The most likely cause of her bleeding is an endometrial polyp formation due to the tamoxifen.

Tamoxifen is often prescribed to decrease risk of breast cancer recurrence in premenopausal women with oestrogen receptor-positive cancers.

As with any medication, it has known side effects, which include endometrial polyp formation, subendometrial oedema and, rarely, endometrial carcinoma.

A polyp or carcinoma can cause uterine bleeding, but a polyp is more likely to occur.

Routine endometrial thickness screening is not recommended in all women taking tamoxifen. However, in cases of abnormal bleeding, ultrasound assessment of endometrial thickness, hysteroscopy and curettage are indicated to assess the endometrium in more detail.

Tamoxifen is not associated with endometrial atrophy.

Endometrial metastasis from a breast cancer is rare, and tamoxifen would not usually induce follicular development in a woman who has had chemotherapy and resultant amenorrhoea.

The most probable cause of her presentation is a mixed infection with Chlamydia trachoma and vaginal pathogens.

Her most likely diagnosis is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) as suggested by a purulent vaginal discharge alongside a fever which indicates a systemic infection.

The most common causative organisms in PID after sexual activity are chlamydia and gonorrhoea, of which chlamydia has a much higher prevalence.

Chlamydia has also been shown to be present in about 15% of subjects who underwent pregnancy termination with no constant sexual partner.

PID occurring after a gynaecologic surgical procedure is most commonly a result of mycoplasma or vaginal pathogens.

Endometrial ablation is primarily intended to treat premenopausal women with heavy menstrual bleeding (HMB) who do not desire future fertility. Women who choose endometrial ablation often have failed or declined medical management.

Absolute contraindications to endometrial ablation include pregnancy, known or suspected endometrial hyperplasia or cancer, desire for future fertility, active pelvic infection, IUD currently in situ, and being post-menopausal. In general, endometrial ablation should be avoided in patients with congenital uterine anomalies, severe myometrial thinning, and uterine cavity lengths that exceed the capacity of the ablative technique (usually greater than 10-12 cm).

Testing for beta hCG should be the first test in this case. It will rule out any pregnancy that is strongly suspected based on the patient’s history and physical examination.

Endometriosis is found in about one-third of women undergoing laparoscopy for chronic pelvic pain. Published studies show a diagnostic delay of 8.5 years from onset of symptoms to the eventual diagnosis of endometriosis!

This means that women can suffer for 8.5 years before a diagnosis of endometriosis is made, and appropriate interventions are carried out.

All other options are true statements about endometriosis.

Fat necrosis may occur following a traumatic injury to the breast. The lump is usually firm, round, and painless.

History of heavy menstrual bleeding and amenorrhoea favour the diagnosis of a fibroid uterus. All the given responses are causes for subfertility. Ectopic pregnancy presents with abdominal pain has an acute presentation. Endometriosis and adenomyosis usually don’t present with amenorrhoea or heavy bleeding respectively. PID presents with chronic pelvic pain and is not related to menstruation.

Lichen sclerosis (LS) is a benign, chronic, progressive dermatologic condition characterized by marked inflammation, epithelial thinning, and distinctive dermal changes accompanied by symptoms of pruritus and pain.

Topical corticosteroids are the mainstay of therapy. Intralesional corticosteroid therapy is an additional option that is useful for the treatment of thick hypertrophic plaques that topical corticosteroids may not penetrate adequately.

Antibiotics or antifungals have no role in the treatment of LS since it’s not an infection.
Since histological diagnosis has already been made, there is no need to refer to dermatologist.
Surgical intervention is indicated for treatment of complications like adhesion and scarring.

Blood in the peritoneal cavity rarely causes rigidity like that of a board (this is generally only found when chemical or purulent peritonitis is present).

When there is blood, there is usually a lot of rebound soreness and a lot of guarding.

A tubal ectopic pregnancy causes discomfort and tenderness in the lower abdomen, but it is not always localised to the side of the disease.

Shock is uncommon since the diagnosis is usually recognised before there is enough blood loss to elicit such signs.

Pelvic soreness is more prevalent than a pelvic mass that may be seen on a clinical exam.
Where a mass is visible, it could be an ectopic pregnancy, but it’s more likely to be a pregnancy surrounded by a blood clot caused by a leaking ectopic pregnancy.

This patient has got thrush or a fungal infection in the vaginal area. Candida infection is most likely based on the white discharge and itching. A vaginal clotrimazole antifungal treatment is required.

Absolute contraindications to OCs include breast cancer, history of deep venous thrombosis or pulmonary embolism, active liver disease, use of rifampicin, familial hyperlipidaemia, previous arterial thrombosis, and pregnancy, while relative contraindications include smoking, age over 35, hypertension, breastfeeding, and irregular spontaneous menstruation.

The most common treatment approach is with the dopamine receptor agonists, bromocriptine, and cabergoline. Bromocriptine normalizes prolactin and decreases tumour size in 80%–90% of patients with microadenomas. Bromocriptine should be given to this patient who has developed hyperprolactinemia anovulation.

Women with hyperprolactinaemic anovulation are treated with dopamine agonists such as bromocriptine.
This patient has also developed symptoms of a low-functioning pituitary gland tumour, which bromocriptine will assist to shrink. Before starting bromocriptine, a head MRI scan should be considered to confirm the suspected diagnosis.

Clomiphene is an oestrogen receptor modulator that is selective. It works by competing with oestrogen receptors in the hypothalamus. This disrupts normal negative feedback mechanisms, causing the release of pituitary gonadotropins, particularly LH, to rise, triggering ovulation.
When the levels of gonadotropins and oestrogen are normal but the women still have ovulatory dysfunction, it is successful in inducing ovulation. In hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and hypogonadotropic hypogonadism patients, clomiphene is frequently ineffective.

If one believes that this cycle will last 35 days, the cyst in the left ovary was discovered at mid-cycle.
It’s too huge to be a ruptured pre-ovulatory follicle, and it doesn’t exhibit the characteristics of a corpus luteum, a benign cystic teratoma, or an endometrioma.

As a result, a follicular cyst is the most likely diagnosis.

A benign cyst is almost always seen on ultrasound as a unilocular, thin-walled cystic formation.

The presence of solid materials in a multiloculated cystic structure strongly suggests the presence of a malignant mass.
In a 25-year-old woman, this would be unusual, but not unheard of.

Overflow incontinence typically presents with continuous urinary leakage or dribbling in the setting of incomplete bladder emptying. Associated symptoms can include weak or intermittent urinary stream, hesitancy, frequency, and nocturia. When the bladder is very full, stress leakage can occur or low-amplitude bladder contractions can be triggered resulting in symptoms similar to stress or urgency incontinence.

Women with urgency incontinence experience the urge to void immediately preceding or accompanied by involuntary leakage of urine

Individuals with stress incontinence have involuntary leakage of urine that occurs with increases in intraabdominal pressure (e.g., with exertion, sneezing, coughing, laughing) in the absence of a bladder contraction.

The levels of oestradiol (E2), progesterone, and prolactin (PRL) are all elevated during early pregnancy. However these elevations cannot be solely relied on to determine if pregnancy has occurred since increased levels of these hormones can also occur in pathologic states in non-pregnant women or, in some cases, even during menstrual cycles.

The levels of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) are suppressed in pregnancy because of the elevated E2 and progesterone levels.

The correct answer is elevated levels of luteinising hormone (LH). This is because the beta sub-units of LH and human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) are almost identical and therefore, hCG is measured as LH in almost all LH assays (correct answer).

The LH levels can be slightly raised in polycystic ovarian syndrome; however, it is unlikely that the levels would increase above 30 mIU/mL in this condition.

The mid-cycle levels of LH can go up to 100-150 mIU/mL. If the levels are more than 200 mlU/mL, it usually indicates pregnancy.

There are no interactions between the combined oral contraceptive pill, progesterone-only pill, medroxyprogesterone injections or levonorgestrel implants and the AEDs valproic acid (sodium valproate), vigabatrin, lamotrigine, gabapentin, tiagabine, levetiracetam, zonisamide, ethosuximide and the benzodiazepines. So she can use COCP along with Sodium valproate.

The management of low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (LSIL) on cervical cytology in women ages 25 years or older depends upon whether the patient underwent high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) testing.

Women in this age group comprise two different populations in terms of cervical cancer screening strategies. Professional organizations recommend that women ages 25 to 29 years be screened with cytology alone, while women 30 years or older should be screened with cytology and HPV co-testing. Thus, the American Society for Colposcopy and Cervical Pathology (ASCCP) prefers that women ages 25 to 29 years are not managed based upon HPV results, even if an HPV test was performed at the time of screening. For women with ages 30 years or older and HPV positive, colposcopy must be performed.

Trichomoniasis is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by a parasite. In women, trichomoniasis can cause a foul-smelling vaginal discharge which might be white, grey, yellow or green, genital itching and painful urination.

This patient presents with secondary amenorrhea, a condition diagnosed in patients with – 3 months of absence of menstruation when they had regular menstruation previously or absence of menstruation for 9 months in a patient who had oligomenorrhea- This differs from primary amenorrhea, which is defined as absence of menstrual periods in a female by the age 16 when she has other secondary sexual characteristics or absence of menstrual periods by the age of 14 when she does not have any other secondary sexual characteristics.

In female patients of child-bearing age, the initial test in evaluating secondary amenorrhea is the pregnancy test. This test has been done in this patient and it is negative- The next step in evaluation in this patient should be serum TSH and prolactin level measurements. Thyroid disease and pituitary pathologies are some of the most common causes of secondary amenorrhea- If these tests were to be found normal, the progesterone challenge test would be the following test as this allows evaluation whether amenorrhea is due to progesterone deficiency in a patient with normal oestrogen levels.

→ Order FSH and LH level is incorrect. These studies are done if the progesterone withdrawal test is negative but the oestrogen-progesterone challenge test is positive; however, the patient should first have TSH and prolactin level measured; the progesterone withdrawal test is only done if TSH and prolactin are normal.
→ Order a progesterone withdrawal test is incorrect. As explained above, this test is ordered if TSH and prolactin levels are normal in a patient suspected to have secondary amenorrhea.
→ Order pelvic ultrasound is incorrect. This study is more important in primary amenorrhea evaluation as it can help confirm the presence or absence of a uterus. This patient who has had menstrual periods before does certainly have a uterus.
→ Order brain MRI is incorrect. Given how expensive this study is, it should not be done before prolactin levels are found to be significantly high, raising suspicion of a pituitary pathology.

Her most likely diagnosis would be an ovarian carcinoma. Any palpable adnexal mass in a post-menopausal woman is a red flag for an ovarian malignancy and should be assumed so until proven otherwise.

Endometrial cancer typically presents with a post-menopausal bleed and although there might be uterine enlargement, an adnexal mass is generally absent.

It is very rare for follicular cysts to develop following menopause and it is uncommon for post-menopausal women to have a benign ovarian tumour, which is more common in younger women. A degenerating leiomyoma would be unlikely in this case, especially since her pelvic examination three years ago was normal (no history of leiomyoma noted).