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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old farmer with a history of depression arrives at the emergency department complaining of blurred vision, runny nose, watery eyes, diarrhoea, and vomiting. The patient admits to ingesting a pesticide in an attempt to commit suicide. What other clinical manifestations should be anticipated in this individual?
Your Answer: Dilated pupils
Correct Answer: Bradycardia
Explanation:This individual is displaying symptoms consistent with organophosphate poisoning, which is a type of pesticide. Organophosphate pesticides work by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase, which affects the nervous system. This causes an accumulation of acetylcholine at nerve synapses and neuromuscular junctions, resulting in excessive stimulation of muscarinic and nicotinic receptors. As a result, bradycardia is a common symptom. The recommended treatment for organophosphate poisoning is atropine, which should be administered every 10-20 minutes until secretions dry up and the heart rate increases to 80-90 beats per minute.
The options of dilated pupils, dry mouth, and hallucinations are incorrect. Organophosphate poisoning typically causes miosis (constricted pupils) due to overstimulation of the parasympathetic system, excessive secretions including salivation, bronchial secretions, diarrhea, and vomiting. While confusion, agitation, and coma may occur in severe cases, hallucinations are not a common symptom.
Understanding Organophosphate Insecticide Poisoning
Organophosphate insecticide poisoning is a condition that occurs when there is an accumulation of acetylcholine in the body, leading to the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase. This, in turn, causes an upregulation of nicotinic and muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission. In warfare, sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound that has similar effects. The symptoms of organophosphate poisoning can be remembered using the mnemonic SLUD, which stands for salivation, lacrimation, urination, and defecation/diarrhea. Other symptoms include hypotension, bradycardia, small pupils, and muscle fasciculation.
The management of organophosphate poisoning involves the use of atropine, which helps to counteract the effects of acetylcholine. However, the role of pralidoxime in the treatment of this condition is still unclear. Meta-analyses conducted to date have failed to show any clear benefit of pralidoxime in the management of organophosphate poisoning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 46-year-old woman who is passionate about health and fitness visits your GP clinic. She reports experiencing weight loss, increased thirst, and frequent urination. A urine dip test shows glucosuria, and her blood work indicates an HBA1c level of 63 mmol/mol. She mentions that her aunt passed away due to a pancreas problem. Despite receiving treatment for newly diagnosed diabetes, she still complains of weight loss. What factors should you take into account?
Your Answer: CT scan
Explanation:If a person develops new onset diabetes at the age of 56 and has a strong interest in health and fitness, it is unlikely that they have type 2 diabetes. Therefore, it may be necessary to investigate secondary causes of pancreatic insufficiency, such as pancreatic cancer. In such cases, a CT scan is the most appropriate diagnostic tool, while abdominal X-ray and ultrasound are unlikely to be helpful. Repeating the urine dip test is not likely to provide any additional information, and delaying treatment by repeating blood tests in 120 days would be inappropriate. This person should be treated promptly, as they are symptomatic with an HBA1c level of over 48mmol.
Understanding Pancreatic Cancer: Risk Factors, Symptoms, and Management
Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its non-specific symptoms. Adenocarcinomas, which occur at the head of the pancreas, make up over 80% of pancreatic tumors. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and genetic mutations such as BRCA2 and KRAS.
Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, pruritus, anorexia, weight loss, epigastric pain, loss of exocrine and endocrine function, and atypical back pain. Migratory thrombophlebitis, also known as Trousseau sign, is more common in pancreatic cancer than in other cancers.
Diagnosis of pancreatic cancer can be made through ultrasound or high-resolution CT scanning, which may show the double duct sign – simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts. However, less than 20% of patients are suitable for surgery at diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection, or pancreaticoduodenectomy, may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas. Adjuvant chemotherapy is usually given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.
In summary, pancreatic cancer is a serious disease with non-specific symptoms that can be difficult to diagnose. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms can help with early detection and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 3
Correct
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A 4-year-old boy is brought to see his General Practitioner by his mother who is concerned that he has had diarrhoea for three days. He has been experiencing 2–3 loose, watery stools every day. He has also vomited twice at the onset of the illness but not since.
On examination, he is afebrile and well hydrated. His abdomen is soft and nontender. The family recently returned from a trip to Australia. While away, the patient was admitted to hospital for two days with a lower respiratory tract infection.
Which of the patient’s features is most likely to indicate the need for a stool sample for culture and sensitivity?
Select the SINGLE factor from the list below.Your Answer: The recent hospital admission
Explanation:Assessing the Need for Stool Culture in a Child with Gastroenteritis
Gastroenteritis is a common illness characterized by diarrhea, abdominal pain, and nausea. In most cases, it is caused by a viral, bacterial, or parasitic infection and is self-limiting. However, recent hospital admission or antibiotic treatment can increase the risk of Clostridium difficile toxin as the cause, making stool culture necessary. Additionally, patients who have recently traveled to certain countries or are under the age of five and attend nursery, pre-school, or school may require stool culture. If symptoms persist beyond seven days or if there is blood or mucus in the stool, stool samples should be taken. Vomiting is not a red-flag feature unless it leads to dehydration. Parents should be given safety-net advice on when to seek further medical attention if their child’s condition worsens.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 4
Incorrect
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As a physician on an elderly care ward, you are tasked with conducting a cognitive assessment of Harold, an 82-year-old man who is suspected of having dementia. After administering the Addenbrooke's Cognitive Exam-3 (ACE-3), Harold scores 68 out of 100 with a global deficit in all domains tested. Based on this information, what condition do you suspect Harold may have?
Your Answer: Vascular dementia
Correct Answer: Alzheimer's dementia
Explanation:The Addenbrookes Cognitive Exam (ACE-3) is a reliable tool for detecting dementia, with a score of 82 or less indicating a strong likelihood of dementia. The exam assesses five domains: Memory, Attention, Fluency, Language, and Visuospatial. Alzheimer’s dementia typically results in a global deficit across all domains, with later deficits in memory and attention due to damage in the medial temporal lobe. Frontotemporal dementia primarily affects fluency and language due to damage in the frontal lobe. Vascular dementia deficits vary depending on the location and severity of previous strokes, and there is no consistent pattern seen in ACE-3 examinations. Mild cognitive impairment (MCI) is a precursor to many forms of dementia, with an ACE-3 score of 82-88 indicating MCI. In this scenario, the patient’s score of 68 rules out MCI as a diagnosis.
Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that gradually worsens over time and is the most common form of dementia in the UK. The risk factors for Alzheimer’s disease include increasing age, family history of the disease, and certain genetic mutations. Inherited forms of the disease are caused by mutations in the amyloid precursor protein, presenilin 1, and presenilin 2 genes. Additionally, the apoprotein E allele E4 and Caucasian ethnicity are also risk factors for Alzheimer’s disease.
The pathological changes associated with Alzheimer’s disease include widespread cerebral atrophy, particularly in the cortex and hippocampus. Microscopically, cortical plaques and intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles are present due to the deposition of type A-Beta-amyloid protein and abnormal aggregation of the tau protein. The hyperphosphorylation of the tau protein has been linked to Alzheimer’s disease. Furthermore, there is a deficit of acetylcholine due to damage to an ascending forebrain projection.
Neurofibrillary tangles are partly made from a protein called tau, which interacts with tubulin to stabilize microtubules and promote tubulin assembly into microtubules. In Alzheimer’s disease, tau proteins are excessively phosphorylated, impairing their function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man presented to the eye clinic with double vision. He has been experiencing this for the past few weeks. During examination, it was observed that he had horizontal diplopia and slight limitation of one of the extraocular muscles in his left eye. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and prostate cancer. Brain imaging revealed a metastatic lesion in the clivus that surrounds the cavernous sinus and carotid artery. Which cranial nerve palsy is responsible for the diplopia in this patient?
Your Answer: Right sixth cranial nerve (CN6) palsy
Correct Answer: Left sixth cranial nerve (CN6) palsy
Explanation:Understanding the 12 Cranial Nerves and their Functions
The human body has 12 pairs of cranial nerves that originate from the brainstem and control various functions such as movement, sensation, and reflexes. Each nerve has a specific function and pathway, and damage to any of these nerves can result in various clinical symptoms.
Some of the important functions of these nerves include smell (olfactory nerve), sight (optic nerve), eye movement (oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves), facial sensation and mastication (trigeminal nerve), facial movement and taste (facial nerve), hearing and balance (vestibulocochlear nerve), taste and swallowing (glossopharyngeal nerve), phonation and innervation of viscera (vagus nerve), head and shoulder movement (accessory nerve), and tongue movement (hypoglossal nerve).
In addition to their primary functions, some of these nerves also play a role in various reflexes such as the corneal reflex, jaw jerk reflex, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and pathways of these cranial nerves is essential for diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man visits his General Practitioner complaining of a severely painful headache mainly around his left eye, associated with left-sided eye watering. He has had several similar episodes of pain over the past few months, each lasting about 2–3 hours.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Giant cell arteritis (GCA)
Correct Answer: Cluster headache
Explanation:Distinguishing Cluster Headache from Other Headache Disorders
Cluster headache is a severe headache disorder that primarily affects men between the ages of 20 and 30. The pain is localized around one eye and can last from a few minutes up to three hours. Lacrimation and nasal congestion may occur simultaneously, and symptoms tend to occur frequently for several weeks followed by a symptom-free period lasting months or even years. It is important to distinguish cluster headache from other headache disorders, such as brain tumors, giant cell arteritis (GCA), migraine, and tension headache. Brain tumors may present with signs of raised intracranial pressure, while GCA typically affects those over 50 years old and presents with abrupt-onset headache, scalp pain/tenderness, and jaw claudication. Migraine is characterized by recurrent episodes of headache accompanied by photophobia, phonophobia, nausea, and vomiting, while tension headache is typically bilateral and described as a band-like pain across the forehead. Associated eye watering is not a feature of tension headache.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male with a history of COPD and hypertension complains of pain while swallowing. The patient is currently taking a salbutamol and beclomethasone inhaler, bendroflumethiazide, and amlodipine. What could be the possible reason for this symptom?
Your Answer: Myasthenia gravis precipitated by bendroflumethiazide
Correct Answer: Oesophageal candidiasis
Explanation:Oesophageal candidiasis, a known complication of inhaled steroid therapy, often presents with pain while swallowing (odynophagia).
Understanding Dysphagia and its Causes
Dysphagia, or difficulty in swallowing, can be caused by various conditions affecting the esophagus, such as oesophageal cancer, oesophagitis, oesophageal candidiasis, achalasia, pharyngeal pouch, systemic sclerosis, and myasthenia gravis. Each condition has its own characteristic features, which can help in identifying the underlying cause of dysphagia. For instance, dysphagia associated with weight loss, anorexia, or vomiting during eating may indicate oesophageal cancer, while dysphagia of both liquids and solids from the start may suggest achalasia.
To determine the cause of dysphagia, patients usually undergo an upper GI endoscopy, which allows doctors to examine the esophagus and detect any abnormalities. Fluoroscopic swallowing studies may also be done to evaluate motility disorders. Additionally, a full blood count and ambulatory oesophageal pH and manometry studies may be required for certain conditions.
It’s important to note that new-onset dysphagia is a red flag symptom that requires urgent endoscopy, regardless of age or other symptoms. Therefore, understanding the different causes of dysphagia and their characteristic features can aid in prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Sarah, a 5-year-old child visits the allergy clinic with her parents. She has a confirmed milk protein allergy and her parents are interested in using the milk ladder to manage it. Which food item would be suitable to gradually introduce?
Your Answer: Yoghurt
Correct Answer: Malted milk biscuits
Explanation:Children with cows milk protein allergy can use the milk ladder to reintroduce milk protein after they turn 6 months old.
To gradually introduce milk, the milk ladder starts with cooked or baked milk. The process begins with malted milk biscuits and then progresses in a step-by-step manner towards pasteurised milk.
Understanding Cow’s Milk Protein Intolerance/Allergy
Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects around 3-6% of children, typically presenting in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants. Both immediate and delayed reactions can occur, with CMPA used for immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms include regurgitation, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms, wheeze, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis. Diagnosis is often clinical, with investigations including skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein.
Management for formula-fed infants includes using extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk as the first-line replacement formula for mild-moderate symptoms and amino acid-based formula (AAF) for severe CMPA or if no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should eliminate cow’s milk protein from their diet and consider prescribing calcium supplements to prevent deficiency. eHF milk can be used when breastfeeding stops until at least 6 months and up to 12 months of age.
The prognosis for CMPI is usually good, with most children becoming milk tolerant by the age of 3-5 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur. It is important to refer infants with severe symptoms to a pediatrician for management. Understanding CMPI/CMPA and its management can help parents and healthcare providers provide appropriate care for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Correct
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A 42-year-old construction worker is referred by his family doctor with chronic upper abdominal pain on the right side. He admits to drinking a six-pack of beer every night after work. Over the past year, he has lost about 9 kg (1.5 stone) in weight, and his wife says that he often skips meals in favor of alcohol. He has occasional diarrhea, which he describes as greasy and difficult to flush away. Physical examination reveals a lean man with tenderness upon deep palpation in the right upper quadrant. Blood testing reveals mild normochromic/normocytic anaemia and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level raised to twice the upper limit of normal. Amylase and anti-gliadin antibodies are normal. Upper abdominal ultrasound is performed and there is diffuse pancreatic calcification, but nothing else of note.
Which diagnosis best fits this clinical picture?Your Answer: Chronic pancreatitis
Explanation:Chronic pancreatitis is a condition where the pancreas undergoes ongoing inflammation, resulting in irreversible changes. The most common symptom is recurring abdominal pain, often in the mid or upper left abdomen, accompanied by weight loss and diarrhea. Imaging tests can reveal inflammation or calcium deposits in the pancreas, and pancreatic calcifications are considered a telltale sign of chronic pancreatitis. Excessive alcohol consumption is the leading cause of this condition, as it can cause blockages in the pancreatic ducts and stimulate inflammation.
Pancreatic carcinoma is a type of cancer that typically affects individuals over the age of 50. Symptoms are often vague and non-specific, such as fatigue, nausea, and mid-epigastric or back pain. Obstructive jaundice is a common symptom, with elevated levels of bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, and gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase. Ultrasound is often used for diagnosis, but it may not reveal the extent of the cancer.
Acute pancreatitis is characterized by sudden, severe abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Fever, tachycardia, and abdominal muscle guarding are also common symptoms. Serum amylase and lipase levels are typically elevated, and leukocytosis may be present.
Coeliac disease is a chronic digestive disorder that results in an inability to tolerate gliadin, a component of gluten. Laboratory tests may reveal electrolyte imbalances, malnutrition, and anemia. The most reliable antibodies for confirming coeliac disease are tissue transglutaminase immunoglobulin A, endomysial IgA, and reticulin IgA.
Recurrent cholecystitis is a condition where the gallbladder becomes inflamed due to gallstones blocking the cystic duct. Symptoms include recurring episodes of biliary colic, but a palpable mass is not always present. Ultrasound may reveal a thickened gallbladder wall, gallstones, or calcification.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents to urogynaecology with symptoms of urge incontinence. Despite attempting bladder retraining, her symptoms persist. The decision is made to prescribe a muscarinic antagonist. Can you identify an example of a medication that falls under this category?
Your Answer: Tamsulosin
Correct Answer: Tolterodine
Explanation:Oxybutynin and solifenacin are other examples of muscarinic antagonists used for urinary incontinence. Muscarinic antagonists used for different conditions include ipratropium for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and procyclidine for Parkinson’s disease.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 11
Correct
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As a GPST1 in a GP practice, I have a patient named Sarah who is 24 years old and has come to me seeking information on cystic fibrosis. She has been informed in the past that she is a carrier. Can you provide me with the correct information to share with her?
Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis is due to a defect in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR)
Explanation:Delta F508 on the long arm of chromosome 7 accounts for the majority of CF cases, with approximately 1 in 2500 births being affected by the disease. The carrier rate is estimated to be around 1 in 25.
Understanding Cystic Fibrosis and the Organisms that Affect Patients
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that causes thickened secretions in the lungs and pancreas. This condition is caused by a defect in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR), which regulates chloride channels. In the UK, 80% of CF cases are due to delta F508 on chromosome 7, and the carrier rate is approximately 1 in 25.
CF patients are susceptible to colonization by certain organisms, including Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cepacia, and Aspergillus. These organisms can cause infections and exacerbate symptoms in CF patients. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor and manage these infections to improve patient outcomes. By understanding the genetic basis of CF and the organisms that affect patients, healthcare providers can provide better care for those with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 12
Correct
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A 68-year-old man complains of a burning sensation around his left eye. Upon examination, a rash with erythematous blisters is visible in the left trigeminal distribution. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Herpes zoster ophthalmicus
Explanation:Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications
Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition that occurs when the varicella-zoster virus reactivates in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is responsible for approximately 10% of shingles cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong indicator of nasociliary involvement and increases the risk of ocular involvement.
Treatment for HZO involves oral antiviral medication for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be necessary for severe infections or immunocompromised patients. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent complications such as conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.
In summary, HZO is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It presents with a vesicular rash around the eye and may involve the eye itself. Treatment involves oral antiviral medication and urgent ophthalmology review is necessary for ocular involvement. Complications of HZO include various eye conditions, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department with his spouse reporting weakness in his right arm and leg, decreased vision, and difficulty speaking. The symptoms began approximately 30 minutes ago, and his wife promptly called for an ambulance. A CT scan of the head ruled out a hemorrhagic stroke, but a CT contrast angiography revealed a confirmed blockage in the proximal anterior circulation. What is the appropriate acute management for this patient?
Your Answer: Alteplase alone
Correct Answer: Alteplase plus thrombectomy
Explanation:For patients with an acute ischaemic stroke who present within 4.5 hours, the recommended treatment is a combination of thrombolysis and thrombectomy. Thrombolysis involves the use of alteplase, a tissue plasminogen activator that breaks down the clot, while thrombectomy physically removes the clot using a specialized device inserted through the femoral artery. In this case, as the patient has confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation, both thrombolysis and thrombectomy should be performed together for the best possible outcome. While alteplase alone can be considered if thrombectomy is not available, a better prognosis is more likely with the combination treatment. It would not be appropriate to perform thrombectomy alone without considering thrombolysis, as the patient is presenting within the window for thrombolysis and should be considered for both in combination according to the guidelines.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 23-year-old woman visits the GP clinic to receive the results of her recent blood tests. She has been experiencing fatigue, bloating, and flatulence. The blood test results are as follows:
- Hb: 110 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L)
- Platelets: 201 * 10^9/L (normal range: 150-400 * 10^9/L)
- WBC: 10.2 * 10^9/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 10^9/L)
- Ferritin: 25 ug/L (normal range: 15-200 ug/L)
- Deaminated gliadin IgG: 14 U/mL (normal range: <7 U/mL)
- Tissue transglutaminase IgA: 21 U/mL (normal range: <7 U/mL)
What additional tests or criteria would be necessary to make a definitive diagnosis of her condition?Your Answer: Endoscopic intestinal biopsy without dietary modification
Explanation:In order to diagnose coeliac disease, endoscopic intestinal biopsy is considered the most reliable method and should be performed on all patients who show signs of the condition based on serology. A young patient with non-specific symptoms that suggest coeliac disease has been found to have mild anaemia and elevated coeliac serology. While these results are suggestive, they are not conclusive, and putting the patient on a gluten-free diet without further testing could be detrimental to their quality of life. Therefore, an intestinal biopsy without dietary modification is necessary to confirm the diagnosis. If the patient excludes gluten prior to the biopsy, the results may not be significant, so it is important to continue or reintroduce gluten for at least 6 weeks before the procedure. The expected results of a biopsy for coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, increased intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lymphocyte infiltration in the lamina propria. It is incorrect to assume that the patient does not require further testing, as the antibody results are not conclusive. Repeating antibody tests without dietary modification or advising the patient to exclude gluten and repeat the tests are also unnecessary. However, repeating antibody tests after a confirmed diagnosis may be useful in assessing patient adherence to a gluten-free diet. The patient should be referred to a gastroenterologist for an intestinal biopsy to confirm the diagnosis.
Investigating Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which can lead to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis of coeliac disease is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy. The gold standard for diagnosis is the biopsy, which should be performed in all patients with suspected coeliac disease to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. The biopsy traditionally takes place in the duodenum, but jejunal biopsies are also sometimes performed. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, an increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Serology tests for coeliac disease include tissue transglutaminase antibodies and endomyseal antibodies, while anti-gliadin antibodies are not recommended. Patients who are already on a gluten-free diet should reintroduce gluten for at least six weeks prior to testing. Rectal gluten challenge is not widely used. A gluten-free diet can reverse villous atrophy and immunology in patients with coeliac disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 15
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman experiences hypertension during the third trimester of her initial pregnancy. Upon conducting a 24-hour urine collection, it is revealed that she has 0.5g protein. Which of the following complications is the least commonly associated with this condition?
Your Answer: Transverse myelitis
Explanation:Transverse myelitis is not linked to pre-eclampsia.
Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 28-week premature infant is born after prolonged premature rupture of membranes (PROM). The neonate develops temperature instability, respiratory distress, and lethargy about 18 hours after birth. Blood cultures confirm sepsis. What is the probable causative organism?
Your Answer: E. coli
Correct Answer: Group B Streptococcus
Explanation:Sepsis in newborns can be difficult to diagnose as it often presents with non-specific symptoms. Therefore, it is important to have a high level of suspicion and to investigate promptly. There are two types of sepsis in newborns: early-onset (within 48 hours of birth) and late-onset (after 48 hours from birth). Early-onset sepsis is usually caused by microorganisms acquired from the mother’s birth canal, while late-onset sepsis is often caused by hospital-acquired pathogens such as Staphylococcus epidermidis and Staphylococcus aureus. In this case, the newborn is likely to have early-onset sepsis, which is commonly caused by Group B Strep, a bacteria that is normally found in the female genital tract.
Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a common cause of severe infection in newborns. It is estimated that 20-40% of mothers carry GBS in their bowel flora, which can be passed on to their infants during labor and lead to serious infections. Prematurity, prolonged rupture of membranes, previous sibling GBS infection, and maternal pyrexia are all risk factors for GBS infection. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has published guidelines on GBS management, which include not offering universal screening for GBS to all women and not offering screening based on maternal request. Women who have had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) or testing in late pregnancy and antibiotics if still positive. IAP should also be offered to women with a previous baby with GBS disease, women in preterm labor, and women with a fever during labor. Benzylpenicillin is the preferred antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male with metastatic prostate cancer is seen in clinic. His wife reports that he has been experiencing confusion and occasionally talks to people who are not present. Despite investigations for reversible causes, no underlying issues are found. If conservative measures prove ineffective and he continues to exhibit confusion and agitation, what is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Oral quetiapine
Correct Answer: Oral haloperidol
Explanation:Palliative Care Prescribing for Agitation and Confusion
When dealing with agitation and confusion in palliative care patients, it is important to identify and treat any underlying causes such as hypercalcaemia, infection, urinary retention, or medication. If these specific treatments fail, medication can be used to manage symptoms. Haloperidol is the first choice for treating agitation and confusion, with chlorpromazine and levomepromazine as alternative options. In the terminal phase of the illness, midazolam is the preferred medication for managing agitation or restlessness. Proper management of these symptoms can greatly improve the quality of life for palliative care patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman complains of 'strange spots' affecting her eyesight. She has observed several flashes and floaters in the visual field of her left eye over the last few days. What could be the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Optic neuritis
Correct Answer: Posterior vitreous detachment
Explanation:Retinal tear is a common condition among individuals aged 65 years and above, and it is the most probable diagnosis in this case. Typically, an ophthalmologist will evaluate such patients to determine the likelihood of developing retinal detachment.
Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arteritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.
Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arteritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.
Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You are working in a GP surgery and you meet a 25-year-old newly qualified healthcare assistant who has come in to see you as she would like to know more about the BCG vaccination and whether she needs to have it. You advise her that she will need the BCG as she is at risk of occupational exposure. She would also like to know more about who needs to have the BCG vaccination.
Who needs a BCG vaccination assuming they have not had one before?Your Answer: A newborn baby boy born in Wales, whose parents and grandparents were born in Wales
Correct Answer: A 22-year-old man who has started work as a prison officer
Explanation:Children born in areas with a high prevalence of tuberculosis (TB) or with parents/grandparents from such areas, as well as individuals under the age of 35 at high risk of occupational exposure to TB, are administered the BCG vaccine. However, there is no evidence to support the effectiveness of the BCG vaccine for individuals over the age of 35, and therefore it is not administered to them.
The BCG Vaccine: Who Should Get It and How It’s Administered
The Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine is a vaccine that provides limited protection against tuberculosis (TB). In the UK, it is given to high-risk infants and certain groups of people who are at risk of contracting TB. The vaccine contains live attenuated Mycobacterium bovis and also offers limited protection against leprosy.
The Greenbook provides guidelines on who should receive the BCG vaccine. It is recommended for all infants living in areas of the UK where the annual incidence of TB is 40/100,000 or greater, as well as infants with a parent or grandparent who was born in a country with a high incidence of TB. The vaccine is also recommended for previously unvaccinated tuberculin-negative contacts of cases of respiratory TB, new entrants under 16 years of age who were born in or have lived for a prolonged period in a high-risk country, healthcare workers, prison staff, staff of care homes for the elderly, and those who work with homeless people.
Before receiving the BCG vaccine, any person being considered must first be given a tuberculin skin test, except for children under 6 years old who have had no contact with tuberculosis. The vaccine is given intradermally, normally to the lateral aspect of the left upper arm. It can be given at the same time as other live vaccines, but if not administered simultaneously, there should be a 4-week interval.
There are some contraindications for the BCG vaccine, including previous BCG vaccination, a past history of tuberculosis, HIV, pregnancy, and a positive tuberculin test (Heaf or Mantoux). It is not given to anyone over the age of 35, as there is no evidence that it works for people of this age group.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 20
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman visits her family doctor with a lump under her chin that causes her discomfort and swelling, especially after eating a big meal. The facial nerve appears to be unaffected. Upon examination, there is a tender swelling in the submandibular triangle. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sialolithiasis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Painful Submandibular Swelling
One possible diagnosis for a painful submandibular swelling is sialolithiasis, which is the formation of stones within the salivary glands. This condition is more common in men over 40 and typically causes pain and swelling after eating. Adenoid cystic carcinoma, on the other hand, presents as a slowly enlarging mass over the parotid area and can invade local structures such as the facial nerve. Pleomorphic adenomas usually present as a painless lump that slowly enlarges, while Sjögren syndrome causes dry mouth, dry eyes, and swelling of the salivary glands bilaterally. Warthin’s tumour, which is commonly found in the tail of the parotid gland, does not typically present as a painful lump.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a cat bite on her hand while house-sitting for her neighbor. She complains of mild pain and swelling around the bite but denies having a fever. Upon examination, there is a small puncture wound on the palm of her left hand with mild erythema around it, but no visible purulent discharge. What is the best course of treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:When a patient suffers an animal bite, it is likely that the wound will be infected with multiple types of bacteria. The most frequently identified bacteria in cultures from animal bites is Pasteurella multocida. To prevent infection, it is important to clean the wound thoroughly and provide the patient with tetanus and antibiotics. According to NICE guidelines, co-amoxiclav is the preferred antibiotic as it effectively targets the bacteria commonly found in animal bites.
Animal and Human Bites: Causes and Management
Animal and human bites are common injuries that can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Dogs and cats are the most common animals involved in bites, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria, including Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella.
To manage animal and human bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured closed unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation for treatment is co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended. It is also important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C in human bites.
In summary, animal and human bites can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Proper wound cleansing and appropriate antibiotic treatment are essential in managing these injuries. Additionally, healthcare providers should consider the risk of viral infections in human bites.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 22
Incorrect
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An 8-year-old girl is brought in by her father, who reports that the child experiences constant urinary dribbling and dampness. A urine dipstick was negative.
Which of the following is the most appropriate drug to prescribe?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oxybutynin
Explanation:Medications for Urinary and Bowel Issues in Children
Overactive bladder and nocturnal enuresis are common urinary issues in children. Here are some medications that can be used to treat these conditions:
1. Oxybutynin: This medication relaxes the urinary smooth muscle and is used to treat overactive bladder in children over 5 years old.
2. Imipramine: A tricyclic antidepressant that is used as a second-line treatment for nocturnal enuresis.
3. Desmopressin: A vasopressin analogue that can be used to treat nocturnal enuresis in children.
4. Duloxetine: A serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) used to treat stress urinary incontinence in women. It is not licensed for use in individuals under 18 years old.
In addition, loperamide is an opioid antimotility drug that can be used to treat diarrhoea caused by gastroenteritis or inflammatory bowel disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What is the most commonly associated condition with primary sclerosing cholangitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ulcerative colitis
Explanation:Understanding Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis
Primary sclerosing cholangitis is a condition that affects the bile ducts, causing inflammation and fibrosis. The cause of this disease is unknown, but it is often associated with ulcerative colitis, with 4% of UC patients having PSC and 80% of PSC patients having UC. Crohn’s disease and HIV are also less common associations. Symptoms of PSC include cholestasis, jaundice, pruritus, right upper quadrant pain, and fatigue. Diagnosis is typically made through endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) or magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP), which show multiple biliary strictures giving a ‘beaded’ appearance. A liver biopsy may also be performed, but it has a limited role in diagnosis. Complications of PSC include cholangiocarcinoma in 10% of cases and an increased risk of colorectal cancer.
Overall, understanding primary sclerosing cholangitis is important for early diagnosis and management of the disease. With proper treatment and monitoring, patients can manage their symptoms and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man presents to the clinic with a history of ischaemic heart disease and a recent diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus. His HbA1c at the time of diagnosis was 7.6% (60 mmol/mol) and he was started on metformin, which was titrated up to a dose of 1g bd. His most recent blood work shows a HbA1c of 6.8% (51 mmol/mol). He has recently retired from the IT industry and has a BMI of 28 kg/m². He is currently taking atorvastatin 80 mg, aspirin 75mg, bisoprolol 2.5 mg, and ramipril 5mg. What would be the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add empagliflozin
Explanation:In addition to metformin, an SGLT-2 inhibitor (such as empagliflozin) should be prescribed for this patient who has a history of cardiovascular disease.
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with central abdominal pain. She has vomited twice since the onset of the pain and has not passed any wind or faeces in the last twelve hours. Her medical history includes a partial small bowel resection due to traumatic perforation. On examination, her abdomen appears distended and there is generalised tenderness on palpation. Her blood tests reveal a Hb level of 153 g/L (115 - 160), platelets of 312 * 109/L (150 - 400), WBC count of 10.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), bilirubin of 17 µmol/L (3 - 17), ALP of 78 u/L (30 - 100), ALT of 29 u/L (3 - 40), and amylase of 880 U/L (70 - 300). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Small bowel obstruction
Explanation:Elevated serum amylase levels are not always indicative of acute pancreatitis, as they can also be seen in cases of small bowel obstruction. In this scenario, the patient is experiencing abdominal pain, vomiting, and a lack of bowel movements or gas, which are all typical symptoms of small bowel obstruction. The fact that the patient has a history of abdominal surgery further supports this diagnosis, despite the misleading blood test results. Acute cholecystitis, on the other hand, presents with different symptoms such as fever, right upper quadrant pain, and systemic distress, and does not typically cause elevated amylase levels. Acute pancreatitis may also be considered as a differential diagnosis, but it is not associated with a lack of bowel movements or gas, and previous bowel surgery is not a risk factor. Ascending cholangitis and large bowel obstruction can also be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and test results.
Small bowel obstruction occurs when the small intestines are blocked, preventing the passage of food, fluids, and gas. The most common cause of this condition is adhesions, which can develop after previous surgeries, followed by hernias. Symptoms of small bowel obstruction include diffuse, central abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting (often bilious), constipation, and abdominal distension. Tinkling bowel sounds may also be present in early stages of obstruction. Abdominal x-ray is typically the first-line imaging for suspected small bowel obstruction, showing distended small bowel loops with fluid levels. CT is more sensitive and considered the definitive investigation, particularly in early obstruction. Management involves initial steps such as NBM, IV fluids, and nasogastric tube with free drainage. Some patients may respond to conservative management, but others may require surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 26
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old girl is referred to the Endocrine Clinic with primary amenorrhoea. On examination, her height and weight are normal. She has moderate hirsutism and acne, small breast buds and an enlarged clitoris. Bimanual pelvic examination is normal. A male cousin was seen in the clinic at the age of nine years with precocious puberty.
Which is the most likely cause of her primary amenorrhoea?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Explanation:Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a genetic disorder that affects cortisol production, leading to an increase in adrenocorticotrophic hormone and enlargement of the adrenal glands. There are different types, with classic/severe presenting at birth with ambiguous genitalia or in an acute salt-losing crisis, and milder forms causing hyperandrogenism. The patient and her cousin are likely to have the milder form. Imperforate hymen, hyperprolactinaemia, and Sheehan syndrome are unlikely causes of the patient’s primary amenorrhoea, while Turner syndrome is ruled out due to the absence of characteristic features.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman with a history of thyroid disorder presents to the clinic with concerns about darkened skin on her neck.
Which of the following is the most probable cause?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acanthosis nigricans
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions: A Brief Overview
Acanthosis Nigricans: A condition characterized by darkened patches of thickened skin, often described as velvet-like. It is usually benign but can sometimes be associated with underlying autoimmune conditions or gastric cancer.
Dermatitis: Inflammation of the skin that can cause blistering, oozing, crusting, or flaking. Examples include eczema, dandruff, and rashes caused by contact with certain substances.
Hidradenitis Suppurativa: A chronic condition that affects the apocrine glands in skin folds, causing painful nodules that can develop into pustules and eventually rupture. Scarring is common.
Intertrigo: An inflammatory condition of skin folds caused by friction, often leading to secondary bacterial or fungal infections. Commonly found in the groin, axillae, and inframammary folds.
Cowden’s Syndrome: An autosomal dominant condition characterized by hair follicle tumors, a cobblestone appearance of the oral epithelium, oral papillomas, and multiple skin tags. Associated with a high incidence of breast, thyroid, and gastrointestinal cancers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 41-year-old woman is worried that she may be experiencing premature ovarian failure as she has not had a period for the last six months. What is the definition of premature ovarian failure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The onset of menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels before the age of 40 years
Explanation:Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Management
Premature ovarian insufficiency is a condition where menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels occur before the age of 40. It affects approximately 1 in 100 women and can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic reasons, family history, bilateral oophorectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, infection, autoimmune disorders, and resistant ovary syndrome. The symptoms of premature ovarian insufficiency are similar to those of normal menopause, including hot flushes, night sweats, infertility, secondary amenorrhoea, raised FSH and LH levels, and low oestradiol.
Management of premature ovarian insufficiency involves hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or a combined oral contraceptive pill until the age of the average menopause, which is 51 years. It is important to note that HRT does not provide contraception in case spontaneous ovarian activity resumes. Early diagnosis and management of premature ovarian insufficiency can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old man presents to his GP with right-sided facial weakness. He complains of weakness on the right side of his face, especially when smiling or chewing. He also reports occasional twitching of his right cheek, which started 3 days ago after a flu-like illness. However, he notes that it is already starting to improve.
During examination, the GP observes mild impairment of the facial muscles on the entire right side of the patient's face, including his forehead. Otoscopy is normal, and examination of the eye is unremarkable. The rest of the cranial nerve exam and upper limb neurological exam is normal.
What is the recommended management for this likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone and artificial tears
Explanation:Patients with Bell’s palsy should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset, regardless of the severity of their symptoms or any improvement since onset. This is important to differentiate Bell’s palsy from other conditions such as cerebral events and Ramsay-Hunt syndrome. Eye protection with lid taping or lubricating eye drops should also be considered. Therefore, the correct answer is oral prednisolone and artificial tears. Oral aciclovir alone is not sufficient as it does not provide steroids or eye protection. Reassurance only and advice to return if symptoms persist after 2 weeks is not appropriate as treatment should be offered within the 72-hour window. Urgent referral to ENT is not necessary as the diagnosis can be made and managed in primary care, but non-urgent referral may be necessary in severe or prolonged cases or where the diagnosis is unclear.
Understanding Bell’s Palsy
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It is more common in individuals aged 20-40 years and pregnant women. The condition is characterized by lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy, which affects the forehead. Unlike upper motor neuron lesions, the upper face is spared. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
The management of Bell’s palsy has been a subject of debate. However, it is now widely accepted that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, but it may be beneficial for severe facial palsy. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients should be prescribed artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eyes at bedtime, they should tape them closed using microporous tape.
If the paralysis shows no sign of improvement after three weeks, an urgent referral to ENT is necessary. Patients with long-standing weakness may require a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within 3-4 months. However, untreated patients may experience permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A mother brings in her 8-year-old daughter to the pediatrician's office. She is worried because she has noticed that her daughter has been showing signs of breast development for the past 3 months. The mother is concerned that her daughter may be experiencing early puberty. What course of action would you recommend?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure her that this is normal development
Explanation:If a girl develops secondary sexual characteristics before the age of 8 and a boy before the age of 9, it is considered precocious puberty. However, if a girl is developing within the normal time frame, such as breast development, there is no need for the mother to worry or seek medical attention. Checking sex hormones or referring to a pediatric specialist is unnecessary as the child is developing normally and the breast development will continue as part of the natural pubertal process.
Understanding Precocious Puberty
Precocious puberty is a condition where secondary sexual characteristics develop earlier than expected, before the age of 8 in females and 9 in males. It is more common in females and can be classified into two types: gonadotrophin dependent and gonadotrophin independent. The former is caused by premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, resulting in raised levels of FSH and LH. The latter is caused by excess sex hormones, with low levels of FSH and LH. In males, precocious puberty is uncommon and usually has an organic cause, such as gonadotrophin release from an intracranial lesion, gonadal tumour, or adrenal cause. In females, it is usually idiopathic or familial and follows the normal sequence of puberty. Organic causes are rare and associated with rapid onset, neurological symptoms and signs, and dissonance, such as in McCune Albright syndrome. Understanding precocious puberty is important for early detection and management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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