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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of sudden onset of...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of sudden onset of complete right-sided facial weakness that started yesterday. There are no other neurological symptoms observed during the examination. The patient denies any hearing loss and reports only drooling of saliva. Other than that, she is healthy and has no other complaints. An ear examination reveals no abnormalities.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bell's Palsy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bell’s Palsy and Differential Diagnoses

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, unexplained facial nerve paralysis that affects one side of the face. It is more common in individuals with certain risk factors, such as diabetes, obesity, and upper respiratory tract infections. Symptoms include facial muscle weakness, drooling, speech difficulties, dry mouth, numbness, and ear pain. Treatment focuses on preventing complications, such as eye irritation, and can include eye ointment, lubricating drops, sunglasses, and a soft-food diet. Recovery typically occurs within a few weeks to several months.

      Differential diagnoses for Bell’s palsy include stroke, acoustic neuroma, Ramsay-Hunt syndrome, and neurosarcoidosis. Stroke typically spares the forehead muscles, while acoustic neuroma presents with hearing loss, tinnitus, and balance problems. Ramsay-Hunt syndrome is a complication of shingles and includes a vesicular rash, fever, and hearing loss. Neurosarcoidosis is rare and associated with systemic disease. A thorough evaluation is necessary to differentiate these conditions from Bell’s palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      25.5
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  • Question 2 - A 20-year-old apprentice is referred by his general practitioner with a query of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old apprentice is referred by his general practitioner with a query of bacterial meningitis. A computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain was normal. The patient complains of ongoing headache, photophobia and fever. A lumbar puncture (LP) is to be performed.
      Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to performing an LP?

      Your Answer: Without exception, it is performed in the left lateral position

      Correct Answer: A concurrent plasma glucose sample should be taken

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Lumbar Puncture in Patients with Suspected Meningitis

      Lumbar puncture (LP) is a diagnostic procedure that involves the insertion of a needle into the spinal canal to obtain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for analysis. LP is an essential tool in the diagnosis of bacterial meningitis, but it should be performed with caution and only in appropriate patients. Here are some guidelines for LP in patients with suspected meningitis:

      Concurrent plasma glucose sample should be taken to calculate the CSF: plasma glucose ratio, which is a key distinguishing feature of bacterial meningitis.

      Normal CSF opening pressure ranges from 7-18 mmH2O.

      Verbal consent for the procedure is sufficient, but written consent should be obtained from the patient if possible.

      LP is typically performed in the left lateral position, but it may be performed in the sitting position or with imaging guidance if necessary.

      Neuroimaging is required before an LP only in patients with a clinical suspicion of raised intracranial pressure, especially in immunocompromised patients.

      Possible complications of LP include post-dural puncture headache, transient paraesthesiae, spinal haematoma or abscess, and tonsillar herniation. These should be discussed with the patient before the procedure.

      LP should not be performed in patients with an acutely raised CSF pressure, as it may cause brainstem herniation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      69.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 21-year-old woman attends the antenatal clinic, six weeks pregnant with an unplanned...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman attends the antenatal clinic, six weeks pregnant with an unplanned pregnancy. She has a history of grand mal epilepsy for two years and is currently taking carbamazepine. She has not had any seizures for the past six months and wishes to continue with the pregnancy if it is safe for her and the baby. She is concerned about the effects of her anticonvulsant therapy on the fetus and seeks advice on how to proceed. What is the most suitable management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Stop carbamazepine until the second trimester

      Correct Answer: Continue with carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Managing Epilepsy in Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, it is important to manage epilepsy carefully to ensure the safety of both the mother and the fetus. Uncontrolled seizures pose a greater risk than any potential teratogenic effect of the therapy. However, total plasma concentrations of anticonvulsants tend to fall during pregnancy, so the dose may need to be increased. It is important to explain the potential teratogenic effects of carbamazepine, particularly neural tube defects, and provide the patient with folate supplements to reduce this risk. Screening with alpha fetoprotein (AFP) and second trimester ultrasound are also required. Vitamin K should be given to the mother prior to delivery. Switching therapies is not recommended as it could precipitate seizures in an otherwise stable patient. It is important to note that both phenytoin and valproate are also associated with teratogenic effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      71.4
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  • Question 4 - A middle-aged homeless alcoholic who frequently attends the Emergency Department is brought by...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged homeless alcoholic who frequently attends the Emergency Department is brought by ambulance, having been found unconscious on the street. He had been examined the previous day with head and facial injuries following a fist fight. Examination on admission reveals an unconscious patient smelling strongly of alcohol. He is rousable with painful stimuli, but confused and unco-operative. His pupils are unequal, with the left pupil measuring approximately 8 mm and the right 4 mm. The left pupil is unreactive to both direct and consensual light stimulus, whereas the right pupil constricts normally to direct and consensual light stimulus.
      Which cranial nerve(s) is this lesion affecting?

      Your Answer: The right oculomotor nerve

      Correct Answer: The left oculomotor nerve

      Explanation:

      Assessing the Pupillary Light Reflex and Nerve Lesions

      The pupillary light reflex involves two cranial nerves, the second and third, and their respective pathways. The optic nerve carries visual stimuli to the brain, while the oculomotor nerve controls the constriction of the pupil. Second-order neurons from the optic tract bypass the thalamus and primary visual cortex to reach the midbrain’s pretectal area. From there, neurons pass to the Edinger-Westphal nuclei, which send preganglionic parasympathetic fibers to both oculomotor nerves en route to the ciliary ganglion and sphincter pupillae.

      If a lesion occurs in the left oculomotor nerve, the left pupil will not constrict to light. This can happen due to raised intracranial pressure with a left-sided subdural hematoma, which can impinge on the nerve. However, if the right pupil constricts normally, the right oculomotor nerve and optic nerve must be intact.

      If a lesion occurs in the left optic nerve, the left pupil will not constrict to light, and the right pupil will not constrict to consensual light. This is because the optic nerve relays visual stimuli from the retina to the brain, and both eyes must be intact for the reflex to occur.

      If a combined lesion occurs in the left oculomotor and optic nerves, the left pupil will not constrict to light, and the right pupil will not constrict to consensual light. However, the right pupil will still constrict to direct light, indicating that the optic nerve is intact bilaterally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      125.5
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  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner (GP) with unsteadiness on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner (GP) with unsteadiness on her feet and frequent falls of two days’ duration.
      On examination, she is noted to have loss of sensation and weakness of the proximal and distal muscles of the left lower limb. Her upper limbs and face have no weakness or sensory deficit.
      Her GP refers her to the nearest Stroke Unit for assessment and management. Computed tomography (CT) scan confirms a thromboembolic cerebrovascular accident.
      Which vessel is most likely to have been involved?

      Your Answer: The left posterior cerebral artery proximal occlusion

      Correct Answer: The left anterior cerebral artery distal to the anterior communicating branch

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Role of Cerebral Arteries in Neurological Symptoms

      When assessing neurological symptoms, it is important to consider the involvement of different cerebral arteries. In the case of right-sided weakness and lower limb involvement without upper limb or facial signs, the left anterior cerebral artery distal to the anterior communicating branch is likely affected. This artery supplies the medial aspect of the frontal and parietal lobes, which includes the primary motor and sensory cortices for the lower limb and distal trunk.

      On the other hand, a left posterior cerebral artery proximal occlusion is unlikely as it would not cause upper limb involvement or visual symptoms. Similarly, a right anterior cerebral artery distal occlusion would result in left-sided weakness and sensory loss in the lower limb.

      A main stem occlusion in the left middle cerebral artery would present with right-sided upper limb and facial weakness, as well as speech and auditory comprehension difficulties due to involvement of Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas.

      Finally, a right posterior cerebral artery proximal occlusion would cause visual field defects and contralateral loss of sensation, but not peripheral weakness on the right-hand side. Understanding the role of cerebral arteries in neurological symptoms can aid in accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      22.3
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  • Question 6 - A 46-year-old alcoholic is brought in after a fall. He has a deep...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old alcoholic is brought in after a fall. He has a deep cut on the side of his head and a witness tells the paramedics what happened. He opens his eyes when prompted by the nurses. He attempts to answer questions, but his speech is slurred and unintelligible. The patient pulls away from a trapezius pinch.
      What is the appropriate Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score for this patient?

      Your Answer: E2V2M5

      Correct Answer: E3V2M4

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a standardized tool used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness following a head injury. It measures the best eye, verbal, and motor responses and assigns a total score. A fully conscious patient will score 15/15, while the lowest possible score is 3/15 (a score of 0 is not possible).

      The GCS is calculated as follows: for eyes, a score of 4 is given if they open spontaneously, 3 if they open to speech, 2 if they open to pain, and 1 if they do not open. For verbal response, a score of 5 is given if the patient is oriented, 4 if they are confused, 3 if they use inappropriate words, 2 if they make inappropriate sounds, and 1 if there is no verbal response. For motor response, a score of 6 is given if the patient obeys commands, 5 if they localize pain, 4 if they withdraw from pain, 3 if they exhibit abnormal flexion, 2 if they exhibit abnormal extension, and 1 if there is no response.

      If the GCS score is 8 or below, the patient will require airway protection as they will be unable to protect their own airway. This usually means intubation. It is important to use the GCS to objectively measure a patient’s conscious state and provide a common language between clinicians when discussing a patient with a head injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      24.9
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  • Question 7 - A 56-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of progressive weakness over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of progressive weakness over the past few months. She reports difficulty getting up from a chair and climbing stairs, which worsens throughout the day and especially with prolonged walking. She has no significant medical history but is a smoker, consuming 15 cigarettes a day. During the review of her systems, she mentions a loss of appetite and weight loss, as well as a worsening cough that led to one episode of haemoptysis two weeks ago. On examination, there are no clear signs of ptosis, diplopia, or dysarthria. The doctor considers a list of differential diagnoses.
      Which antibody is most likely to be involved?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antibodies to voltage-gated calcium channels

      Explanation:

      Autoantibodies and their associated conditions

      Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS) is an autoimmune condition affecting skeletal muscle and can be a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with small cell carcinoma of the lung. The causative autoantibody is against voltage-gated calcium channels. Clinical features include insidious and progressive onset of proximal muscular weakness, particularly in the legs, and autonomic involvement.

      Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is associated with anti-RNP antibodies. Common presenting features include general malaise and lethargy, arthritis, pulmonary involvement, sclerodactyly, Raynaud’s phenomenon, and myositis.

      Myasthenia gravis is a long-term autoimmune disease affecting skeletal muscle associated with antibodies to acetylcholine receptors. It causes fatigable weakness, and oculopharyngeal and ocular muscles are usually prominently affected.

      Granulomatosis with polyangiitis is a vasculitic condition associated with c-ANCA antibodies. It often presents with renal impairment, upper airway disease, and pulmonary haemorrhage and pneumonia-like infiltrates.

      Thyrotropin receptor antibody is an indicator for Graves’ disease, which causes hyperthyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 8 - A 48-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset severe headache. She complains of pain behind...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset severe headache. She complains of pain behind the eyes and photophobia. She has vomited twice since the headache came on. She says it is the worst headache she has ever had by far. There is no past history of migraine. Examination reveals no neurological deficit.
      What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Computerised tomography (CT) scan of the head

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Headache: CT Scan, Lumbar Puncture, Plasma Viscosity, MRI, and Angiography

      Headaches can have various causes, and it is important to determine the underlying condition to provide appropriate treatment. Here are some diagnostic tests that can help identify the cause of a headache:

      1. CT Scan of the Head: This imaging test is the initial investigation of choice when subarachnoid haemorrhage is suspected. It can show the presence of blood in the subarachnoid or intraventricular spaces.

      2. Lumbar Puncture: If there is doubt about the presence of subarachnoid haemorrhage, a lumbar puncture may be considered 12 hours after the onset of symptoms. Multiple cerebrospinal fluid samples should be sent for microscopy to look for the persistent presence of red blood cells and xanthochromia.

      3. Plasma Viscosity: This test is useful when temporal arthritis is suspected as a cause of headache. It will typically be highly elevated. However, it is not useful in the diagnosis of subarachnoid haemorrhage.

      4. MRI of the Head: This imaging test may be considered later in the diagnostic process if other diagnoses are being considered. However, CT scan is a more appropriate first-line test.

      5. Angiography: This test is usually performed to identify an aneurysm that may be amenable to intervention, either with open surgery or commonly interventional radiology.

      In conclusion, the appropriate diagnostic test for a headache depends on the suspected underlying condition. A thorough evaluation by a healthcare professional is necessary to determine the most appropriate course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 9 - An 80-year-old man visits his GP with his daughter, concerned about his increasing...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man visits his GP with his daughter, concerned about his increasing forgetfulness. He used to be able to manage his own medications, but now forgets to take them regularly. He has also been misplacing items around the house and forgetting important appointments. When his daughter tries to remind him of these things, he becomes defensive and irritable.
      His lab results show normal levels of vitamin B12, folate, thyroid hormones, and electrolytes. He does not screen positive for depression. His MMSE score is 20/30, and his brain MRI reveals general brain atrophy.
      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Donepezil

      Explanation:

      First-Line Management for Alzheimer’s Disease: Medications to Consider

      Alzheimer’s disease (AD) is a common form of dementia that primarily affects older adults. A patient’s clinical presentation, laboratory markers, MMSE results, and neuroimaging can help diagnose AD. Once diagnosed, the first-line management for AD typically involves cholinesterase inhibitors such as donepezil, rivastigmine, or galantamine. These medications can provide modest symptomatic relief for some patients with AD. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, can be used as adjunctive treatment or monotherapy for patients who do not tolerate cholinesterase inhibitors. Risperidone, an atypical antipsychotic, is used to manage psychotic manifestations of AD, but it is not indicated in this scenario. Tacrine, a centrally-acting anticholinesterase medication, is rarely used due to its potent side-effect profile. Trazodone, an atypical antidepressant, can be used as adjunctive treatment for insomnia in patients with AD but is not indicated as monotherapy. Overall, the first-line management for AD involves cholinesterase inhibitors, with memantine as an alternative option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 10 - A 16-year-old student presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of headache, neck...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old student presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of headache, neck stiffness, and photophobia. During the examination, a purpuric rash is observed on the trunk and limbs.

      What condition is this patient at risk for?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Waterhouse–Friderichsen syndrome

      Explanation:

      Medical Syndromes and Their Characteristics

      Waterhouse–Friderichsen Syndrome: This syndrome is caused by acute meningococcal sepsis due to Neisseria meningitidis. It can lead to sepsis, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), endotoxic shock, and acute primary adrenal failure.

      Zollinger–Ellison Syndrome: This syndrome results from a gastrinoma, which leads to recurrent peptic ulcers.

      Osler–Weber–Rendu Disease: Also known as hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia, this disease results in multiple telangiectasias and arteriovenous shunting of blood.

      Fitz–Hugh–Curtis Syndrome: This is a rare complication of pelvic inflammatory disease, resulting in liver capsule inflammation.

      Cushing Syndrome: This syndrome is due to excess cortisol, which causes hypertension, central obesity, striae, a moon face, and muscle weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old male complains of a burning sensation in his feet that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male complains of a burning sensation in his feet that has been gradually increasing over the past six months. Upon examination, his cranial nerves and higher mental function appear normal, as do his bulk, tone, power, light touch and pinprick sensation, co-ordination, and reflexes in both his upper and lower limbs. What condition could these clinical findings be indicative of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Small fibre sensory neuropathy

      Explanation:

      Neuropathy and its Different Types

      Neuropathy is a condition that affects the nerves and can cause a burning sensation. This sensation is typical of a neuropathy that affects the small unmyelinated and thinly myelinated nerve fibres. However, a general neurological examination and reflexes are usually normal in this type of neuropathy unless there is coexisting large (myelinated) fibre involvement. On the other hand, neuropathy that affects the large myelinated sensory fibres generally causes glove and stocking sensory loss and loss of reflexes.

      There are different types of neuropathy, and conditions in which the small fibres are preferentially affected in the early stages include diabetes and amyloidosis. In the later stages, however, the neuropathy in these conditions also affects large fibres. Another type of neuropathy is associated with Sjögren’s syndrome, which is a pure sensory neuropathy (ganglionopathy). the different types of neuropathy and their symptoms can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of frequent falls and unsteadiness...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of frequent falls and unsteadiness on her feet for the past 2 days. During the examination, the GP observes weakness and loss of sensation in the muscles of her right lower limb, while her upper limbs and face show no sensory deficit or weakness. The GP refers her to the nearest stroke unit for further evaluation and treatment. A CT scan confirms a thromboembolic cerebrovascular accident.

      Which vessel is the most probable culprit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The left anterior cerebral artery distal to the anterior communicating branch

      Explanation:

      Identifying the Correct Artery in a Case of Peripheral Weakness

      In cases of peripheral weakness, identifying the correct artery involved is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. In this case, the weakness is on the right side, with involvement of the lower limb but not the upper limb or face. This suggests a problem with the left anterior cerebral artery distal to the anterior communicating branch, which supplies the medial aspect of the frontal and parietal lobes, including the primary motor and sensory cortices for the lower limb and distal trunk.

      Other potential arteries that could be involved include the left middle cerebral artery, which would present with right-sided upper limb and facial weakness, as well as speech and auditory comprehension difficulties. The right anterior cerebral artery distal to the anterior communicating branch is unlikely, as it would be associated with left-sided weakness and sensory loss in the lower limb. The right posterior cerebral artery proximal occlusion would result in visual field defects and contralateral weakness in both upper and lower limbs, as well as contralateral loss of sensation, which does not match the current presentation. The left posterior cerebral artery is also unlikely, as the upper limb is spared and there are no visual symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 13 - A 50-year old man has significant tics, but his language, memory and insight...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year old man has significant tics, but his language, memory and insight are only mildly to moderately impaired. He also has prominent depression and a butterfly pattern in the caudate nucleus on computed tomography (CT) scan.
      Which is the most likely form of dementia in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dementia due to Huntington’s disease

      Explanation:

      Types of Dementia and their Characteristics

      Dementia is a broad term used to describe a decline in cognitive function that affects daily activities. There are several types of dementia, each with its own unique characteristics.

      Dementia due to Huntington’s disease is an autosomal dominant triplet repeat disease affecting chromosome 4. It usually presents in middle-aged patients with movement disorders (chorea) and progresses to seizures, dementia and death.

      Vascular dementia occurs in a stepwise fashion, with occlusive events leading to sudden new losses of function. Patients develop frontal release and localising neurologic signs relatively early.

      Dementia due to Parkinson’s disease is characterised by loss of dopaminergic cells in the substantia nigra. It also presents with bradykinesia, rigidity, cogwheeling and shuffling gait.

      Alzheimer’s disease has an insidious onset with gradual, continuous progression. Cognitive and language dysfunction occur early, with motor dysfunction and cortical release signs only appearing after diffuse cortical damage has occurred.

      Dementia due to normal pressure hydrocephalus is characterised by the classical triad of dementia, shuffling gait and incontinence. This condition results from blockage of the normal drainage of the cerebrospinal fluid.

      Early recognition and aggressive treatment for cardiovascular disease may slow progression of vascular dementia. Although the changes of vascular dementia are irreversible, the other types of dementia have no cure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 14 - A 68-year-old retired electrical engineer had a gradual decline in initiating and performing...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old retired electrical engineer had a gradual decline in initiating and performing voluntary movements. His face was expressionless and he had tremors, which were particularly obvious when he was sat idle watching tv. He also showed a marked decrease in blinking frequency but had no evidence of dementia.
      What is the most probable diagnosis associated with these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parkinson’s disease

      Explanation:

      Movement Disorders and Neurodegenerative Diseases: A Brief Overview

      Movement disorders and neurodegenerative diseases are conditions that affect the nervous system and can lead to a range of symptoms, including tremors, rigidity, and difficulty with voluntary movements. Parkinson’s disease is a common neurodegenerative disease that primarily affects the elderly and is characterized by hypokinesia, bradykinesia, resting tremor, rigidity, lack of facial expression, and decreased blinking frequency. While there is no cure for Parkinson’s disease, current treatment strategies involve the administration of L-dopa, which is metabolized to dopamine within the brain and can help stimulate the initiation of voluntary movements.

      Huntington’s disease is another neurodegenerative disease that typically presents in middle-aged patients and is characterized by movement disorders, seizures, dementia, and ultimately death. Alzheimer’s disease is a degenerative disorder that can also lead to dementia, but it is not typically associated with movement disorders like Parkinson’s or Huntington’s disease.

      In rare cases, damage to the subthalamic nucleus can cause movement disorders like ballism and hemiballism, which are characterized by uncontrolled movements of the limbs on the contralateral side of the body. While these conditions are rare, they highlight the complex interplay between different regions of the brain and the importance of understanding the underlying mechanisms of movement disorders and neurodegenerative diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 15 - A 79-year-old man is brought to see his general practitioner by his daughter...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man is brought to see his general practitioner by his daughter who has noticed that he is becoming increasingly forgetful and unsteady on his feet. Unfortunately his daughter does not know anything about his previous medical history or whether he takes any medications. Routine investigations reveal:
      Investigation Result Normal Value
      Haemaglobin 105 g/l 135–175 g/l
      Mean corpuscular value 101 fl 76–98 fl
      White cell count 7.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 80 × 109/l 150–400 x 109/
      Sodium 132 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 1.3 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 78 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Random blood sugar 6.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      Given these results, which is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alcohol excess

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for Abnormal Blood Results: Alcohol Excess, Hypothyroidism, B12 Deficiency, Myelodysplasia, and Phenytoin Toxicity

      The patient’s blood results suggest a diagnosis of alcohol excess, which can cause confusion and increase the risk of subdural hematomas and recurrent falls. The macrocytosis, thrombocytopenia, mild hyponatremia, and low urea are all consistent with excess alcohol. Hypothyroidism can also cause macrocytosis and hyponatremia, but not thrombocytopenia or low urea. B12 deficiency may cause pancytopenia and marked macrocytosis, making it the next most likely option after alcohol excess. Myelodysplasia typically presents with shortness of breath and fatigue, and may show macrocytosis and thrombocytopenia on blood results. Phenytoin toxicity may cause macrocytosis and ataxia, as well as a range of other symptoms and signs such as fever and gingival hyperplasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 16 - An 80-year-old male comes to the clinic with sudden vision loss in his...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old male comes to the clinic with sudden vision loss in his right eye and a relative afferent pupillary defect. He has uncontrolled systemic hypertension and elevated cholesterol levels. What is the probable cause of his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retinal vascular occlusion

      Explanation:

      Tips for Answering Tricky Questions in the AKT Exam

      When faced with a tricky question in the AKT exam, it is important to look at the information given and consider which answer may be most likely. One helpful approach is to identify any relevant risk factors and use them to narrow down the options. Additionally, sudden changes in symptoms may be more indicative of certain conditions than chronic symptoms. It is important to remember that it is impossible to know the answer to every question, but by using these strategies, you can improve your hit rate on questions that may initially seem difficult.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 17 - An 80-year-old man comes to the Neurology Clinic complaining of increasing dysphagia. You...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the Neurology Clinic complaining of increasing dysphagia. You observe that he is having some trouble speaking, and upon further inquiry, he reveals that this has also been worsening over time. He reports no issues with chewing. During the examination, you note that he has a missing gag reflex and displays tongue atrophy and fasciculations.
      What would be the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRI brain, syphilis serology, poliomyelitis serology, lumbar puncture

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Investigations for a Patient with Bulbar Palsy

      Bulbar palsy is a condition that affects the lower motor neurons of the cranial nerves, causing difficulty in speech and swallowing. To manage a patient with this condition, appropriate investigations must be conducted to determine the underlying cause.

      MRI brain, syphilis serology, poliomyelitis serology, and lumbar puncture are some of the most appropriate investigations to manage a patient with bulbar palsy. These investigations can help identify reversible causes such as brainstem stroke or tumor, neurodegenerative diseases, infectious neuropathies, and autoimmune neuropathies.

      On the other hand, investigations such as nerve conduction studies and viral PCR have no place in the management of this patient. CT head may be helpful, but MRI brain is a more appropriate form of imaging. Routine bloods can also be done to determine the systemic health of the patient.

      Speech and language therapy is an essential part of managing a patient with bulbar palsy, as it can help improve their speech and swallowing. However, ophthalmology review and ECG are not necessary unless there is a clear clinical indication.

      In summary, appropriate investigations for a patient with bulbar palsy include MRI brain, serology for infectious neuropathies, lumbar puncture, and routine bloods. Speech and language therapy is also crucial for managing the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 18 - A 62-year-old man is recuperating in the hospital after experiencing a stroke. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man is recuperating in the hospital after experiencing a stroke. During the examination, it is revealed that he has a right homonymous superior quadrantanopia. What is the location of the lesion responsible for this visual field impairment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left temporal (lower) optic radiation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Optic Radiation Lesions and Visual Field Defects

      The optic radiation is a crucial pathway for visual information processing in the brain. Lesions in different parts of this pathway can result in specific visual field defects.

      Left Temporal (Lower) Optic Radiation: A lesion in this area would cause a quadrantanopia, affecting the upper quadrants of the contralateral visual field.

      Left Parietal (Upper) Optic Radiation: A lesion in this area would result in a right homonymous inferior quadrantanopia.

      Left Occipital Visual Cortex: A lesion in this area would cause a right contralateral homonymous hemianopia, with central sparing.

      Right Parietal (Upper) Optic Radiation: A lesion in this area would cause a left homonymous inferior quadrantanopia.

      Right Temporal (Lower) Optic Radiation: A lesion in this area would cause a left homonymous superior quadrantanopia.

      Understanding these specific visual field defects can aid in localizing lesions in the optic radiation and visual cortex, leading to better diagnosis and treatment of neurological conditions affecting vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 19 - A man in his early 50s presents with a painless lump in the...

    Incorrect

    • A man in his early 50s presents with a painless lump in the right posterior triangle of his neck. He undergoes an excision biopsy under general anaesthetic. After the procedure, he experiences difficulty shrugging his right shoulder.
      Which nerve is most likely to have been affected during the surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Accessory

      Explanation:

      Nerves of the Neck: Functions and Effects of Damage

      The neck is home to several important nerves that control various muscles and sensory functions. Understanding the functions of these nerves and the effects of damage can help diagnose and treat neurological conditions.

      Accessory Nerve: This nerve supplies motor innervation to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles. Damage to this nerve can result in the inability to shrug the shoulder due to loss of innervation to the trapezius.

      Cervical Plexus: Arising deep to the sternocleidomastoid, the cervical plexus innervates the skin to the back of the head, neck, and collarbones, as well as some anterior neck muscles such as the omohyoid. Damage to this nerve would not cause issues with shoulder movement.

      Hypoglossal Nerve: The hypoglossal nerve innervates all intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue. Damage to this nerve would not cause issues with shoulder movement.

      Vagus Nerve: The vagus nerve is the longest autonomic nerve in the body and interfaces with the parasympathetic control of the heart, lungs, and gastrointestinal tract.

      Long Thoracic Nerve of Bell: This nerve innervates the serratus anterior muscle. Damage to this nerve leads to winging of the scapula but no issues with shoulder movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 20 - You are requested to evaluate a 15-year-old Caucasian girl who has been feeling...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to evaluate a 15-year-old Caucasian girl who has been feeling unwell for a few days. She has been experiencing intermittent fevers and chills and complains of extreme fatigue. Suddenly, half an hour before her admission to the hospital, she lost all vision in her left eye.

      During the examination, the patient appears pale and unwell. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 38.5°C, pulse 120/minute, regular, blood pressure 100/55 mmHg, and respiratory rate 22/minute. A pansystolic murmur is audible at the apex and lower left sternal border. Both lungs are clear.

      The right pupil reacts normally to light, but there is no reaction from the left pupil, which remains fixed and dilated. The patient has complete loss of vision in the left eye, and the left fundus appears paler than the right, without papilloedema. The only additional finding on examination was a paronychia on her right thumb, and light pressure on the nail bed was very uncomfortable.

      Investigations reveal the following results: Hb 109 g/L (115-165), WBC 14.1 ×109/L (4-11), Neutrophils 9.0 ×109/L (1.5-7), Lymphocytes 4.8 ×109/L (1.5-4), Monocytes 0.29 ×109/L (0-0.8), Eosinophils 0.01 ×109/L (0.04-0.4), and Platelets 550 ×109/L (150-400).

      What is the most crucial investigation to determine the cause of her illness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood cultures

      Explanation:

      Complications of Chronic Paronychia

      Chronic paronychia can lead to serious complications such as osteomyelitis and endocarditis. The most common causative organism for these complications is Staphylococcus aureus. Endocarditis can cause emboli, which are fragments of vegetation that can block or damage blood vessels in any part of the body. This can result in severe consequences such as blindness, stroke, or paralysis.

      To properly assess and manage a patient with chronic paronychia and its complications, several investigations may be necessary. However, the most crucial immediate investigations are blood cultures and echocardiography. These tests can help identify the causative organism and determine the extent of damage to the heart valves. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent further complications and improve the patient’s prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 21 - A 36-year-old man came to the Emergency Department complaining of a severe headache,...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man came to the Emergency Department complaining of a severe headache, neck stiffness, and photophobia. He had not experienced any recent foreign travel or trauma. Upon examination, he had a fever but no rash or focal neurology. The medical team suspected bacterial meningitis and began treatment. They also requested a lumbar puncture. What is the appropriate spinal level and dural space for the needle to be advanced to during a lumbar puncture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Between L3 and L4, advanced to the subarachnoid space

      Explanation:

      Proper Placement for Lumbar Puncture

      The ideal location for a lumbar puncture is between L3 and L4, as this avoids the risk of piercing the spinal cord. To locate this area, a line is drawn across the superior aspect of the posterior iliac crests. The purpose of a lumbar puncture is to obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the subarachnoid space between the pia mater and the arachnoid mater. However, there are contraindications to this procedure, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, which can lead to coning and respiratory arrest.

      It is important to note that advancing the needle too high, such as between L1 and L2, can pose a risk to the spinal cord. Additionally, the epidural space is too superficial to obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid. Therefore, proper placement between L3 and L4, advanced to the subarachnoid space, is crucial for a safe and successful lumbar puncture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 22 - A 2-day-old infant is diagnosed with an intraventricular haemorrhage. What is commonly linked...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-day-old infant is diagnosed with an intraventricular haemorrhage. What is commonly linked with this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prematurity

      Explanation:

      Prematurity and Intraventricular Haemorrhages

      Prematurity is linked to the occurrence of intraventricular haemorrhages, which are believed to be caused by the fragility of blood vessels. However, it is important to note that intraventricular haemorrhage is not typically a symptom of haemophilia.

      Prematurity refers to a baby being born before the 37th week of pregnancy. Babies born prematurely are at a higher risk of developing intraventricular haemorrhages, which occur when there is bleeding in the brain’s ventricles. This is because the blood vessels in premature babies’ brains are not fully developed and are therefore more fragile. Intraventricular haemorrhages can lead to serious complications, such as brain damage and developmental delays.

      On the other hand, haemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects the blood’s ability to clot. While haemophilia can cause bleeding in various parts of the body, it is not typically associated with intraventricular haemorrhages. It is important to differentiate between the two conditions to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 23 - A 36-year-old man is discharged from hospital after an episode of meningitis. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man is discharged from hospital after an episode of meningitis. The organism was diagnosed as being Streptococcus pneumoniae after a lumbar puncture and the patient was treated with ceftriaxone. On discharge, his observations were normal. He has a past medical history of asthma treated with salbutamol and low-dose inhaled corticosteroids. He has no known drug allergies.
      A few days following his discharge, he started experiencing postural headaches that were worse when sitting upright. He grades his pain as 7/10. He has been feeling nauseated, although has had no vomiting episodes. He also has some minor neck stiffness and is not confused. He attends A&E, as he is worried about his new symptoms. There is evidence of extrathecal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Diagnosis is confirmed on a computed tomography (CT) myelogram.
      What is the most likely cause of this patient’s headache?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spontaneous intracranial hypotension

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Spontaneous Intracranial Hypotension from Other Conditions

      Spontaneous intracranial hypotension (SIH) is a condition that affects around 5 per 100,000 of the general population, with a peak age at diagnosis of 40 years. It is more common in women and develops due to a weakness in the spinal dura, which could be congenital, iatrogenic, or due to calcification of spinal discs. Lumbar punctures, which are commonly performed to aid the diagnosis of meningitis, are a common cause of SIH.

      Clinically, SIH causes a postural headache that worsens when standing or sitting and improves when lying down. It is associated with leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and can be diagnosed with a CT myelogram. Interestingly, CSF opening pressure is often normal, making diagnosis by repeat lumbar puncture unhelpful. Treatment typically involves an epidural blood patch.

      It is important to distinguish SIH from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms. A subdural hematoma, for example, would be diagnosed on a CT head by the presence of concave opacity and typically has a slow onset with fluctuating confusion. Aseptic meningitis, which presents with symptoms similar to meningitis, would be confirmed on microscopy of lumbar puncture. Insufficiently treated meningitis would not cause a postural headache, and a subarachnoid hemorrhage would cause a sudden-onset thunderclap headache.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 24 - A patient presents to the General Practice (GP) Clinic, seeking advice regarding driving...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents to the General Practice (GP) Clinic, seeking advice regarding driving following two unprovoked seizures in 48 hours. What advice do you give the patient regarding their ability to drive their car?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They must inform the DVLA and will be unfit to drive for at least six months

      Explanation:

      If an individual experiences a seizure, they must inform the DVLA. Depending on the circumstances, they may be unfit to drive for six months or up to five years if they drive a bus or lorry. It is important to note that the DVLA must always be informed of any neurological event that could affect driving ability. An assessment by a DVLA medical examiner is not conducted, but a private or NHS neurologist should evaluate the individual’s fitness to drive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 25 - What is contraindicated for patients with head injury? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is contraindicated for patients with head injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5% Dextrose

      Explanation:

      Management of Severe Brain Injury

      Patients with severe brain injury should maintain normal blood volume levels. It is important to avoid administering free water, such as dextrose solutions, as this can increase the water content of brain tissue by decreasing plasma osmolality. Elevated blood sugar levels can worsen neurological injury after episodes of global cerebral ischaemia. During ischaemic brain injury, glucose is metabolised to lactic acid, which can lower tissue pH and potentially exacerbate the injury. Therefore, it is crucial to manage blood sugar levels in patients with severe brain injury to prevent further damage. Proper management of brain injury can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 26 - Through which opening is the structure transmitted that passes through the base of...

    Incorrect

    • Through which opening is the structure transmitted that passes through the base of the skull?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spinal accessory nerves

      Explanation:

      The Foramen Magnum and its Contents

      The foramen magnum is a large opening at the base of the skull that allows for the passage of various structures. These structures include the medulla, which is the lower part of the brainstem responsible for vital functions such as breathing and heart rate. The meninges, which are the protective membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord, also pass through the foramen magnum.

      In addition, the foramen magnum transmits the vertebral arteries, which supply blood to the brainstem and cerebellum. The anterior and posterior spinal arteries, which provide blood to the spinal cord, also pass through this opening. The spinal accessory nerves, which control certain muscles in the neck and shoulders, and the sympathetic plexus, which regulates involuntary functions such as blood pressure and digestion, also pass through the foramen magnum.

      Overall, the foramen magnum plays a crucial role in allowing for the passage of important structures that are essential for the proper functioning of the brain, spinal cord, and other vital organs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 27 - A 38-year-old office worker is becoming increasingly worried that she may be experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old office worker is becoming increasingly worried that she may be experiencing early signs of Alzheimer's disease, which her mother was diagnosed with at a young age. She reports frequently misplacing her phone and struggling to recall names of colleagues she has worked with for years. She wants to learn more about the initial clinical features of the disease to see if they align with her symptoms.

      What is a typical clinical characteristic of the early stage of Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retention of executive function

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Dementia and Their Symptoms

      Executive function, which involves planning, reasoning, and problem-solving, is typically retained in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease. However, in subcortical dementias like Lewy body disease (LBD), patients often lose this cognitive skill early on. Frontotemporal dementia, on the other hand, is more commonly associated with impulsivity and disinhibition, as well as personality changes. Episodic confusion is a hallmark of LBD, where patients may have good and bad days. Finally, bradykinesia and rigidity are signs of parkinsonism, which can be seen in both LBD and Parkinson’s disease. Understanding these different symptoms can help with early diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 28 - A 45-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia resulting in multiple hospitalisations is...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia resulting in multiple hospitalisations is referred to you in a psychiatry ward. She reports feeling generally unwell for several weeks, with increasing stiffness in her jaws and arms. She has been on haloperidol for the past few years with good symptom control. During examination, her temperature is 38.5°C and BP is 175/85 mmHg. What drug treatments would you consider for her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dantrolene

      Explanation:

      Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome vs Serotonin Syndrome

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications that can occur at any point during treatment. Concurrent use of lithium or anticholinergics may increase the risk of NMS. Symptoms include fever, rigidity, altered mental status, and autonomic dysfunction. Treatment involves discontinuing the offending medication and using antipyretics to reduce body temperature. Dantrolene, bromocriptine, or levodopa preparations may also be helpful.

      Serotonin syndrome is a differential diagnosis for NMS, but the two can be distinguished through a thorough history and examination. NMS develops over days and weeks, while serotonin syndrome can develop within 24 hours. Serotonin syndrome causes neuromuscular hyperreactivity, such as myoclonus, tremors, and hyperreflexia, while NMS involves sluggish neuromuscular response, such as bradyreflexia and rigidity. Hyperreflexia and myoclonus are rare in NMS, and resolution of NMS takes up to nine days, while serotonin syndrome usually resolves within 24 hours.

      Despite these differences, both conditions share common symptoms in severe cases, such as hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, leukocytosis, elevated CK, altered hepatic function, and metabolic acidosis. Therefore, a thorough history and physical examination are crucial in distinguishing between the two syndromes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old man presented to the Emergency Department, complaining of severe headache, neck...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presented to the Emergency Department, complaining of severe headache, neck stiffness and photophobia. There is no history of trauma and there has been no recent foreign travel. On examination, he has fever and a non-blanching rash on his chest. Meningococcal septicaemia is suspected and treatment is commenced. A lumbar puncture was performed.
      Select the result most consistent with a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) pressure raised, protein elevated, glucose low and the predominant cells are polymorphs

      Explanation:

      Interpreting CSF Results: Understanding Meningitis

      Meningitis is a serious condition that can be caused by bacterial, viral, or tuberculous infections. The diagnosis of meningitis is often made by analyzing cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) obtained through a lumbar puncture. The results of the CSF analysis can provide important clues about the underlying cause of the infection.

      CSF pressure raised, protein elevated, glucose low and the predominant cells are polymorphs: This result is indicative of bacterial meningitis, specifically meningococcal septicaemia. Immediate antibiotic treatment is necessary to prevent serious complications.

      CSF pressure raised, protein elevated, glucose raised and the predominant cells are lymphocytes: This result can be consistent with either viral or tuberculous meningitis. Further testing, such as PCR, may be necessary to determine the specific cause.

      CSF pressure low, protein normal, glucose raised and the predominant cells are polymorphs: This result is less indicative of infection, as the normal protein level and raised glucose level make bacterial meningitis unlikely. However, further investigation may be necessary to determine the underlying cause.

      CSF pressure normal, protein low, glucose normal and the predominant cells are polymorphs: This result suggests that infection is unlikely, as the low CSF pressure and protein level are not consistent with meningitis.

      CSF pressure normal, protein elevated, glucose raised and the predominant cells are lymphocytes: This result is consistent with viral meningitis, and further testing may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis.

      Understanding the results of a CSF analysis is crucial in the diagnosis and treatment of meningitis. Prompt and appropriate treatment can prevent serious complications and improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old male patient complains of recurring headaches on the left side accompanied...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient complains of recurring headaches on the left side accompanied by lacrimation, ptosis, and miosis on the same side. The duration of each episode is less than two hours. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Cluster Headaches

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that affects the neurovascular system. These headaches are characterized by severe pain that is usually felt on one side of the head, specifically in the temple and periorbital region. Along with the pain, individuals may experience ipsilateral lacrimation, nasal congestion, conjunctival injection, miosis, ptosis, and lid oedema. The duration of each headache is brief, lasting only a few moments to two hours. The term cluster refers to the grouping of headaches that occur over a period of several weeks.

      In summary, cluster headaches are a debilitating type of headache that can cause significant discomfort and disruption to daily life. the symptoms and duration of these headaches can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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