-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A woman aged 74 comes in with a 2-cm unilateral, invasive vulvar carcinoma, without signs of lymph node involvement. What is the suggested course of action?
Your Answer: Wide local excision
Correct Answer: Simple vulvectomy and bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Vulval Cancer: Surgery, Radiation Therapy, and Chemotherapy
Vulval cancer is a type of cancer that affects the external female genitalia. The lymphatic drainage of the vulva is to the inguinal nodes, which means that even if there is no clinical evidence of lymphatic involvement, the inguinal nodes should be removed. This is done through a simple vulvectomy and bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy. Radiation therapy can also be used for T2 or greater lesions, when combined with surgery. The role of radiation is often to shrink tumours to make a surgical excision more likely to succeed or to increase the chance of remission.
It is important to note that vulvectomy without lymph node surgery or biopsy is inappropriate. Only in stage 1a cancer with a depth of invasion of <1 mm can lymph nodes safely not be biopsied or removed. Chemotherapy largely plays a role as neoadjuvant or adjuvant therapy in vulval cancer. This is particularly important for tumours which extend within 1 cm of structures that would not be surgically removed such as the urethra, clitoris and anus. It can also be used where repeat surgery in positive margins may not be feasible. Wide local excision, also termed radical local excision, is appropriate, depending on the staging of the lesion. If the tumour is localised, ie T1 staging, then a radical local excision is a viable option, regardless of the location. As the tumour is described as invasive, it must be T2 or greater in staging and therefore needs more invasive surgery. In summary, treatment options for vulval cancer include surgery, radiation therapy, and chemotherapy, depending on the staging and location of the tumour.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 30-year-old nulliparous patient presents to the Gynaecology Clinic with complaints of severe menstrual pain and pain during intercourse. She reports that the symptoms have been progressively worsening. An ultrasound of the pelvis reveals a 4-cm cyst in the right ovary. The serum CA-125 level is 225 (0–34 iu/ml). What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ectopic endometrial tissue
Explanation:The patient is likely suffering from endometriosis, which is the presence of endometrial tissue outside of the uterus. This condition can cause subfertility, chronic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhoea, and dyspareunia. It may also lead to an increase in serum CA-125 levels and the development of ovarian deposits known as chocolate cysts. Acute appendicitis and ovarian neoplasms are unlikely causes of the patient’s symptoms, while mittelschmerz only causes mid-cycle pain and does not explain the elevated CA-125 levels. Granulosa cell tumors of the ovary typically secrete inhibin and estrogen, making endometriosis a more likely diagnosis. Symptoms of ovarian cancer are often vague and include abdominal discomfort, bloating, back and pelvic pain, irregular menstruation, loss of appetite, fatigue, and weight loss. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include not having children, early first menstruation and last menopause, hormone replacement therapy, endometriosis, and the BRCA genes. In this age group, germ cell tumors are the most likely ovarian carcinoma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of irregular menstrual cycles. She reports using a period tracking app on her phone, which shows that she had five periods in the past year, occurring at unpredictable intervals. During the consultation, she mentions the development of dense, dark hair on her neck and upper lip. Additionally, she has been experiencing worsening acne for a few years. If other potential causes are eliminated, what is necessary for the patient to fulfill the diagnostic criteria for her likely condition?
Your Answer: Measurement of free testosterone levels
Correct Answer: Diagnosis can be made clinically based on her symptoms
Explanation:To diagnose PCOS, at least two out of three features must be present: oligomenorrhoea, clinical and/or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound. In this case, the patient has oligomenorrhoea and clinical signs of hyperandrogenism, making a clinical diagnosis of PCOS likely. However, NICE guidelines recommend ruling out other potential causes of menstrual disturbance before confirming the diagnosis. BMI measurement is not necessary for diagnosis, although obesity is a common feature of PCOS. Testing for free or total testosterone levels is also not essential if clinical signs of hyperandrogenism are present.
Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not fully understood, but it is believed to involve both high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia, with some overlap with the metabolic syndrome. PCOS is characterized by a range of symptoms, including subfertility and infertility, menstrual disturbances such as oligomenorrhea and amenorrhea, hirsutism, acne, obesity, and acanthosis nigricans.
To diagnose PCOS, a range of investigations may be performed, including pelvic ultrasound to detect multiple cysts on the ovaries. Other useful baseline investigations include FSH, LH, prolactin, TSH, testosterone, and sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG). While a raised LH:FSH ratio was once considered a classical feature of PCOS, it is no longer thought to be useful in diagnosis. Testosterone may be normal or mildly elevated, but if markedly raised, other causes should be considered. SHBG is typically normal to low in women with PCOS, and impaired glucose tolerance should also be checked.
To formally diagnose PCOS, other conditions must first be excluded. The Rotterdam criteria state that a diagnosis of PCOS can be made if at least two of the following three criteria are present: infrequent or no ovulation, clinical and/or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound scan. Polycystic ovaries are defined as the presence of at least 12 follicles measuring 2-9 mm in diameter in one or both ovaries, and/or an increased ovarian volume of over 10 cm³.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old female comes to the GP seeking advice on her contraceptive options. She has been relying on condoms but has recently entered a new relationship and wants to explore other methods. She expresses concern about the possibility of gaining weight from her chosen contraception.
What should this woman avoid?Your Answer: Intra-uterine system
Correct Answer: Injectable contraceptive
Explanation:Depo-provera is linked to an increase in weight.
If this woman is concerned about weight gain, it is best to avoid depo-provera, which is the primary injectable contraceptive in the UK. Depo-provera can cause various adverse effects, including weight gain, irregular bleeding, delayed return to fertility, and an increased risk of osteoporosis.
While some users of the combined oral contraceptive pill have reported weight gain, a Cochrane review does not support a causal relationship. There are no reasons for this woman to avoid the combined oral contraceptive pill.
The progesterone-only pill has not been associated with weight gain and is safe for use in this woman.
The intra-uterine system (IUS) does not cause weight gain in users and is a viable option for this woman.
The subdermal contraceptive implant can cause irregular or heavy bleeding, as well as progesterone-related side effects such as headaches, nausea, and breast pain. However, it is not typically associated with weight gain and is not contraindicated for use in this situation.
Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera
Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.
However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.
It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of worsening menstrual pain and heavier bleeding in the past year. During a bimanual pelvic exam, an enlarged, non-tender uterus is palpated. A transvaginal ultrasound reveals a 2 cm fibroid. The patient is nulliparous and desires to have children in the future but not within the next three years. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Expectant management
Correct Answer: Progesterone-releasing intrauterine system
Explanation:Management Options for Fibroids in Women
Fibroids are a common gynecological condition that can cause symptoms such as dysmenorrhoea and menorrhagia. There are several management options available for women with fibroids, depending on their individual circumstances.
Progesterone-releasing intrauterine system: This is recommended as a first-line treatment for women with fibroid-associated menorrhagia, where the fibroids are < 3 cm and do not distort the uterine cavity. It also provides a long-term form of contraception for up to two years. Combined oral contraceptive pill: This can be used as a management option for fibroids and is a suitable option for women who do not wish to conceive at present. However, the intrauterine system is more effective and provides longer-term contraception. Expectant management: This can be considered for women who have asymptomatic fibroids. However, it is not appropriate for women who are experiencing symptoms such as dysmenorrhoea and menorrhagia. Hysterectomy: This is a surgical option for women with symptomatic fibroids who do not wish to preserve their fertility. It is not appropriate for women who wish to become pregnant in the future. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): These can be a useful management option for fibroid-related dysmenorrhoea and menorrhagia. However, hormonal contraceptives may be more appropriate for women who do not wish to conceive. Management Options for Women with Fibroids
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old nulliparous woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with a 3-month history of postmenopausal bleeding. She has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and her last menstrual period was 5 years ago.
On transvaginal ultrasound, the endometrial thickness measures 7mm. The pipelle biopsy results indicate an increased gland-to-stroma ratio and some nuclear atypia.
What is the best course of action for management?Your Answer: Endometrial ablation
Correct Answer: Hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
Explanation:For postmenopausal women with atypical endometrial hyperplasia, it is recommended to undergo a total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy to reduce the risk of malignant progression. If bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy is not performed, there is an increased risk of ovarian malignancy. Endometrial ablation is not advised due to the risk of intrauterine adhesion formation and irreversible damage to the endometrium. In premenopausal patients with atypia or those who do not respond to medical management or have persistent bleeding, hysterectomy alone may be considered. However, the royal college of obstetrics and gynaecology green-top guidelines suggest that bilateral salpingectomy should still be considered in these patients due to the risk of further ovarian malignancy. For hyperplasia without atypia, the first-line treatment is a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system such as the Mirena coil.
Endometrial hyperplasia is a condition where the endometrium, the lining of the uterus, grows excessively beyond what is considered normal during the menstrual cycle. This abnormal proliferation can lead to endometrial cancer in some cases. There are four types of endometrial hyperplasia: simple, complex, simple atypical, and complex atypical. Symptoms of this condition include abnormal vaginal bleeding, such as intermenstrual bleeding.
The management of endometrial hyperplasia depends on the type and severity of the condition. For simple endometrial hyperplasia without atypia, high dose progestogens may be prescribed, and repeat sampling is recommended after 3-4 months. The levonorgestrel intra-uterine system may also be used. However, if atypia is present, hysterectomy is usually advised.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old Ethiopian girl has come to the emergency department complaining of recurring urinary tract infections. During the examination, you and a chaperone observe that the girl may have undergone clitoridectomy, indicating that she may have been a victim of female genital mutilation (FGM). The girl requests antibiotics and that no one else be informed. In addition to treating the infection, what actions should you take?
Your Answer: Prescribe a course of nitrofurantoin and discharge her. Do not mention your findings to anyone else
Correct Answer: Inform the medical team and the police
Explanation:The UK Government implemented legal modifications in October 2015 regarding the response of doctors in England and Wales to instances of female genital mutilation (FGM). As per the guidelines of the General Medical Council (GMC), doctors are required to report all cases of FGM in individuals under the age of 18 to the police. This can be done by contacting 101 or using the established local channels. Reporting is compulsory to align with our responsibilities towards child protection and safeguarding.
Understanding Female Genital Mutilation
Female genital mutilation (FGM) is a term used to describe any procedure that involves the partial or complete removal of the external female genitalia or any other injury to the female genital organs for non-medical reasons. The World Health Organization (WHO) has classified FGM into four types. Type 1 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and/or the prepuce, while type 2 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and the labia minora, with or without excision of the labia majora. Type 3 involves the narrowing of the vaginal orifice with the creation of a covering seal by cutting and appositioning the labia minora and/or the labia majora, with or without excision of the clitoris. Finally, type 4 includes all other harmful procedures to the female genitalia for non-medical purposes, such as pricking, piercing, incising, scraping, and cauterization. It is important to understand the different types of FGM to raise awareness and prevent this harmful practice.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old woman comes to the emergency department worried that she cannot locate the threads of her intra-uterine device and is unable to schedule an appointment with her primary care physician. She reports no pain, fever, or unusual discharge. She has a regular menstrual cycle of 28 days, and her last period was a week ago.
During a speculum examination, the threads are not visible, so a transvaginal ultrasound is performed. The device is detected, and the threads are discovered to have retracted into the cervical canal. The threads are brought back into view. Additionally, a 4 cm multiloculated cyst with strong blood flow is found in the right ovary.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Reassure patient as cyst is < 5 cm
Correct Answer: Refer for biopsy of cyst
Explanation:When a complex ovarian cyst is discovered, there should be a high level of suspicion for ovarian cancer and a biopsy should be performed. The IOTA criteria can be used to determine if a cyst is likely benign or malignant. If any of the ‘M rules’ are present, such as an irregular solid tumor, ascites, at least 4 papillary structures, an irregular multilocular solid tumor with a diameter of at least 100mm, or very strong blood flow, the patient should be referred to a gynecology oncology department for further evaluation. In this case, the patient has a multiloculated cyst with strong blood flow, so a referral to the gynecology oncology service for biopsy is necessary. It is important not to reassure the patient that the cyst is benign just because it is asymptomatic, as many ovarian cancers are asymptomatic until a late stage. It is also not appropriate to immediately perform surgery, as the cyst may be benign and not require urgent intervention. Yearly ultrasounds may be appropriate for simple ovarian cysts of a certain size, but in this case, further investigation is necessary due to the concerning features of the cyst. While cysts under 5 cm in diameter are often physiological and do not require follow-up, the presence of a multiloculated cyst with strong blood flow warrants further investigation.
Understanding the Different Types of Ovarian Cysts
Ovarian cysts are a common occurrence in women, and they can be classified into different types. The most common type of ovarian cyst is the physiological cyst, which includes follicular cysts and corpus luteum cysts. Follicular cysts occur when the dominant follicle fails to rupture or when a non-dominant follicle fails to undergo atresia. These cysts usually regress after a few menstrual cycles. Corpus luteum cysts, on the other hand, occur when the corpus luteum fails to break down and disappear after the menstrual cycle. These cysts may fill with blood or fluid and are more likely to cause intraperitoneal bleeding than follicular cysts.
Another type of ovarian cyst is the benign germ cell tumour, which includes dermoid cysts. Dermoid cysts are also known as mature cystic teratomas and are usually lined with epithelial tissue. They may contain skin appendages, hair, and teeth. Dermoid cysts are the most common benign ovarian tumour in women under the age of 30, and they are usually asymptomatic. However, torsion is more likely to occur with dermoid cysts than with other ovarian tumours.
Lastly, there are benign epithelial tumours, which arise from the ovarian surface epithelium. The most common benign epithelial tumour is the serous cystadenoma, which bears a resemblance to the most common type of ovarian cancer (serous carcinoma). Serous cystadenomas are bilateral in around 20% of cases. The second most common benign epithelial tumour is the mucinous cystadenoma, which is typically large and may become massive. If it ruptures, it may cause pseudomyxoma peritonei.
In conclusion, understanding the different types of ovarian cysts is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. Complex ovarian cysts should be biopsied to exclude malignancy, while benign cysts may require monitoring or surgical removal depending on their size and symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old woman is ready to be discharged from the labour ward following an uncomplicated delivery. The medical team discusses contraception options with her before she leaves. The patient had previously been taking microgynon (ethinylestradiol 30 microgram/levonorgestrel 50 micrograms) and wishes to resume this medication.
The patient has no significant medical history, is not taking any other medications, and has no allergies. She is a non-smoker with a BMI of 19 kg/m² and does not plan to breastfeed her baby.
What is the appropriate time frame for the patient to safely restart her medication?Your Answer: She can restart after 1 week
Correct Answer: She can restart after 3 weeks
Explanation:The patient should not restart the COCP within the first 21 days after giving birth due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. However, since the patient is not breastfeeding and has no additional risk factors for thromboembolic disease, she can safely restart the pill at 3 weeks postpartum. Restarting at any other time before the 21-day mark is not recommended.
After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.
The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 30-year-old woman is concerned about the risk of cancer from taking the combined oral contraceptive pill after hearing something on the news. You have a discussion with her about evidence-based medicine. According to research, which type of cancer is believed to be reduced by taking the pill?
Your Answer: Ovarian
Explanation:The combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) has been found to have a slight increase in the risk of breast cancer, but this risk returns to normal after 10 years of stopping the pill. Additionally, the COCP may increase the risk of cervical cancer, but this could be due to a lack of barrier contraception use and increased exposure to HPV. While the COCP is associated with an increased risk of benign and malignant tumors, there is no evidence of an increased risk of lung cancer. On the other hand, the COCP has been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer, endometrial cancer, and bowel cancer.
Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than 1 per 100 woman years. It does not interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.
However, there are also some disadvantages to the combined oral contraceptive pill. One of the main issues is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side-effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.
It is important to weigh the pros and cons of the combined oral contraceptive pill before deciding if it is the right method of birth control for you. While some users report weight gain while taking the pill, a Cochrane review did not support a causal relationship. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be an effective and convenient method of birth control, but it is important to discuss any concerns or potential risks with a healthcare provider.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)