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Question 1
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A 15-year-old boy presents to the ED with severe left flank pain that extends to his groin. He describes his symptoms as 'passing stones,' which he has been experiencing 'since he was a child.' His father also reports having similar issues since childhood. Upon urinalysis, hexagonal crystals are detected, and the urinary cyanide nitroprusside test is positive.
What is the most probable reason for this patient's condition?Your Answer: Amino acid transport abnormality
Explanation:Recurrent kidney stones from childhood and positive family history for nephrolithiasis suggest cystinuria, which is characterized by impaired transport of cystine and dibasic amino acids. The urinary cyanide-nitroprusside test can confirm the diagnosis. Other causes of kidney stones include excess uric acid excretion (gout), excessive intestinal reabsorption of oxalate (Crohn’s disease), infection with urease-producing microorganisms (struvite stones), and primary hyperparathyroidism (calcium oxalate stones).
Understanding Cystinuria: A Genetic Disorder Causing Recurrent Renal Stones
Cystinuria is a genetic disorder that causes recurrent renal stones due to a defect in the membrane transport of cystine, ornithine, lysine, and arginine. This autosomal recessive disorder is caused by mutations in two genes, SLC3A1 on chromosome 2 and SLC7A9 on chromosome 19.
The hallmark feature of cystinuria is the formation of yellow and crystalline renal stones that appear semi-opaque on x-ray. To diagnose cystinuria, a cyanide-nitroprusside test is performed.
Management of cystinuria involves hydration, D-penicillamine, and urinary alkalinization. These treatments help to prevent the formation of renal stones and reduce the risk of complications.
In summary, cystinuria is a genetic disorder that causes recurrent renal stones. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes for individuals with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 2
Correct
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A 54-year-old man visits the clinic after his spouse was diagnosed with hypertension and advised him to get his blood pressure checked. He has no symptoms. Upon measurement, his blood pressure is 155/92 mmHg. To further evaluate, a 24-hour blood pressure monitoring is scheduled. During the consultation, you discuss the physiology of blood pressure and mention the significance of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system in maintaining blood pressure homeostasis. Can you identify the primary site of aldosterone action in the kidney?
Your Answer: Distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct of the nephron
Explanation:Aldosterone functions in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts of the nephron. Spironolactone is a diuretic that preserves potassium levels by blocking aldosterone receptors. The loop of Henle and Bowman’s capsule are located closer to the beginning of the nephron. Prostaglandins regulate the afferent arteriole of the glomerulus, causing vasodilation. NSAIDs can lead to renal failure by inhibiting prostaglandin production. The vasa recta are straight capillaries that run parallel to the loop of Henle in the kidney. To confirm a diagnosis of hypertension, NICE recommends a 24-hour ambulatory blood pressure reading to account for the potential increase in blood pressure in clinical settings.
Aldosterone is a hormone that is primarily produced by the adrenal cortex in the zona glomerulosa. Its main function is to stimulate the reabsorption of sodium from the distal tubules, which results in the excretion of potassium. It is regulated by various factors such as angiotensin II, potassium, and ACTH, which increase its secretion. However, when there is an overproduction of aldosterone, it can lead to primary hyperaldosteronism, which is a common cause of secondary hypertension. This condition can be caused by an adrenal adenoma, which is also known as Conn’s syndrome. It is important to note that spironolactone, an aldosterone antagonist, can cause hyperkalemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You are assisting in an open right adrenalectomy for a large adrenal adenoma in a slightly older patient. The consultant is momentarily distracted and you take the initiative to pull the adrenal into the wound to improve visibility. Unfortunately, this maneuver results in brisk bleeding. The most likely culprit vessel responsible for this bleeding is:
- Portal vein
- Phrenic vein
- Right renal vein
- Superior mesenteric vein
- Inferior vena cava
The vessel in question drains directly via a very short vessel and if not carefully sutured, it may become avulsed off the IVC. The best management approach for this injury involves the use of a Satinsky clamp and a 6/0 prolene suture.Your Answer: Phrenic vein
Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava
Explanation:The vessel drains directly and is connected by a short pathway. If the sutures are not tied with caution, it could potentially detach from the IVC. In such a scenario, the recommended approach would be to use a Satinsky clamp and a 6/0 prolene suture to manage the injury.
Adrenal Gland Anatomy
The adrenal glands are located superomedially to the upper pole of each kidney. The right adrenal gland is posteriorly related to the diaphragm, inferiorly related to the kidney, medially related to the vena cava, and anteriorly related to the hepato-renal pouch and bare area of the liver. On the other hand, the left adrenal gland is postero-medially related to the crus of the diaphragm, inferiorly related to the pancreas and splenic vessels, and anteriorly related to the lesser sac and stomach.
The arterial supply of the adrenal glands is through the superior adrenal arteries from the inferior phrenic artery, middle adrenal arteries from the aorta, and inferior adrenal arteries from the renal arteries. The right adrenal gland drains via one central vein directly into the inferior vena cava, while the left adrenal gland drains via one central vein into the left renal vein.
In summary, the adrenal glands are small but important endocrine glands located above the kidneys. They have a unique blood supply and drainage system, and their location and relationships with other organs in the body are crucial for their proper functioning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is undergoing a renal biopsy due to recent haematuria and proteinuria. Upon histological analysis, immune complex deposition is found within the glomeruli. Further investigation reveals the presence of IgG, IgM, and C3 within the complexes.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Amyloidosis
Correct Answer: Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
Explanation:The correct diagnosis is post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, which is a condition that commonly affects young children following an upper respiratory tract infection. Symptoms include haematuria, proteinuria, and general malaise. Biopsy samples typically show immune complex deposition of IgG, IgM, and C3, endothelial proliferation with neutrophils, and a subepithelial ‘hump’ appearance on electron microscopy. Immunofluorescence may show a granular or ‘starry sky’ appearance.
Minimal change disease is an incorrect diagnosis as it typically presents with nephrotic syndrome and does not include haematuria as a symptom. Additionally, minimal changes in glomerular structure should be seen on histology.
IgA nephropathy is also an incorrect diagnosis as it has IgA complex deposition on histology, which is different from the immune complex deposition seen in post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis.
Amyloidosis is another incorrect diagnosis as it is a cause of nephrotic syndrome and is characterised by amyloid deposition.
Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is a condition that typically occurs 7-14 days after an infection caused by group A beta-haemolytic Streptococcus, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more common in young children and is caused by the deposition of immune complexes (IgG, IgM, and C3) in the glomeruli. Symptoms include headache, malaise, visible haematuria, proteinuria, oedema, hypertension, and oliguria. Blood tests may show a raised anti-streptolysin O titre and low C3, which confirms a recent streptococcal infection.
It is important to note that IgA nephropathy and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis are often confused as they both can cause renal disease following an upper respiratory tract infection. Renal biopsy features of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis include acute, diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis with endothelial proliferation and neutrophils. Electron microscopy may show subepithelial ‘humps’ caused by lumpy immune complex deposits, while immunofluorescence may show a granular or ‘starry sky’ appearance.
Despite its severity, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis carries a good prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 5
Correct
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A 35-year-old female patient complains of chronic flank pain. Her family history reveals a brother with similar symptoms and a mother who died from a subarachnoid haemorrhage. Bilateral renal ultrasound shows multiple cysts. Which chromosome is most likely to be affected in this genetic disorder?
Your Answer: 16
Explanation:Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is a commonly inherited kidney disease that affects 1 in 1,000 Caucasians. The disease is caused by mutations in two genes, PKD1 and PKD2, which produce polycystin-1 and polycystin-2 respectively. ADPKD type 1 accounts for 85% of cases, while ADPKD type 2 accounts for 15% of cases. ADPKD type 1 is caused by a mutation in the PKD1 gene on chromosome 16, while ADPKD type 2 is caused by a mutation in the PKD2 gene on chromosome 4. ADPKD type 1 tends to present with renal failure earlier than ADPKD type 2.
To screen for ADPKD in relatives of affected individuals, an abdominal ultrasound is recommended. The diagnostic criteria for ultrasound include the presence of two cysts, either unilateral or bilateral, if the individual is under 30 years old. If the individual is between 30-59 years old, two cysts in both kidneys are required for diagnosis. If the individual is over 60 years old, four cysts in both kidneys are necessary for diagnosis.
For some patients with ADPKD, tolvaptan, a vasopressin receptor 2 antagonist, may be an option to slow the progression of cyst development and renal insufficiency. However, NICE recommends tolvaptan only for adults with ADPKD who have chronic kidney disease stage 2 or 3 at the start of treatment, evidence of rapidly progressing disease, and if the company provides it with the agreed discount in the patient access scheme.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 6
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A 79-year-old male is admitted to hospital with dehydration. Blood tests are sent to assess his renal function. The results are below. He is diagnosed with an acute kidney injury.
Na+ 143 mmol/l
K+ 4.8 mmol/l
Urea 32 mmol/l
Creatinine 383 mmol/l
eGFR 15 ml/min
What electrolyte should be monitored closely?Your Answer: Potassium
Explanation:The nephron plays a crucial role in maintaining the balance of electrolytes in the bloodstream, particularly potassium and hydrogen ions, which are regulated in the distal convoluted tubule (DCT) and collecting duct (CD).
Dehydration-induced acute kidney injury (AKI) is considered a pre-renal cause that reduces the glomerular filtration rate (GFR). In response, the kidney attempts to reabsorb as much fluid as possible to compensate for the body’s fluid depletion. As a result, minimal filtrate reaches the DCT and CD, leading to reduced potassium excretion. High levels of potassium can be extremely hazardous, especially due to its impact on the myocardium. Therefore, monitoring potassium levels is crucial in such situations, which can be done quickly through a venous blood gas (VBG) test.
Hyperkalaemia is a condition where there is an excess of potassium in the blood. The levels of potassium in the plasma are regulated by various factors such as aldosterone, insulin levels, and acid-base balance. When there is metabolic acidosis, hyperkalaemia can occur as hydrogen and potassium ions compete with each other for exchange with sodium ions across cell membranes and in the distal tubule. The ECG changes that can be seen in hyperkalaemia include tall-tented T waves, small P waves, widened QRS leading to a sinusoidal pattern, and asystole.
There are several causes of hyperkalaemia, including acute kidney injury, drugs such as potassium sparing diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, spironolactone, ciclosporin, and heparin, metabolic acidosis, Addison’s disease, rhabdomyolysis, and massive blood transfusion. Foods that are high in potassium include salt substitutes, bananas, oranges, kiwi fruit, avocado, spinach, and tomatoes.
It is important to note that beta-blockers can interfere with potassium transport into cells and potentially cause hyperkalaemia in renal failure patients. In contrast, beta-agonists such as Salbutamol are sometimes used as emergency treatment. Additionally, both unfractionated and low-molecular weight heparin can cause hyperkalaemia by inhibiting aldosterone secretion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 7
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A 65-year-old male with a 20 pack year smoking history presents to the hospital with complaints of haematuria. After undergoing a cystoscopy and biopsy, the results come back as normal. What type of epithelial cells would be observed histologically?
Your Answer: Transitional epithelium
Explanation:If an elderly male with a history of smoking experiences haematuria, it is a cause for concern as it could be a sign of bladder cancer. Urgent investigation is necessary, including cystoscopy and biopsy.
The bladder is lined with transitional epithelia, a type of stratified epithelia that changes in appearance depending on the bladder’s state. When the bladder is empty, these cells are large and round, but when it’s stretched due to distension, they become flatter. This unique property allows them to adapt to varying fluid levels and maintain a barrier between urine and the bloodstream.
Bladder cancer is a common urological cancer that primarily affects males aged 50-80 years old. Smoking and exposure to hydrocarbons increase the risk of developing the disease. Chronic bladder inflammation from Schistosomiasis infection is also a common cause of squamous cell carcinomas in countries where the disease is endemic. Benign tumors of the bladder, such as inverted urothelial papilloma and nephrogenic adenoma, are rare. The most common bladder malignancies are urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and adenocarcinoma. Urothelial carcinomas may be solitary or multifocal, with papillary growth patterns having a better prognosis. The remaining tumors may be of higher grade and prone to local invasion, resulting in a worse prognosis.
The TNM staging system is used to describe the extent of bladder cancer. Most patients present with painless, macroscopic hematuria, and a cystoscopy and biopsies or TURBT are used to provide a histological diagnosis and information on depth of invasion. Pelvic MRI and CT scanning are used to determine locoregional spread, and PET CT may be used to investigate nodes of uncertain significance. Treatment options include TURBT, intravesical chemotherapy, surgery (radical cystectomy and ileal conduit), and radical radiotherapy. The prognosis varies depending on the stage of the cancer, with T1 having a 90% survival rate and any T, N1-N2 having a 30% survival rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 8
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During a small bowel resection, the anaesthetist decides to administer an electrolyte-rich intravenous fluid to a 47-year-old man. What is the most suitable option for this requirement?
Your Answer: Hartmans
Explanation:While Hartmans solution has the highest electrolyte content, pentastarch and gelofusine contain a greater number of macromolecules.
Intraoperative Fluid Management: Tailored Approach and Goal-Directed Therapy
Intraoperative fluid management is a crucial aspect of surgical care, but it does not have a rigid algorithm due to the unique requirements of each patient. The latest NICE guidelines in 2013 did not specifically address this issue, but the concept of fluid restriction has been emphasized in enhanced recovery programs for the past decade. In the past, patients received large volumes of saline-rich solutions, which could lead to tissue damage and poor perfusion. However, a tailored approach to fluid administration is now practiced, and goal-directed therapy is used with the help of cardiac output monitors. The composition of commonly used intravenous fluids varies in terms of sodium, potassium, chloride, bicarbonate, and lactate. Therefore, it is important to consider the specific needs of each patient and adjust fluid administration accordingly. By doing so, the risk of complications such as ileus and wound breakdown can be reduced, and optimal surgical outcomes can be achieved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old man comes to the clinic to discuss the findings of his ambulatory blood pressure test, which revealed an average blood pressure of 156/94mmHg. As a first-line treatment for hypertension in this age group, you suggest starting him on ACE inhibitors. These medications work by inhibiting the activity of angiotensin-converting-enzyme. What is the primary location of angiotensin-converting-enzyme in the body?
Your Answer: Liver
Correct Answer: Lungs
Explanation:The lungs contain the majority of angiotensin-converting-enzyme, with smaller amounts found in endothelial cells of the vasculature and kidney epithelial cells. Its role in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system involves converting angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
Aldosterone, produced in the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex, is a crucial compound in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Angiotensinogen, the precursor to angiotensin I, is produced in the liver and converted by renin, which is produced in the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidneys.
The pancreas does not play a role in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, but produces and releases insulin and glucagon among other hormones. Based on the World Health Organisation classification of hypertension, the patient in the question has mild hypertension. Current NICE guidelines recommend lifestyle advice and ACE inhibitors for patients under 55 years old with mild hypertension.
The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is a complex system that regulates blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. The adrenal cortex is divided into three zones, each producing different hormones. The zona glomerulosa produces mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone, which helps regulate sodium and potassium levels in the body. Renin is an enzyme released by the renal juxtaglomerular cells in response to reduced renal perfusion, hyponatremia, and sympathetic nerve stimulation. It hydrolyses angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme in the lungs. Angiotensin II has various actions, including causing vasoconstriction, stimulating thirst, and increasing proximal tubule Na+/H+ activity. It also stimulates aldosterone and ADH release, which causes retention of Na+ in exchange for K+/H+ in the distal tubule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 10
Correct
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A health-conscious 45-year-old presents with an unexplained acute kidney injury (AKI) and a kidney biopsy reveals the presence of calcium oxalate crystals in the renal tubules. The patient's calcium levels are normal, oxalate levels are elevated, and vitamin D levels are within normal range. Which vitamin overdose could potentially account for this condition?
Your Answer: Vitamin C
Explanation:The deposition of calcium oxalate in the renal tubules indicates that the patient is experiencing oxalate nephropathy, which is commonly caused by an overdose of vitamin C. Therefore, the correct answer is vitamin C overdose. It should be noted that elevated calcium levels are associated with vitamin D overdose, which is not applicable in this case.
Understanding Oxalate Nephropathy
Oxalate nephropathy is a type of sudden kidney damage that occurs when calcium oxalate crystals accumulate in the renal tubules. This condition can be caused by various factors, including the ingestion of ethylene glycol or an overdose of vitamin C. When these crystals build up in the renal tubules, they can cause damage to the tubular epithelium, leading to kidney dysfunction.
To better understand oxalate nephropathy, it is important to note that the renal tubules are responsible for filtering waste products from the blood and excreting them in the urine. When calcium oxalate crystals accumulate in these tubules, they can disrupt this process and cause damage to the tubular epithelium. This can lead to a range of symptoms, including decreased urine output, swelling in the legs and feet, and fatigue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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