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Question 1
Correct
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A 7-month-old baby weighing 8.5 kg has been admitted to the hospital due to a respiratory infection. The doctor has prescribed an intravenous antibiotic for the baby. The loading dose recommended is 3 mg/kg, and the maintenance dose is 0.75 mg/kg to be given every 12 hours. What is the correct dosing regimen to prescribe for this baby?
Your Answer: Loading dose of 24 mg, maintenance dose of 6 mg 12 hourly
Explanation:Importance of Body Weight and Dosing Interval in Drug Prescription
Many drugs require prescription based on body weight, especially in paediatrics. The initial dose, known as the loading dose, is calculated based on the weight of the patient. The maintenance dose is then determined and given at regular intervals to prevent total elimination of the drug from the body. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, meaning that their clearance rate is determined by their half-life. If the half-life of a drug is short, dosing must be frequent to maintain therapeutic concentrations in the blood.
In some cases, such as in the treatment of infections, it is crucial to achieve therapeutic concentrations of the drug as soon as possible to maximize efficacy and prevent bacterial resistance. This may require the use of a loading dose to quickly attain high concentrations of the drug. The timing of dosing intervals is also important in maintaining therapeutic concentrations. Overall, the importance of body weight and dosing intervals in drug prescription is crucial for achieving optimal treatment outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of insomnia. She reports feeling persistently anxious and unable to cease worrying about everything. The GP suspects she may have an anxiety disorder.
What is the most effective tool to use in making a diagnosis?Your Answer: Generalised Anxiety Disorder Questionnaire (GAD-7)
Explanation:Common Screening Tools for Mental Health Conditions
There are several screening tools used in healthcare settings to identify and monitor mental health conditions. These tools help healthcare professionals assess the severity of symptoms and determine appropriate treatment plans. Here are some commonly used screening tools:
1. Generalised Anxiety Disorder Questionnaire (GAD-7): This questionnaire consists of seven questions and is used to screen for generalised anxiety disorder. It measures the severity of symptoms as mild, moderate, or severe.
2. Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT): The AUDIT is a screening tool used to identify signs of harmful drinking and dependence on alcohol.
3. Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE): The MMSE is a questionnaire consisting of 30 questions used to identify cognitive impairment. It is commonly used to screen for dementia.
4. Modified Single-Answer Screening Question (M SASQ): The M SASQ is a single-question alcohol-harm assessment tool designed for use in Emergency Departments. It identifies high-risk drinkers based on their frequency of consuming six or more units (if female, or eight or more if male) on a single occasion in the last year.
5. Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9): The PHQ-9 is used in primary care to monitor the severity of depression and the response to treatment. It uses each of the nine Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, fourth edition criteria for a diagnosis of depression and scores each domain depending on how often the patient experiences these symptoms.
These screening tools are valuable resources for healthcare professionals to identify and monitor mental health conditions. By using these tools, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and support to their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of testicular pain. He reports experiencing pain in his right testicle, accompanied by swelling that has developed throughout the day. He also mentions feeling unwell and slightly nauseous.
During the examination, the right testicle is observed to be swollen and red. It is sensitive to touch, especially on the top of the testicle, but the pain subsides when the testicle is lifted.
What is the most suitable course of action to take at this point?Your Answer: Urgent referral to urology for surgical intervention
Correct Answer: Single dose ceftriaxone and 10-14 days of doxycycline
Explanation:The appropriate treatment for suspected epididymo-orchitis with an unknown organism is a single dose of ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscularly and a 10-14 day course of oral doxycycline 100 mg twice daily. This is because the patient is presenting with symptoms consistent with epididymo-orchitis, which is usually caused by sexually transmitted infections in younger individuals and urinary tract infections in older individuals. The positive Prehn’s sign and localisation of pain to the top of the testicle suggest epididymo-orchitis rather than an alternative diagnosis. Swabs may be taken later to determine the causative organism and adjust treatment accordingly.
A 10-day course of oral levofloxacin is not appropriate for epididymo-orchitis of an unknown organism, as it is not the correct antibiotic for sexually transmitted pathogens. Referral for an ultrasound scan (2 week wait) is also not necessary, as testicular cancer usually presents as a painless lump and would not present acutely. A single dose of doxycycline and 10-14 days of ceftriaxone is also incorrect, as the correct treatment is a single dose of ceftriaxone and a 10-14 day course of doxycycline.
Epididymo-orchitis is a condition where the epididymis and/or testes become infected, leading to pain and swelling. It is commonly caused by infections spreading from the genital tract or bladder, with Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae being the usual culprits in sexually active young adults, while E. coli is more commonly seen in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Symptoms include unilateral testicular pain and swelling, with urethral discharge sometimes present. Testicular torsion, which can cause ischaemia of the testicle, is an important differential diagnosis and needs to be excluded urgently, especially in younger patients with severe pain and an acute onset.
Investigations are guided by the patient’s age, with sexually transmitted infections being assessed in younger adults and a mid-stream urine (MSU) being sent for microscopy and culture in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Management guidelines from the British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) recommend ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscularly as a single dose, plus doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 10-14 days if the organism causing the infection is unknown. Further investigations are recommended after treatment to rule out any underlying structural abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A young man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, tiredness, and pallor. Upon conducting a full blood count, it is revealed that he has acute lymphoblastic leukemia. Among the following options, which is linked to the poorest prognosis in ALL?
Your Answer: Pre-B phenotype
Correct Answer: Philadelphia chromosome present
Explanation:Prognostic Factors in Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. There are several factors that can affect the prognosis of a patient with ALL. Good prognostic factors include having the FAB L1 type, common ALL, a pre-B phenotype, and a low initial white blood cell count. On the other hand, poor prognostic factors include having the FAB L3 type, B or T cell type, the Philadelphia translocation (t(9;22)), increasing age at diagnosis, male sex, CNS involvement, and a high initial white blood cell count (e.g. > 100).
It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these prognostic factors when diagnosing and treating patients with ALL. By identifying these factors, they can better predict the outcome of the disease and tailor treatment plans accordingly. Patients with good prognostic factors may have a better chance of survival and may require less aggressive treatment, while those with poor prognostic factors may need more intensive therapy. Overall, the prognostic factors in ALL can help healthcare professionals provide the best possible care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of worsening menstrual pain in recent months. The pain is not relieved by ibuprofen and is aggravated during sexual activity. During the clinical examination, adnexal tenderness is observed. The GP suspects that endometriosis may be the underlying cause of her dysmenorrhoea. What is the most suitable initial investigation for suspected endometriosis cases?
Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound (TVUS)
Explanation:Investigations for Endometriosis: Methods and Recommendations
Endometriosis is a common cause of dysmenorrhoea, and various investigations are available to diagnose it. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends transvaginal ultrasound (TVUS) as the first-line investigation for suspected endometriosis. TVUS can detect ovarian endometriomas or involvement of structures like the uterosacral ligament. However, a definitive diagnosis of endometriosis can only be made by laparoscopy, which is a minimally invasive procedure. Laparotomy with biopsy is rarely used due to longer recovery times and increased risk of complications. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) pelvis is not recommended as the first-line investigation, but it may be considered if there is suspicion of deep endometriosis affecting other organs like the bowel or bladder. Transabdominal ultrasound is only considered if TVUS cannot be done. In conclusion, TVUS and laparoscopy are the preferred methods for investigating endometriosis, with other investigations being considered only in specific situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 6
Correct
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A typically healthy and fit 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with palpitations that have been ongoing for 4 hours. He reports no chest pain, has a National Early Warning Score (NEWS) of 0, and the only physical finding is an irregularly irregular pulse. An electrocardiogram (ECG) confirms that the patient is experiencing atrial fibrillation. The patient has no notable medical history.
What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer: Medical cardioversion (amiodarone or flecainide)
Explanation:Management of Atrial Fibrillation: Treatment Options and Considerations
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common cardiac arrhythmia that requires prompt management to prevent complications. The following are the treatment options and considerations for managing AF:
Investigations for Reversible Causes
Before initiating any treatment, the patient should be investigated for reversible causes of AF, such as hyperthyroidism and alcohol. Blood tests (TFTs, FBC, U and Es, LFTs, and coagulation screen) and a chest X-ray should be performed.Medical Cardioversion
If no reversible causes are found, medical cardioversion is the most appropriate treatment for haemodynamically stable patients who present within 48 hours of the onset of AF. Amiodarone or flecainide can be used for this purpose.DC Cardioversion
DC cardioversion is indicated for haemodynamically unstable patients, including those with shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, and heart failure. It is also appropriate if medical cardioversion fails.Anticoagulation Therapy with Warfarin
Patients who remain in persistent AF for over 48 hours should have their CHA2DS2 VASc score calculated. If the score is equal to or greater than 1 for men or equal to or greater than 2 for women, anticoagulation therapy with warfarin should be initiated.Radiofrequency Ablation
Radiofrequency ablation is not a suitable treatment for acute AF.24-Hour Three Lead ECG Tape
Sending the patient home with a 24-hour three lead ECG tape and reviewing them in one week is not necessary as the diagnosis of AF has already been established.In summary, the management of AF involves investigating for reversible causes, considering medical or DC cardioversion, initiating anticoagulation therapy with warfarin if necessary, and avoiding radiofrequency ablation for acute AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with a three month history of weight gain. During this time her weight has increased from 56 kg to 81 kg.
She works as a teacher and was in a long-term relationship until three months ago. Following the break-up, she started to drink more and her meals became erratic. She has been recently diagnosed with anxiety. In addition, she recently broke her left ankle after falling while hiking.
Her regular medications now include sertraline, vitamin D, and a benzoyl peroxide gel for acne.
What is the next best test?Your Answer: Blood for morning cortisol
Correct Answer: Blood for midnight cortisol
Explanation:Screening for Cushing’s Syndrome
This patient is exhibiting symptoms of Cushing’s syndrome, including acne, weight gain, depression, and brittle bones. The most appropriate screening test for this condition is a midnight cortisol level in the blood or a 24-hour urinary free cortisol test. While a dexamethasone suppression test can also be used, a single midnight cortisol level has the same sensitivity and is easier to administer.
It is important to note that morning cortisol levels are more appropriate for diagnosing Addison’s disease. Additionally, while morning cortisol levels are used after a dexamethasone suppression test, the upper limit of normal is not well-defined, unlike the lower limit of normal. Therefore, levels below 550 ng/ml may indicate steroid insufficiency, but high levels cannot provide specific information.
While hypothyroidism may explain some of the patient’s symptoms, a TSH test is not the best option for screening for Cushing’s syndrome. Similarly, while blood sugar levels may be abnormal in this case, they will not aid in diagnosing the cause of the patient’s symptoms. Given the severity of the patient’s symptoms, it is important to take action and screen for Cushing’s syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 36-year-old woman has experienced a stillbirth and wants to stop lactation. What medication should be used for this purpose?
Your Answer: Bromocriptine
Explanation:Medications for Lactation Suppression
Lactation is stimulated by the release of prolactin, and drugs that decrease prolactin levels are effective in suppressing lactation. Dopamine agonists like bromocriptine are the most commonly used drugs for this purpose. On the other hand, drugs like domperidone and amitriptyline that increase serum prolactin levels are not effective in suppressing lactation.
Ondansetron is an antiemetic drug that works by blocking the 5-HT system. It is not used for lactation suppression as it does not affect prolactin levels. L-dopa, another drug that can reduce prolactin levels, is not commonly used due to its side effects. It often causes nausea in patients, making dopamine agonists a preferred choice for lactation suppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Correct
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A fit and well 36-week pregnant patient is admitted for a planned Caesarean section. Blood tests show the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 102 g/l 115–155 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 89 fl 82–98 fl
Platelets 156 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
White cell count (WCC) 11 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
With which of the following are these findings consistent?Your Answer: Dilutional anaemia of pregnancy
Explanation:Understanding Dilutional Anaemia of Pregnancy
Dilutional anaemia of pregnancy is a common condition that occurs during pregnancy. It is characterized by a normal mean cell volume (MCV) and is caused by a disproportional rise in plasma volume, which dilutes the red blood cells. This condition is the most likely option for a patient with a normal MCV.
Iron deficiency anaemia, on the other hand, is microcytic and gives a low MCV. Pancytopenia, which is the term for low haemoglobin, white cells, and platelets, is not applicable in this case as the patient’s white cells and platelets are in the normal range.
Folic acid or B12 deficiency would give rise to macrocytic anaemia with raised MCV, which is not the case for this patient. Myelodysplasia, an uncommon malignant condition that usually occurs in patients over 60, is also unlikely.
In conclusion, understanding dilutional anaemia of pregnancy is important for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and management for pregnant patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl with sickle cell disease arrives at the emergency department. She has been running a fever for a week and complains of nausea and loss of appetite. In the past 24 hours, she has been experiencing intense pain in her left leg. The initial treatment for a sickle crisis is administered, including oxygen, fluids, morphine, and antibiotics. However, an X-ray reveals osteomyelitis in her leg.
What is the probable causative organism for her osteomyelitis?Your Answer: Group A streptococcus
Correct Answer: Salmonella enteritidis
Explanation:Salmonella osteomyelitis is a common occurrence in sickle cell patients.
Among sickle cell patients, Salmonella is the leading cause of osteomyelitis. In contrast, Staphylococcus aureus is the most frequent cause in children. Haemophilus, Group A streptococcus, and Enterococcus are all less prevalent causes of osteomyelitis.
Understanding Osteomyelitis: Types, Causes, and Treatment
Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be classified into two types: haematogenous and non-haematogenous. Haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by bacteria that enter the bloodstream and is usually monomicrobial. It is more common in children, with vertebral osteomyelitis being the most common form in adults. Risk factors include sickle cell anaemia, intravenous drug use, immunosuppression, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, non-haematogenous osteomyelitis results from the spread of infection from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is often polymicrobial and more common in adults, with risk factors such as diabetic foot ulcers, pressure sores, diabetes mellitus, and peripheral arterial disease.
Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis, except in patients with sickle-cell anaemia where Salmonella species predominate. To diagnose osteomyelitis, MRI is the imaging modality of choice, with a sensitivity of 90-100%. Treatment for osteomyelitis involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin. Clindamycin is an alternative for patients who are allergic to penicillin.
In summary, osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream or spreading from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is more common in children and adults with certain risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause, and MRI is the preferred imaging modality for diagnosis. Treatment involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin or clindamycin for penicillin-allergic patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 11
Correct
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A 27-year-old primigravid woman at 10 weeks gestation visits her midwife for a routine booking appointment. She has sickle cell anaemia. Her partner’s sickle cell status is Hb AS. Her haemoglobin is 9.2 g / dl.
What is the likelihood of her baby having sickle cell disease?Your Answer: 1 in 2
Explanation:Probability of Inheriting Sickle Cell Disease
Sickle cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive condition that affects the haemoglobin in red blood cells. The probability of a baby inheriting the disease depends on the genotypes of the parents.
If one parent has sickle cell disease (HbSS) and the other is a carrier (HbAS), the baby has a 1 in 2 chance of inheriting the disease and a 1 in 2 chance of being a carrier.
If both parents are carriers (HbAS), the baby has a 1 in 4 chance of inheriting the disease.
If one parent has sickle cell disease (HbSS) and the other is unaffected (HbAA), the baby will be a carrier (HbAS).
If both parents have sickle cell disease (HbSS), the baby will inherit the disease.
It is important for individuals to know their carrier status and to receive genetic counselling before planning a family to understand the risks of passing on genetic conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 12
Correct
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A 35-year-old male contacts his GP at 2PM to schedule his blood tests following a recent visit to his psychiatrist. The psychiatrist has raised his lithium dosage and requested that the GP arrange for lithium levels to be checked at the appropriate time after taking the medication. The patient took his first increased dose of lithium at 10AM (4 hours ago). In how many hours should the GP schedule the blood test to be taken?
Your Answer: 8 hours
Explanation:Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.
Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 13
Correct
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A 16-year-old woman presents with primary amenorrhoea. She is of normal height and build and has normal intellect. Her breast development is normal, and pubic hair is of Tanner stage II. Past history revealed an inguinal mass on the right side, which was excised 2 years ago. Ultrasonography of the lower abdomen reveals no uterus.
Which of the following tests will help in diagnosis of the condition?Your Answer: Karyotype
Explanation:Diagnosis of Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome: A Case Study
The presented case strongly suggests the presence of androgen insensitivity syndrome, a condition where a patient’s phenotype and secondary sexual characteristics differ from their karyotype and gonads. In this case, the patient is likely to have a karyotype of 46,XY and be a male pseudohermaphrodite. Androgen insensitivity syndrome is associated with mutations in the AR gene, which codes for the androgen receptor. In complete androgen insensitivity, the body cannot respond to androgens at all, resulting in a female phenotype, female secondary sexual characteristics, no uterus, and undescended testes.
Karyotyping is the key diagnostic investigation to confirm the diagnosis of androgen insensitivity syndrome. Serum oestradiol levels may vary according to the type of androgen insensitivity disorder and are unlikely to aid the diagnosis. Pituitary MRI may be a second diagnostic investigation if karyotype abnormalities are ruled out. Transvaginal ultrasound is not necessary if an abdominal ultrasound has already been performed and showed an absent uterus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 9-month-old girl is brought to your clinic by her parents, reporting an atypical sequence of movements observed in their daughter. They managed to record a video of the episode, and upon reviewing it, you observe mild bilateral flexion of her neck and legs, succeeded by extension of her arms. She repeats this pattern approximately 40 times before ceasing.
What is the probable diagnosis for this scenario?Your Answer: Focal impaired awareness seizure
Correct Answer: Infantile spasms
Explanation:Understanding Infantile Spasms
Infantile spasms, also known as West syndrome, is a form of epilepsy that typically occurs in infants between 4 to 8 months old, with a higher incidence in male infants. This condition is often associated with a serious underlying condition and has a poor prognosis. The characteristic feature of infantile spasms is the salaam attacks, which involve the flexion of the head, trunk, and arms followed by the extension of the arms. These attacks last only 1-2 seconds but can be repeated up to 50 times.
Infants with infantile spasms may also experience progressive mental handicap. To diagnose this condition, an EEG is typically performed, which shows hypsarrhythmia in two-thirds of infants. Additionally, a CT scan may be used to identify any diffuse or localized brain disease, which is present in 70% of cases, such as tuberous sclerosis.
Unfortunately, infantile spasms carry a poor prognosis. However, there are treatment options available. Vigabatrin is now considered the first-line therapy, and ACTH is also used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 15
Correct
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A 30-year-old previously healthy man is involved in an accident at home. He is brought to Accident and Emergency where he is found to have superficial abrasions to the right side of his chest and upper abdomen, together with an obvious deformity of the right humerus. Radiograph of the right arm shows a displaced midshaft humerus fracture. Neurovascular examination reveals radial nerve palsy, together with absent peripheral pulses and a cool, clammy distal arm. He was given oral paracetamol at home, while waiting for the ambulance to arrive. Pain score remains 9/10. Parameters are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Temperature 36.9 °C 36.1–37.2 °C
Pulse 110 bpm 60–100 bpm
Blood pressure 140/90 mmHg < 120/80 mmHg
Oxygen saturations 98% on room air 94–98%
Respiratory rate 22 breaths/min 12–18 breaths/min
Which of the following is the most appropriate form of pain relief?Your Answer: IV morphine
Explanation:Choosing the Right Analgesic for Acute Pain: A Case-by-Case Basis
Analgesia is typically administered in a stepwise manner, but emergency medicine requires a more individualized approach. In cases of acute pain from long bone fractures, non-opioid analgesia may not be sufficient. The two most viable options are oral and IV morphine, with IV morphine being preferred due to its rapid onset and safe side-effect profile. However, caution must be exercised due to the risk of respiratory depression and dependency. Oral NSAIDs and morphine are contraindicated as the patient must be kept nil by mouth before urgent surgical intervention. Oxycodone prolonged release is too weak for severe pain. Choosing the right analgesic for acute pain requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 16
Correct
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A 75-year-old retired teacher presents with acute-onset confusion. The patient lives alone and is usually in good health. She has had no issues with her memory before, but over the past three days, her neighbor has noticed that the patient has become increasingly confused; this morning she did not recognize her own home. When taking the history from the neighbor, she mentions that the patient had been experiencing urinary symptoms over the past week. A dipstick of the patient’s urine is positive for blood, leukocytes and nitrites. A tentative diagnosis of delirium secondary to a urinary tract infection (UTI) is made, and empirical treatment for UTI is initiated.
Which of the following tests is typically abnormal during delirium, regardless of the cause?Your Answer: Electroencephalogram
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Delirium: Understanding Their Role in Evaluation
Delirium is a state of acute brain impairment that can be caused by various factors. The diagnosis of delirium is based on clinical features, such as acute onset, fluctuating course, disorientation, perceptual disturbances, and decreased attention. However, diagnostic tests may be necessary to identify the underlying cause of delirium and guide appropriate treatment. Here are some common diagnostic tests used in the evaluation of delirium:
Electroencephalogram (EEG): EEG can show diffuse slowing in delirious individuals, regardless of the cause of delirium. A specific pattern called K complexes may occur in delirium due to hepatic encephalopathy.
Lumbar puncture: This test may be used to diagnose meningitis, which can present with delirium. However, it may not be abnormal in many cases of delirium.
Serum glucose: Hyper- or hypoglycemia can cause delirium, but serum glucose may not be universally abnormal in all cases of delirium.
Computed tomography (CT) of the head: CT may be used to evaluate delirium, but it may be normal in certain cases, such as profound sepsis causing delirium.
Electrocardiogram (ECG): ECG is unlikely to be abnormal in delirium, regardless of the cause.
While diagnostic tests can be helpful in the evaluation of delirium, the cornerstone of treatment is addressing the underlying cause. Patients with delirium need close monitoring to prevent harm to themselves. Manipulating the environment, using medications to reduce agitation and sedate patients, and providing reassurance and familiar contact can also be helpful in managing delirium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome secondary to focal segmental glomerulosclerosis after presenting with pedal oedema. She is being treated with furosemide 40 mg and prednisolone 60 mg. Her potassium level is 3.0 mEq/l (3.5–5.1).
Which of the following medications will not increase potassium levels?Your Answer: Corticosteroids
Explanation:Medications that can cause hyperkalaemia
Hyperkalaemia, or high levels of potassium in the blood, can be caused by certain medications. Here are some medications that can lead to hyperkalaemia:
1. Corticosteroids: Oral or IV steroids with glucocorticoid properties, such as prednisone and hydrocortisone, can be used to treat chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and increase renal potassium excretion.
2. Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs): Use of ARBs can be associated with hyperkalaemia, particularly in patients with chronic renal insufficiency. It is important to monitor serum potassium levels shortly after initiating therapy.
3. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors: Use of ACE inhibitors can also be associated with hyperkalaemia, particularly in patients with chronic renal insufficiency. ACE inhibitors can cause potassium retention by suppressing angiotensin II, which leads to a decrease in aldosterone levels.
4. Spironolactone: Hyperkalaemia is an established adverse effect of both spironolactone and eplerenone. Potassium levels should be monitored regularly in patients taking spironolactone.
5. Digoxin: Hyperkalaemia is the most common electrolyte abnormality in acute digoxin toxicity. Chronic toxicity does not cause hyperkalaemia. Digoxin blocks the sodium-potassium ATPase pump.
It is important to be aware of these medications and their potential to cause hyperkalaemia, and to monitor serum potassium levels in patients taking them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Biochemistry
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old man is recovering on the ward several weeks after being treated for acute pancreatitis caused by excessive alcohol consumption. Despite being clinically stable, he continues to experience pain in the epigastric region. Routine blood tests and an abdominal ultrasound scan are performed, revealing the following results:
- Bilirubin: 28 µmol/l
- Albumin: 38 g/l
- ALT: 39 u/l
- γGT: 68 u/l
- CRP: 11.2 mg/l
- Amylase: 541 u/l
The abdominal ultrasound scan shows normal kidney and liver appearances, as well as a normal aortic diameter. However, a cystic lesion measuring 53 mm x 61 mm is present in the head of the pancreas. What is the most appropriate initial management strategy for this patient's pancreatic lesion?Your Answer: Radiological drain insertion
Correct Answer: Conservative management
Explanation:When a cystic lesion and elevated amylase levels are observed after pancreatitis, it is likely to be a pancreatic pseudocyst. In such cases, it is best to initially manage the condition conservatively, especially if the patient is stable and liver function is not significantly affected. Procedures such as radiological fine-needle aspiration should be avoided as they can increase the risk of infection and have a high morbidity and mortality rate. Active drainage is only necessary if there are signs of infection, mass effect on abdominal organs, or if the pseudocyst persists beyond 12 weeks. Even if the patient experiences symptoms, conservative management is often preferred as the risks of a procedure outweigh the benefits.
Acute pancreatitis can lead to various complications, both locally and systemically. Local complications include peripancreatic fluid collections, which occur in about 25% of cases and may develop into pseudocysts or abscesses. Pseudocysts are walled by fibrous or granulation tissue and typically occur 4 weeks or more after an attack of acute pancreatitis. Pancreatic necrosis, which involves both the pancreatic parenchyma and surrounding fat, can also occur and is directly linked to the extent of necrosis. Pancreatic abscesses may result from infected pseudocysts and can be treated with drainage methods. Haemorrhage may also occur, particularly in cases of infected necrosis.
Systemic complications of acute pancreatitis include acute respiratory distress syndrome, which has a high mortality rate of around 20%. Local complications such as peripancreatic fluid collections and pancreatic necrosis can also lead to systemic complications if left untreated. It is important to manage these complications appropriately, with conservative management being preferred for sterile necrosis and early necrosectomy being avoided unless necessary. Treatment options for local complications include endoscopic or surgical cystogastrostomy, aspiration, and drainage methods. Overall, prompt recognition and management of complications is crucial in improving outcomes for patients with acute pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 19
Correct
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What is the mode of action of glycopeptides such as vancomycin?
Your Answer: Cell wall inhibition
Explanation:Glycopeptides and their Mechanism of Action
Glycopeptides are a type of antibiotic that work by preventing the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall. This is achieved through steric hindrance of peptidoglycans, which are essential components of the cell wall. By inhibiting the formation of peptidoglycans, glycopeptides prevent the bacteria from building a strong and stable cell wall, ultimately leading to cell death.
The mechanism of action of glycopeptides is unique compared to other antibiotics, as they specifically target the cell wall rather than other cellular processes. This makes them particularly effective against gram-positive bacteria, which have a thicker peptidoglycan layer compared to gram-negative bacteria. However, some bacteria have developed resistance to glycopeptides through various mechanisms, such as modifying the target site or producing enzymes that degrade the antibiotic. Despite this, glycopeptides remain an important class of antibiotics in the treatment of bacterial infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old rugby player is admitted to the emergency department after a field accident. During the examination, the physician discovers tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox and scaphoid tubercle. Which neurovascular structure is most likely to be affected?
Your Answer: Median nerve
Correct Answer: Dorsal carpal arch of the radial artery
Explanation:The main neurovascular structure that is at risk in a scaphoid fracture is the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery. This artery is responsible for supplying blood to the scaphoid bone. It is important to note that the ulnar artery is not involved in the blood supply to the scaphoid bone. The most serious complication of a scaphoid fracture is avascular necrosis. It is not possible for a scaphoid fracture to cause damage to the median or ulnar nerves as they are not anatomically related to the scaphoid bone. Although the radial nerve is located near the scaphoid bone, it is less likely to be affected than the blood vessels. This is because the radial nerve runs superficially to the tendons of the snuffbox.
Understanding Scaphoid Fractures
A scaphoid fracture is a type of wrist fracture that typically occurs when a person falls onto an outstretched hand or during contact sports. It is important to recognize this type of fracture due to the unusual blood supply of the scaphoid bone. Interruption of the blood supply can lead to avascular necrosis, which is a serious complication. Patients with scaphoid fractures typically present with pain along the radial aspect of the wrist and loss of grip or pinch strength. Clinical examination is highly sensitive and specific when certain signs are present, such as tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox and pain on telescoping of the thumb.
Plain film radiographs should be requested, including scaphoid views, but the sensitivity in the first week of injury is only 80%. A CT scan may be requested in the context of ongoing clinical suspicion or planning operative management, while MRI is considered the definite investigation to confirm or exclude a diagnosis. Initial management involves immobilization with a splint or backslab and referral to orthopaedics. Orthopaedic management depends on the patient and type of fracture, with undisplaced fractures of the scaphoid waist typically treated with a cast for 6-8 weeks. Displaced scaphoid waist fractures require surgical fixation, as do proximal scaphoid pole fractures. Complications of scaphoid fractures include non-union, which can lead to pain and early osteoarthritis, and avascular necrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 21
Correct
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A 38-year-old teacher presents to your clinic with complaints of painful and stiff joints. The stiffness is more pronounced in the mornings and lasts for over an hour, but improves as the day progresses. The patient reports feeling fatigued but denies any other symptoms. Upon examination, synovitis is observed in two interphalangeal joints of the left hand, left wrist, and a single distal interphalangeal joint in the right foot. The patient is referred to a rheumatologist who diagnoses psoriatic arthritis. What is the most distinguishing feature between psoriatic arthritis and rheumatoid arthritis?
Your Answer: Asymmetrical joint pains
Explanation:Psoriatic arthritis patients may experience a symmetrical polyarthritis similar to rheumatoid arthritis. Fatigue is a common symptom in inflammatory arthritides, including psoriatic arthritis, but it is not specific to this condition. Joint pain caused by mechanical factors like osteoarthritis and fibromyalgia can also lead to fatigue. Prolonged morning stiffness is a sign of inflammatory arthritis, such as psoriatic arthritis or rheumatoid arthritis, but it can also occur in other inflammatory arthritides. In contrast, morning stiffness in osteoarthritis is usually shorter in duration, lasting less than an hour. Improvement in stiffness with use is a distinguishing feature of inflammatory arthritis, such as psoriatic and rheumatoid arthritis, while physical activity in osteoarthritis tends to worsen symptoms.
Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.
The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.
To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 22
Correct
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A father brings his 4-month-old daughter to the emergency department worried about her vomiting green liquid. Moreover, she has been crying and pulling her legs up on and off for the past day. The father mentions that she has always been fussy during feeding, but she has not eaten anything in the last 24 hours and has not had a bowel movement. What is the probable diagnosis for this infant?
Your Answer: Intestinal malrotation
Explanation:It is highly probable that the infant is suffering from intestinal malrotation, which has led to a volvulus. This condition is characterized by symptoms such as bilious vomiting, abdominal pain and cramping, lethargy, poor appetite, and infrequent bowel movements. Upon examination, the infant may have a swollen, firm abdomen, and possibly a fever, with reduced urine output. Acute appendicitis is rare in children under three years old and would not cause bilious vomiting. Hirschsprung disease would have been evident at birth, with delayed passage of meconium and abdominal distension. Mesenteric adenitis, on the other hand, is inflammation of the lymph nodes in the abdomen and is typically preceded by an upper respiratory tract infection. It would not result in bilious vomiting but may cause abdominal pain and fever, usually in an older child or teenager.
Paediatric Gastrointestinal Disorders
Pyloric stenosis is more common in males and has a 5-10% chance of being inherited from parents. Symptoms include projectile vomiting at 4-6 weeks of life, and diagnosis is made through a test feed or ultrasound. Treatment involves a Ramstedt pyloromyotomy, either open or laparoscopic.
Acute appendicitis is uncommon in children under 3 years old, but when it does occur, it may present atypically. Mesenteric adenitis causes central abdominal pain and URTI, and is treated conservatively.
Intussusception occurs in infants aged 6-9 months and causes colicky pain, diarrhea, vomiting, a sausage-shaped mass, and red jelly stool. Treatment involves reduction with air insufflation.
Intestinal malrotation is characterized by a high caecum at the midline and may be complicated by the development of volvulus. Diagnosis is made through an upper GI contrast study and ultrasound, and treatment involves laparotomy or a Ladd’s procedure.
Hirschsprung’s disease occurs in 1/5000 births and is characterized by delayed passage of meconium and abdominal distension. Treatment involves rectal washouts and an anorectal pull through procedure.
Oesophageal atresia is associated with tracheo-oesophageal fistula and polyhydramnios, and may present with choking and cyanotic spells following aspiration. Meconium ileus is usually associated with cystic fibrosis and requires surgery to remove plugs. Biliary atresia causes jaundice and increased conjugated bilirubin, and requires an urgent Kasai procedure. Necrotising enterocolitis is more common in premature infants and is treated with total gut rest and TPN, with laparotomy required for perforations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Correct
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A 20-year-old man visits his GP clinic with a chief complaint of headaches. During the physical examination, no abnormalities are detected, but his blood pressure is found to be 178/90 mmHg. The doctor suspects a renal origin for the hypertension and wants to perform an initial screening test for renovascular causes. What is the most appropriate investigation for this purpose?
Your Answer: Abdominal duplex ultrasound
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Renal Hypertension
Renal hypertension, or high blood pressure caused by kidney disease, can be diagnosed through various diagnostic tests. The appropriate initial screening investigation is an abdominal duplex ultrasound, which can detect renal vascular or anatomical pathologies such as renal artery stenosis or polycystic kidney disease. If abnormalities are found, more advanced testing such as a CTA, magnetic resonance angiography, or nuclear medicine testing may be necessary. However, an ultrasound is the best initial screening investigation for renal hypertension.
A CTA is a follow-up test that may be performed if an initial abdominal duplex ultrasound suggests a renal cause for the hypertension. It is an advanced, specialist test that would not be appropriate as an initial screening investigation. On the other hand, a magnetic resonance angiography is an advanced, gold-standard test that can be performed if an initial abdominal duplex ultrasound suggests a renal cause for the hypertension.
HbA1c is a blood test that tests your average blood glucose levels over the last 2–3 months. It can indicate if diabetes may have contributed to the hypertension, but will not clarify whether there is a renal cause. Lastly, a urine albumin: creatinine ratio tests for the presence of protein in the urine, which is a reflection of kidney disease, but does not give us any indication of the cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 24
Correct
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A 30-year-old nulliparous woman with Factor V Leiden presents for her initial antenatal visit. She has a history of unprovoked VTE, and the physician discusses thromboprophylaxis with her. What treatment pathway should be followed based on her risk?
Your Answer: Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) antenatally + 6 weeks postpartum
Explanation:Factor V Leiden is a genetic condition that causes resistance to the breakdown of Factor V by activated Protein C, leading to an increased risk of blood clots. The RCOG has issued guidelines (Green-top Guideline No.37a) for preventing blood clots in pregnant women with this condition. As this patient has a history of VTE, she is at high risk during and after pregnancy and requires both antenatal and postnatal thromboprophylaxis. It is important to note that postnatal prophylaxis must be given for six weeks following antenatal prophylaxis.
Venous Thromboembolism in Pregnancy: Risk Assessment and Prophylactic Measures
Pregnancy increases the risk of developing venous thromboembolism (VTE), a condition that can be life-threatening for both the mother and the fetus. To prevent VTE, it is important to assess a woman’s individual risk during pregnancy and initiate appropriate prophylactic measures. This risk assessment should be done at the first antenatal booking and on any subsequent hospital admission.
Women with a previous history of VTE are automatically considered high risk and require low molecular weight heparin throughout the antenatal period, as well as input from experts. Women at intermediate risk due to hospitalization, surgery, co-morbidities, or thrombophilia should also be considered for antenatal prophylactic low molecular weight heparin.
The risk assessment at booking should include factors that increase the likelihood of developing VTE, such as age over 35, body mass index over 30, parity over 3, smoking, gross varicose veins, current pre-eclampsia, immobility, family history of unprovoked VTE, low-risk thrombophilia, multiple pregnancy, and IVF pregnancy.
If a woman has four or more risk factors, immediate treatment with low molecular weight heparin should be initiated and continued until six weeks postnatal. If a woman has three risk factors, low molecular weight heparin should be initiated from 28 weeks and continued until six weeks postnatal.
If a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is made shortly before delivery, anticoagulation treatment should be continued for at least three months, as in other patients with provoked DVTs. Low molecular weight heparin is the treatment of choice for VTE prophylaxis in pregnancy, while direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) and warfarin should be avoided.
In summary, a thorough risk assessment and appropriate prophylactic measures can help prevent VTE in pregnancy, which is crucial for the health and safety of both the mother and the fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 25
Correct
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A 68 year old woman has been admitted to the cardiology ward with worsening symptoms of congestive cardiac failure. She is breathless at rest and has pitting oedema bilaterally to the level of the shins. The cardiology consultant asks you to prescribe a furosemide infusion.
Which of the following mechanisms best describes the way that furosemide acts as a diuretic?Your Answer: Na+/ K+/2Cl– co-transporter inhibition
Explanation:Types of Diuretics and Their Mechanisms of Action
Diuretics are medications that increase urine output and are commonly used to treat conditions such as hypertension and edema. There are several types of diuretics, each with a unique mechanism of action.
Loop Diuretics
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits the co-transport of Na+/K+/2 Cl– in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. This leads to a significant increase in sodium and chloride concentrations in the filtrate, resulting in massive diuresis.NaCl Transport Inhibitors
Thiazide diuretics, such as bendroflumethiazide, inhibit NaCl transport in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to a moderate increase in sodium excretion and moderate diuresis.Aldosterone Antagonist
Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that acts as an aldosterone antagonist, causing an increase in Na+ excretion and a decrease in K+ and H+ excretion in the collecting tubules.Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor
Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that increases bicarbonate excretion in the proximal convoluted tubule. It is not commonly used as a diuretic but is used to treat glaucoma, altitude sickness, and idiopathic intracranial hypertension.ACE Inhibitor
ACE inhibitors, such as lisinopril, are primarily used as antihypertensive medications. By inhibiting ACE, they decrease the production of angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor.In conclusion, understanding the different types of diuretics and their mechanisms of action is crucial in selecting the appropriate medication for a patient’s specific condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents with two episodes of post-coital bleeding. She reports that she noticed some red spotting immediately after intercourse, which settled shortly afterwards. She is on the combined oral contraceptive pill, with a regular partner, and does not use barrier contraception.
Examination reveals a malodorous, green, frothy discharge and an erythematosus cervix with small areas of exudation. High vaginal and endocervical swabs were performed.
Given the most likely diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscularly, followed by 1 g of azithromycin
Correct Answer: Metronidazole 400–500 mg twice daily for 5–7 days
Explanation:Treatment Options for Sexually Transmitted Infections
Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) can cause a range of symptoms in women, including post-coital bleeding, vaginal discharge, cervicitis, and more. Here are some common treatment options for STIs:
– Metronidazole: This medication is used to treat Trichomonas vaginalis infections. Patients typically take 400-500 mg twice daily for 5-7 days. It’s important to treat the partner simultaneously and abstain from sex for at least one week.
– Referral for colposcopy: If symptoms persist after treatment, patients may be referred for colposcopy to rule out cervical carcinoma.
– Azithromycin or doxycycline: These medications are used to treat uncomplicated genital Chlamydia infections. Most women with a chlamydial infection remain asymptomatic.
– Ceftriaxone and azithromycin: This combination is the treatment of choice for gonorrhoea infections. Symptoms may include increased vaginal discharge, lower abdominal pain, dyspareunia, and dysuria.
– No treatment is required: This is not an option for symptomatic patients with T vaginalis, as it is a sexually transmitted infection that requires treatment.It’s important to seek medical attention if you suspect you have an STI, as early treatment can prevent complications and transmission to others.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 27
Correct
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An 85-year-old man presents with a short history of increasing confusion. Preceding this, he fell four weeks ago in the bathroom. In the afternoon he was examined by his GP and he was alert with a normal physical examination. The patient has a history of hypertension for which he takes bendroflumethiazide.
Four weeks later the patient was visited at home because the dazed state had returned. He is afebrile, has a pulse of 80 per minute regular and blood pressure of 152/86 mmHg. His response to questions is slightly slowed, he is disoriented in time and there is some deficit in recent memory.
The patient moves slowly, but muscle strength is preserved. Neurologic examination shows slight hyperactivity of the tendon reflexes on the right. Plantar responses are unclear because of bilateral withdrawal. That gives him a GCS score of 14.
What would be the most appropriate next investigation for this 85-year-old man?Your Answer: Computed tomograms of the head
Explanation:Chronic Subdural Haematoma in the Elderly
The confusion and neurological symptoms that developed after a fall in the past suggest that the patient may have chronic subdural haematoma. The best way to investigate this condition is through a CT scan, which is the preferred diagnostic tool. A skull x-ray may also be useful in detecting any fractures.
Chronic subdural haematoma is a condition that commonly affects elderly individuals. It occurs when blood accumulates between the brain and the outermost layer of the brain’s protective covering. This can cause pressure on the brain, leading to a range of symptoms such as confusion, headaches, and difficulty with balance and coordination.
It is important to diagnose and treat chronic subdural haematoma promptly, as it can lead to serious complications if left untreated. Treatment may involve draining the blood from the affected area, and in some cases, surgery may be necessary. Early diagnosis and treatment can greatly improve the patient’s chances of a full recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency department by her mother.
The girl is experiencing elbow pain and is refusing to use her arm. Her mother reports that she was lifted up by her outstretched arms earlier in the day.
What is the probable diagnosis for this case?Your Answer: Fracture of the medial epicondyle
Correct Answer: Subluxation of the radial head
Explanation:Subluxation of the Radial Head in Children
Subluxation of the radial head, also known as pulled elbow, is a frequent injury in young children. It occurs when the arm is pulled directly, causing the radial head to dislocate from its ligament. The child may experience pain in the elbow and have limited movement in supination and extension. They may also refuse to use their arm.
Fortunately, a diagnosis can often be made without the need for an x-ray if the history is typical. Treatment involves providing pain relief and manipulating the elbow by supination while it is flexed at a 90° angle. With proper care, most children recover quickly from this injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 29
Correct
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A 70-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents to his general practitioner after discovering a mass in his scrotum. He reported feeling a heavy, dragging sensation in his scrotum for approximately 2 weeks before noticing the mass during self-examination. Upon examination, the patient had a palpable, non-tender mass on the right side of the scrotum, seemingly associated with the right testicle. Ultrasound of the scrotum revealed dilation of the right pampiniform plexus.
What is the most probable cause of this patient's condition?Your Answer: Dilation of the superior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The dilation of the superior mesenteric artery is unlikely to be related to the patient’s symptoms. A more likely cause is a varicocele, which is a dilation of the pampiniform plexus. This condition often occurs on the left side due to increased pressure in the left testicular vein caused by a 90-degree angle where it drains into the left renal vein. The left renal vein can also be compressed by the superior mesenteric artery, further increasing pressure and leading to a varicocele. Symptoms of a varicocele include a non-tender heaviness or dragging sensation in the scrotum. Other conditions, such as venous insufficiency of the inferior vena cava, increased right renal vein pressure, increased left renal artery pressure, or benign prostatic hyperplasia, are unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 25-year-old individual is undergoing testing for asthma. Prior to administering bronchodilators, their FEV1/FVC ratio is measured at 0.85, with the FVC at 90% of normal. What does this indicate?
Your Answer: Normal examination
Explanation:The FEV1/FVC ratio is a key measurement in lung function tests. In normal subjects, this ratio ranges from 0.75 to 0.85. If the ratio is less than 0.70, it suggests an obstructive problem that reduces the FEV1, which is the volume of air that can be expelled in one second. However, if the ratio is normal, it indicates that the individual has a healthy respiratory system.
In cases of restrictive lung disease, the FVC is reduced, which can also affect the FEV1/FVC ratio. In such cases, the ratio may be normal or even high. Therefore, it is important to interpret the FEV1/FVC ratio in conjunction with other lung function test results to accurately diagnose and manage respiratory conditions. This ratio can help healthcare professionals identify potential lung problems and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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