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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes and Addison's disease presents with a two-month history of increasing fatigue and shortness of breath during physical activity. She is currently using a progesterone-only oral contraceptive and taking hydrocortisone 10 mg twice daily and fludrocortisone 100 µg per day. Her glycaemic control has been reasonable, with a last HbA1c of 65 mmol/mol (20-46), and she is receiving mixed insulin twice daily. On examination, she appears pale. A full blood count reveals the following results: haemoglobin 52 g/L (120-160), MCV 115 fL (80-96), WCC 4.2 ×109/L (4-11), platelets 126 ×109L (150-400), and MCH 32 pg (28-32). The blood film shows multilobed nuclei in neutrophils and macrophages. What is the probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Autoimmune cirrhosis
Correct Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency
Explanation:Megaloblastic Anemia and Pernicious Anemia
This patient is suffering from a macrocytic anemia, specifically a megaloblastic anemia, which is characterized by multilobed nuclei. The most probable cause of this condition is a deficiency in vitamin B12, which is commonly associated with pernicious anemia. Pernicious anemia is part of the autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome, which is linked to other autoimmune disorders such as Addison’s disease, type 1 diabetes, Sjögren’s disease, and vitiligo. Although there are other potential causes of macrocytosis, none of them are evident in this patient. Hypothyroidism, for example, does not cause megaloblastic anemia, only macrocytosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male patient complained of frequent nosebleeds and was diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. During a chest x-ray, a shadow was detected over the right lung base, and a bruit was heard upon auscultation in the same area. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
Correct Answer: Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia
Explanation:Hereditary Haemorrhagic Telangiectasia
Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia is a genetic disorder that causes bleeding from small blood vessels called telangiectasia on mucous membranes such as the nose, mouth, and gastrointestinal tract. This condition is characterised by the presence of telangiectasia on the skin, which can be seen during clinical examination. In some cases, arteriovenous malformations may also be present in the lung or brain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male has a history of severe rheumatoid arthritis for the past four years. Despite being compliant with therapy (NSAIDs and methotrexate), the disease remains poorly controlled. Recently, he has been experiencing extreme fatigue. Upon conducting an FBC, the following results were obtained:
- Haemoglobin 70 g/L (120-160)
- White cell count 1.5 ×109/L (4-11)
- Platelet count 40 ×109/L (150-400)
What could be the possible cause of his pancytopenia?Your Answer: Acute overwhelming infection
Correct Answer: Methotrexate
Explanation:Pancytopenia in a Patient with Erosive Rheumatoid Arthritis
This patient is showing signs of pancytopenia, a condition where there is a decrease in all three blood cell types (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets). Given her history of erosive rheumatoid arthritis for the past three years, it is likely that she has been on immunosuppressive therapy, which can lead to this type of blood disorder.
Immunosuppressive drugs such as methotrexate, sulfasalazine, penicillamine, and gold can all have an impact on blood cell production and lead to pancytopenia. It is important to monitor patients on these medications for any signs of blood disorders and adjust treatment accordingly. Early detection and management can prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner after suffering from several miscarriages and is afraid her husband will leave her. The patient gave the history of bruising even with minor injuries and several spontaneous miscarriages. On examination, the patient is noted to have a rash in a butterfly distribution on the nose and cheeks. Tests reveal 1+ proteinuria only.
What is the most likely cause of her main concern?Your Answer: Bicornuate uterus
Correct Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome (APLS)
Explanation:Understanding Antiphospholipid Syndrome (APLS) and its Link to Recurrent Spontaneous Abortions
When a young woman experiences multiple spontaneous abortions, it may indicate an underlying disorder. One possible cause is antiphospholipid syndrome (APLS), a hypercoagulable state with autoantibodies against phospholipid components. This disorder can lead to recurrent spontaneous abortions during the first 20 weeks of pregnancy, and approximately 9% of APLS patients also have renal abnormalities.
Other potential causes of recurrent spontaneous abortions include poorly controlled diabetes, nephritic syndrome, dermatomyositis, and anatomic defects like a bicornuate uterus. However, the examination and test results in this case suggest a systemic etiology, making APLS a strong possibility.
Diagnosing systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which can also cause nephritic or nephrotic syndrome, requires meeting at least 4 out of 11 criteria established by the American Rheumatism Association (ARA).
Understanding these potential causes and their links to recurrent spontaneous abortions can help healthcare providers identify and treat underlying disorders in women of reproductive age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with melaena and an INR of 8. He is currently taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation, as well as antihypertensive medication and cholesterol-lowering agents. He recently received antibiotics from his GP for a cough. Which medication is the likely culprit for his elevated INR?
Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Correct Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Medications that Interfere with Warfarin and Increase INR
Certain medications can affect the duration of warfarin’s effects in the body by interfering with the cytochrome P450 enzyme system in the liver. This can cause the INR to increase or decrease rapidly, making patients who are on a stable warfarin regimen vulnerable. To remember the drugs that inhibit cytochrome P450 and increase the effects of warfarin, the mnemonic O-DEVICES can be helpful.
Omeprazole, disulfiram, erythromycin, valproate, isoniazide, cimetidine and ciprofloxacin, ethanol (acutely), and sulphonamides are the drugs that can interfere with warfarin’s effects. These drugs can increase the INR, which can lead to bleeding complications. Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients who are taking warfarin and any of these medications closely to ensure that their INR remains within the therapeutic range. Patients should also inform their healthcare providers of any new medications they are taking to avoid potential interactions with warfarin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presented with fever and body ache for 6 months. His blood tests revealed a haemoglobin level of 110 g/l and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 121 mm in the first hour. Serum protein electrophoresis revealed an M band in the gamma globulin region with a total IgG level of 70 g/l. Bone marrow biopsy shows plasma cells in the marrow of 11%. A skeletal survey reveals no abnormalities. Other blood tests revealed:
Test Parameter Normal range
Calcium 2.60 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
Creatinine 119 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
Phosphate 1.30 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.6 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Lactate dehydrogenase 399 IU/l 100–190 IU/l
His body weight was 80 kg.
What is his condition better known as?Your Answer: Plasma cell leukaemia
Correct Answer: Smouldering myeloma
Explanation:Smouldering myeloma is a stage between monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance (MGUS) and myeloma. To diagnose this condition, the patient must have a monoclonal protein in the serum of at least 30 g/l and monoclonal plasma cells of at least 10% in bone marrow or tissue biopsy, but no evidence of end-organ damage. Patients with smouldering myeloma should be closely monitored as they are at high risk of developing symptomatic myeloma.
Multiple myeloma is a malignant neoplasm where there is clonal proliferation of plasma cells in the bone marrow, leading to the secretion of a monoclonal antibody and light immunoglobulin chains that cause organ damage. Patients with multiple myeloma present with various symptoms, including lethargy, bone pain, pathological fractures, renal impairment, amyloidosis, and pancytopenia due to marrow infiltration. To diagnose multiple myeloma, the patient must have a monoclonal antibody in serum and/or urine, clonal plasma cells of at least 10% on bone marrow biopsy, and evidence of end-organ damage.
MGUS is a condition where low levels of paraprotein are detected in the blood, but they are not causing clinically significant symptoms or end-organ damage. To diagnose MGUS, the patient must have a monoclonal protein in the serum of less than or equal to 30 g/l, monoclonal plasma cells of less than or equal to 10% in bone marrow or tissue biopsy, and no evidence of end-organ damage.
Non-secretory myeloma is a rare variant of multiple myeloma where the bone marrow findings and end-organ damage are similar to myeloma, but there is no detectable monoclonal protein in the serum or urine. This makes it difficult to diagnose.
Plasma cell leukemia is a rare and aggressive form of multiple myeloma characterized by high levels of plasma cells circulating in the peripheral blood. It can occur as a primary condition or a secondary leukaemic transformation of multiple myeloma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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In a 71-year-old man who is asymptomatic and attending clinic for an annual review, a full blood count result shows a mild lymphocytosis of 15 × 109/l with a few smear cells. What is the most crucial investigation to determine a diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)?
Your Answer: Lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) levels
Correct Answer: Peripheral blood flow cytometry
Explanation:Diagnosis and Staging of Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) can be diagnosed through flow cytometry, which shows a specific pattern of monoclonal B cell proliferation. This pattern includes CD19/5 coexpressing, CD23 positive, and light chain restricted B cell population. However, smear cells, which are fragile lymphocytes that are smeared on the glass slide, can also be present in other lymphoproliferative disorders and benign lymphocytosis. Therefore, they do not necessarily indicate CLL.
While CT scan and LDH are not essential for diagnosis, they are necessary for staging CLL. These investigations help determine the extent of the disease and the organs affected. Additionally, cervical lymphadenopathy, which is the enlargement of lymph nodes in the neck, may be present in CLL. However, it can also be seen in other causes of lymphadenopathy, such as viral infections or adenopathy secondary to local dental infection.
In summary, flow cytometry is a crucial tool in diagnosing CLL, while CT scan and LDH are necessary for staging. Smear cells may be present but do not necessarily indicate CLL, and cervical lymphadenopathy can be seen in various conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man experiences sudden paralysis on the right side of his body. He has been a smoker for 30 years, consuming 15 cigarettes a day. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 37.2°C, pulse 80/minute, respiratory rate 18/minute, and blood pressure 150/95 mm Hg. An angiogram of the brain shows blockage in a branch of the middle cerebral artery. Laboratory results indicate a haemoglobin A1c level of 80 mmol/mol (9.5%). Which component of blood lipids is the most significant factor in contributing to his condition?
Your Answer: Lipoprotein lipase (LPL)
Correct Answer: Oxidised low-density lipoprotein (LDL)
Explanation:The patient had a stroke likely caused by cerebral atherosclerosis or embolic disease from the heart due to ischaemic heart disease from atherosclerosis. LDL brings cholesterol to arterial walls, and when there is increased LDL or hypertension, smoking, and diabetes, there is more degradation of LDL to oxidised LDL which is taken up into arterial walls via scavenger receptors in macrophages to help form atheromas. Chylomicrons transport exogenous products and are formed in intestinal epithelial cells. HDL particles remove cholesterol from the circulation and transport it back to the liver for excretion or re-utilisation. Lipoprotein lipase hydrolyses triglycerides in lipoproteins and promotes cellular uptake of chylomicron remnants, lipoproteins, and free fatty acids. VLDL transports endogenous triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol and cholesteryl esters.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 50-year-old patient presents to the general practitioner with a complaint of darkening of urine, particularly noticeable in the morning. The patient has no family history of bleeding disorders and was recently hospitalized for deep venous thrombosis in the right leg. Upon examination, the patient's heart and lungs appear normal. Blood tests reveal anemia, elevated levels of lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), high bilirubin levels, and a high reticulocyte count. What is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Phosphatidylinositol glycan A defect in red blood cells
Explanation:Understanding Different Causes of Haemolytic Anaemia
Haemolytic anaemia is a condition where red blood cells are destroyed faster than they can be produced, leading to a shortage of oxygen-carrying cells in the body. There are various causes of haemolytic anaemia, including phosphatidylinositol glycan A defect, vitamin B12 deficiency, glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency, loss of spectrin in the red blood cell membrane, and immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibody against red blood cells.
Phosphatidylinositol glycan A defect, also known as nocturnal haemoglobinuria, is an acquired condition caused by a mutation in the gene encoding for phosphatidylinositol glycan A. This leads to an increased susceptibility of red blood cells to complement proteins in an acidotic environment, resulting in haemolysis. Patients typically present with haematuria in the morning, and treatment involves managing symptoms and using medication such as eculizumab.
Vitamin B12 deficiency causes megaloblastic anaemia and is not related to haemolysis. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is an inherited X-linked recessive condition that results in red blood cell breakdown. Loss of spectrin in the red blood cell membrane is seen in hereditary spherocytosis, where red blood cells become spherical and are trapped in the spleen, leading to haemolysis. IgM antibody against red blood cells causes autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, where the antibody binds to the I antigen on the membrane of red blood cells, leading to haemolysis at low temperatures.
Understanding the different causes of haemolytic anaemia is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl presents to the clinic with her parents. She is worried about not having started her periods yet, while many of her peers have. Her medical history includes a lack of sense of smell, which she has had since childhood. On examination, she has normal height, early breast development, and minimal secondary sexual hair. Her BMI is 22. What blood test would be most helpful in determining the underlying cause of her amenorrhea?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: FSH
Explanation:Kallmann’s Syndrome and its Differential Diagnosis
Anosmia and primary amenorrhoea are two symptoms that may indicate the presence of Kallmann’s syndrome. This condition is characterized by the underdevelopment of the olfactory bulb, which leads to a loss of the sense of smell, and the failure to produce gonadotrophin releasing hormone. As a result, low levels of follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinising hormone may cause a partial or complete failure to enter puberty in women.
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia, on the other hand, may cause electrolyte imbalances, but it is typically associated with abnormal female virilization. Prolactinoma, a type of pituitary tumor, is usually linked to secondary amenorrhoea. Meanwhile, thyrotoxicosis, a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland, may cause menstrual cessation, but it is less likely to be the cause of primary amenorrhoea, especially in the absence of hyperthyroidism symptoms.
In summary, Kallmann’s syndrome should be considered as a possible diagnosis in patients presenting with anosmia and primary amenorrhoea. However, other conditions such as congenital adrenal hyperplasia, prolactinoma, and thyrotoxicosis should also be ruled out through proper evaluation and testing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A middle-aged patient is newly diagnosed with a bleeding disorder after complaining of heavy periods. She presents with a prolonged APTT and bleeding time, but normal indices. The patient reports a family history of bleeding disorders on her mother's side. She denies any prior history of bleeding or bruising after minor surgical procedures. What is the most likely bleeding disorder in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: von Willebrand’s disease
Explanation:The diagnosis in this scenario is von Willebrand’s disease, which is the most common hereditary bleeding disorder caused by a defective von Willebrand factor. This protein plays a crucial role in haemostasis by assisting in platelet adhesion and stabilising coagulation factor VIII. A deficiency in von Willebrand factor prolongs bleeding time and APTT, but does not affect platelet counts or PT. It is more pronounced in women and may present with menorrhagia. Treatment involves administration of recombinant von Willebrand factor. Haemophilia A, Bernard-Soulier syndrome, Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia, and vitamin K deficiency are other bleeding disorders with different causes and blood test results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which statement about rhesus antibodies in pregnancy is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Following delivery, the degree of fetomaternal haemorrhage should be calculated on a blood sample from a D negative mother
Explanation:Important Points to Remember about Fetomaternal Haemorrhage
Following the delivery of a baby, it is crucial to determine the degree of fetomaternal haemorrhage (FMH) in a D negative mother. This is done by analyzing a blood sample to adjust the dose of anti-D in the mother if she has delivered a D positive child. It is important to note that D positive and D negative women have the same likelihood of developing antibodies to other red cell antigens. Therefore, all pregnant women should undergo a blood group and antibody screen in their first trimester or at the time of presentation, whichever comes first. The fetal Rh type is determined by the Rh typing of both the mother and father. Additionally, maternal antibody titres are indicative of the degree of haemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN). For more information on the management of women with red cell antibodies during pregnancy, refer to the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) Green-top Guideline No. 65.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A frequent contributor complains of yellowing of the eyes and fever after donating blood for five days.
What should be the subsequent suitable step for the medical officer in charge of the blood bank?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Recall blood products from this donor and arrange for retesting of this donor
Explanation:Managing Donor Complications and Blood Products
When a donor develops complications, it is important to assess how to manage both the donor and the blood products from the donation. In such cases, the blood products should be recalled until further testing and clarification of the donor’s illness. It is crucial to prevent the release of any of the blood products. However, the donor should not be immediately struck off the register until further testing results are available. It is important to take these precautions to ensure the safety of the blood supply and prevent any potential harm to recipients. Proper management of donor complications and blood products is essential to maintain the integrity of the blood donation system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of haematuria. He has a history of chronic atrial fibrillation and is currently taking warfarin. His blood tests reveal a Hb level of 112g/L and an INR of 9, but he is stable hemodynamically. The consulting physician recommends reversing the effects of warfarin. What blood product/s would be the most appropriate choice for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prothrombin concentrate ('Octaplex')
Explanation:Treatment Options for Warfarin Reversal
Prothrombin concentrates are the preferred treatment for reversing the effects of warfarin in cases of active bleeding and a significantly elevated INR. While packed cells are important for managing severe bleeding, they are not the recommended treatment for warfarin reversal. Cryoprecipitate, recombinant factor VII, and platelets are also not indicated for reversing the effects of warfarin. It is important to choose the appropriate treatment option based on the patient’s individual needs and medical history. Proper management of warfarin reversal can help prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue that has lasted for 2 months. She has been consuming approximately 20 units of alcohol per week for the past decade. Her blood test reveals the following results:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 98 g/l 115–155 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 126 fl 82–100 fl
What is the most probable cause of her anaemia based on these blood results?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alcohol excess
Explanation:Causes of Macrocytic and Microcytic Anaemia
Anaemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells or haemoglobin in the blood. Macrocytic anaemia is a type of anaemia where the red blood cells are larger than normal, while microcytic anaemia is a type where the red blood cells are smaller than normal. Here are some of the causes of macrocytic and microcytic anaemia:
Alcohol Excess: Alcohol toxicity can directly affect the bone marrow, leading to macrocytic anaemia. Additionally, alcoholism can cause poor nutrition and vitamin B12 deficiency, which can also lead to macrocytosis.
Congenital Sideroblastic Anaemia: This is a rare genetic disorder that produces ringed sideroblasts instead of normal erythrocytes, leading to microcytic anaemia.
Iron Deficiency: Iron deficiency is a common cause of anaemia, especially in women. However, it causes microcytic anaemia, not macrocytic anaemia.
Blood Loss from Menses: Chronic blood loss due to menorrhagia can result in microcytic iron deficiency anaemia. However, this is a physiological process and would not cause macrocytic anaemia.
Thalassemia: Thalassaemia is a genetic disorder that leads to abnormal or low haemoglobin, resulting in microcytic anaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is receiving a 2 units of blood transfusion for anaemia of unknown cause – haemoglobin (Hb) 65 g/l (normal 135–175 g/l). During the third hour of the blood transfusion he spikes a temperature of 38.1°C (normal 36.1–37.2°C). Otherwise the patient is asymptomatic and his other observations are normal.
Given the likely diagnosis, what should you do?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Temporarily stop transfusion, repeat clerical checks. Then treat with paracetamol and repeat observations more regularly (every 15 minutes)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Non-Haemolytic Febrile Transfusion Reaction
Non-haemolytic febrile transfusion reaction is a common acute reaction to plasma proteins during blood transfusions. If a patient experiences this reaction, the transfusion should be temporarily stopped, and clerical checks should be repeated. The patient should be treated with paracetamol, and observations should be repeated more regularly (every 15 minutes).
If the patient’s temperature is less than 38.5 degrees, and they are asymptomatic with normal observations, the transfusion can be continued with more frequent observations and paracetamol. However, if the patient experiences transfusion-associated circulatory overload, furosemide is a suitable treatment option.
Adrenaline is not needed unless there are signs of anaphylaxis, and antihistamines are only suitable for urticaria during blood transfusions. Therefore, it is essential to identify the specific type of transfusion reaction and provide appropriate treatment accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man has been diagnosed as being vitamin B12-deficient with a B12 level of < 50 pmol/l (160–900 pmol/l) and a haemoglobin (Hb) level of 85 (115–155 g/l). It is not diet-related.
What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydroxocobalamin 1 mg im three times a week for two weeks and then 1 mg im 3-monthly
Explanation:Treatment Options for Pernicious Anemia with Hydroxocobalamin
Pernicious anemia is a type of anemia caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12, often due to the presence of anti-intrinsic factor antibodies. Hydroxocobalamin is a form of vitamin B12 that can be used for supplementation in patients with pernicious anemia. Here are some treatment options with hydroxocobalamin:
1. Hydroxocobalamin 1 mg IM three times a week for two weeks, then 1 mg IM every three months: This is the standard dose for patients with pernicious anemia without neurological deficits.
2. Hydroxocobalamin 1 mg IM on alternate days indefinitely: This is used for patients with pernicious anemia and neurological involvement until symptom improvement reaches a plateau, then maintenance involves 1 mg IM every two months.
3. Hydroxocobalamin 1 mg IV three times a week for two weeks, then monthly: This is used for the treatment of cyanide poisoning, not for pernicious anemia.
4. Hydroxocobalamin 1 mg IM three times a week for two weeks, then oral 1 mg hydroxocobalamin: Oral supplementation is not appropriate for patients with pernicious anemia due to absorption issues.
5. Hydroxocobalamin 1 mg subcutaneously three times a week for two weeks, monthly for three months, then 3-monthly: Hydroxocobalamin is administered IM, not subcutaneously.
In conclusion, hydroxocobalamin is an effective treatment option for pernicious anemia, but the dosage and administration route should be carefully considered based on the patient’s individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What is the appropriate management for a 65-year-old woman with confusion, profuse sweating, bluish discoloration of toes and fingertips, and a petechial rash on the left side of her anterior abdominal wall, who has a history of dysuria and was prescribed antibiotics by her GP three days ago, and is now found to have disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) based on her blood results?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blood cross-match, urine output monitoring, 500 ml 0.9% saline stat, serum lactate measurement, blood and urine cultures, empirical IV antibiotics and titration of oxygen to ≥94%
Explanation:Managing DIC in a Patient with Septic Shock: Evaluating Treatment Options
When managing a patient with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), it is important to consider the underlying condition causing the DIC. In the case of a patient with septic shock secondary to a urinary tract infection, the sepsis 6 protocol should be initiated alongside pre-emptive management for potential blood loss.
While a blood cross-match is sensible, emergency blood products such as platelets are unwarranted in the absence of acute bleeding. Activated protein C, previously recommended for DIC management, has been removed from guidelines due to increased bleeding risk without overall mortality benefit.
Anticoagulation with low molecular weight heparin is unnecessary at this time, especially when given with blood products, which are pro-coagulant. Tranexamic acid and platelet transfusions are only warranted in the presence of severe active bleeding.
Prophylactic dose unfractionated heparin may be a good management strategy in the presence of both thrombotic complications and increased bleeding risk, but should be given at a treatment dose if deemed necessary. Ultimately, managing the underlying septic shock is the best way to manage DIC in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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This is the full blood count result of a 72-year-old male who presents with fatigue following his retirement 6 months ago:
Hb 130 g/L (120-160)
RBC 4.5 ×1012/L -
Haematocrit 0.39 (0.36-0.46)
MCV 86.5 fL (80-100)
MCH 28.1 pg (27-32)
Platelets 180 ×109/L (150-400)
WBC 6.5 ×109/L (4-11)
Neutrophils 3.8 ×109/L (2-7)
Lymphocytes 1.9 ×109/L (1-4)
Monocytes 0.5 ×109/L (0.2-1)
Eosinophils 0.2 ×109/L (0-0.5)
Basophils 0.1 ×109/L (0-0.1)
He is brought into the clinic by his wife who is concerned that her husband is constantly tired, has lost interest in his hobbies and has trouble sleeping.
Examination is pretty much normal except that he appears fatigued. There are no abnormalities on chest, abdominal or respiratory examination. Neurological examination is normal.
What is the most likely cause of this blood picture?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alcohol excess
Explanation:Delayed Grief Reaction and Elevated MCV in a Patient
Explanation:
The patient in question is displaying a delayed grief reaction following the recent death of her husband. Her FBC shows a normal picture except for an elevated MCV, which suggests alcohol excess. If the cause of macrocytosis were folate or B12 deficiency, it would be expected to cause anemia in association with the macrocytosis. Hypothyroidism may also cause macrocytosis, but the patient’s weight loss argues against this diagnosis. For further information on macrocytosis, refer to the BMJ Practice article Macrocytosis: pitfalls in testing and summary of guidance, the BMJ Endgames case report A woman with macrocytic anemia and confusion, and the BMJ Best Practice article Assessment of anemia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What is the correct information regarding the storage requirements and lifespan of blood products?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fresh frozen plasma is stored at −25°C for up to 36 months
Explanation:Storage Guidelines for Blood Products
Blood products such as fresh frozen plasma, red cells, and platelets have specific storage guidelines to ensure their safety and efficacy. Fresh frozen plasma can be stored for up to 36 months at a temperature of −25°C. On the other hand, red cells are stored at a temperature of 4°C for a maximum of 35 days, while platelets are stored at a temperature of 22°C for up to 5 days on a platelet shaker/agitator.
These guidelines are important to follow to maintain the quality of blood products and prevent any adverse reactions in patients who receive them. It is crucial to store blood products at the appropriate temperature and for the recommended duration to ensure their effectiveness when used in transfusions. Healthcare professionals should be aware of these guidelines and ensure that they are followed to provide safe and effective blood transfusions to patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes to his doctor with complaints of night sweats and unintended weight loss. He has a medical history of axillary lymphadenopathy. The doctor suspects that he may have non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. What is the most probable test to confirm this diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Excisional biopsy of an enlarged lymph node
Explanation:Diagnostic Investigations for Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphatic system. There are several diagnostic investigations that can be used to diagnose this condition.
Excisional Biopsy of an Enlarged Lymph Node: This is the most common diagnostic investigation for suspected non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. It involves removing all of the abnormal tissue from an enlarged lymph node.
Computed Tomography (CT) of the Chest, Neck, Abdomen, and Pelvis: CT scanning can indicate features suggestive of lymphoma, such as lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly. However, it cannot provide a tissue diagnosis.
Core Needle Biopsy of an Enlarged Lymph Node: If a surgical excisional biopsy is not appropriate, a core needle biopsy can be performed. However, if this does not reveal a definite diagnosis, then an excisional biopsy should be undertaken.
Full Blood Count: A full blood count can be a helpful first-line investigation if a haematological malignancy is suspected, but it is not sufficient to be diagnostic for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
Protein Electrophoresis and Urine Bence-Jones Protein: Protein electrophoresis can be helpful in screening for multiple myeloma, but it is not helpful for diagnosing non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
In conclusion, a combination of these diagnostic investigations can be used to diagnose non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. However, excisional biopsy remains the gold standard for diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A diabetic patient with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura presents with a leg ulcer which needs debridement. His platelet counts are 15 ×109/l. His blood sugars are poorly controlled and he has been started on a sliding scale insulin. He has previously responded to steroids and immunoglobulin infusions.
What is the recommended product to increase platelet counts to a safe level for debridement surgery in a diabetic patient with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura who has previously responded to steroids and immunoglobulin infusions and has poorly controlled blood sugars, and is slightly older?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous immunoglobulin
Explanation:Treatment options for ITP patients
Intravenous immunoglobulin is the preferred treatment for patients with immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) who also have diabetes. Steroids may be used as a trial treatment if the patient does not have any contraindications for steroid-related complications. Platelets are not typically effective in raising platelet counts in ITP patients because they are destroyed by the antibodies. However, they may be used in emergency situations to treat major bleeding. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the individual patient’s medical history and current condition when selecting a treatment plan for ITP. Proper treatment can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old child of African descent presents with a 2-day history of increasing abdominal pain. It is not associated with nausea or vomiting, and the bowels are opening regularly. The child’s mother tells you that he has had a few episodes of similar symptoms in the past, but none as severe.
On examination, the child has generalised abdominal tenderness, and splenomegaly is noted. After further investigation, the child is diagnosed with sickle-cell anaemia.
Which organ is most responsible for the removal of sickled red blood cells from the circulatory system?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spleen
Explanation:The Role of Organs in Immune Surveillance and Blood Production
The human body has several organs that play a crucial role in immune surveillance and blood production. The spleen, for instance, is responsible for removing abnormal and aged red blood cells from circulation and monitoring the blood for immune purposes. However, in sickle-cell anaemia patients, the spleen can become non-functional due to continuous hypoxic and thrombotic insults, leading to a process called autosplenectomy.
Lymph nodes, on the other hand, are involved in immunological surveillance of the lymph. They can swell in response to severe bacterial infections in specific body parts, such as the axillary lymph nodes in the case of a hand infection.
The thymus is responsible for programming pre-T cells to differentiate into T cells, which are responsible for the cellular immune response against pathogenic viruses and fungi and the destruction of malignant cells. It is most active during neonatal and pre-adolescent life.
The bone marrow is responsible for erythropoiesis, the production of red blood cells. In sickle-cell anaemia patients, erythropoiesis in the bone marrow is stimulated.
Finally, the liver can become a site of extramedullary erythropoiesis, which means it can produce red blood cells outside of the bone marrow.
Overall, these organs work together to maintain a healthy immune system and blood production in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old male presents with macrocytic anaemia and a megaloblastic bone marrow. What is the most probable cause of his macrocytosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Folate deficiency
Explanation:Megaloblastic Bone Marrow and Its Causes
A megaloblastic bone marrow is a condition that occurs due to a deficiency in vitamin B12 or folate, as well as some cytotoxic drugs. This condition is characterized by the presence of large, immature red blood cells in the bone marrow. However, other causes of macrocytosis, which is the presence of abnormally large red blood cells in the bloodstream, do not result in a megaloblastic bone marrow appearance. It is important to identify the underlying cause of macrocytosis to determine the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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In the monophyletic model of haematopoiesis, which mature cell in the peripheral circulation is a derivative of the CMP? This model suggests that the haematopoietic stem cell (HSC) can give rise to either the common lymphoid progenitor (CLP) or the common myeloid progenitor (CMP).
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Monocyte
Explanation:Different Types of Blood Cells and their Progenitor Cells
Blood cells are formed from different types of progenitor cells. The common myeloid progenitor cell gives rise to myeloblasts, pro-erythroblasts, megakaryoblasts, and monoblasts. Myeloblasts produce granulocytes, while pro-erythroblasts produce red blood cells. Megakaryoblasts give rise to megakaryocytes and platelets, and monoblasts produce monocytes that can become tissue-specific macrophages. B cells, NK cells, and T cells are derivatives of the common lymphoid progenitor cell. Plasma cells, which are antibody-secreting cells, are derived from B cells. Understanding the different types of blood cells and their progenitor cells is important for studying blood disorders and developing treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A patient on the ward receiving a blood transfusion after knee replacement surgery is noted to have rigors.
On examination, their temperature is 39°C (baseline 36.5°C). They also complain of abdominal pain and their blood pressure is 90/55 mmHg (baseline 126/84 mmHg).
What is the next step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop the transfusion immediately and commence IV fluids
Explanation:Management of Acute Haemolytic Transfusion Reaction
When a patient experiences a temperature rise of more than 2°C, abdominal pain, and hypotension after a blood transfusion, an acute haemolytic transfusion reaction should be suspected. In such cases, the transfusion must be stopped immediately, and the set should be taken down. Saline infusion should be initiated to maintain the patient’s blood pressure.
The blood bank should be notified of the suspected reaction, and a sample may need to be collected for further investigation. However, the priority is to manage the patient’s symptoms and prevent further complications. If the reaction is severe, the transfusion should not be continued.
In summary, prompt recognition and management of acute haemolytic transfusion reactions are crucial to prevent serious complications. Healthcare providers should be vigilant in monitoring patients who receive blood transfusions and act quickly if any adverse reactions occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A young man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, tiredness, and pallor. Upon conducting a full blood count, it is revealed that he has acute lymphoblastic leukemia. Among the following options, which is linked to the poorest prognosis in ALL?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Philadelphia chromosome present
Explanation:Prognostic Factors in Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. There are several factors that can affect the prognosis of a patient with ALL. Good prognostic factors include having the FAB L1 type, common ALL, a pre-B phenotype, and a low initial white blood cell count. On the other hand, poor prognostic factors include having the FAB L3 type, B or T cell type, the Philadelphia translocation (t(9;22)), increasing age at diagnosis, male sex, CNS involvement, and a high initial white blood cell count (e.g. > 100).
It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these prognostic factors when diagnosing and treating patients with ALL. By identifying these factors, they can better predict the outcome of the disease and tailor treatment plans accordingly. Patients with good prognostic factors may have a better chance of survival and may require less aggressive treatment, while those with poor prognostic factors may need more intensive therapy. Overall, the prognostic factors in ALL can help healthcare professionals provide the best possible care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man comes to you seeking advice. He had a splenectomy ten years ago after a cycling accident and has been in good health since. However, a friend recently told him that he should be receiving treatment for his splenectomy. He is currently not taking any medication.
What would you recommend to him?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pneumococcal vaccination
Explanation:Asplenic Patients and the Importance of Vaccination
Asplenic patients are individuals who have had their spleen removed, leaving them at risk of overwhelming bacterial infections, particularly from pneumococcus and meningococcus. To prevent such infections, it is recommended that these patients receive the Pneumovax vaccine two weeks before surgery or immediately after emergency surgery. This vaccine should be repeated every five years. Additionally, influenzae vaccination is also recommended to prevent super added bacterial infections.
While oral penicillin is recommended for children, its long-term use in adults is a topic of debate. However, current guidance suggests that splenectomized patients should receive both antibiotic prophylaxis and appropriate immunization. It is crucial to take these preventative measures to protect asplenic patients from potentially life-threatening infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man was admitted with unconsciousness.
On examination, his left plantar response was extensor, and deep tendon jerks were increased on the left side. A computerised tomography (CT) scan of the brain revealed a right-middle cerebral artery territory infarct. He was not known to have diabetes or hypertension. He was not receiving any drugs, either.
His blood count revealed:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 110 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 331 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Neutrophil count 145 × 109/l 2.5–7.58 × 109/l
Metamyelocyte 3000/mm3
Platelet 490 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Peripheral smear Many band forms, myelocytes, basophils
What is the next appropriate therapy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Leukapheresis
Explanation:Leukapheresis and Other Treatment Options for Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia with High White Blood Cell Count and Ischaemic Stroke
Chronic myeloid leukaemia can cause an extremely high white blood cell count, leading to hyperviscosity of the blood and an increased risk of ischaemic events such as stroke. While anticoagulation medications are important, they do not address the underlying issue of the high cell count. Leukapheresis is a procedure that can reduce the white cell volume by 30-60%, making it a crucial emergency treatment option. Other treatments, such as hydroxyurea and imatinib, can also be used to control disease burden. Imatinib is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor that is effective in treating chronic myeloid leukaemia with the Philadelphia chromosome translocation. Aspirin and heparin have limited roles in this scenario. While aspirin is recommended for long-term therapy after an ischaemic stroke, it does not address the hypercoagulable state caused by the high white blood cell count. Heparin is not used in the treatment of ischaemic strokes. Overall, leukapheresis should be the first step in emergency management for chronic myeloid leukaemia with a high white blood cell count and ischaemic stroke.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Who among the following prospective blood donors would be ineligible to donate whole blood or plasma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 32-year-old lady whose sister was diagnosed with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease three years ago
Explanation:Blood Donation Guidelines
Blood donation guidelines set by the National Blood Service UK state that individuals who have a family member (parent or sibling) with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease cannot donate blood. This is due to the risk of transmitting the disease through blood transfusion.
Other factors that may exclude individuals from donating blood include hepatitis or jaundice within the last 12 months, acupuncture within the last four months (unless performed by a registered professional), body piercing or tattoos within the last six months, any infection within the preceding two weeks, or a course of antibiotics within the last seven days.
It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety of both the donor and the recipient. By excluding individuals who may have a higher risk of transmitting diseases or infections, the blood supply can remain safe and effective for those in need of transfusions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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