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Question 1
Correct
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A 36-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with complaints of severe lower back pain. He reports that the pain started after he lifted a heavy box at work. The pain is radiating to his right buttock and thigh, but he has not experienced any urinary symptoms.
During the examination, the patient was able to straight leg raise to 90 degrees on the left side, but only to 30 degrees on the right. The sciatic stretch test was positive. He had difficulty plantarflexing his right ankle and reported abnormal sensation on the plantar aspect of the foot. Additionally, his right ankle reflex was absent, but all other reflexes were normal. There were no other sensory disturbances noted.
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: L5/S1 disc prolapse
Explanation:Cauda equina syndrome causes more severe symptoms such as bladder/bowel dysfunction and bilateral weakness.
L3/4 disc prolapse affects the L4 nerve root causing pain in the anterior thigh and quadriceps weakness.
L4/5 disc prolapse affects the L5 nerve root causing pain over the lateral aspect of the leg and foot drop.
Scheuermann’s disease is a form of kyphosis that affects three adjacent anterior vertebral bodies and typically begins during teenage years. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old Caucasian woman who is 26 weeks pregnant with her first child presents to antenatal clinic. She had been invited to attend screening for gestational diabetes on account of her booking BMI, which was 32kg/m². Prior to her pregnancy, she had been healthy and had no personal or family history of diabetes mellitus. She takes no regular medications and has no known allergies.
During her antenatal visit, she undergoes an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which reveals the following results:
- Fasting glucose 6.9mmol/L
- 2-hour glucose 7.8 mmol/L
An ultrasound scan shows no fetal abnormalities or hydramnios. She is advised on diet and exercise and undergoes a repeat OGTT two weeks later. Due to persistent impaired fasting glucose, she is started on metformin.
After taking metformin for two weeks, she undergoes another OGTT, with the following results:
- Fasting glucose 5.8 mmol/L
- 2-hour glucose 7.2mmol/L
What is the most appropriate next step in managing her glycaemic control?Your Answer: Switch metformin to modified-release metformin
Correct Answer: Add insulin
Explanation:If blood glucose targets are not achieved through diet and metformin in gestational diabetes, insulin should be introduced. This patient was diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 25 weeks due to a fasting glucose level above 5.6mmol/L. Despite lifestyle changes and the addition of metformin, her glycaemic control has not improved, and her fasting glucose level remains above the target range. Therefore, NICE recommends adding short-acting insulin to her current treatment. Switching to modified-release metformin may help patients who experience side effects, but it would not improve glycaemic control in this case. Insulin should be added in conjunction with metformin for persistent impaired glycaemic control, rather than replacing it. Sulfonylureas like glibenclamide should only be used for patients who cannot tolerate metformin or as an adjunct for those who refuse insulin treatment, and they are not the best option for this patient.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You are summoned to an emergency on the orthopaedic ward where a 75-year-old male has been discovered unconscious by nursing staff. He has recently undergone surgery for a fractured hip.
Upon examination, he is tachycardic with a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg. His oxygen saturation was 90% on air, and the nursing staff have administered oxygen at 15 litres/minute. His respiratory rate is 5 breaths per minute, and his chest is clear. The abdomen is soft, and his Glasgow coma scale is 10/15. Pupils are equal, small, and unreactive, and he has flaccid limbs bilaterally.
What is the appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Arrange urgent CT scan of head
Correct Answer: Urgent review of the drug chart
Explanation:Managing Opioid Toxicity in Post-Surgical Patients
When a patient exhibits symptoms of opioid toxicity, such as reduced consciousness, respiratory depression, and pinpoint pupils, it is important to review their treatment chart to confirm if they have received opiate analgesia following recent surgery. If confirmed, the patient should be prescribed naloxone to reverse the effects of the opioid and may require ventilatory support.
Opioid toxicity can be a serious complication in post-surgical patients, and prompt management is crucial to prevent further harm. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients closely for signs of opioid toxicity and to have a plan in place for managing it if it occurs. By being vigilant and prepared, healthcare providers can help ensure the safety and well-being of their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 4
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman at 16 week gestation presents to the early pregnancy assessment unit with complaints of light vaginal bleeding, fevers for 2 days, and increasing abdominal pain for 6 hours. On examination, she has diffuse abdominal tenderness and foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Her temperature is 39.2ºC and blood pressure is 112/78 mmHg. Her full blood count shows Hb of 107 g/L, platelets of 189 * 109/L, and WBC of 13.2 * 109/L. An ultrasound confirms miscarriage. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Manual vacuum aspiration under local anaesthetic
Explanation:If there is evidence of infection or an increased risk of haemorrhage, expectant management is not a suitable option for miscarriage. In such cases, NICE recommends either medical management (using oral or vaginal misoprostol) or surgical management (including manual vacuum aspiration). In this particular case, surgical management is the only option as the patient has evidence of infection, possibly due to septic miscarriage. Syntocinon is used for medical management of postpartum haemorrhage, while methotrexate is used for medical management of ectopic pregnancy. Oral mifepristone is used in combination with misoprostol for termination of pregnancy, but it is not recommended by NICE for the management of miscarriage.
Management Options for Miscarriage
Miscarriage can be a difficult and emotional experience for women. In the 2019 NICE guidelines, three types of management for miscarriage were discussed: expectant, medical, and surgical. Expectant management involves waiting for a spontaneous miscarriage and is considered the first-line option. However, if it is unsuccessful, medical or surgical management may be offered.
Medical management involves using tablets to expedite the miscarriage. Vaginal misoprostol, a prostaglandin analogue, is used to cause strong myometrial contractions leading to the expulsion of tissue. It is important to advise patients to contact their doctor if bleeding does not start within 24 hours. Antiemetics and pain relief should also be given.
Surgical management involves undergoing a surgical procedure under local or general anaesthetic. The two main options are vacuum aspiration (suction curettage) or surgical management in theatre. Vacuum aspiration is done under local anaesthetic as an outpatient, while surgical management is done in theatre under general anaesthetic. This was previously referred to as ‘Evacuation of retained products of conception’.
It is important to note that some situations are better managed with medical or surgical management, such as an increased risk of haemorrhage, being in the late first trimester, having coagulopathies or being unable to have a blood transfusion, previous adverse and/or traumatic experience associated with pregnancy, evidence of infection, and more. Ultimately, the management option chosen should be based on the individual patient’s needs and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents with painless bleeding per rectum for two days. The blood was mixed with stool every time. There was no pain or tenesmus. There has been no loss of weight.
He has never experienced these symptoms before, although he has suffered from constipation over the past three years. At the clinic, he complained of mild fever, although on examination, his temperature was normal.
He has recently returned from a trip to India where he took part in a mountain expedition to Kedarnath. He takes no drugs, with the exception of thyroxine which he has taken for the past two years.
What is the immediate management?Your Answer: Lower GI endoscopy
Correct Answer: Stool microscopy & culture
Explanation:Rectal Bleeding in a Patient with a Recent Mountain Expedition
This patient has recently returned from a mountain expedition in a tropical country, where his diet and water intake may have been irregular. As a result, he is at risk of food and water-borne infections such as amoebiasis, which can cause bloody stools. To determine the cause of the bleeding, stool tests and microscopy should be conducted before treatment is initiated.
It is important to note that laxatives should not be used until the cause of the bloody stool is identified. In cases of colonic cancer, laxatives can cause intestinal obstruction, while in conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease, they can irritate the bowel walls and worsen the condition. The patient’s history of constipation is likely due to hypothyroidism, which is being treated.
While chronic liver disease can cause rectal bleeding, there is no indication of such a condition in this patient. When bleeding is caused by piles, blood is typically found on the toilet paper and not mixed with stools. Lower GI endoscopy may be necessary if the bleeding persists, but invasive tests should only be conducted when fully justified.
Observation is not an appropriate course of action in this case. In older patients, rectal bleeding should always be taken seriously and thoroughly investigated to determine the underlying cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 2-day-old male is brought to the neonatal unit due to bilious vomiting and decreased feeding. He was delivered without complications at 32 weeks gestation. An abdominal X-ray reveals intramural gas, prompting the cessation of oral feeding and initiation of broad-spectrum antibiotics. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Intussusception
Correct Answer: Necrotising enterocolitis
Explanation:Necrotising enterocolitis can be identified by the presence of pneumatosis intestinalis on an abdominal X-ray.
Understanding Necrotising Enterocolitis
Necrotising enterocolitis is a serious condition that is responsible for a significant number of premature infant deaths. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as feeding intolerance, abdominal distension, and bloody stools. If left untreated, these symptoms can quickly progress to more severe symptoms such as abdominal discolouration, perforation, and peritonitis.
To diagnose necrotising enterocolitis, doctors often use abdominal x-rays. These x-rays can reveal a number of important indicators of the condition, including dilated bowel loops, bowel wall oedema, and intramural gas. Other signs that may be visible on an x-ray include portal venous gas, pneumoperitoneum resulting from perforation, and air both inside and outside of the bowel wall. In some cases, an x-ray may also reveal air outlining the falciform ligament, which is known as the football sign.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and diagnostic indicators of necrotising enterocolitis is crucial for early detection and treatment of this serious condition. By working closely with healthcare professionals and following recommended screening protocols, parents and caregivers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for premature infants at risk for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Correct
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A 20-year-old man was admitted to the Emergency Department after his roommate reported that he was afraid that the government had implanted a radio in his brain that was telling him to kill himself. Further evaluation revealed that he had many symptoms of schizophrenia and a decision was made to treat him with clozapine. Which statement about this drug is correct?
Your Answer: It is a alpha1-adrenoceptor antagonist
Explanation:Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Clozapine: A Multifaceted Antipsychotic Medication
Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic medication used in the treatment of schizophrenia for patients who have not responded to other medications. Its mechanism of action is complex and involves antagonistic effects on dopamine D2, 5-HT2A, alpha1-adrenoceptor, and muscarinic receptors. Clozapine’s antipsychotic action is likely mediated through a combination of antagonistic effects at D2 receptors in the mesolimbic pathway and 5-HT2A receptors in the frontal cortex. D2 antagonism relieves positive symptoms while 5-HT2A antagonism alleviates negative symptoms. However, it is important to note that clozapine has a D1 antagonist action and is not a D1 agonist. Understanding the multifaceted mechanism of action of clozapine is crucial in its effective use in the treatment of schizophrenia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You are requested to assess a 35-year-old man who has presented to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath, fever, and unusual breathing sounds for the past twelve hours. He reports having a sore throat for the past few days, which has rapidly worsened. He has no significant medical history.
Upon examination, his vital signs are as follows: respiratory rate 30/min, pulse 120 bpm, oxygen saturation 96%, temperature 39.0ºC, blood pressure 110/60 mmHg. From the end of the bed, you can observe that he is visibly struggling to breathe, has a hoarse voice, and is drooling into a container. You can hear a high-pitched wheeze during inspiration.
What would be the most appropriate course of action at this point?Your Answer: Give an immediate dose of IV dexamethasone
Correct Answer: Call the on-call anaesthetist to assess the patient for intubation
Explanation:In cases of acute epiglottitis, protecting the airway is crucial and may require endotracheal intubation. Symptoms such as high fever, sore throat, dyspnoea, change in voice, and inspiratory stridor indicate a potential airway emergency. While other treatments may be necessary, securing the airway should be the top priority, following the ABCDE management steps. IV dexamethasone can help reduce laryngeal oedema, but an anaesthetic assessment should be arranged before administering any medication. Nebulised salbutamol is ineffective in treating laryngeal narrowing caused by epiglottitis. X-rays of the neck may be used, but they can take time to organise and delay urgent airway management. Attempting to visualise the larynx without appropriate senior support and intubation capabilities is dangerous in cases of acute epiglottitis. Flexible nasendoscopy should only be performed with the presence of trained personnel who can secure the airway if necessary.
Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier. Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but x-rays may be done to rule out a foreign body.
Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those who can provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. It is important not to examine the throat if epiglottitis is suspected due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. The diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary should perform this. Treatment includes oxygen and intravenous antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What is the mechanism of action of venlafaxine for elderly patients?
Your Answer: Monoamine oxidase inhibitor
Correct Answer: Serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor
Explanation:The mechanism of action of venlafaxine involves inhibiting the reuptake of both serotonin and noradrenaline, making it a type of antidepressant known as a serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor. When choosing an antidepressant, factors such as patient preference, previous sensitization, overdose risk, and cost should be considered, although SSRIs are typically the first-line treatment due to their favorable risk-to-benefit ratio.
Understanding Serotonin and Noradrenaline Reuptake Inhibitors
Serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) are a type of antidepressant medication that work by increasing the levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the brain. These neurotransmitters are responsible for regulating mood, emotions, and anxiety levels. By inhibiting the reuptake of these chemicals, SNRIs help to maintain higher levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the synaptic cleft, which can lead to improved mood and reduced anxiety.
Examples of SNRIs include venlafaxine and duloxetine, which are commonly used to treat major depressive disorders, generalised anxiety disorder, social anxiety disorder, panic disorder, and menopausal symptoms. These medications are relatively new and have been found to be effective in treating a range of mental health conditions. SNRIs are often preferred over other types of antidepressants because they have fewer side effects and are less likely to cause weight gain or sexual dysfunction.
Overall, SNRIs are an important class of medication that can help to improve the lives of people struggling with mental health conditions. By increasing the levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the brain, these medications can help to regulate mood and reduce anxiety, leading to a better quality of life for those who take them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You are considering prescribing an antidepressant to a 75-year-old woman who has been experiencing low mood and difficulty maintaining her weight due to low appetite. Which psychiatric medication could potentially improve both her mood and appetite?
Your Answer: Sertraline
Correct Answer: Mirtazapine
Explanation:Mirtazapine may be prescribed for its beneficial side effects of increased appetite and sedation. Unlike sertraline and fluoxetine, which are SSRIs that primarily improve mood, they do not have a significant impact on appetite. Gabapentin and pregabalin, which are typically used for neuropathic pain, are not suitable for this purpose.
Mirtazapine: An Effective Antidepressant with Fewer Side Effects
Mirtazapine is an antidepressant medication that functions by blocking alpha2-adrenergic receptors, which leads to an increase in the release of neurotransmitters. Compared to other antidepressants, mirtazapine has fewer side effects and interactions, making it a suitable option for older individuals who may be more susceptible to adverse effects or are taking other medications.
Mirtazapine has two side effects that can be beneficial for older individuals who are experiencing insomnia and poor appetite. These side effects include sedation and an increased appetite. As a result, mirtazapine is typically taken in the evening to help with sleep and to stimulate appetite.
Overall, mirtazapine is an effective antidepressant that is well-tolerated by many individuals. Its unique side effects make it a valuable option for older individuals who may have difficulty sleeping or eating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 11
Correct
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In a clinical trial of statin therapy for the secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease, it was found that the therapy reduced cardiovascular mortality from 12% to 8% over a period of five years.
Assuming standard therapy as the baseline, what is the number of patients that need to be treated with statin therapy to prevent one death over five years?Your Answer: 25
Explanation:The Effectiveness of a Drug in Reducing Post-Myocardial Infarction Mortality
The drug has been found to decrease the likelihood of death after a myocardial infarction by 4% over a period of five years. This means that if 100 individuals were treated with the drug, we could expect to prevent four deaths. In other words, for every 25 people treated with the drug, one death could be prevented. This information highlights the potential benefits of this drug in reducing mortality rates in individuals who have experienced a myocardial infarction. It is important to note, however, that this drug may not be suitable for everyone and should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man comes for his 6-week post-myocardial infarction (MI) follow-up. He was discharged without medication. His total cholesterol is 9 mmol/l, with triglycerides of 1.2 mmol/l. He is a non-smoker with a blood pressure of 145/75. His father passed away from an MI at the age of 43.
What is the most suitable initial treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Dietary advice
Correct Answer: High-dose atorvastatin
Explanation:Treatment Options for a Patient with Hypercholesterolemia and Recent MI
When treating a patient with hypercholesterolemia and a recent myocardial infarction (MI), it is important to choose the most appropriate treatment option. In this case, high-dose atorvastatin is the best choice due to the patient’s high cholesterol levels and family history. It is crucial to note that medication should have been prescribed before the patient’s discharge.
While dietary advice can be helpful, it is not the most urgent treatment option. Ezetimibe would only be prescribed if a statin were contraindicated. In this high-risk patient, low-dose atorvastatin is not sufficient, and high-dose atorvastatin is required, provided it is tolerated. If cholesterol control does not improve with high-dose atorvastatin, ezetimibe can be added at a later check-up. Overall, the priority is to control the patient’s high cholesterol levels with medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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As a junior doctor in the neonatal unit, you receive a call from a nurse regarding a delivery where the baby's head has been delivered, but the shoulders are not descending with normal downward traction. What is your initial step in managing this situation?
Your Answer: Wood's screw manouvere
Correct Answer: Ask the mother to hyperflex their legs and apply suprapubic pressure
Explanation:In cases where the previous method is unsuccessful, an episiotomy may be necessary to facilitate internal maneuvers. Various alternatives may be considered, such as…
Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the fetus. Risk factors for shoulder dystocia include fetal macrosomia, high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.
If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior help immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often performed, which involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant maternal morbidity. Oxytocin administration is not indicated for shoulder dystocia.
Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury and neonatal death for the fetus. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and appropriately to minimize the risk of these complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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An older woman presents with an intermittent frontal headache associated with pain around her right eye which looks slightly red. She describes episodes occurring while she watches television in the evening, during which she sees halos around lights in the room. On examination, there is no tenderness around her temporal artery and her eye appears normal. She has normal visual acuity.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Giant cell arthritis
Correct Answer: Closed angle glaucoma
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Painful Red Eye with Headache and Visual Symptoms
When a patient presents with a painful red eye, headache, and visual symptoms, several conditions should be considered. One possible diagnosis is primary closed angle glaucoma, which can present as latent, subacute, or acute. Subacute closed angle glaucoma causes intermittent attacks with blurring of vision and halos around light sources, while acute glaucoma is more severe and requires urgent reduction in intraocular pressure. Another possible diagnosis is anterior uveitis, which presents with a persistent painful red eye and photophobia but does not cause headaches or halos in the vision.
Migraine is also an important differential, as its symptoms can be mistaken for acute glaucoma. Tension headaches are less likely, as they are not associated with visual symptoms. Finally, giant cell arthritis should be considered, especially if the patient has symptoms of claudication such as temporal headache and jaw pain when chewing food, as well as scalp tenderness and pulseless beaded temporal arteries on examination.
In summary, a painful red eye with headache and visual symptoms can have several possible causes, and a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 50-year-old male presents with sudden onset of severe headache accompanied by vomiting and photophobia. Upon examination, the patient appears distressed with a temperature of 37.5°C and a Glasgow coma scale of 15/15. His blood pressure is 146/88 mmHg. The patient exhibits marked neck stiffness and photophobia, but neurological examination is otherwise normal. What is the suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage
Explanation:Subarachnoid Haemorrhage: Symptoms, Complications, and Diagnosis
Subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a medical emergency that presents with a sudden and severe headache accompanied by meningeal irritation. Patients may also experience a slightly elevated temperature and localising signs with larger bleeds. Other symptoms include neurogenic pulmonary oedema and ST segment elevation on the ECG. Complications of SAH include recurrent bleeding, vasospasm, and stroke. Delayed complications may also arise, such as hydrocephalus due to the presence of blood in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
Imaging may not always detect the bleed, especially if it is small. Therefore, CSF analysis is crucial in suspected cases, with the presence of red blood cells confirming the diagnosis. It is important to seek immediate medical attention if SAH is suspected, as prompt diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman is admitted with central chest pain of 18 hours’ duration and shortness of breath. Her troponin is elevated, and her electrocardiogram (ECG) shows changes in leads V2–V6. While undergoing initial management in preparation for primary percutaneous coronary intervention (primary PCI), she deteriorates suddenly and goes into cardiac arrest. Efforts to resuscitate her are unsuccessful. At post-mortem, rupture of the left ventricular cardiac wall is evident at the apex.
Which is the most likely blood vessel to have been involved in the infarct?Your Answer: The right (acute) marginal artery
Correct Answer: The anterior interventricular (left anterior descending) artery
Explanation:Coronary Arteries and Their Blood Supply to the Heart
The heart is supplied with blood by the coronary arteries. There are four main coronary arteries that provide blood to different parts of the heart.
The anterior interventricular artery, also known as the left anterior descending artery, supplies blood to the apex of the heart, as well as the anterior part of the interventricular septum and adjacent anterior walls of the right and left ventricles.
The right marginal artery supplies the anteroinferior aspect of the right ventricle.
The posterior interventricular artery supplies the interventricular septum and adjacent right and left ventricles on the diaphragmatic surface of the heart, but does not reach the apex.
The circumflex artery supplies the posterolateral aspect of the left ventricle.
Finally, the conus branch of the right coronary artery supplies the outflow tract of the right ventricle.
Understanding the blood supply to different parts of the heart is important in diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman has been experiencing severe dysmenorrhoea for a prolonged period and seeks consultation at the gynaecological clinic. The consultant suspects adenomyosis as the underlying cause but wants to confirm the diagnosis and exclude other possible pathologies before initiating treatment. What is the most appropriate imaging modality for diagnosing this condition?
Your Answer: MRI Pelvis
Explanation:MRI is the most effective imaging technique for diagnosing adenomyosis, which is the presence of endometrial tissue in the myometrium. While ultrasound can also aid in diagnosis, it is not as reliable as MRI. Laparoscopy is used to diagnose endometriosis, but it cannot detect adenomyosis as it occurs within the uterine wall. CT is not a suitable imaging technique for adenomyosis as it cannot differentiate between different types of tissue. Hysterosalpingography is used for imaging the uterine lining and fallopian tubes, typically during fertility treatment, but it cannot provide an image of the myometrium.
Understanding Adenomyosis
Adenomyosis is a medical condition that occurs when endometrial tissue grows within the muscular walls of the uterus. This condition is more common in women who have had multiple pregnancies and are nearing the end of their reproductive years. Symptoms of adenomyosis include painful menstrual cramps, heavy menstrual bleeding, and an enlarged and tender uterus.
To diagnose adenomyosis, doctors typically use magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) as it is the most effective method. Treatment options for adenomyosis include managing symptoms with pain relief medication, using tranexamic acid to control heavy bleeding, and administering gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists to reduce estrogen levels. In severe cases, uterine artery embolization or hysterectomy may be necessary. Hysterectomy is considered the definitive treatment for adenomyosis.
In summary, adenomyosis is a condition that affects the uterus and can cause painful menstrual cramps, heavy bleeding, and an enlarged uterus. It is more common in women who have had multiple pregnancies and are nearing the end of their reproductive years. Diagnosis is typically done through MRI, and treatment options include managing symptoms, medication, and surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You are requested to assess a newborn on the post-natal ward 12 hours after a vaginal delivery. The midwife reports that the mother tested positive for group B streptococcus. During your examination, you observe a yellowish tint to the skin. What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?
Your Answer: Reassess after 24 hours of age
Correct Answer: Measure serum bilirubin within 2 hours
Explanation:Due to the baby’s age of less than 24 hours, there is a high risk of severe hyperbilirubinaemia. It is crucial to urgently measure their serum bilirubin levels within 2 hours, as using a transcutaneous bilirubinometer is not suitable at this stage. While phototherapy can be used to treat jaundice, it is important to first measure the serum bilirubin levels to determine if exchange transfusion is necessary. This information is based on the NICE Guideline CG98 for Jaundice in newborn babies under 28 days.
Jaundice in newborns can occur within the first 24 hours of life and is always considered pathological. The causes of jaundice during this period include rhesus and ABO haemolytic diseases, hereditary spherocytosis, and glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase deficiency. On the other hand, jaundice in neonates from 2-14 days is common and usually physiological, affecting up to 40% of babies. This type of jaundice is due to a combination of factors such as more red blood cells, fragile red blood cells, and less developed liver function. Breastfed babies are more likely to develop this type of jaundice.
If jaundice persists after 14 days (21 days for premature babies), a prolonged jaundice screen is performed. This includes tests for conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin, direct antiglobulin test, thyroid function tests, full blood count and blood film, urine for MC&S and reducing sugars, and urea and electrolytes. Prolonged jaundice can be caused by biliary atresia, hypothyroidism, galactosaemia, urinary tract infection, breast milk jaundice, prematurity, and congenital infections such as CMV and toxoplasmosis. Breast milk jaundice is more common in breastfed babies and is thought to be due to high concentrations of beta-glucuronidase, which increases the intestinal absorption of unconjugated bilirubin. Prematurity also increases the risk of kernicterus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You assess an 11-year-old girl who has been experiencing worsening constipation for the past 3 years, despite previously having regular bowel movements. All other aspects of her medical history and physical examination are unremarkable. She is not currently taking any medications.
What would be the appropriate next course of action in managing her constipation?Your Answer: Stimulant laxative
Correct Answer: Osmotic laxative
Explanation:Constipation at this age is most likely caused by dietary factors. Therefore, it is important to offer dietary guidance, such as increasing fiber and fluid consumption. Additionally, advising the individual to increase their activity level may be beneficial. As the constipation is getting worse, a laxative would be helpful. An osmotic laxative is recommended initially, as the stool is expected to be hard. A stimulant laxative may be necessary once the stool has softened.
Understanding and Managing Constipation in Children
Constipation is a common problem in children, with the frequency of bowel movements decreasing as they age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and associated distress or pain. Most cases of constipation in children are idiopathic, but other causes such as dehydration, low-fiber diet, and medication use should be considered and excluded.
If a diagnosis of constipation is made, NICE recommends assessing for faecal impaction before starting treatment. Treatment for faecal impaction involves using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes (Movicol Paediatric Plain) as the first-line treatment, with the addition of a stimulant laxative if necessary. Maintenance therapy involves a similar regime, with adjustments to the starting dose and the addition of other laxatives if necessary.
It is important to note that dietary interventions alone are not recommended as first-line treatment, although ensuring adequate fluid and fiber intake is important. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants, extra water, gentle abdominal massage, and bicycling the legs can be helpful for constipation. If these measures are not effective, lactulose can be added.
In summary, constipation in children can be managed effectively with a combination of medication, dietary adjustments, and behavioral interventions. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of difficulty in sustaining an erection. He had a heart attack 4 years ago and has been experiencing depression since then. Additionally, he has a history of uncontrolled high blood pressure. Which medication is the most probable cause of his condition?
Your Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate
Correct Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Erectile dysfunction (ED) is often caused by beta-blockers, including bisoprolol, which is likely to be taken by someone who has had a previous MI. While amlodipine can also cause ED, it is less common than bisoprolol and is often prescribed for poorly controlled hypertension. Isosorbide mononitrate does not cause ED, but patients taking it should avoid taking sildenafil at the same time due to the risk of hypotension. Mirtazapine is a rare cause of sexual dysfunction, and sertraline is typically the preferred antidepressant for post-MI patients.
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual activity. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with gradual onset of symptoms, lack of tumescence, and normal libido favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms, decreased libido, and major life events favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.
To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk, as well as free testosterone levels in the morning. If free testosterone is low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors.
For young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, referral to urology is appropriate. Additionally, people with ED who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop. Overall, ED is a common condition that can be effectively managed with appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic reporting bone pains and fatigue that have persisted for the past year. He has also experienced a gradual decline in his hearing. Upon examination, the doctor notes bossing of the skull. An X-ray of the skull reveals significant thickening of the vault with a combination of lytic and sclerotic lesions. What laboratory finding is most probable in this patient?
Your Answer: Low procollagen type I N-terminal propeptide (PINP)
Correct Answer: Raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
Explanation:Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone
Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. Predisposing factors include increasing age, male sex, northern latitude, and family history.
Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. The stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Classical, untreated features include bowing of the tibia and bossing of the skull. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, which show raised ALP, and x-rays, which reveal osteolysis in early disease and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later.
Treatment is indicated for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are the preferred treatment. Calcitonin is less commonly used now. Complications of Paget’s disease include deafness, bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years), fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.
Overall, understanding Paget’s disease of the bone is important for early diagnosis and management of symptoms and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of heavy, irregular vaginal bleeding that has been ongoing for 4 weeks and is becoming unbearable. She denies experiencing abdominal pain, unusual vaginal discharge, or dysuria. The patient has been sexually active with her partner for 6 months and had the Nexplanon implant inserted 4 weeks ago.
Upon examination, the patient's abdomen is non-tender, her heart rate is 79/min, her respiratory rate is 17/min, her blood pressure is 117/79 mmHg, her oxygen saturation is 98%, and her temperature is 37.5°C. A negative pregnancy test is obtained.
What treatment options is the GP likely to suggest to alleviate the patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Vaginal misoprostol
Correct Answer: 3-month course of the combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:To manage unscheduled bleeding, which is a common side effect of Nexplanon, a 3-month course of the combined oral contraceptive pill may be prescribed. This will not only provide additional contraception but also make periods lighter and more regular. Prescribing a progesterone-only pill is not recommended as it can also cause irregular bleeding. A single dose of intramuscular methotrexate is not appropriate as the patient is not showing any symptoms of an ectopic pregnancy. Urgent referral for endometrial cancer is also not necessary as the patient’s age and symptoms suggest that the bleeding is most likely due to the contraceptive implant.
Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progesterone hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.
The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.
There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old Bangladeshi woman visits her GP complaining of feverish feelings and pains in multiple joints that have persisted for 3 months. She used to work as a nurse in Bangladesh until 8 months ago when she moved to the UK to live with her family. She also reports unintentional weight loss. During the examination, the GP observes signs of an asymmetrical polyarthritis, erythema nodosum on both shins, and firm, enlarged, painless cervical lymph nodes. The patient undergoes several tests, including screening blood tests and joint arthrocentesis with microscopy, culture, and sensitivity (MCS). The results show anti-CCP, RF, and ANA to be negative, CRP to be 31 mg/L (< 5), and no crystals or organisms seen in the MCS joint aspiration sample. What is the most probable cause of her polyarthritis?
Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct Answer: Tuberculosis
Explanation:Tuberculosis (TB) can lead to reactive arthritis, which can present as polyarthritis. In this case, the patient’s history of being a healthcare worker in a TB-endemic area, along with symptoms such as fever, weight loss, painless lymphadenopathy, and erythema nodosum, suggest the possibility of extrapulmonary TB. While C-reactive protein (CRP) levels may be elevated in any inflammatory arthritis, negative results for anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) and rheumatoid factor (RF) autoantibodies make rheumatoid arthritis less likely. Pseudogout can be ruled out through joint aspiration, which would reveal calcium pyrophosphate crystals. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is another potential cause of polyarthritis, but the patient’s Bangladeshi origin, healthcare worker background, and painless lymphadenopathy make TB a more likely diagnosis than SLE.
Possible Causes of Polyarthritis
Polyarthritis is a condition characterized by inflammation of multiple joints. There are several possible causes of polyarthritis, including rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), seronegative spondyloarthropathies, Henoch-Schonlein purpura, sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, pseudogout, and viral infections such as Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), HIV, hepatitis, mumps, and rubella.
Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disorder that primarily affects the joints, causing pain, stiffness, and swelling. SLE is another autoimmune disease that can affect multiple organs, including the joints, skin, kidneys, and nervous system. Seronegative spondyloarthropathies are a group of inflammatory diseases that primarily affect the spine and sacroiliac joints, but can also involve other joints. Henoch-Schonlein purpura is a rare condition that causes inflammation of the blood vessels, leading to joint pain, skin rash, and abdominal pain. Sarcoidosis is a systemic disease that can affect various organs, including the joints, lungs, and eyes. Tuberculosis can also cause joint inflammation, especially in the spine. Pseudogout is a type of arthritis that is caused by the deposition of calcium pyrophosphate crystals in the joints. Finally, viral infections can cause joint pain and swelling, although this is usually a self-limited condition that resolves on its own.
In summary, polyarthritis can have various causes, ranging from autoimmune disorders to infectious diseases. A thorough evaluation by a healthcare provider is necessary to determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following interventions is most likely to be beneficial for a patient with early-onset schizophrenia?
Your Answer: Supportive psychotherapy
Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Management of Schizophrenia: NICE Guidelines
Schizophrenia is a complex mental disorder that requires careful management. In 2009, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published guidelines on the management of schizophrenia. According to these guidelines, oral atypical antipsychotics should be the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia. Additionally, cognitive behavioural therapy should be offered to all patients to help them manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
It is also important to pay close attention to cardiovascular risk-factor modification in patients with schizophrenia. This is because schizophrenic patients have high rates of cardiovascular disease, which is linked to antipsychotic medication and high smoking rates. Therefore, healthcare providers should work with patients to modify their lifestyle habits and reduce their risk of developing cardiovascular disease.
Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to managing schizophrenia. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help patients with schizophrenia achieve better outcomes and improve their overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A study is conducted to identify the risk factors associated with the development of Alzheimer's disease before the age of 60 years. A group of 100 patients with Alzheimer's disease <60 years of age is compared to a group of 80 age- and gender-matched individuals without Alzheimer's disease. The table of odds ratios for four studied risk factors is given below:
Ratio/confidence Age Family history Educational level History of head trauma
Odds ratio 4.5 3.5 0.5 1.6
95% confidence interval 0.5-8.5 1.5-5.5 0.3-1.1 1.2-2.0
What is the most significant risk factor identified in this study?Your Answer: Age
Correct Answer: Family history
Explanation:Understanding and Interpreting Odds Ratios and Confidence Intervals in Clinical Literature
Calculation of odds ratios and confidence intervals is a common practice in clinical literature to determine risk factors associated with a disease or treatment outcome. Interpreting these values accurately is crucial. If the confidence interval includes 1.0, the odds ratio is not statistically significant. A 95% confidence interval that does not include 1.0 is considered statistically significant. In a study, family history and history of head trauma were identified as potential risk factors. The odds ratio for family history was greater than that of head trauma, making it the most important risk factor. Age and educational level did not have statistically significant odds ratios. When there is insufficient data, family history remains the most important risk factor. Understanding and interpreting odds ratios and confidence intervals is essential for clinical research.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistics
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Question 26
Correct
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A 55-year-old man comes to the clinic with initial signs of COPD. He is a chain smoker and inquires about medications that can aid him in quitting smoking. Specifically, he has heard about a drug called Champix (varenicline).
What is the mechanism of action of varenicline, an anti-smoking medication?Your Answer: Is a partial agonist of the alpha4beta2 nicotinic receptor
Explanation:Therapies for Smoking Cessation
There are various therapies available for smoking cessation, including newer drugs that have been specifically developed for this purpose. One such drug is Varenicline, which is a non-nicotine drug that acts as a partial agonist of the alpha-4 beta-2 nicotinic receptor. Nicotine is a stimulant that releases dopamine in the brain, leading to addictive effects of smoking. However, nicotine replacement therapy can help replace these effects and reduce addiction to cigarette smoking. Bupropion (Zyban) is another drug that reduces the neuronal uptake of dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine. Clonidine is a second-line agent due to its side effects, but it is an a2-noradrenergic agonist that suppresses sympathetic activity. Nortriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant with mostly noradrenergic properties and appears to be effective in smoking cessation.
Overall, there are many options available for those looking to quit smoking. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action for each individual.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old man presented with weakness and fatigue. On examination, he was emaciated with a body weight of 40 kg. Blood tests revealed abnormalities including low haemoglobin, low MCV, low MCH, high platelet count, low albumin, and low calcium. His peripheral blood showed Howell-Jolly bodies. To which department should this patient be referred?
Your Answer: Hepatology Department
Correct Answer: Gastroenterology Department
Explanation:Specialty Departments and Diagnosis of Coeliac Disease
The patient presents with microcytic, hypochromic anaemia, Howell-Jolly bodies, and splenic dysfunction, along with low albumin and calcium suggestive of malabsorption and emaciation. The most likely diagnosis is coeliac disease, which can be confirmed by antibody tests and a duodenal biopsy in the Gastroenterology department. Haematology can investigate the abnormal blood count, but treatment is not within their scope. Chronic kidney or liver disease is less likely, and there are no neurological symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 11-month-old boy is admitted to hospital with an episode of rectal bleeding - the mother noticed that the child had been difficult to settle in the day, on changing the child's nappy she noted a substance which looked like redcurrant jelly in the nappy contents. A diagnosis of Meckel's diverticulum is suspected.
With regard to Meckel’s diverticulum, which one of the following statements is correct?Your Answer: It may contain ectopic tissue
Explanation:Understanding Meckel’s Diverticulum: A Congenital Abnormality of the Gastrointestinal Tract
Meckel’s diverticulum is a common congenital abnormality of the gastrointestinal tract that affects around 2-4% of the population. It is an anatomical remnant of the vitello-intestinal duct, which connects the primitive midgut to the yolk sac during fetal development. Meckel’s diverticulum can contain various types of tissue, including gastric mucosa, liver tissue, carcinoid, or lymphoid tissue. It is usually located around 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve and is commonly found adjacent to the vermiform appendix.
Symptoms of Meckel’s diverticulum can closely mimic appendicitis, and it can be a cause of bowel obstruction, perforation, and gastrointestinal bleeding. Bleeding is the most common cause of clinical presentations, and the presence of gastric mucosa is important as it can ulcerate and cause bleeding. If a normal-looking appendix is found during laparoscopy, it is important to exclude Meckel’s diverticulum as a potential cause of the patient’s symptoms. The mortality rate in untreated cases is estimated to be 2.5-15%.
Advances in imaging have made it easier to detect Meckel’s diverticulum. It can be picked up on barium imaging, computed tomography enterography, and radionuclide technetium scanning (Meckel’s scan). Selective mesenteric arteriography may also be useful in patients with negative imaging results.
In conclusion, understanding Meckel’s diverticulum is important for clinicians as it is a common congenital abnormality that can cause significant morbidity and mortality if left untreated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman has been admitted for treatment of lower extremity cellulitis. During your examination, you hear three heart sounds present across all four auscultation sites. You observe that the latter two heart sounds become more distant from each other during inspiration.
What is the physiological explanation for this phenomenon?Your Answer: Blood is being pumped against a stiff left ventricle, leading to a third heart sound
Correct Answer: Increased return to the right heart during inspiration, which prolongs closure of the pulmonary valve
Explanation:Interpretation of Heart Sounds
Explanation: When listening to heart sounds, it is important to understand the physiological and pathological factors that can affect them. During inspiration, there is an increased return of blood to the right heart, which can prolong the closure of the pulmonary valve. This is a normal physiological response. Right-to-left shunting, on the other hand, can cause cyanosis and prolong the closure of the aortic valve. A stiff left ventricle, often seen in long-standing hypertension, can produce a third heart sound called S4, but this sound does not vary with inspiration. An atrial septal defect will cause fixed splitting of S2 and will not vary with inspiration. Therefore, understanding the underlying causes of heart sounds can aid in the diagnosis and management of cardiovascular conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 40-year-old male visits his GP complaining of a painless lump in his testicle that has been present for a month. After an ultrasound, the GP refers him to the hospital for suspected testicular cancer. The patient undergoes an orchidectomy and is diagnosed with stage 1 seminoma. What is the most likely tumour marker to be elevated in this patient?
Your Answer: HCG
Explanation:Seminomas are often associated with elevated levels of LDH.
Prostate cancer is frequently accompanied by an increase in PSA.
Colorectal cancer is most commonly linked to elevated levels of CEA.
Melanomas and schwannomas often result in elevated levels of S-100.Understanding Testicular Cancer
Testicular cancer is a type of cancer that commonly affects men between the ages of 20 and 30. Germ-cell tumors are the most common type of testicular cancer, accounting for around 95% of cases. These tumors can be divided into seminomas and non-seminomas, which include embryonal, yolk sac, teratoma, and choriocarcinoma. Other types of testicular cancer include Leydig cell tumors and sarcomas. Risk factors for testicular cancer include infertility, cryptorchidism, family history, Klinefelter’s syndrome, and mumps orchitis.
The most common symptom of testicular cancer is a painless lump, although some men may experience pain. Other symptoms may include hydrocele and gynaecomastia, which occurs due to an increased oestrogen:androgen ratio. Tumor markers such as hCG, AFP, and beta-hCG may be elevated in germ cell tumors. Ultrasound is the first-line diagnostic tool for testicular cancer.
Treatment for testicular cancer depends on the type and stage of the tumor. Orchidectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy may be used. Prognosis for testicular cancer is generally excellent, with a 5-year survival rate of around 95% for seminomas and 85% for teratomas if caught at Stage I. It is important for men to perform regular self-examinations and seek medical attention if they notice any changes or abnormalities in their testicles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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