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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents with symptoms of short term memory loss and changes in behavior. As per NICE guidelines on dementia, what is the recommended method of structural imaging to rule out any other cerebral pathology?
Your Answer: DAT scan
Correct Answer: MRI scan
Explanation:Medical Imaging Techniques
There are several medical imaging techniques used to examine the organs and tissues in the body. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) uses a strong magnetic field to create detailed images of the structures in the body. It is commonly used to exclude other cerebral pathologies in dementia investigation.
Positron emission tomography (PET) is a nuclear medicine imaging technique that uses radiation to produce three-dimensional, colour images of the functional processes within the human body. It is used to study existing conditions in the body and also how it is developing.
Single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) scan with ioflupane iodine injection, also known as DAT scan, helps to identify dopamine deficiency in the brain to rule out Parkinson’s dementia and Lewy body dementia.
Computerised tomography (CT) scan uses x-rays and a computer to create detailed images of the inside of the body. It helps to identify injuries of any growth in the different parts of the body. Although it could be used in dementia investigation, it is not the preferred modality as per NICE.
Ultrasound uses high frequency sounds to visualise soft tissues in the body. However, it is not used for investigations of the head.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological Examination
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Question 2
Correct
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Which lobe of the brain is responsible for causing Gerstmann's syndrome when it malfunctions?
Your Answer: Dominant parietal
Explanation:Parietal Lobe Dysfunction: Types and Symptoms
The parietal lobe is a part of the brain that plays a crucial role in processing sensory information and integrating it with other cognitive functions. Dysfunction in this area can lead to various symptoms, depending on the location and extent of the damage.
Dominant parietal lobe dysfunction, often caused by a stroke, can result in Gerstmann’s syndrome, which includes finger agnosia, dyscalculia, dysgraphia, and right-left disorientation. Non-dominant parietal lobe dysfunction, on the other hand, can cause anosognosia, dressing apraxia, spatial neglect, and constructional apraxia.
Bilateral damage to the parieto-occipital lobes, a rare condition, can lead to Balint’s syndrome, which is characterized by oculomotor apraxia, optic ataxia, and simultanagnosia. These symptoms can affect a person’s ability to shift gaze, interact with objects, and perceive multiple objects at once.
In summary, parietal lobe dysfunction can manifest in various ways, and understanding the specific symptoms can help diagnose and treat the underlying condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 3
Incorrect
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What is the increased risk of morbidity and mortality in individuals with ischaemic heart disease who also suffer from depression?
Your Answer: 20
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:Patients with existing ischaemic heart disease who experience depression have a relative risk of cardiac morbidity and mortality that ranges from 1.5 to 2.5.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What is the maximum duration of a normal QTc interval in an adult male?
Your Answer: 470
Correct Answer: 440
Explanation:While the upper limit technically reaches 439, it is evident that 440 is the optimal choice among the options provided.
Amantadine and QTc Prolongation
Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which statement accurately reflects the principles of attachment theory?
Your Answer: The 'critical period' covers the time from 6 months to 1 year
Correct Answer: Attachment behaviour tends to be stable over the lifetime
Explanation:Attachment Theory and Harlow’s Monkeys
Attachment theory, developed by John Bowlby, suggests that children have an innate tendency to form relationships with people around them to increase their chance of survival. This attachment is different from bonding, which concerns the mother’s feelings for her infant. Children typically single out a primary caregiver, referred to as the principle attachment figure, from about 1-3 months. The quality of a person’s early attachments is associated with their adult behavior, with poor attachments leading to withdrawn individuals who struggle to form relationships and good attachments leading to socially competent adults who can form healthy relationships.
Bowlby’s attachment model has four stages: preattachment, attachment in the making, clear-cut attachment, and formation of reciprocal attachment. The time from 6 months to 36 months is known as the critical period, during which a child is most vulnerable to interruptions in its attachment. Attachments are divided into secure and insecure types, with insecure types further divided into avoidant and ambivalent types.
Harlow’s experiment with young rhesus monkeys demonstrated the importance of the need for closeness over food. The experiment involved giving the monkeys a choice between two different mothers, one made of soft terry cloth but provided no food and the other made of wire but provided food from an attached baby bottle. The baby monkeys spent significantly more time with their cloth mother than with their wire mother, showing the importance of attachment and closeness in early development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which condition is thought to have the highest degree of genetic inheritance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ADHD
Explanation:Both ADHD and ASD are believed to have a strong genetic component, although only one of them is classified as a developmental disorder.
Heritability: Understanding the Concept
Heritability is a concept that is often misunderstood. It is not a measure of the extent to which genes cause a condition in an individual. Rather, it is the proportion of phenotypic variance attributable to genetic variance. In other words, it tells us how much of the variation in a condition seen in a population is due to genetic factors. Heritability is calculated using statistical techniques and can range from 0.0 to 1.0. For human behavior, most estimates of heritability fall in the moderate range of .30 to .60.
The quantity (1.0 – heritability) gives the environment ability of the trait. This is the proportion of phenotypic variance attributable to environmental variance. The following table provides estimates of heritability for major conditions:
Condition Heritability estimate (approx)
ADHD 85%
Autism 70%
Schizophrenia 55%
Bipolar 55%
Anorexia 35%
Alcohol dependence 35%
Major depression 30%
OCD 25%It is important to note that heritability tells us nothing about individuals. It is a population-level measure that helps us understand the relative contributions of genetic and environmental factors to a particular condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What factors are considered in the management of psychogenic polydipsia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluid restriction
Explanation:Psychogenic polydipsia is a condition where there is excessive consumption of fluids leading to polyuria, and it is commonly seen in psychiatric conditions such as schizophrenia and developmental disorders. The exact mechanism is unknown, but it is thought to be due to a defect in thirst and a dysfunction in AVP regulation. Patients with psychogenic polydipsia rarely complain of thirst but instead provide delusional explanations for their excessive drinking of state that drinking reduces their anxiety and makes them feel better. If fluid intake exceeds the capacity for excretion, then the resultant hyponatremia may produce signs of water intoxication. It is best managed by fluid restriction. Differential diagnosis should be done to rule out other causes of polyuria and polydipsia. Investigations such as fluid balance charts, urine dipstick, serum U&E and calcium, and urine and plasma osmolality should be arranged. Primary polydipsia can be subclassified into psychogenic and dipsogenic types.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 8
Incorrect
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In which context is the anglepoise lamp sign observed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitgehen
Explanation:– Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
– Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
– These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
– Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old individual presents with symptoms consistent with social anxiety disorder. To further assess their condition, you inquire about their seating preference when dining out.
Which of the following responses would best support your suspicion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In a quiet corner
Explanation:Individuals with social phobia experience anxiety and apprehension regarding the possibility of receiving unfavorable attention from others, leading them to avoid eating in public.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is the correct definition of the QT interval?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The QT interval is measured from the beginning of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave
Explanation:QTc Prolongation: Risks and Identification
The QT interval is a measure of the time it takes for the ventricles to repolarize and is calculated from the beginning of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave. However, the QT interval varies with the heart rate, making it difficult to use a single number as a cut-off for a prolonged QT. Instead, a corrected QT interval (QTc) is calculated for each heart rate using various formulas. A QTc over the 99th percentile is considered abnormally prolonged, with approximate values of 470 ms for males and 480 ms for females.
Prolonged QT intervals can lead to torsade de pointes (TdP), a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia that can be fatal if it degenerates into ventricular fibrillation. TdP is characterized by a twisting of the QRS complexes around an isoelectric line and is often asymptomatic but can also be associated with syncope and death. An accurate diagnosis requires an ECG to be recorded during the event. It is important to note that an increase in the QT interval due to a new conduction block should not be considered indicative of acquired LQTS and risk for TdP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male patient comes to your clinic with a recent history of substantial weight loss and absence of menstrual periods. What information do you require to determine his body mass index (BMI)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Height in metres and weight in kg
Explanation:The BMI of a person is determined by dividing their weight in kilograms by the square of their height in meters, expressed as kg/m2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Description And Measurement
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You are requested to consult with Ms. Johnson, a patient who is experiencing depression symptoms. She has been taking her prescribed sertraline (SSRI) for the past two months, but she wishes to discontinue her antidepressant due to sexual dysfunction. What alternative antidepressant would you suggest to Ms. Johnson that is less likely to cause sexual side effects?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mirtazapine
Explanation:Sexual dysfunction is a common side effect of antidepressants, with varying rates depending on the medication. For example, amitriptyline (TCA) has a prevalence of 30%, while citalopram, sertraline (SSRI), and venlafaxine have rates of 60-70% and 70%, respectively. The mechanisms behind this side effect include sedation, hormonal changes, disturbance of cholinergic/adrenergic balance, peripheral alpha-adrenergic antagonism, inhibition of nitric oxide, and increased serotonin neurotransmission.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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What is the accuracy of the dopamine hypothesis in explaining schizophrenia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cannabinoid agonists have been shown in animals to increase striatal dopamine release
Explanation:The Dopamine Hypothesis is a theory that suggests that dopamine and dopaminergic mechanisms are central to schizophrenia. This hypothesis was developed based on observations that antipsychotic drugs provide at least some degree of D2-type dopamine receptor blockade and that it is possible to induce a psychotic episode in healthy subjects with pharmacological dopamine agonists. The hypothesis was further strengthened by the finding that antipsychotic drugs’ clinical effectiveness was directly related to their affinity for dopamine receptors. Initially, the belief was that the problem related to an excess of dopamine in the brain. However, later studies showed that the relationship between hypofrontality and low cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) dopamine metabolite levels indicates low frontal dopamine levels. Thus, there was a move from a one-sided dopamine hypothesis explaining all facets of schizophrenia to a regionally specific prefrontal hypodopaminergia and a subcortical hyperdopaminergia. In summary, psychosis appears to result from excessive dopamine activity in the striatum, while the negative symptoms seen in schizophrenia appear to result from too little dopamine activity in the frontal lobe. Antipsychotic medications appear to help by countering the effects of increased dopamine by blocking postsynaptic D2 receptors in the striatum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 14
Incorrect
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What is the reason behind Mirtazapine ability to improve sleep?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: H1 antagonism
Explanation:Mirtazapine works by blocking the activity of 5HT2 and 5HT3, H1, and alpha 1 receptors. These actions promote sleep, except for the alpha 2 receptor, which normally inhibits the release of norepinephrine. As the dosage of mirtazapine increases, its ability to enhance sleep may decrease due to its antagonism of the alpha 2 receptor. Therefore, doses of 30mg of less are typically used to treat insomnia. This information is from the book Foundations of Psychiatric Sleep Medicine, published by Cambridge University Press in 2011, on page 224.
Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about temperament?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Temperament is stable throughout childhood
Explanation:Temperament is the innate aspect of an individual’s personality that is believed to be influenced by genetics, while character is shaped by learned experiences. Thomas and Chess developed a classification system that assesses children’s behavior based on nine traits, including activity level, adaptability, and emotional response. They found that 65% of children fall into one of three temperament types: easy, difficult, of slow to warm up. Thomas and Chess also introduced the concept of goodness of fit, which refers to the compatibility between a child’s temperament and their environment. When there is a good fit, children are more likely to reach their potential. For example, teachers can provide active learning experiences for children with high activity levels instead of seat work.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following methods is not utilized to diagnose narcolepsy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HLA testing
Explanation:In addition to conducting a thorough medical history and physical examination, healthcare providers typically order a series of tests to aid in the diagnosis of narcolepsy. These tests may include a multiple sleep latency test (MSLT) and a polysomnogram (PSG). The MSLT measures the time it takes for a person to fall asleep during the day, while the PSG records various physiological parameters during sleep, such as brain waves, eye movements, and muscle activity. These tests can help confirm the presence of narcolepsy and rule out other sleep disorders.
Sleep Disorders
The International Classification of Sleep Disorders (ISCD) categorizes sleep disorders into several main categories and subclasses. Dyssomnias are intrinsic sleep disorders that include narcolepsy, psychopsychologic insomnia, idiopathic hypersomnia, restless leg syndrome, periodic limb movement disorder, and obstructive sleep apnea. Extrinsic sleep disorders include inadequate sleep hygiene and alcohol-dependent sleep disorder. Circadian rhythm disorders consist of jet lag syndrome, shift work sleep disorder, irregular sleep-wake pattern, delayed sleep phase syndrome, and advanced sleep phase disorder. Parasomnias include arousal disorders such as sleepwalking and sleep terrors, sleep-wake transition disorders such as rhythmic movement disorder, sleep talking, and nocturnal leg cramps, and parasomnias associated with REM sleep such as nightmares and sleep paralysis. Sleep disorders associated with medical/psychiatric disorders and proposed sleep disorders are also included in the classification.
Narcolepsy is a disorder of unknown cause that is characterized by excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, and other REM sleep phenomena such as sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations. Periodic limb movement disorder is characterized by periodic episodes of repetitive and highly stereotyped limb movements that occur during sleep. Restless legs syndrome is a disorder characterized by disagreeable leg sensations that usually occur prior to sleep onset and that cause an almost irresistible urge to move the legs. Jet lag syndrome consists of varying degrees of difficulties in initiating or maintaining sleep, excessive sleepiness, decrements in subjective daytime alertness and performance, and somatic symptoms following rapid travel across multiple time zones. Shift work sleep disorder consists of symptoms of insomnia of excessive sleepiness that occur as transient phenomena in relation to work schedules. Non 24 hour sleep wake syndrome consists of a chronic steady pattern comprising one to two hour daily delays in sleep onset and wake times in an individual living in society. Sleepwalking consists of a series of complex behaviors that are initiated during slow-wave sleep and result in walking during sleep. Sleep terrors are characterized by a sudden arousal from slow wave sleep with a piercing scream of cry, accompanied by autonomic and behavioral manifestations of intense fear. Rhythmic movement disorder comprises a group of stereotyped, repetitive movements involving large muscles, usually of the head and neck. Sleep starts are sudden, brief contractions of the legs, sometimes also involving the arms and head, that occur at sleep onset. Nocturnal leg cramps are painful sensations of muscular tightness of tension, usually in the calf but occasionally in the foot, that occur during the sleep episode. Nightmares are frightening dreams that usually awaken the sleeper from REM sleep. Sleep paralysis is a common condition characterized by transient paralysis of skeletal muscles which occurs when awakening from sleep of less often while falling asleep.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is a 10 item scale used as a screening tool for problematic alcohol consumption?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: AUDIT
Explanation:The AUDIT is a screening tool consisting of 10 items that can quickly identify potential alcohol problems. Similarly, the AQ-10 is a 10 item scale used to measure autism quotient. The CAGE is a four item screening tool for alcohol problems, while the CIWA is a scale used to assess alcohol withdrawal. The PHQ-9, commonly used in general practice, is the personal health questionnaire.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Description And Measurement
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What was one of the 'four humours' in classical Greek medicine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Black bile
Explanation:The ancient Greeks believed that the body’s health of illness was determined by the balance of four humours: black bile, yellow bile, blood, and phlegm. Each humour was linked to a specific mental state, with an excess of black bile being associated with a melancholic mood, which is where we get the word melancholy from.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- History Of Psychiatry
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about extrapyramidal side-effects?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: They can be caused by the withdrawal of antipsychotics
Explanation:Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A recommended approach for managing hyponatremia induced by antidepressants is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Demeclocycline
Explanation:Hyponatremia in Psychiatric Patients
Hyponatremia, of low serum sodium, can occur in psychiatric patients due to the disorder itself, its treatment, of other medical conditions. Symptoms include nausea, confusion, seizures, and muscular cramps. Drug-induced hyponatremia is known as the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion (SIADH), which results from excessive secretion of ADH and fluid overload. Diagnosis is based on clinically euvolaemic state with low serum sodium and osmolality, raised urine sodium and osmolality. SSRIs, SNRIs, and tricyclics are the most common drugs that can cause SIADH. Risk factors for SIADH include starting a new drug, and treatment usually involves fluid restriction and sometimes demeclocycline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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What is the characteristic of jaw musculature contraction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trismus
Explanation:Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Who is the well-known British psychiatrist, known for his affiliation with the antipsychiatry movement, and is recognized for his statement that 'Madness does not necessarily have to be a complete breakdown, but can also be a breakthrough'?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laing
Explanation:Apart from Bleuler who is Swiss, all the other psychiatrists in the list of options are German – Kraepelin and…
Antipsychiatry is a movement that emerged in the 1960s and challenges the traditional medical model of mental illness. It argues that mental illnesses are not biological of medical conditions but rather social constructs that reflect deviations from social norms. The movement has been associated with several famous figures, including Thomas Szasz, R.D. Laing, Michel Foucault, and Franco Basaglia. These individuals have criticized the psychiatric profession for its use of involuntary hospitalization, medication, and other forms of coercion in the treatment of mental illness. They have also advocated for alternative approaches to mental health care, such as community-based care and psychotherapy. Despite its controversial nature, the antipsychiatry movement has had a significant impact on the field of mental health and continues to influence the way we think about and treat mental illness today.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following does not follow an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Noonan's syndrome
Explanation:Inheritance Patterns and Examples
Autosomal Dominant:
Neurofibromatosis type 1 and 2, tuberous sclerosis, achondroplasia, Huntington disease, and Noonan’s syndrome are all examples of conditions that follow an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern. This means that only one copy of the mutated gene is needed to cause the condition.Autosomal Recessive:
Phenylketonuria, homocystinuria, Hurler’s syndrome, galactosaemia, Tay-Sach’s disease, Friedreich’s ataxia, Wilson’s disease, and cystic fibrosis are all examples of conditions that follow an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern. This means that two copies of the mutated gene are needed to cause the condition.X-Linked Dominant:
Vitamin D resistant rickets and Rett syndrome are examples of conditions that follow an X-linked dominant inheritance pattern. This means that the mutated gene is located on the X chromosome and only one copy of the gene is needed to cause the condition.X-Linked Recessive:
Cerebellar ataxia, Hunter’s syndrome, and Lesch-Nyhan are examples of conditions that follow an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern. This means that the mutated gene is located on the X chromosome and two copies of the gene are needed to cause the condition.Mitochondrial:
Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy and Kearns-Sayre syndrome are examples of conditions that follow a mitochondrial inheritance pattern. This means that the mutated gene is located in the mitochondria and is passed down from the mother to her offspring. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What is another term for 'intrinsic activity' when referring to drug/receptor interactions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Efficacy
Explanation:Efficacy, also referred to as intrinsic activity, pertains to a drug’s capacity to produce a reaction upon binding to a receptor.
Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A patient in their 60s taking an antipsychotic is found to have a QTc of 490ms. What would be the most appropriate alternative to their current antipsychotic medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aripiprazole
Explanation:Amantadine and QTc Prolongation
Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which of the options has the lowest degree of first pass effect association?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pregabalin
Explanation:The First Pass Effect in Psychiatric Drugs
The first-pass effect is a process in drug metabolism that significantly reduces the concentration of a drug before it reaches the systemic circulation. This phenomenon is related to the liver and gut wall, which absorb and metabolize the drug before it can enter the bloodstream. Psychiatric drugs are not exempt from this effect, and some undergo a significant reduction in concentration before reaching their target site. Examples of psychiatric drugs that undergo a significant first-pass effect include imipramine, fluphenazine, morphine, diazepam, and buprenorphine. On the other hand, some drugs undergo little to no first-pass effect, such as lithium and pregabalin.
Orally administered drugs are the most affected by the first-pass effect. However, there are other routes of administration that can avoid of partly avoid this effect. These include sublingual, rectal (partly avoids first pass), intravenous, intramuscular, transdermal, and inhalation. Understanding the first-pass effect is crucial in drug development and administration, especially in psychiatric drugs, where the concentration of the drug can significantly affect its efficacy and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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John is a 35-year-old businessman. He is seeking therapy for his anxiety and the therapist is struggling to understand his constant need for attention and validation. They are also confused by his rapid mood swings, going from feeling hopeless and defeated to being overly confident and grandiose. He often shows up to sessions in flashy clothing and talks about his accomplishments and successes. His wife mentions that he has always been this way and that his charisma was what initially attracted her to him.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Histrionic personality disorder
Explanation:John’s behavior is causing distress and impairment in his ability to participate in family therapy and may have contributed to his child’s depression. His behavior is consistent with histrionic personality disorder, which is only found in the ICD-10. This disorder is characterized by self-dramatization, exaggerated emotions, suggestibility, a shallow and unstable emotional state, a constant need for attention and excitement, inappropriate seductive behavior, and an excessive concern with physical appearance. Other associated features may include egocentricity, self-indulgence, a constant desire for appreciation, easily hurt feelings, and manipulative behavior to meet personal needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which one of these pathways is not associated with dopamine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Limbostriatal pathway
Explanation:Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A child who has experienced a head injury can no longer tie his shoelaces despite normal motor function. Which type of memory is affected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Procedural
Explanation:Memory Forms
Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.
Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).
Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.
Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).
Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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The most probable diagnosis for a patient with an isolated finding of atrophy of the head of caudate nucleus on a CT scan is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Huntington's disease
Explanation:Huntington’s Disease: Genetics and Pathology
Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance. It is caused by a mutation in the Huntington gene, which is located on chromosome 4. The mutation involves an abnormal expansion of a trinucleotide repeat sequence (CAG), which leads to the production of a toxic protein that damages brain cells.
The severity of the disease and the age of onset are related to the number of CAG repeats. Normally, the CAG sequence is repeated less than 27 times, but in Huntington’s disease, it is repeated many more times. The disease shows anticipation, meaning that it tends to worsen with each successive generation.
The symptoms of Huntington’s disease typically begin in the third of fourth decade of life, but in rare cases, they can appear in childhood of adolescence. The most common symptoms include involuntary movements (chorea), cognitive decline, and psychiatric disturbances.
The pathological hallmark of Huntington’s disease is the gross bilateral atrophy of the head of the caudate and putamen, which are regions of the brain involved in movement control. The EEG of patients with Huntington’s disease shows a flattened trace, indicating a loss of brain activity.
Macroscopic pathological findings include frontal atrophy, marked atrophy of the caudate and putamen, and enlarged ventricles. Microscopic findings include neuronal loss and gliosis in the cortex, neuronal loss in the striatum, and the presence of inclusion bodies in the neurons of the cortex and striatum.
In conclusion, Huntington’s disease is a devastating genetic disorder that affects the brain and causes a range of motor, cognitive, and psychiatric symptoms. The disease is caused by a mutation in the Huntington gene, which leads to the production of a toxic protein that damages brain cells. The pathological changes in the brain include atrophy of the caudate and putamen, neuronal loss, and the presence of inclusion bodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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