X-rays show reduced bone density with cortical disorganization.

      In summary, the distinct features of osteopetrosis and its differentiation from other bone disorders is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old woman has been admitted to the Acute Medical Unit with shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman has been admitted to the Acute Medical Unit with shortness of breath, dizziness and feeling generally lethargic. Her full blood count reveals that her haemoglobin is 60 g/l. She reports that she suffers from menorrhagia. It is decided that she requires a blood transfusion. A few minutes after the transfusion begins, she develops a fever, lower back pain and starts vomiting.
      What is the diagnostic tool used to identify an ABO incompatibility transfusion reaction?

      Your Answer: Indirect antiglobulin test

      Correct Answer: Direct antiglobulin test (Coombs test)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Blood Transfusion Reactions

      Blood transfusion reactions can be life-threatening if not diagnosed and treated promptly. Several diagnostic tests are available to identify the cause of haemolysis and diagnose an ABO incompatibility transfusion reaction. Here are some of the commonly used tests:

      Direct Antiglobulin Test (Coombs Test)
      This test is used to identify whether red blood cells have antibodies attached to their surface. It is useful in diagnosing the cause of haemolysis in ABO incompatibility following transfusion, haemolytic disease of the newborn, drug-induced anaemia, and other autoimmune conditions that cause the destruction of red blood cells.

      Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)
      ESR measures the sedimentation of erythrocytes in a tall, thin tube of blood. Although it is not a useful test to establish the cause of haemolysis and diagnose an ABO incompatibility transfusion reaction, it can be used to diagnose infection, cancers, and inflammatory disease.

      Indirect Antiglobulin Test
      This test is an in vitro test for antibody-antigen reactions prior to blood transfusion. It can detect very low concentrations of antibodies in a patient’s plasma to ensure that donor blood will be compatible.

      Schirmer’s Test
      This test is used to diagnose keratoconjunctivitis sicca (dry eyes).

      White Cell Count
      Obtaining a white cell count is not a useful test in diagnosing an ABO incompatibility transfusion reaction. Although the patient may have fever and chills, it is likely secondary to a blood transfusion reaction rather than an acute infective process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
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  • Question 3 - A 50-year old heavy drinker visits his GP complaining of swelling and pain...

    Correct

    • A 50-year old heavy drinker visits his GP complaining of swelling and pain in his left knee. He reports experiencing a similar excruciating pain in his right big toe two years ago, for which he was prescribed allopurinol. What is the patient's diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gout

      Explanation:

      Common Bone and Joint Conditions

      Gout is a condition where uric acid builds up in a joint, causing sudden and intense pain, swelling, and redness. It often affects the big toe and can be triggered by alcohol. Men are more likely to develop gout, and it can also affect other joints such as the ankle, knee, and elbow. The presence of uric acid crystals, known as tophi, can confirm the diagnosis. Allopurinol can be used to prevent future attacks.

      Osgood-Schlatter disease is caused by tension on the patella tendon, leading to a fracture and symptoms such as pain and swelling over the tibial tubercle.

      Osteoporosis is a condition where the bone mineral density is reduced, increasing the risk of fractures, especially in the spine, hip, and wrist. It is most common in women after menopause due to a decrease in estrogen levels.

      Osteosarcoma is a type of bone cancer that can be associated with Paget’s disease of bone. It causes pain, especially at night, and increases the risk of fractures.

      Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disorder that commonly affects the small joints in the hands. Inflammatory markers will be elevated, and some cases may have a positive rheumatoid factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 4 - A 16-year-old girl visits a rheumatologist with complaints of occasional joint pain. Despite...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl visits a rheumatologist with complaints of occasional joint pain. Despite the absence of clinical synovitis, she has a Beighton score of 9 and is in good health. What is the most suitable course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Physiotherapy

      Explanation:

      Joint Pain in Children and Hypermobility Syndrome

      Joint pain in children can have various causes, including hypermobility syndrome. This condition is characterized by increased flexibility, as opposed to hereditary connective tissue disorders. The Beighton score is a method used to assess hypermobility, which involves ten tests. A score of 9 indicates high flexibility and suggests susceptibility to hypermobility syndrome. Although there is no intrinsic joint disease or clinical synovitis, joint pain can be experienced. Physiotherapy can help strengthen the soft tissues supporting joints and reduce pain.

      In mild juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA), which may present similarly to hypermobility syndrome, ibuprofen is the first line of management. However, if joints show clinical synovitis, methotrexate may be considered for severe JIA. It is important to reassure the child and parents that the pain is not sinister, but it is not the optimal management for this condition. Genetic conditions causing hypermobility, such as Ehlers-Danlos and Marfan syndrome, may require referral for genetic counseling, but there are no other features of these syndromes present in hypermobility syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      19.8
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  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old male complains of stiffness and joint pains in his hands and...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male complains of stiffness and joint pains in his hands and feet for the past month, which is worse in the morning. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any medication. Upon examination, there is some mild swelling in the proximal interphalangeal joints of both hands, metacarpo-phalangeal joints, and wrist. No other abnormalities are detected. What would be the most suitable investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid factor

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid Factor and Diagnostic Markers for Rheumatoid Arthritis

      The clinical scenario presented is a common manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis, with a positive rheumatoid factor found in approximately 70% of cases. This factor is an IgM antibody directed against IgG, and while false positives can occur, its presence is highly supportive of the diagnosis and carries prognostic significance. In addition to rheumatoid factor, non-specific markers of inflammation such as erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C reactive protein (CRP) are expected to be elevated in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. These diagnostic markers can aid in the diagnosis and management of the disease. Proper interpretation and utilization of these markers can lead to earlier diagnosis and better outcomes for patients with rheumatoid arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      12
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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old woman presents with a chronic history of diarrhoea, weight loss and...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with a chronic history of diarrhoea, weight loss and fatigue. Based upon the clinical history and examination findings, you suspect she has coeliac disease.
      What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

      Your Answer: IgA tissue transglutaminase (tTGA) antibody

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is a condition that affects the small intestine and is caused by an intolerance to gluten. There are several diagnostic tests available to help establish a diagnosis of coeliac disease. The first line test is the IgA tissue transglutaminase (tTGA) antibody serology. A positive test indicates that further testing, such as endoscopy and biopsy, is needed for confirmation.

      Before testing, it is important to confirm that the patient has been consuming gluten-containing foods regularly for at least six weeks. HLA testing is not a first line test and should only be carried out in secondary care.

      If the tTGA test is unavailable or weakly positive, IgA endomysial antibody testing may be used as a second line test. Small bowel biopsy is only indicated if serology is positive or equivocal.

      There is no indication for an abdominal CT scan in this scenario. The first line investigation for coeliac disease is serology, and if positive, diagnosis is confirmed or excluded by biopsy of the small bowel at endoscopy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
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  • Question 7 - A patient is diagnosed with mitral stenosis due to a history of rheumatic...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is diagnosed with mitral stenosis due to a history of rheumatic fever during childhood. What is included in Jones' major criteria for rheumatic fever?

      Your Answer: Positive anti-streptolysin O (ASO) titre

      Correct Answer: Erythema marginatum

      Explanation:

      Rheumatic Fever and Jones’ Criteria

      Rheumatic fever is a rare immunological complication that can occur after an infection with Streptococcus pyogenes. This condition is not commonly seen in developed countries due to the availability of antibiotics. Jones’ criteria are used to diagnose rheumatic fever and are divided into major and minor criteria. The major criteria include pancarditis, Sydenham’s chorea, erythema marginatum, subcutaneous nodules, and polyarthritis. The minor criteria include fever, arthralgia, raised ESR/CRP, prolonged PR interval, and previous rheumatic fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 8 - A biochemist isolated a receptor from a cell and found that it was...

    Incorrect

    • A biochemist isolated a receptor from a cell and found that it was a two-chained structure composed of α and β polypeptide chains linked by disulfide bonds. Further analysis revealed that the receptor consisted of transmembrane glycoproteins with short cytoplasmic tails and had a single antigen-binding site.
      Which of the following cells most likely contained this receptor if the biochemist had isolated it from a cell of a 60-year-old individual?

      Your Answer: Dendritic cell

      Correct Answer: T cell

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Immune Cells: T Cell, Mast Cell, B Cell, Dendritic Cell, and Kupffer Cell

      The immune system is composed of various types of cells that work together to protect the body from foreign invaders. Among these cells are T cells, mast cells, B cells, dendritic cells, and Kupffer cells.

      T cells are characterized by their T-cell receptors (TCRs), which are composed of polypeptide a and b chains connected by disulfide bonds. Each chain of the TCR has a variable and a constant region that folds into an immunoglobulin (Ig)-like domain.

      Mast cells, on the other hand, contain numerous granulocytes and secrete histamine when stimulated. They do not have TCRs.

      B cells have a B-cell receptor (BCR), which is a complex of Ig-a and Ig-b (signal transducers) associated with membrane Ig molecules. The BCR has two antigen-binding sites.

      Dendritic cells are resident macrophages found in the skin. They do not have TCRs.

      Kupffer cells are resident macrophages found in the liver. Like dendritic cells, they do not have TCRs.

      Understanding the characteristics of these immune cells is crucial in developing strategies to combat diseases and infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      23
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  • Question 9 - Langerhans cells, which are irregularly shaped cells with dendritic processes, an indented nucleus,...

    Incorrect

    • Langerhans cells, which are irregularly shaped cells with dendritic processes, an indented nucleus, and characteristic intracellular Birbeck granules, are distributed in multiple layers of the epidermis. What is the closest relative of these cells in the human body?

      Your Answer: Melanocyte

      Correct Answer: Monocyte

      Explanation:

      Cell Types in the Skin: Langerhans, Eosinophil, Basophil, Melanocyte, and Merkel Cell

      The skin is composed of various cell types, each with their own unique functions. Langerhans cells, originating from the bone marrow, are antigen-presenting cells found in the epidermis. They process antigens that enter the body via the epidermis and are involved in allergic dermatitis reactions. Eosinophils and basophils are rare in the epidermis, but if present, would be found in cutaneous blood vessels or the dermis and/or hypodermis. Melanocytes, on the other hand, are responsible for producing melanin, which gives skin its color. Langerhans cells lack melanin granules and are more closely related to monocytes. Finally, Merkel cells are dendritic cells found in the stratum basale and are associated with nerve fibers, likely playing an important sensory function. Understanding the different cell types in the skin can help in diagnosing and treating various skin conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
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  • Question 10 - A 12-month-old girl is scheduled to receive her vaccinations today.
    Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-month-old girl is scheduled to receive her vaccinations today.
      Which of the following vaccines are typically administered to a child at 12 months of age?

      Your Answer: Pneumococcal, rotavirus, Meningitis B and MMR

      Correct Answer: MMR, Hib/meningitis C, meningitis B and pneumococcal

      Explanation:

      Vaccination Schedule for Infants: A Breakdown of Recommended Vaccines

      The recommended vaccination schedule for infants includes several vaccines that are given at different ages. Here is a breakdown of the vaccines and when they are typically administered:

      – Eight weeks: Rotavirus and 6-in-1 vaccines
      – 12-14 months: MMR vaccine
      – Eight weeks, 16 weeks, and one year: Pneumococcal vaccine
      – Eight weeks, 16 weeks, and one year: Meningitis B vaccine
      – Eight weeks: Hib/Men C vaccine (combined vaccine for Haemophilus influenzae type b and meningitis C)

      It is important to follow the recommended vaccination schedule to protect infants from serious illnesses and diseases. Consult with a healthcare provider for more information and to schedule vaccinations for your child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      12
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Rheumatology (3/5) 60%
Immunology (1/5) 20%
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