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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old woman complains of a yellowish-green frothy offensive vaginal discharge that started...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman complains of a yellowish-green frothy offensive vaginal discharge that started one week ago. On examination, her vagina is erythematous. She also has dysuria and dyspareunia.
      What is the most suitable diagnostic method in General Practice?

      Your Answer: Vaginal pH test

      Correct Answer: Culture of a vaginal swab

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Methods for Trichomoniasis in Women

      Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Trichomonas vaginalis. In women, it can cause symptoms such as vaginal discharge, itching, and pain during sex. To diagnose trichomoniasis, several diagnostic methods are available.

      Culture of a vaginal swab is the standard for diagnosis. It is more sensitive and specific than microscopy. Swab specimens may be obtained by the patient, making it useful in resource-poor settings. The GP may also consider testing for other sexually transmitted diseases such as chlamydia and gonorrhoea.

      Cervical smear has a low sensitivity for detecting Trichomonas and is not used for this purpose. The ‘whiff test’ (amine odour test) and vaginal pH test are not accurate means of diagnosing trichomoniasis as they may also indicate bacterial vaginosis.

      Wet-mount microscopy has historically been used to diagnose trichomoniasis in women. However, it has a low sensitivity in detecting T vaginalis and specimens have to be examined fresh.

      In conclusion, culture of a vaginal swab is the most reliable method for diagnosing trichomoniasis in women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 2 - A 27-year-old woman presents for cervical cancer screening and her results indicate positive...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman presents for cervical cancer screening and her results indicate positive high-risk HPV and low-grade dyskaryosis on cytology. What should be the next course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer for colposcopy

      Explanation:

      If a patient’s cervical cancer screening sample is positive for high-risk HPV and shows cytological abnormalities, the next step according to guidelines is to refer the patient for a colposcopy. During this procedure, the cervix is closely examined to identify any disease. If significant abnormalities are found, loop excision of the transformation zone may be necessary.

      Returning the patient to normal recall is not appropriate as further investigation is required. Repeating the sample in 3 months is also not necessary as the patient has high-risk HPV and needs specialist assessment. However, repeating the sample in 12 months could be considered if the patient has high-risk HPV with normal cytological findings after colposcopy.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening Results

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved significantly in recent years, with the introduction of HPV testing allowing for further risk stratification. The NHS now uses an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.

      If the hrHPV test is negative, individuals can return to normal recall, unless they fall under the test of cure pathway, untreated CIN1 pathway, or require follow-up for incompletely excised cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) / stratified mucin producing intraepithelial lesion (SMILE) or cervical cancer. If the hrHPV test is positive, samples are examined cytologically, and if the cytology is abnormal, individuals will require colposcopy.

      If the cytology is normal but the hrHPV test is positive, the test is repeated at 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is normal, a further repeat test is done 12 months later. If the hrHPV test is negative at 24 months, individuals can return to normal recall, but if it is still positive, they will require colposcopy. If the sample is inadequate, it will need to be repeated within 3 months, and if two consecutive samples are inadequate, colposcopy will be required.

      For individuals who have previously had CIN, they should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample in the community 6 months after treatment. The most common treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ), which may be done during the initial colposcopy visit or at a later date depending on the individual clinic. Cryotherapy is an alternative technique.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 3 - A 78-year-old man comes to the clinic with a change in his behaviour,...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man comes to the clinic with a change in his behaviour, his wife has also noticed a few aggressive outbursts over the past months. His mini-mental test score is 20.
      Which patterns of cognitive deficit would favour a dementia of subcortical origin?

      Your Answer: Preserved verbal fluency

      Correct Answer: Reduced verbal output

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Differences between Cortical and Subcortical Dementia

      Dementia is a debilitating condition that affects millions of people worldwide. While there are many different types of dementia, two of the most common are cortical and subcortical dementia. Understanding the differences between these two types of dementia can be helpful in diagnosing and treating the condition.

      Cortical dementia is caused by damage to the cerebral cortex, which is the outer layer of the brain. This area is responsible for memory and language, so patients with cortical dementia often experience severe memory loss and difficulty with language. Alzheimer’s, frontotemporal dementia, and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease are all common causes of cortical dementia.

      Subcortical dementia, on the other hand, is caused by damage to areas beneath the cortex and disruption in the frontostriatal connections. This can result in early frontal lobe problems such as planning difficulties, poor verbal fluency, personality change, and task switching. While complex motor functions are typically preserved in subcortical dementia, patients may experience psychomotor slowing, reduced verbal output, and reduced alertness. Parkinson’s disease, vascular dementia, and multiple sclerosis are all common causes of subcortical dementia.

      It’s important to note that the distinction between cortical and subcortical dementia is not always clear-cut, and as the condition progresses, patients may experience symptoms of both types of dementia. However, understanding the differences between these two types of dementia can be helpful in identifying the underlying cause of the condition and developing an appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 4 - A 40-year-old wrestler presents with complaints of increased thirst and frequent urination. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old wrestler presents with complaints of increased thirst and frequent urination. A urine dip reveals low specific gravity and no other abnormalities, and cultures come back negative. The recent venous blood gas results are as follows:

      - Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 3.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Glucose 3.9 mmol/L (3.6 - 5.3)
      - Creatinine 60 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - Bicarbonate 27 mmol/L (22 - 29)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Type I diabetes

      Correct Answer: Diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Consider diabetes insipidus as the possible diagnosis for a patient presenting with polyuria and polydipsia, along with low potassium levels and no evidence of diabetes mellitus. The patient being a boxer may suggest head trauma, which is one of the potential causes of cranial diabetes insipidus. In this condition, urine cannot be effectively concentrated due to damage to the cranial source of ADH. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, on the other hand, occurs when the kidneys do not respond to ADH appropriately.

      Addison’s disease is less likely as it would not cause increased urination, and the patient would try to preserve water to compensate for dehydration. Additionally, Addison’s disease would cause elevated potassium levels and is unlikely without abdominal pain, nausea, or vomiting.

      Cushing’s disease is not the most likely diagnosis as the patient doesn’t present with the classical signs and symptoms such as central obesity, moon face, buffalo hump, psychological problems, and glucose intolerance.

      Type I diabetes is unlikely as there is no glucose in the urine and normal glucose on VBG. Onset of type I diabetes at the age of 42 is also uncommon.

      Diabetes insipidus is a medical condition that can be caused by either a decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from the pituitary gland (cranial DI) or an insensitivity to ADH (nephrogenic DI). Cranial DI can be caused by various factors such as head injury, pituitary surgery, and infiltrative diseases like sarcoidosis. On the other hand, nephrogenic DI can be caused by genetic factors, electrolyte imbalances, and certain medications like lithium and demeclocycline. The common symptoms of DI are excessive urination and thirst. Diagnosis is made through a water deprivation test and checking the osmolality of the urine. Treatment options include thiazides and a low salt/protein diet for nephrogenic DI, while central DI can be treated with desmopressin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      2.2
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  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old ex-smoker presents with worsening shortness of breath. You can see from...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old ex-smoker presents with worsening shortness of breath. You can see from his records that over the last couple of months, he has had three courses of antibiotics for chest infections. He confirms that despite the recent treatments his symptoms have persisted and he continues to bring up sputum. He tells you that he has come to see you today because over the last week he has felt more unwell with increased shortness of breath, headache and dizziness.

      On examination, he has obvious oedema of the face and upper body with facial plethora. There is marked venous distention affecting the upper chest and face. Soft stridor is audible.

      What is the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Asbestosis

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolism

      Explanation:

      Superior Vena Caval Obstruction (SVCO)

      Superior Vena Caval Obstruction (SVCO) is a condition where there is a blockage of blood flow in the superior vena cava. This can be caused by external compression or thrombosis within the vein. The most common cause of SVCO is malignancy, particularly lung cancer and lymphoma. Benign causes include intrathoracic goitre and granulomatous conditions such as sarcoidosis.

      The typical features of SVCO include facial and upper body oedema, facial plethora, venous distention, and increased shortness of breath. Other symptoms may include dizziness, syncope, and headache due to pressure effect. This gentleman is an ex-smoker and has a persistent productive cough that has not responded to repeated antibiotic use, which is suspicious of an underlying lung malignancy.

      Prompt recognition of SVCO on clinical grounds is crucial, and immediate referral for specialist assessment is necessary. If there is any stridor or laryngeal oedema, SVCO becomes a medical emergency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      1.5
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  • Question 6 - A 42-year-old woman presents to her general practice surgery following two episodes of...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to her general practice surgery following two episodes of sudden-onset limb paralysis at night, which have occurred over the last four months. She describes waking shortly after falling asleep and being unable to move her limbs or to speak. This is associated with a feeling of suffocation that lasts for about one minute. She has no other symptoms other than daytime sleepiness which she has attributed to her busy work schedule. Her father recently died from an intracranial haemorrhage during his sleep.
      On examination, no abnormalities are observed.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Narcolepsy

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Transient Limb Paralysis with Sleep Paralysis

      Transient limb paralysis with sleep paralysis can be a frightening experience for patients. However, it can be caused by a variety of conditions, making it important to consider a differential diagnosis. One possible cause is narcolepsy, which presents with a tetrad of classic symptoms including excessive daytime sleepiness, cataplexy, hypnagogic hallucinations, and sleep paralysis. Brainstem transient ischaemic attack (TIA) can also cause vertigo, dizziness, and imbalance, but not episodic limb paralysis. Cervical disc prolapse (CDP) typically produces neck and arm pain or symptoms of spinal cord compression, which are not transient. Depression and anxiety may cause feelings of suffocation during a panic attack, but no other symptoms are described in this patient. Nocturnal seizures, which occur during sleep, may cause unusual conditions upon awakening, but transient limb paralysis is not typically a feature. Considering these potential causes can help clinicians arrive at an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
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  • Question 7 - Among the following options, which one has the most substantial evidence supporting the...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following options, which one has the most substantial evidence supporting the benefits of acupuncture?

      Your Answer: Smoking cessation

      Correct Answer: Tension headache

      Explanation:

      Exploring the Benefits of Acupuncture: Cochrane Reviews

      Cochrane reviews have extensively examined the potential benefits of acupuncture in various medical conditions. However, most of these reviews have concluded that there is insufficient evidence to support the use of acupuncture and that further high-quality research is necessary. This applies to conditions such as asthma, depression, irritable bowel syndrome, and smoking cessation.

      Nonetheless, Cochrane reviews suggest that acupuncture may be a valuable non-pharmacological tool for patients with frequent episodic or chronic tension-type headaches. Studies also indicate that acupuncture may be as effective as, or even more effective than, prophylactic drug treatment for migraines, with fewer adverse effects.

      Other areas where acupuncture has shown positive results include chronic neck pain, chronic low back pain, in vitro fertilisation, nausea and vomiting during chemotherapy, and postoperative nausea. Despite the need for further research, these findings suggest that acupuncture may have potential benefits in certain medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You are consulted by a 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes diagnosed for...

    Incorrect

    • You are consulted by a 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes diagnosed for one year.

      His blood pressure is 156/88 mmHg, his cholesterol is 5.3 mmol/L (<5.2), he has a BMI of 29 kg/m2 and doesn't smoke. His HbA1c is 63 mmol/mol (20-42), he currently takes only metformin 500 mg bd.

      What is the single intervention most likely to reduce his overall risk of both microvascular and macrovascular events?

      Your Answer: Aspirin therapy

      Correct Answer: Antihypertensive therapy

      Explanation:

      Management of Micro and Macrovascular Complications in Diabetes

      Trials have shown that antihypertensive therapy is effective in reducing the risk of cardiovascular events and microvascular complications in patients with diabetes. However, the intensity of treatment is currently under debate. Lowering HbA1c only results in a significant reduction in microvascular events, and in some trials, after a longer period, it shows cardiovascular benefit. However, the trial showed an excess of deaths in the intensive glycaemic control arm, perhaps because the intensification occurred later in the course of the disease when cardiovascular disease was present, putting participants at increased risk from hypoglycemia.

      Lipid-lowering therapy benefits patients with diabetes as much as those without diabetes in preventing macrovascular events in subgroup analyses but has no effect on microvascular events demonstrated so far. Adding fibrate may have an effect on retinopathy (FIELDS). The jury is out on aspirin as the ADA recommends prescribing only to high-risk patients, but NICE had recommended all normotensive patients over 50 (men) or 60 (women), they now also agree with risk stratification.

      Weight reduction may reduce progression to overt diabetes from states of impaired glucose tolerance but has not been demonstrated to reduce microvascular risk in diabetes. The best evidence for reducing both micro and macrovascular complications is multifactorial intensive therapy, as in the Steno studies from Denmark. However, in this question, as worded, BP is the simplest answer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      0.6
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  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old woman who is morbidly obese comes to the clinic as she...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who is morbidly obese comes to the clinic as she wishes to lose weight. She asks about the calorie content of common foods.
      Which of the following foods contains the highest number of calories?

      Your Answer: Orange juice unsweetened 140ml

      Correct Answer: Cheddar cheese 100g

      Explanation:

      Caloric and Fat Content of Selected Foods

      When it comes to watching our calorie and fat intake, it’s important to be mindful of the foods we consume. Here’s a breakdown of the caloric and fat content of some common foods:

      Cheddar Cheese 100g
      This amount of cheddar cheese contains a whopping 413 kcal and 34g of fat, making it the highest in both categories compared to the other foods listed.

      Banana 100g
      A 100g banana contains 95 kcal and is a great source of potassium and fiber.

      Cornflakes 30g
      A 30g serving of cornflakes with 125 ml of semi-skimmed milk contains 173 kcal and 2.5g of fat.

      Orange Juice Unsweetened 140ml
      140 ml of unsweetened orange juice contains roughly 50 kcal. While it’s important to be mindful of sugar intake, consuming a small glass of fruit juice each day can count towards our recommended daily intake of fruits and vegetables.

      Plain Scone 48g
      A plain scone weighing 48g contains around 173 kcal and 7g of fat. It’s important to enjoy treats in moderation and balance them with healthier options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      1.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of vaginal itching and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of vaginal itching and pain while urinating. She reports that these symptoms are interfering with her daily life, particularly during sexual intercourse. She has noticed a change in the appearance of her discharge, which now has a curd-like texture, but there is no change in odor. She is concerned that she may have contracted an STI. She denies any increase in urinary frequency or urgency. She has no significant medical history but had an IUD inserted six months ago.

      What is the most appropriate method for diagnosing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Based on symptoms

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of vaginal candidiasis doesn’t necessarily require a high vaginal swab if the symptoms are highly indicative of the condition. According to NICE guidelines, if a patient presents with classic symptoms such as thick-white discharge, dysuria, itching, and dyspareunia, objective testing is not necessary to confirm the diagnosis. Therefore, the patient can be prescribed oral fluconazole without the need for a swab.

      It is incorrect to assume that a healthcare professional or self-collected high vaginal swab is necessary for diagnosis. As mentioned earlier, the patient’s symptoms are highly suggestive of candidiasis, making a swab unnecessary.

      Similarly, a mid-stream urine sample for sensitivities is not appropriate in this case. This type of test would be more suitable if the patient had symptoms indicative of a urinary tract infection. However, since the patient denies urinary urgency and frequency, a UTI is unlikely. The change in discharge consistency, which is characteristic of vaginal candidiasis, further supports this diagnosis. Therefore, a urine sample is not required.

      Vaginal candidiasis, commonly known as ‘thrush’, is a prevalent condition that many women self-diagnose and treat. Candida albicans is responsible for 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain conditions such as diabetes mellitus, drug use (antibiotics, steroids), pregnancy, and immunosuppression (HIV) may increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, dyspareunia, dysuria, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions.

      Routine high vaginal swabs are not necessary if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommends oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose as the first-line treatment. If oral therapy is contraindicated, a single dose of clotrimazole 500 mg intravaginal pessary may be used. If vulval symptoms are present, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments such as cream or pessaries, as oral treatments are not recommended.

      Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and the diagnosis of candidiasis should be confirmed. A high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture may be necessary, and a blood glucose test should be performed to exclude diabetes. Differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should also be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime may be used, consisting of oral fluconazole every three days for three doses as induction, followed by oral fluconazole weekly for six months as maintenance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology And Breast (0/2) 0%
Neurology (0/2) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Health (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/1) 100%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Passmed