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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain and swelling. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain and swelling. She works as a teacher and is in a committed relationship. Upon examination, her abdomen is tender, particularly in the right upper quadrant, and there is mild jaundice. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) and has no significant medical history or regular medication use. After three days of hospitalization, her abdomen became distended and fluid thrill was detected. Laboratory tests show:
      Parameter Result
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 150 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Bilirubin 51 μmol/ 2–17 μmol/
      Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 1050 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 998 IU/l 5−30 IU/l
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 210 IU/l 36–76 IU/l
      Gamma-Glutamyl transferase (γGT) 108 IU/l 8–35 IU/l
      Albumin 30 g/l 35–55 g/l
      An ultrasound revealed a slightly enlarged liver with a prominent caudate lobe.
      What is the most appropriate definitive treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral lactulose

      Correct Answer: Liver transplantation

      Explanation:

      Management of Budd-Chiari Syndrome: Liver Transplantation and Other Treatment Options

      Budd-Chiari syndrome (BCS) is a condition characterized by hepatic venous outflow obstruction, resulting in hepatic dysfunction, portal hypertension, and ascites. Diagnosis is typically made through ultrasound Doppler, and risk factors include the use of the combined oral contraceptive pill and genetic mutations such as factor V Leiden. Treatment options depend on the severity of the disease, with liver transplantation being necessary in cases of fulminant BCS. For less severe cases, the European Association for the Study of the Liver (EASL) recommends a stepwise approach, starting with anticoagulation and progressing to angioplasty, thrombolysis, and transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPSS) procedure if needed. Oral lactulose is used to treat hepatic encephalopathy, and anticoagulation is necessary both urgently and long-term. Therapeutic drainage of ascitic fluid and diuretic therapy with furosemide or spironolactone may also be used to manage ascites, but these treatments do not address the underlying cause of BCS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      153
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a gradual onset of...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a gradual onset of weakness in his legs, arms, neck, and face. He notices that his muscle strength improves after some exercise.
      During the examination, the doctor observes weakness in all limbs, particularly in the proximal arms and legs, and ptosis in both eyelids. The patient has a history of heavy smoking for 45 pack-years and was recently diagnosed with lung cancer.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lambert–Eaton myasthenic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Bilateral Ptosis and Limb Weakness

      The patient’s symptoms of bilateral ptosis and limb weakness suggest several possible diagnoses. However, the most likely diagnosis is Lambert–Eaton myasthenic syndrome, a disorder of the presynaptic calcium channels that impairs the release of acetylcholine. This condition is often associated with lung cancer.

      Other possible diagnoses include myasthenia gravis, which typically causes weakness and fatigability of skeletal muscles, but the patient’s muscle strength increased with exercise, which is more typical of Lambert–Eaton myasthenic syndrome. Thymoma, not lung cancer, is associated with myasthenia gravis.

      Central Horner syndrome and postganglionic Horner syndrome are unlikely because they do not typically cause bilateral ptosis accompanied by limb weakness. Preganglionic Horner syndrome is also unlikely for the same reason.

      In summary, the patient’s symptoms suggest Lambert–Eaton myasthenic syndrome as the most likely diagnosis, but further testing and evaluation are necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      40.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 16-year-old girl visits her General Practitioner, concerned about her family's history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl visits her General Practitioner, concerned about her family's history of cardiovascular disease and wanting to investigate her own health after learning about healthy eating in school. She was found to have a fasting plasma cholesterol of 15 mmol/l.
      What is the most probable reason for these findings?

      Your Answer: A high level of high-density lipoprotein (HDL)

      Correct Answer: A deficiency of apo B-100

      Explanation:

      Cholesterol Metabolism: Deficiencies and High Levels of Key Proteins

      Apo B-100 is a protein that binds to LDL receptors, allowing for the uptake of lipoproteins. A deficiency in apo B-100 or LDL receptors can lead to familial hypercholesterolemia and an accumulation of cholesterol.

      Lipoprotein lipase is an enzyme that breaks down chylomicrons and VLDLs. A deficiency in this enzyme can result in the accumulation of both, but with normal or slightly raised cholesterol levels.

      ACAT is an enzyme that catalyzes the re-synthesis of cholesterol esters. A deficiency in ACAT would lead to reduced plasma cholesterol levels.

      High levels of HDL are protective as they increase cholesterol transport from tissues to the liver for conversion to bile acids and excretion in feces. However, high levels of HDL are rare.

      LCAT is an enzyme that converts cholesterol taken up by HDL into a cholesterol ester, which is then transferred to lipoprotein remnants for uptake by the liver. High levels of LCAT can increase reverse cholesterol transport and reduce plasma cholesterol levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      64.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 16-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department after overdosing on medication...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department after overdosing on medication found in her home. She currently has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 15/15 but is hesitant to disclose what she ingested. According to her mother, it may have been acetazolamide, a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor. As part of her evaluation, a venous blood gas is obtained.
      If the patient's mother is correct, what biochemical abnormality would you anticipate?

      Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis with an increased anion gap

      Correct Answer: Metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap

      Explanation:

      Metabolic acidosis can occur with a normal anion gap, which is caused by the loss of bicarbonate ions. This can be due to factors such as diarrhoea, renal failure, or the use of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors. On the other hand, metabolic alkalosis is characterized by an increase in bicarbonate ions, which can be caused by antacid overdose, vomiting, or hyperaldosteronism. Metabolic acidosis with an increased anion gap is caused by the production of excess acid or impaired bicarbonate production, and can be due to factors such as diabetic ketoacidosis or methanol ingestion. Respiratory acidosis occurs when there is alveolar hypoventilation, which can be caused by conditions such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or drug use. Respiratory alkalosis, on the other hand, occurs when there is alveolar overventilation and hypocapnia, which can be caused by factors such as panic disorder or high altitude.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 38-year-old man comes to his GP clinic complaining of pruritic, polygonal, violaceous...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man comes to his GP clinic complaining of pruritic, polygonal, violaceous papules on the inner aspect of his forearm. Several of these papules have merged to form plaques.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Eczema

      Correct Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Disorders and Their Characteristics

      Lichen planus is a skin disorder that has an unknown cause but is likely autoimmune. On the other hand, lichen sclerosus is characterized by itchy white spots that are commonly seen on the vulva of elderly women. Scabies, which typically affects children and young adults, causes widespread itching and linear burrows on finger sides, interdigital webs, and the flexor aspect of the wrist. Eczema usually presents as an itchy, red rash in the flexural areas, while psoriasis is characterized by itchy white or red patches on the extensor surfaces. These are some of the most common skin disorders and their distinct characteristics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 59 year old female visits her GP with complaints of fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • A 59 year old female visits her GP with complaints of fatigue and body aches. Upon further inquiry, the patient reports feeling increasingly tired for the past several months and experiencing joint and muscle pains. Her medical history indicates chronic heart failure, which is being treated with isosorbide dinitrate and hydralazine. As hydralazine can lead to drug-induced lupus, what investigation would be most helpful in confirming this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anti smooth muscle antibodies

      Correct Answer: Anti-histone antibodies

      Explanation:

      ALP can be rewritten as alkaline phosphatase.

      Understanding Drug-Induced Lupus

      Drug-induced lupus is a condition that shares some similarities with systemic lupus erythematosus, but not all of its typical features are present. Unlike SLE, renal and nervous system involvement is rare in drug-induced lupus. The good news is that this condition usually resolves once the drug causing it is discontinued.

      The most common symptoms of drug-induced lupus include joint pain, muscle pain, skin rashes (such as the malar rash), and pulmonary issues like pleurisy. In terms of laboratory findings, patients with drug-induced lupus typically test positive for ANA (antinuclear antibodies) but negative for dsDNA (double-stranded DNA) antibodies. Anti-histone antibodies are found in 80-90% of cases, while anti-Ro and anti-Smith antibodies are only present in around 5% of cases.

      The most common drugs that can cause drug-induced lupus are procainamide and hydralazine. Other less common culprits include isoniazid, minocycline, and phenytoin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      33.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old moderately obese man is brought to the Emergency Department with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old moderately obese man is brought to the Emergency Department with complaints of severe chest pain and shortness of breath. Upon physical examination, a pericardial tamponade is suspected and confirmed by an electrocardiogram (ECG) showing total electrical alternans and an echocardiogram revealing pericardial effusion. Which jugular vein is typically the most reliable indicator of central venous pressure (CVP)?

      Your Answer: Left external

      Correct Answer: Right internal

      Explanation:

      The Best Vein for Measuring Central Venous Pressure

      Pericardial tamponade can lead to compression of the heart by the pericardium, resulting in decreased intracardiac diastolic pressure and reduced blood flow to the right atrium. This can cause distension of the jugular veins, making the right internal jugular vein the best vein for measuring central venous pressure (CVP). Unlike the right external vein, which joins the right internal vein at an oblique angle, the right internal vein has a straight continuation with the right brachiocephalic vein and the superior vena cava, making CVP measurement more accurate. On the other hand, the left internal jugular vein makes an oblique union with the left brachiocephalic vein and the external jugular veins, making it a less reliable indicator of CVP. Similarly, the left external vein also joins the left internal vein at an oblique angle, making CVP reading less reliable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      56.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden lower abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden lower abdominal pain that started 2 hours ago. She is sexually active and has not been using condoms lately. Although she has a long-term partner, she has not undergone any sexual health screening. During the examination, she experiences tenderness in the right iliac fossa, with a heart rate of 100 bpm, blood pressure of 120/75 mmHg, and a temperature of 37.8ºC. What is the initial investigation that should be conducted?

      Your Answer: Urine pregnancy test

      Explanation:

      Ectopic pregnancy, appendicitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease are possible differentials for abdominal pain in women of Childbearing age. The first investigation to be performed should be a urine dip to rule out ectopic pregnancy. Low vaginal swabs are not necessary at this stage.

      Exam Features of Abdominal Pain Conditions

      Abdominal pain can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to be familiar with their characteristic exam features. Peptic ulcer disease, for instance, may present with epigastric pain that is relieved by eating in duodenal ulcers and worsened by eating in gastric ulcers. Appendicitis, on the other hand, may initially cause pain in the central abdomen before localizing to the right iliac fossa, accompanied by anorexia, tenderness in the right iliac fossa, and a positive Rovsing’s sign. Acute pancreatitis, which is often due to alcohol or gallstones, may manifest as severe epigastric pain and vomiting, with tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever on examination.

      Other conditions that may cause abdominal pain include biliary colic, diverticulitis, and intestinal obstruction. Biliary colic may cause pain in the right upper quadrant that radiates to the back and interscapular region, while diverticulitis may present with colicky pain in the left lower quadrant, fever, and raised inflammatory markers. Intestinal obstruction, which may be caused by malignancy or previous operations, may lead to vomiting, absence of bowel movements, and tinkling bowel sounds.

      It is also important to remember that some conditions may have unusual or medical causes of abdominal pain, such as acute coronary syndrome, diabetic ketoacidosis, pneumonia, acute intermittent porphyria, and lead poisoning. Therefore, being familiar with the characteristic exam features of various conditions can aid in the diagnosis and management of abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What ASA grade (American Society of Anesthesiologists) is assigned to a patient with...

    Correct

    • What ASA grade (American Society of Anesthesiologists) is assigned to a patient with a severe systemic disease that poses a constant threat to their life?

      Your Answer: IV

      Explanation:

      Anesthesia Grading Score for Patient Risk

      The American Society of Anesthesiologists developed a grading score in 1963 to assess patient risk during surgery. The score ranges from one to five and uses Roman numerals to indicate the severity of a patient’s systemic disease. Patients without systemic disease are classified as grade I, while those with mild to moderate systemic disease that does not limit their activities are classified as grade II. Patients with severe systemic disease that causes functional limitations are classified as grade III, and those with severe systemic disease that poses a constant threat to life are classified as grade IV. Additionally, the letter E is added to indicate emergency surgery. Finally, patients who are moribund and unlikely to survive more than 24 hours with or without surgery are classified as grade V. This grading system helps anesthesiologists determine the appropriate level of care and monitoring needed during surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 72-year-old male with a body mass index (BMI) of 31 kg/m2, presents...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old male with a body mass index (BMI) of 31 kg/m2, presents with bilateral lower limb cellulitis. A urine dipstick reveals glycosuria ++.
      What test could provide a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes?

      Your Answer: HbA1c

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Type 2 Diabetes

      HbA1c is now widely accepted as a diagnostic test for type 2 diabetes. A level of HbA1c greater than 48 mmol/mol (or 6.5%) is considered diagnostic, especially when taken in the appropriate clinical context. In some cases, an infection may reveal the diagnosis of diabetes.

      For the purpose of an oral glucose tolerance test, a 75-gram glucose load (not 100g) is the standard. This test should be carried out after random and fasting blood glucose tests. It’s important to note that a random blood glucose sample may be misleading in this context. Therefore, an alternative way to diagnose type 2 diabetes in a patient initially would be a fasting glucose test.

      While fasting insulin levels may be elevated in a patient with type 2 diabetes, it does not play a role in their diagnosis. It’s important to use the appropriate diagnostic tests and consider the clinical context when diagnosing type 2 diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 30-year-old woman presents to the Outpatient Department with a few months’ history...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to the Outpatient Department with a few months’ history of increasing malaise, nausea and decreased appetite. She is a known intravenous drug user. During examination, she appears cachectic and unwell. Mild hepatomegaly and icterus of the sclerae are also noted. Blood tests reveal normal bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and γ-glutamyl transpeptidase (GT) levels and markedly deranged aspartate transaminase (AST) and alanine transaminase (ALT) levels. She cannot recall her hepatitis B immunisation status. Viral serology is conducted:
      Test Patient
      HBsAg +ve
      Anti-HBsAg -ve
      HBcAg +ve
      IgM anti-HBcAg -ve
      IgG anti-HBcAg +ve
      HBeAg +ve
      Anti-HBeAg -ve
      What is the correct interpretation of this woman’s hepatitis B status?

      Your Answer: Chronic infection

      Explanation:

      Understanding the serology of hepatitis B virus (HBV) is important for medical exams. HBV is a virus with an envelope and DNA, containing surface protein (HBsAg), core protein (HBcAg), and envelope protein (HBeAg). A positive HBsAg indicates acute or chronic infection, while anti-HBs-positive titres indicate previous immunisation or resolved HBV infection. Anti-HBc IgM rises after 2 months of inoculation and drops after 6 months, while anti-HBc IgG is positive after 4-6 months and remains positive for life, indicating chronic infection. HBeAg was thought to imply high infectivity, but an HBeAg-negative subtype is now recognised. Incubation period shows positive HBsAg, negative anti-HBsAg, presence of HBeAg, and negative IgM and IgG anti-HBcAg. Recovery shows positive anti-HBsAg and raised IgG anti-HBcAg with or without anti-HBeAg. Acute infection shows raised IgM anti-HBcAg with or without raised IgG anti-HBcAg. Recent vaccination shows positive anti-HBsAg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      53.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the purpose of a gamma camera in nuclear medicine? ...

    Correct

    • What is the purpose of a gamma camera in nuclear medicine?

      Your Answer: Measuring radioactivity

      Explanation:

      The Role of Gamma Rays in Nuclear Medicine

      The primary objective of nuclear medicine is to identify gamma rays, which are detected using a gamma camera. This instrument is highly complex and comprises several components. All types of radiation can interact with atoms in matter, resulting in ionization and excitation of the atoms. These radiations are referred to as ionizing radiation. The mechanism of interaction varies for particulate and electromagnetic radiation. The interaction between beta particles and gamma radiation is the most significant in nuclear medicine. This is because beta particles are charged particles, while gamma radiation is an electromagnetic radiation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Radiology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 39-year-old male with a history of alcoholism was admitted to the hospital...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old male with a history of alcoholism was admitted to the hospital with jaundice and altered consciousness. He had been previously admitted for ascites and jaundice. Upon investigation, his bilirubin levels were found to be 44 µmol/L (5.1-22), serum albumin levels were 28 g/L (40-50), and his prothrombin time was 21 seconds (13 seconds). The patient had a fluid thrill in his abdomen and exhibited asterixis. Although he was awake, he was unable to distinguish between day and night. What is the patient's Child-Pugh score (CTP)?

      Your Answer: 12

      Explanation:

      The Child-Turcotte-Pugh score (CTP) is used to assess disease severity in cirrhosis of liver. It consists of five clinical measures, each scored from 1 to 3 according to severity. The minimum score is 5 and maximum score is 15. Once a score has been calculated, the patient is graded A, B, or C for severity. The CTP score is primarily used to decide the need for liver transplantation. However, some criticisms of this scoring system highlight the fact that each of the five categories is given equal weighting, which is not always appropriate. Additionally, in two specific diseases, primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) and primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC), the bilirubin cut-off levels in the table are markedly different.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      43.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - During a routine examination of a 4 day old baby born at 36...

    Incorrect

    • During a routine examination of a 4 day old baby born at 36 weeks gestation, a very prominent murmur is heard during systole and diastole, with the loudest point being over the left sternal edge. A chest X-Ray reveals massive cardiomegaly, particularly in the right atrium. The mother of the child has bipolar disorder but is otherwise healthy and has no congenital heart problems. There is no significant family history except for a paternal cousin who developed cardiomyopathy in their early twenties. Based on the given information, what is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect

      Correct Answer: Ebstein's anomaly

      Explanation:

      Congenital heart disease can be categorized into two types: acyanotic and cyanotic. Acyanotic heart diseases are more common and include ventricular septal defects (VSD), atrial septal defect (ASD), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), coarctation of the aorta, and aortic valve stenosis. VSD is the most common acyanotic heart disease, accounting for 30% of cases. ASDs are less common than VSDs, but they are more frequently diagnosed in adult patients as they tend to present later. On the other hand, cyanotic heart diseases are less common and include tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries (TGA), and tricuspid atresia. Fallot’s is more common than TGA, but TGA is the more common lesion at birth as patients with Fallot’s generally present at around 1-2 months. The presence of cyanosis in pulmonary valve stenosis depends on the severity and any other coexistent defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      36.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A baby boy is born after 29 weeks gestation. On day three, a...

    Incorrect

    • A baby boy is born after 29 weeks gestation. On day three, a routine examination reveals a continuous mechanical murmur and bounding femoral pulses. Echocardiography confirms a haemodynamically significant, isolated patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). What should be the next step in managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Surgical management - PDA ligation

      Correct Answer: Medical management - cyclooxygenase inhibitor infusion

      Explanation:

      Management of Patent Ductus Arteriosus

      The ductus arteriosus is a fetal blood vessel that directs deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle directly into the descending aorta. After birth, the ductus should close within the first few days due to decreased prostaglandin levels and increased oxygen concentrations. Premature and low birth weight babies are at a higher risk of the ductus remaining open, which can lead to complications such as reduced blood supply to tissues, pressure overload of the pulmonary circulation, and volume overload of the systemic circulation.

      The decision to intervene and close a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is based on the individual case and the severity of the condition. Medical management is usually the first step and involves administering a cyclooxygenase inhibitor to block prostaglandin synthesis and promote closure of the ductus. Conservative management may be an option for PDAs of little consequence, but even small PDAs pose long-term risks and may require intervention. Cardiac catheterisation is not appropriate in isolated PDA cases, and surgical management is reserved for those who fail medical management. Prostaglandin infusions may be used to keep the ductus patent in certain cardiac malformations that require a shunt for survival.

      Overall, the management of PDA is crucial in preventing complications and ensuring proper blood flow. The decision to intervene should be made on a case-by-case basis, with medical management being the usual first step.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      48.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 72-year-old lady comes to the doctor with a gradual onset of bradykinesia,...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old lady comes to the doctor with a gradual onset of bradykinesia, rigidity and tremor.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Parkinson’s disease

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Parkinson’s Disease from Other Neurological Disorders

      Parkinson’s disease is characterized by a classical triad of symptoms, including tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. Other symptoms may include truncal instability, stooped posture, and shuffling gait. The disease is caused by a decrease in dopamine production from the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia. While there is no cure for Parkinson’s disease, medications such as levodopa can help improve movement disorders by increasing dopamine levels.

      It is important to distinguish Parkinson’s disease from other neurological disorders that may present with similar symptoms. A cerebral tumor could potentially cause similar symptoms, but this is much less common than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease. Lewy body dementia is characterized by cognitive impairment and visual hallucinations, which are not present in Parkinson’s disease. Benign essential tremor causes an intention tremor, while Parkinson’s disease is characterized by a resting, pill-rolling tremor. Alzheimer’s disease presents with progressive cognitive impairment, rather than the movement disorders seen in Parkinson’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 52-year-old woman with a history of intermittent ringing sound in her left...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman with a history of intermittent ringing sound in her left ear for the last six months presents to the Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) Outpatient Department. She describes the ringing sound to be pulsatile in nature. She has no history of fever, hearing loss, trauma or any recent ear infections. Her past medical history includes a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis under remission for the past two years. Clinical examination of the head and neck is unremarkable.
      Which is the most appropriate investigation which will help to reach a final diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Tympanometry and otoscopy

      Correct Answer: Computerised tomography (CT) (contrast-enhanced) scan of the temporal bone

      Explanation:

      Investigating Pulsatile Tinnitus in a Patient with Multiple Sclerosis

      Pulsatile tinnitus, a constant ringing or humming sound perceived in the absence of actual sound, can be psychologically debilitating to the patient. In a patient with multiple sclerosis, pulsatile tinnitus may be caused by spontaneous spasm of middle ear muscles. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends imaging for all patients with pulsatile tinnitus to identify the underlying cause. In this case, contrast-enhanced CT scanning of the temporal bone is the best investigation to identify middle ear/osseous pathology. Tympanometry and otoscopy can also be valuable initial investigations for suspected middle ear pathologies. Magnetic resonance angiography is not the best investigation in this scenario as the patient’s history suggests a muscular cause of pulsatile tinnitus. Weber’s test is not relevant in this case as the patient does not report any hearing loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      136.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - In what condition is lupus pernio observed? ...

    Correct

    • In what condition is lupus pernio observed?

      Your Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      Lupus Pernio in Sarcoidosis

      Lupus pernio is a distinct skin manifestation that is commonly associated with sarcoidosis. This condition is characterized by the presence of chronic, hardened papules or plaques that primarily affect the mid-face, particularly the alar rim of the nose. Even small papules in this area may indicate the presence of granulomatous infiltration in the nasal mucosa and upper respiratory tract, which can lead to the formation of masses, ulcerations, or even life-threatening airway obstruction. Therefore, it is important to promptly diagnose and manage lupus pernio in patients with sarcoidosis to prevent further complications. Proper treatment may involve the use of systemic corticosteroids, immunosuppressive agents, or other targeted therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents with pruritus and lethargy....

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents with pruritus and lethargy. His serum biochemistry results show low calcium, high phosphate, and raised parathyroid hormone levels. His blood test results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 15.5 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 590 μmol/l 50–120 mmol/l

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Secondary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Causes of Secondary Hyperparathyroidism in a Patient with Chronic Renal Failure

      Secondary hyperparathyroidism can occur in patients with chronic renal failure due to imbalances in phosphorus and calcium levels. In this case, the patient has hyperphosphatemia and hypocalcemia, leading to overproduction of parathyroid hormone (PTH) by the parathyroid gland.

      Loop diuretic overuse can also affect PTH levels, but it would result in additional electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia and hypokalemia. The role of hypertension in causing chronic renal failure is unclear in this patient.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism, where the parathyroid gland overproduces PTH resulting in high serum calcium, is not present in this case. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism, which occurs after a chronic period of secondary hyperparathyroidism and results in dysregulation of calcium homeostasis and high serum calcium levels, is also not present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      80
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is the underlying cause of primary hyperthyroidism associated with Graves' disease? ...

    Correct

    • What is the underlying cause of primary hyperthyroidism associated with Graves' disease?

      Your Answer: Anti-TSH receptor antibodies

      Explanation:

      Graves’ Disease

      Graves’ disease is a medical condition that is characterized by the presence of anti-TSH receptor antibodies that stimulate the thyroid gland. This results in hyperthyroidism and a diffusely enlarged thyroid gland, also known as a goitre. Patients with Graves’ disease may also experience other symptoms such as exophthalmos, which is the protrusion of the eyes, lid retraction, lid lag, and ophthalmoplegia.

      It is important to note that Graves’ disease is often associated with other autoimmune diseases such as vitiligo, Addison’s disease, and type 1 diabetes. This means that patients with Graves’ disease may be at a higher risk of developing these conditions as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with complaints of cold and painful hands during...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with complaints of cold and painful hands during winter. She reports that her hands change color from pale to blue and red in the morning. Despite using gloves and hand warmers, her symptoms have only slightly improved. She is interested in trying medications to alleviate her symptoms. Based on the probable diagnosis, which medication should be prescribed?

      Your Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Nifedipine is a recommended medication for treating Raynaud’s phenomenon. Patients with this condition should be advised to keep their hands warm and quit smoking. NICE suggests other treatments such as evening primrose oil, sildenafil, and prostacyclin for severe attacks or digital gangrene. Chemical or surgical sympathectomy may be helpful for those with severe disease. Propranolol, a beta-blocker, may worsen the condition as it commonly causes cold peripheries. Ibuprofen, an analgesic, may alleviate pain but not other symptoms. Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, is also used for neuropathic pain but not specifically for Raynaud’s.

      Understanding Raynaud’s Phenomenon

      Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the digital arteries and cutaneous arteriole overreact to cold or emotional stress, causing an exaggerated vasoconstrictive response. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and presents with bilateral symptoms. On the other hand, secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is associated with underlying connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, and systemic lupus erythematosus, among others.

      Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers. Management of Raynaud’s phenomenon involves referral to secondary care for patients with suspected secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon. First-line treatment includes calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine. In severe cases, IV prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, and their effects may last for several weeks or months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 22 - A 55-year-old man with a history of paranoid schizophrenia experiences a recurrence of...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of paranoid schizophrenia experiences a recurrence of symptoms due to irregular medication intake, leading to his admission under section 2 of the Mental Health Act following a formal mental state assessment. He had been taking Risperidone orally once daily for several years, which had effectively stabilized his mental state while living in the community. Considering his non-adherence, what treatment option would be most appropriate for this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Switching to a once monthly IM anti-psychotic depo injection

      Explanation:

      Patients who struggle with taking their antipsychotic medication as prescribed may benefit from receiving a once monthly intramuscular depo injection. It is important to maintain a stable mental state and overall well-being for these patients, and switching medications can increase the risk of relapse and recurring symptoms. The goal is to provide the least restrictive treatment possible and minimize hospitalization time as outlined by the Mental Health Act. While daily visits from a home treatment team to administer medication may be a temporary solution, it is not a sustainable long-term option. Similarly, a once-daily intramuscular injection may not be practical or feasible for the patient.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 23 - A 63-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of urinary incontinence that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of urinary incontinence that has been ongoing for 2 years. She experiences sudden urges to urinate, followed by uncontrollable leakage ranging from a few drops to complete bladder emptying several times a week. She also reports increased urinary frequency, including waking up twice at night to urinate. The patient denies dysuria or haematuria and has never experienced involuntary urination during exertion, sneezing, or coughing. She declines a physical examination due to embarrassment. What is the most appropriate course of management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for bladder retraining exercises

      Explanation:

      The appropriate management for urgency urinary incontinence (UUI) is to refer the patient for bladder training. UUI is characterized by uncontrollable bladder leakage that occurs shortly after the patient experiences a sudden urge to urinate, and is often associated with an overactive bladder that causes symptoms such as increased urinary frequency and nocturia. Advising the patient to reduce fluid intake and use continence products is not the correct approach, as both too much and too little fluid can contribute to lower urinary tract symptoms. Instead, patients should be advised to make lifestyle changes such as reducing caffeine intake, losing weight, and quitting smoking. Referring the patient for pelvic floor muscle training is the appropriate management for stress incontinence, which causes urine leakage during exertion, sneezing, or coughing. However, this is not applicable in this case as the patient denies these symptoms. If conservative management is unsuccessful and the patient does not wish to explore surgical options, a trial treatment with duloxetine may be considered for stress incontinence.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 24 - A 42-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of drooling from one side...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of drooling from one side of her mouth and inability to raise the left corner of her mouth when she smiles. During the examination, the doctor observes dryness and scaling on her left cornea. Which nerve is likely affected in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Facial nerve

      Explanation:

      The Facial Nerve: Anatomy and Function

      The facial nerve is a crucial nerve responsible for controlling the muscles of facial expression. It originates from the pons as two separate motor and sensory roots before joining to form the facial nerve. Along its path, it gives off branches that provide parasympathetic fibers to glands, motor fibers to muscles, and sensory fibers to the tongue. The nerve exits the cranium through the stylomastoid foramen and branches into various muscles of the face, controlling facial expression. A lesion to the facial nerve can result in loss of motor control of facial muscles. It is important to differentiate the facial nerve from other nerves, such as the trigeminal nerve, maxillary nerve, occipital nerve, and lacrimal nerve, which have different functions and innervations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old man comes in with redness in his eye, accompanied by mild...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man comes in with redness in his eye, accompanied by mild sensitivity to light and slight tearing. He denies any discomfort or soreness, and his vision remains unaffected. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Episcleritis

      Explanation:

      Episcleritis is the only cause of red eye that is typically not accompanied by pain. Other causes listed are associated with pain, as well as blurred or decreased vision. While episcleritis may cause mild tenderness, it is generally not painful and can be treated with non-steroidal anti-inflammatories or steroids if necessary.

      Understanding Episcleritis

      Episcleritis is a condition that involves the sudden onset of inflammation in the episclera of one or both eyes. While the majority of cases are idiopathic, there are some associated conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease and rheumatoid arthritis. Symptoms of episcleritis include a red eye, mild pain or irritation, watering, and mild photophobia. However, unlike scleritis, episcleritis is typically not painful.

      One way to differentiate between the two conditions is by applying gentle pressure on the sclera. If the injected vessels are mobile, it is likely episcleritis. In contrast, scleritis involves deeper vessels that do not move. Phenylephrine drops may also be used to distinguish between the two conditions. If the eye redness improves after phenylephrine, a diagnosis of episcleritis can be made.

      Approximately 50% of cases of episcleritis are bilateral. Treatment for episcleritis is typically conservative, with artificial tears sometimes being used. Understanding the symptoms and differences between episcleritis and scleritis can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for their eye condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 26 - A medical registrar is obtaining consent from a 42-year-old patient with longstanding ulcerative...

    Incorrect

    • A medical registrar is obtaining consent from a 42-year-old patient with longstanding ulcerative colitis who is listed for a surveillance colonoscopy that afternoon.
      Regarding consent, which one of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Therapeutic privilege can allow you to withhold information from a patient in certain, very specific situations

      Explanation:

      Therapeutic privilege allows doctors to withhold information from patients in certain situations where disclosure could cause serious harm or if the patient is not emotionally stable enough to handle the information. It is important to discuss these situations with senior colleagues and document the reasons for withholding information. Contrary to popular belief, patients should be informed of common and serious complications of treatment, regardless of the likelihood of occurrence. A signed consent form does not protect doctors from negligence claims, as they have a duty of care to inform patients. In emergency situations, such as an appendectomy for a child, consent may not be required, but it is still preferable to discuss the case with all parties involved. Patients who are heavily intoxicated may not have the capacity to refuse life-saving treatment, and it is necessary to wait until they are sober to discuss treatment options or proceed with urgent treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
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  • Question 27 - A 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with complaints of hand clumsiness...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with complaints of hand clumsiness and photophobia that started a day ago. Her colleagues have noticed her struggling to find words for the past two weeks, but she hasn't noticed it herself. She had a dry cough two weeks ago, which has since resolved. She has no known allergies, no regular medications, and no past medical history.

      During the examination, some double vision is observed when assessing the right peripheral visual field. Other than that, there are no significant findings. Due to her photophobia, limited fundoscopy is performed, which reveals blurring of the optic disc margin and venous engorgement.

      What further tests or procedures should be conducted at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CT head

      Explanation:

      The presence of papilloedema in this patient suggests an increase in intracranial pressure, making a lumbar puncture contraindicated. Her symptoms, including hand clumsiness, difficulty with word-finding, and acute photophobia, are consistent with a space-occupying lesion. A CT or MRI scan of the head should be urgently performed, and the patient should be referred to a neurosurgeon. Acetazolamide, a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used to treat idiopathic intracranial hypertension, is not appropriate for this patient as her symptoms are not consistent with IIH. Broad-spectrum antibiotics and blood cultures are not necessary as the patient does not exhibit any signs of infection. The focus should be on promptly identifying any potential space-occupying lesions causing mass effect.

      Understanding Papilloedema: Optic Disc Swelling Caused by Increased Intracranial Pressure

      Papilloedema is a condition characterized by swelling of the optic disc due to increased pressure within the skull. This condition is typically bilateral and can be identified through fundoscopy. During this examination, venous engorgement is usually the first sign observed, followed by loss of venous pulsation, blurring of the optic disc margin, elevation of the optic disc, loss of the optic cup, and the presence of Paton’s lines, which are concentric or radial retinal lines cascading from the optic disc.

      There are several potential causes of papilloedema, including space-occupying lesions such as tumors or vascular abnormalities, malignant hypertension, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, hydrocephalus, and hypercapnia. In rare cases, papilloedema may also be caused by hypoparathyroidism and hypocalcaemia, or vitamin A toxicity.

      Overall, understanding papilloedema is important for identifying potential underlying conditions and providing appropriate treatment to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 28 - As a junior doctor on a surgical ward, you are tasked with admitting...

    Incorrect

    • As a junior doctor on a surgical ward, you are tasked with admitting a 65-year-old woman with cholecystitis. She is scheduled for emergency surgery to remove her gallbladder the next day and is the first on the list. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and takes metformin 1g twice daily. Her recent HbA1c has come back elevated at 95 mmol/mol, but she has not yet seen her GP to discuss this. Her admission bloods show normal renal function. The ward nurse asks for guidance on how to manage the patient's diabetes mellitus during the perioperative period. What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A variable rate insulin infusion should be started

      Explanation:

      Patients with diabetes who are on insulin and are either undergoing major surgery or have poorly controlled diabetes will typically require a variable rate intravenous insulin infusion (VRIII). However, if the patient is only missing one meal and is on oral antidiabetic treatment, medication manipulation on the day of surgery may suffice. It is important to check hospital guidelines and discuss the patient with the surgical and anaesthetic team.

      If the patient’s recent HbA1c shows poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, a VRIII is likely necessary. The decision to omit metformin in the peri-operative period depends on the risk of acute kidney injury. If the patient has a low risk and is only missing one meal, they can continue their metformin, but should omit the lunchtime dose if taken three times a day. If there is a higher risk or the patient is missing more than one meal, metformin should be omitted from the time they start fasting.

      Leaving poorly controlled diabetes untreated during surgery increases the risk of complications such as wound and respiratory infections and post-operative kidney injury. Therefore, a VRIII is the safer option. Long-term insulin treatment can be assessed by the patient’s community team once the patient is medically stable.

      If the patient is listed for emergency surgery, managing their diabetes peri-operatively is appropriate to prevent their condition from worsening. However, if the surgery is elective, it may be best to wait until the diabetes is better managed.

      Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 29 - A 65-year-old woman with obesity and type II diabetes presents with symptoms of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with obesity and type II diabetes presents with symptoms of stress incontinence. What is the recommended first-line treatment for urinary stress incontinence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pelvic floor muscle training

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Stress Incontinence

      Stress incontinence is a common condition that affects many women. Fortunately, there are several treatment options available to help manage this condition. The first-line treatment for stress incontinence is pelvic floor muscle training, which should be done in conjunction with other conservative measures such as weight loss and lifestyle advice.

      If pelvic floor exercises alone are not enough, duloxetine, an antidepressant, may be given as a second-line treatment. Pudendal nerve stimulation is another potential option in managing stress incontinence, but it should not be offered as a first-line treatment.

      Colposuspension is a surgical treatment for stress incontinence, but it would not be used in the first instance. Radiotherapy is not a treatment option for women with stress incontinence, but it is one of the causes of stress incontinence in men who have had treatments for prostate cancer.

      Overall, there are several treatment options available for stress incontinence, and it is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for each individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 30 - As an FY1 on a paediatric ward, you are faced with a 13-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • As an FY1 on a paediatric ward, you are faced with a 13-year-old female patient who is suffering from anorexia and is refusing to be tube fed. After assessing her capacity, you have determined that she has the ability to refuse. However, her parents are in disagreement with her decision. What steps do you take in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inform her that as she is under 16 she cannot refuse treatment

      Explanation:

      According to the family law reform act of 1969, individuals who are 16 years or older have the right to provide consent for treatment. However, if they are under 18 years of age, they cannot refuse treatment unless one parent provides consent, even if the other parent disagrees. It would not be suitable to seek guidance from the courts at this point.

      Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children

      The General Medical Council has provided guidelines for obtaining consent in children. According to these guidelines, young people who are 16 years or older can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to make decisions. However, for children under the age of 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines whether they have the capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.

      When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years of age, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.

      Some doctors use the term Fraser competency when referring to contraception and Gillick competency when referring to general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology (2/3) 67%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (2/3) 67%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal (1/2) 50%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Surgery (1/1) 100%
Anaesthetics & ITU (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Radiology (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (0/2) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
ENT (0/1) 0%
Passmed