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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old swimming instructor presents with an abrupt onset of diffuse inflamed, red, scaly skin changes that developed within 2 days. The medical team suspects erythroderma and initiates treatment with oral steroids. What is the most probable dermatological disorder that can lead to erythroderma?
Your Answer: Lichen planus
Correct Answer: Psoriasis
Explanation:Dermatological Conditions and Their Relationship to Erythroderma
Erythroderma is a condition that causes inflammation, redness, and scaling of over 90% of the skin surface. It can be caused by various dermatological conditions, including eczema, psoriasis, cutaneous T cell lymphoma, drug reactions, blistering conditions, and pityriasis rubra pilaris. Complications of erythroderma include hypothermia, dehydration, infection, and high-output heart failure. Treatment involves identifying and stopping any causative drugs, nursing in a warm room, and systemic steroids.
Livedo reticularis is another skin condition that causes a mottled discoloration of the skin in a reticular pattern due to a disturbance of blood flow to the skin. However, it does not cause erythroderma.
Lichen planus is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that presents with a pruritic, papular eruption characterized by its violaceous color and polygonal shape, sometimes with a fine scale. It does not commonly cause erythroderma.
Norwegian scabies is a severe form of scabies caused by a mite infestation, but it does not cause erythroderma.
Pityriasis rosea is a viral rash characterized by a herald patch followed by smaller oval, red patches located on the torso. It does not cause erythroderma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 40-year-old man presents with generalized pruritus and excoriation marks on his skin. He has visible needle track marks in his antecubital fossae and shiny nails. His sclerae appear normal and he denies any significant medical or surgical history. He works as a truck driver and has no significant exposure to industrial chemicals or organic dust. He has no family history of atopy and smokes six cigarettes a day while only drinking alcohol socially once a week. What is the most appropriate initial test to perform?
Your Answer: Blood for HIV antibody
Explanation:Investigating Pruritus in a Male Patient
Pruritus, or itching, can be a symptom of various underlying conditions. In the case of a male patient without apparent cause of pruritus, an HIV antibody test would be the most appropriate first-line investigation, along with other tests such as blood sugar, thyroid profile, and urea and electrolytes. This is because HIV infection can present with intractable pruritus before other symptoms appear. Allergen skin tests may be used in suspected allergic reactions, but they would be inappropriate in this case as there is no indication of such a reaction. The anti-M2 antibody test is used for primary biliary cirrhosis, which is a rare possibility in this case. A chest x-ray is not a useful first-line test as there is no indication of malignancy. Kidney diseases can give rise to pruritus, but there is no mention of kidney disease here. It is important to consider the patient’s medical history, including any potential risk factors such as IV drug abuse, which may be the source of infection. Further investigations may be necessary depending on the results of initial tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 75-year-old male presented with numerous blisters on his trunk and limbs. Linear IG deposits were observed along the basement membrane in direct immunofluorescence studies. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bullous pemphigoid
Explanation:Bullous Pemphigoid
Bullous pemphigoid is a skin condition that is characterized by the presence of tense bullae, which are filled with clear fluid and appear on normal or erythematosus skin. Unlike pemphigus vulgaris, which causes blisters at the dermal-epidermal junction, bullous pemphigoid causes blistering at the subepidermal level, resulting in the formation of tense blisters. In contrast, pemphigus vulgaris causes thin-walled and fragile blisters that are rarely intact.
To differentiate bullous pemphigoid from other skin conditions, such as pemphigus vulgaris, a skin biopsy for routine and direct immunofluorescence is necessary. This test helps to identify the presence of linear basement membrane zone deposition of immunoglobulin and complement, which are of the IgG type.
In summary, bullous pemphigoid is a skin condition that causes the formation of tense bullae on normal or erythematosus skin. It is important to differentiate it from other skin conditions, such as pemphigus vulgaris, through a skin biopsy for routine and direct immunofluorescence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old recently arrived female with several skin blisters comes in for assessment. A few of the blisters have burst, resulting in a sore, exposed region. The base of one of the erosive lesions is scraped for Tzanck test. Upon examination, acantholytic keratinocytes with significant hyperchromatic nuclei are detected under the microscope.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Chickenpox
Correct Answer: Pemphigus vulgaris
Explanation:Distinguishing Skin Conditions on Tzanck Smear: Pemphigus Vulgaris, Cytomegalovirus, Herpes Simplex, Chickenpox, and Bullous Pemphigoid
When examining a patient’s bullous skin lesions on a Tzanck smear, it is important to distinguish between various skin conditions. In the case of acantholytic keratinocytes, the most likely diagnosis is pemphigus vulgaris. This autoimmune disorder is caused by an antibody against intraepithelial desmosomal junctions, resulting in the separation of keratinocytes and the formation of intraepithelial blisters.
Cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex, and chickenpox can also present with multinucleated giant cells on a Tzanck smear. However, these conditions are caused by viral infections rather than autoimmune disorders.
Bullous pemphigoid, on the other hand, is caused by an antibody against the dermal-epidermal junction. The associated blisters are sub-epidermal in location and do not contain acantholytic keratinocytes.
In summary, a Tzanck smear can provide valuable information in diagnosing various skin conditions, including pemphigus vulgaris, cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex, chickenpox, and bullous pemphigoid. Proper diagnosis is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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What is the probable reason for the nail changes observed in Mr Williams, an 86-year-old retired dock worker with a history of hypertension and mitral valve replacement, who visited his general practitioner with symptoms of fever, night sweats and fatigue? During examination, his hands showed loss of angle between the nail fold and nail plate, a bulbous fingertip, and painful, erythematous nodules present on both hands.
Your Answer: Tuberculosis
Correct Answer: Infective endocarditis
Explanation:The patient’s nail signs suggest a diagnosis of clubbing, which is commonly seen in various internal conditions such as cardiac issues like infective endocarditis and cyanotic congenital heart disease, respiratory problems like bronchial cancer, tuberculosis, sarcoidosis, cystic fibrosis, and pulmonary fibrosis, gastrointestinal issues like inflammatory bowel disease, biliary cirrhosis, and malabsorption, and other conditions like thyroid acropachy. The presence of Osler’s nodes, painful nodules caused by immune complex deposition, further supports a diagnosis of infective endocarditis, which is commonly associated with this symptom. Although the patient has a history of potential asbestos exposure, the history of heart valve replacement, current symptoms, and nail signs point towards infective endocarditis as the likely diagnosis. Other conditions like inflammatory bowel disease, pulmonary fibrosis, sarcoidosis, and tuberculosis can cause clubbing but not Osler’s nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old infant has been diagnosed with diaper rash. What is the best course of action for treating a mild case of diaper rash?
Your Answer: Topical betamethasone
Correct Answer: Exposure to air
Explanation:Napkin Rash: Causes and Treatment
Napkin rash, also known as nappy rash, is a common skin condition that affects infants. It is caused by a variety of factors, including contact dermatitis, bacterial and fungal infections, psoriasis, and atopic dermatitis. The condition is often exacerbated by the presence of infantile eczema, but it is not more common in boys or less common in soy-fed infants.
The primary cause of napkin rash is contact dermatitis, which occurs when the skin comes into contact with ammonia from urine. This can cause burning and irritation, leading to a rash. Infection with bacteria and Candida yeasts can also cause nappy rash, as can psoriasis and atopic dermatitis affecting the nappy area. Infection is often superimposed, making the condition more severe.
Prevention is the best treatment for napkin rash. Frequent nappy changing and fluid feeding early in the day can help lessen night-time urination, reducing the risk of contact dermatitis. Anti-fungal lotions may also be useful in treating the condition. By the causes and treatment options for napkin rash, parents can help their infants avoid this uncomfortable and painful condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A large area of grey-blue pigment is noted over the left buttock of a 6-month-old baby by the pediatrician during a routine check-up. There are no other signs of bleeding or bruising visible on the baby. The baby was born full-term and the mother has no health conditions.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Haemorrhagic disease of the newborn
Correct Answer: Dermal melanocytosis
Explanation:Common Causes of Bruising in Newborns
Newborns may develop bruises for various reasons, and it is essential to identify the cause to ensure appropriate management. Here are some common causes of bruising in newborns:
1. Dermal melanocytosis: These blue-grey birthmarks are common in babies of African, Middle Eastern, Mediterranean, or Asian descent. They usually appear on the lower back or buttocks and do not require any treatment.
2. Haemophilia: This inherited clotting disorder may present later in childhood as prolonged bleeding following an injury or haemarthrosis.
3. Haemorrhagic disease of the newborn: This condition is caused by vitamin K deficiency and may present with bleeding from the GI tract, umbilical cord, or venipuncture sites.
4. Non-accidental injury: While rare in newborns, non-accidental injury can cause bruising. However, this is not a consideration in a newborn who has not yet been exposed to any risk of abuse.
5. Osteogenesis imperfecta: This genetic condition affects bone strength and may present with multiple fractures from minimal-impact injuries. A sign of the condition is blue-grey tingling of the sclera but not of the skin.
It is crucial to consult a healthcare provider if you notice any unexplained bruising in your newborn to rule out any underlying medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old retired landscape gardener presents to clinic with his daughter, who is concerned about a lesion on his scalp.
The lesion is 45 mm × 30 mm, irregular, and she feels it has changed colour to become darker over recent months. He states it has occasionally bled and is more raised than before. He has a history of travel with the armed forces in South-East Asia.
You suspect malignant melanoma.
Which of the following features is most likely to be associated with a poor prognosis in this patient?Your Answer: Change in colour
Correct Answer: Depth of lesion on biopsy
Explanation:Understanding Prognostic Indicators for Melanoma Diagnosis
When it comes to diagnosing melanoma, the depth of the lesion on biopsy is the most crucial factor in determining prognosis. The American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) depth is now used instead of Breslow’s thickness. A raised lesion may indicate nodular malignant melanoma, which has a poor prognosis. Bleeding may occur with malignant melanoma, but it is not a reliable prognostic indicator. While a change in color and irregular border may help identify melanoma, they are not directly linked to prognosis. The size of the lesion is also not a reliable indicator, as depth is required to assess prognosis. Understanding these prognostic indicators is essential for accurate diagnosis and treatment of melanoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Samantha Masters, a 16-year-old high school student, visits the Dermatology Clinic with concerns about her appearance. She has been struggling with severe acne for a few years and has tried various over-the-counter treatments and antibiotics, but none have worked. She has been researching Roaccutane® (isotretinoin) and is interested in trying it. What is the most frequent side effect Samantha may encounter while taking Roaccutane®?
Your Answer: Peptic ulceration
Correct Answer: Dry skin and lips
Explanation:Understanding the Side-Effects of Roaccutane®: Dry Skin and Lips
Roaccutane® is a powerful medication used to treat severe acne when other treatments have failed. While it is highly effective, it is also associated with a range of side-effects that patients should be aware of. One of the most common side-effects is severe dry skin and lips, which can be uncomfortable and require additional moisturizing. Other potential side-effects include dryness of the eyes, mucous membranes, and scalp, as well as muscle pain and hair loss.
It is important to note that Roaccutane® is highly teratogenic, meaning it can cause birth defects if taken during pregnancy. Women who are taking Roaccutane® should use at least two forms of contraception to prevent pregnancy. Additionally, all patients should have their liver function and lipid levels monitored before and during treatment, as Roaccutane® can cause elevated levels of both.
While night sweats and peptic ulceration are not recognised side-effects of Roaccutane®, photosensitivity is a potential side-effect, although it is not the most common. Weight gain is also not a recognised side-effect. Patients taking Roaccutane® should be aware of these potential side-effects and discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female patient complains of erythematous papulo-pustular lesions on the convexities of her face for the past two years. She also has a history of erythema and telangiectasia. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Hives
Correct Answer: Rosacea
Explanation:Differentiating Skin Conditions
Skin conditions can be easily differentiated based on their characteristic symptoms. Acne is identified by the presence of papules, pustules, and comedones. On the other hand, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is characterized by a photosensitive erythematosus rash on the cheeks, along with other systemic symptoms. Meanwhile, polymorphous light eruption (PLE) does not cause telangiectasia.
One telltale sign of acne is the presence of papules, pustules, and comedones. These are often accompanied by background erythema and telangiectasia. In contrast, SLE is identified by a photosensitive erythematosus rash on the cheeks, which may be accompanied by other systemic symptoms. PLE, on the other hand, does not cause telangiectasia. By the unique symptoms of each skin condition, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman with a 28-year history of psoriasis presents to the Dermatologist. Despite treatment with ciclosporin, she has multiple patches on her arms, legs and scalp, which affect her sleep and work. The Dermatologist decides to initiate biological therapy with a TNF-alpha inhibitor. The patient has a past medical history of inactive tuberculosis.
Which TNF-alpha inhibitor is the Dermatologist likely to prescribe for the patient's severe psoriasis?Your Answer: Secukinumab
Correct Answer: Adalimumab
Explanation:Biological Agents for the Treatment of Psoriasis
Psoriasis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the skin and joints. Biological agents have revolutionized the treatment of psoriasis by targeting specific molecules involved in the immune response. Here are some commonly used biological agents for the treatment of psoriasis:
Adalimumab: This agent targets tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha), a cytokine involved in systemic inflammation. Adalimumab is used when other systemic treatments have failed and the disease is severe.
Brodalumab: This agent targets the interleukin 17 receptor found on CD8+ cytotoxic T cells. It is used when methotrexate or ciclosporin have failed.
Infliximab: This agent is also a TNF-alpha inhibitor, but it has been shown to reactivate latent tuberculosis. Therefore, it should be used with caution in patients with a history of tuberculosis.
Guselkumab: This agent targets interleukin 23, which is involved in the activation of T17 lymphocytes. It is used in the treatment of moderate to severe psoriasis.
Secukinumab: This agent targets interleukin 17, which is found on CD8+ cytotoxic T cells. It is used in the treatment of moderate to severe psoriasis.
Before starting any of these agents, certain criteria must be met, such as failure of other treatments and severity of the disease. Additionally, some agents may be contraindicated in patients with certain medical histories, such as a history of tuberculosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man with a history of asthma and ulcerative colitis presents with an itchy, red rash in the right and left popliteal regions. He works as a teacher and continuously scratches the back of his knees when he is at work. This is the second time he has suffered from such a popliteal rash. He states that previously he has had similar skin conditions affecting his anterior wrist and antecubital areas. On examination, both popliteal areas are erythematosus with slight oedema and weeping. There are some overlying vesicles and papules.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Lichen planus
Correct Answer: Atopic dermatitis
Explanation:Differentiating Skin Conditions Based on Location and Distribution
When it comes to diagnosing skin conditions, the location and distribution of the rash or lesion are just as important as its appearance. For example, a rash in the flexural regions of an adult patient, such as the popliteal region, is likely to be atopic dermatitis. This is especially true if the patient has a history of asthma, indicating an atopic tendency. Acute dermatitis typically presents with redness, swelling, vesicles, and papules.
Other skin conditions have different characteristic distributions. Dermatitis herpetiformis, which is associated with coeliac disease and malabsorption, typically appears as grouped vesicles or papules on the elbows, knees, upper back, and buttocks. Seborrhoeic dermatitis is found in areas with sebaceous glands, such as the scalp, eyebrows, and presternal regions. Lichen planus presents as flat-topped, pruritic, polygonal, red-to-violaceous papules or plaques, usually on the wrists, ankles, or genitalia. Psoriasis, on the other hand, produces silvery, scaling, erythematosus plaques, primarily on the extensor surfaces.
In summary, understanding the location and distribution of a skin condition can help clinicians make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old West Indian diplomat, while on secondment in the United Kingdom, develops an uncomfortable raised rash on the anterior aspects of both her lower legs. She has prided herself with her remarkably good health over the years. She has recently visited Nigeria, Guyana and Vietnam for her work.
What would be the most appropriate initial investigation to conduct?Your Answer: Blood film
Correct Answer: Chest X-ray
Explanation:The patient is presenting with erythema nodosum, which may have an unknown cause or could be related to their extensive travel history. While a skin biopsy may provide a definitive diagnosis, the best initial investigation is a chest X-ray to rule out tuberculosis and sarcoidosis. A blood film is not necessary as there is no indication of malaria. An ultrasound of the abdomen is not useful in this case, as the skin lesions are the primary concern. Stool microbiology is not necessary as there is no mention of diarrhea. While a skin biopsy may provide information on the lesions themselves, it does not aid in identifying the underlying cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old female comes to the clinic from her nursing home with an atypical rash on her arms and legs. The rash appeared after starting furosemide for her mild ankle swelling. Upon examination, there are multiple tense lesions filled with fluid, measuring 1-2 cm in diameter on her arms and legs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Erythema multiforme
Correct Answer: Pemphigoid
Explanation:Pemphigoid: A Skin Condition Caused by Furosemide
Pemphigoid is a skin condition that typically affects elderly individuals, presenting as tense blisters on the arms and legs. The use of furosemide, a diuretic, is a common cause of this condition. While other diuretics can also cause pemphigoid, it is a rarer occurrence. A positive immunofluorescence test confirms the diagnosis, and treatment with steroids is usually successful.
It is important to differentiate pemphigoid from pemphigus, which presents in younger age groups and causes flaccid blisters that easily erupt, leading to widespread lesions. Overall, recognizing the signs and symptoms of pemphigoid and identifying its underlying cause can lead to effective treatment and management of this skin condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man comes to his primary care clinic complaining of an itchy rash on his arm. During the examination, you observe polygonal, violaceous papules on the inner part of his forearm. Some of these papules have merged to form plaques. He has no history of skin disorders and is not presently taking any medications.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Lichen sclerosus
Correct Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:Dermatological Disorders: Characteristics and Differences
Lichen planus is a skin disorder that is believed to be autoimmune in nature. It is characterized by a purple, polygonal, and papular rash that is often accompanied by itching. This condition is rare in both young and elderly populations and typically appears acutely on the flexor aspect of the wrists, forearms, and legs.
Atopic dermatitis, also known as eczema, is a condition that usually presents as a red, itchy rash on the flexural areas of joints such as the elbows and knees. It is most commonly seen in children under the age of 5. As the patient in question has no history of skin disease, it is unlikely that he has eczema.
Scabies is a contagious skin condition that is most commonly seen in children, young adults, and older adults in care homes. It causes widespread itching and linear burrows on the sides of fingers, interdigital webs, and the flexor aspect of the wrists.
Lichen sclerosus is a chronic inflammatory skin disease that typically presents with itchy white spots. It is most commonly seen on the vulva in elderly women or on the penis in men.
Plaque psoriasis is a skin condition that presents as itchy white or red plaques on the extensor surfaces of joints such as the elbows.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 16
Correct
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What is the dermatological condition that is linked to neurofibromatosis type 1?
Your Answer: Café au lait spots
Explanation:Neurofibromatosis Type 1 and Type 2
Neurofibromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects the 17th chromosome and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. There are two types of neurofibromatosis: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 is also known as von Recklinghausen’s disease and is characterized by flat, light-brown skin lesions called café au lait spots, axillary freckling, small purple-colored lesions called dermal neurofibromas, nodular neurofibromas that can cause paraesthesia when compressed, and Lisch nodules on the iris. Complications of type 1 neurofibromatosis include nerve compression, phaeochromocytoma, mild learning disability, and epilepsy.
Type 2 neurofibromatosis is much rarer than type 1 and also demonstrates autosomal dominant inheritance. In addition to café au lait spots, individuals with type 2 may also develop vestibular schwannomas (acoustic neuromas) and premature cataracts. It is important to note that while both types of neurofibromatosis share some similarities, they also have distinct differences in their clinical presentation and associated complications. these differences can aid in accurate diagnosis and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a history of hypercholesterolaemia and psoriasis is admitted to the hospital after experiencing central crushing chest pain. He was diagnosed with a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) and received appropriate treatment. While in the hospital, he had a psoriasis flare-up.
Which medication is most likely responsible for the psoriasis flare-up?Your Answer: Statins
Correct Answer: Beta blockers
Explanation:Medications and Psoriasis: Which Drugs to Avoid
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can be triggered by various factors, including stress, infection, and certain medications. While sunlight can help alleviate psoriasis symptoms in most patients, it can worsen the condition in some individuals. Among the drugs that can exacerbate psoriasis are β blockers, antimalarials, lithium, and interferons. Therefore, if possible, people with psoriasis should avoid taking these medications. However, drugs such as clopidogrel, glyceryl trinitrate spray, low-molecular-weight heparin, and statins are not known to cause psoriasis flares. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication if you have psoriasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old professional footballer comes to the Dermatology Clinic with a lesion on his leg. The lesion started as a small cut he got during a match, but it has progressed over the past few weeks, becoming a large, painful ulcer.
During the examination, the doctor finds that the lesion is 50 mm × 75 mm and ulcerated with a necrotic centre. The patient has no medical history, but his general practitioner (GP) recently investigated him for a change in bowel habit, including bloody stools, and fatigue.
The patient's anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody test comes back positive, and no organisms grow from the wound swab. The doctor prescribes systemic steroids, and the patient experiences rapid improvement.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)
Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Painful Cutaneous Ulcer in a Patient with IBD Symptoms
When presented with a painful cutaneous ulcer, it is important to consider the underlying cause in order to provide appropriate treatment. In this case, the patient is experiencing fatigue and change in bowel habit, which could be indicative of underlying inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). One possible diagnosis is pyoderma gangrenosum, which is commonly associated with IBD, rheumatoid arthritis, or hepatitis. This condition presents with a rapidly progressing, painful, necrolytic cutaneous ulcer that responds well to systemic steroids. Livedo reticularis, erythema nodosum, and lupus pernio are other possible diagnoses, but they do not typically present with ulceration in this pattern or are not associated with IBD. While squamous cell carcinoma should be considered, it is unlikely in this case due to the patient’s young age and the rapid deterioration of the ulcer. Overall, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat the underlying condition causing the cutaneous ulcer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents with shiny, flat, red papules over her anterior wrists and forearms. The papules are extremely pruritic and some of them have a central depression. Similar papules are seen along the scratch line at the volar surface of the forearm. The patient is a nurse and has had at least three needlestick injuries during the past 2 years. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay is negative. Hepatitis B surface antigen and anti-HBc antibody are negative, but anti-HBs antibody is positive. Anti-hepatitis C (HCV) antibody is positive.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis
Correct Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions and Associated Antibodies
Lichen Planus: This skin condition is associated with viral hepatitis, specifically hepatitis B and C. Antibodies may indicate the presence of hepatitis and other conditions such as erythema multiforme, urticaria, polyarteritis nodosa, cryoglobulinemia, and porphyria cutanea tarda.
Chronic Hepatitis B: A negative anti-HBc antibody status suggests that the patient has not been exposed to the hepatitis B virus. A positive anti-HBs antibody status may indicate vaccination.
Dermatitis Herpetiformis: This condition is characterized by extremely itchy papulovesicles on the elbows, knees, upper back, and buttocks. It is often associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy. Autoantibodies such as anti-gliadin, anti-endomysial, and anti-tissue transglutaminase may be present.
Essential Mixed Cryoglobulinemia: This condition presents with palpable purpura and arthritis, among other signs of systemic vasculitis. It is also associated with hepatitis C virus infection, and rheumatoid factor is usually positive.
Dermatomyositis: Gottron’s papules, which are violet, flat-topped lesions, are associated with dermatomyositis and the anti-Jo-1 autoantibody. They are typically seen over the metacarpophalangeal or interphalangeal joints.
Skin Conditions and Their Antibody Associations
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old builder comes to the GP complaining of large itchy silvery white scaly patches on his elbows and knees. He has no history of skin problems, but his father had psoriasis. What is the most suitable initial treatment to prescribe?
Your Answer: Topical steroid alone
Correct Answer: Topical steroid and topical calcipotriol
Explanation:Topical Treatments for Chronic Plaque Psoriasis: NICE Recommendations
Chronic plaque psoriasis is a common skin condition that can be managed with topical treatments. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends a stepwise approach to treatment, with different options depending on the severity of the condition and the response to previous therapies.
First-line treatment for chronic plaque psoriasis is a potent corticosteroid applied once daily, combined with a vitamin D analogue, for up to 4 weeks. This combination therapy has been shown to be effective in reducing inflammation and improving symptoms.
If there is no improvement with both steroid and calcipotriol after 8 weeks, topical calcipotriol alone can be used as a second-line management option. However, it is insufficient to prescribe alone as a first-line treatment.
Topical steroid alone is a third-line management option for psoriasis if there is no improvement after 8-12 weeks. This is because long-term use of topical steroids can have side effects such as skin thinning and increased risk of infection.
Short-acting dithranol could be used as a fourth-line option, but not as initial management. Topical coal tar is also part of third-line management for psoriasis.
In summary, the NICE recommendations for topical treatments for chronic plaque psoriasis involve a stepwise approach, with combination therapy as the first-line option and other treatments used if there is no improvement or if side effects occur. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to find the most effective and safe treatment plan for each individual.
NICE Recommendations for Topical Treatments for Chronic Plaque Psoriasis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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