-
Question 1
Correct
-
A healthy 60-year-old male has a clinic blood pressure of 120/75 mmHg.
When should you offer him another blood pressure test?Your Answer: 6 months
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Hypertension Testing
The NICE guidelines recommend testing normotensive individuals every five years, with more frequent testing for those with blood pressure approaching 140/90 mmHg. For this particular patient, five years is sufficient. It is important for general practitioners to have a thorough understanding of hypertension management, as it may be tested on in various areas of the MRCGP exam, including the AKT. This question specifically assesses knowledge of NICE guidance on hypertension (NG136).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
You are evaluating a 75-year-old man with longstanding varicose veins. He presents to you with a small painful ulcer near one of them. The pain improves when he elevates his leg.
During the examination, you observe normal distal pulses and warm feet. The ulcer is well-defined and shallow, with a small amount of slough and granulation tissue at the base.
The patient has never smoked, has no significant past medical history, and recent blood tests, including an HbA1c, were normal.
You suspect a venous ulcer and plan to perform an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) to initiate compression bandaging.
As per current NICE guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Refer to vascular team
Explanation:Referral to secondary care for treatment is recommended for patients with varicose veins and an active or healed venous leg ulcer. In this case, the woman should be referred to the vascular team. Venous leg ulcers can be painful and are associated with venous stasis. Class 2 compression stockings are used for the treatment of uncomplicated varicose veins. Small amounts of slough and granulation tissue are common with venous ulcers and do not necessarily indicate an infection requiring antibiotics. Exercise is encouraged to help venous return in these patients. Duplex sonography is usually performed in secondary care, but the specialist team will request this, not primary care.
Understanding Varicose Veins
Varicose veins are enlarged and twisted veins that occur when the valves in the veins become weak or damaged, causing blood to flow backward and pool in the veins. They are most commonly found in the legs and can be caused by various factors such as age, gender, pregnancy, obesity, and genetics. While many people seek treatment for cosmetic reasons, others may experience symptoms such as aching, throbbing, and itching. In severe cases, varicose veins can lead to skin changes, bleeding, superficial thrombophlebitis, and venous ulceration.
To diagnose varicose veins, a venous duplex ultrasound is typically performed to detect retrograde venous flow. Treatment options vary depending on the severity of the condition. Conservative treatments such as leg elevation, weight loss, regular exercise, and compression stockings may be recommended for mild cases. However, patients with significant or troublesome symptoms, skin changes, or a history of bleeding or ulcers may require referral to a specialist for further evaluation and treatment. Possible treatments include endothermal ablation, foam sclerotherapy, or surgery.
In summary, varicose veins are a common condition that can cause discomfort and cosmetic concerns. While many cases do not require intervention, it is important to seek medical attention if symptoms or complications arise. With proper diagnosis and treatment, patients can manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
You are a GPST1 working in a general practice. A practice nurse seeks your guidance on a routine ECG performed on a 50-year-old man. Upon examining the ECG, you observe that the patient is in regular sinus rhythm with a rate of 70 beats per minute. However, the patient has a long QT interval and small T waves.
What could be the reason for this distinct ECG pattern?Your Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Long QT syndrome may result from hypokalaemia.
Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes a delay in the ventricles’ repolarization. This delay can lead to ventricular tachycardia/torsade de pointes, which can cause sudden death or collapse. The most common types of LQTS are LQT1 and LQT2, which are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.
There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other conditions. Congenital factors include Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome. Drugs that can cause a prolonged QT interval include amiodarone, sotalol, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Other factors that can cause a prolonged QT interval include electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.
LQTS may be detected on a routine ECG or through family screening. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress, exercise, or auditory stimuli. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest and can lead to sudden cardiac death.
Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers are often used, and implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary in high-risk cases. It is important to note that sotalol may exacerbate LQTS.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 58-year-old male with stable angina complains of muscle aches and pains. He has been on simvastatin 40 mg daily, atenolol 50 mg daily, and aspirin 75 mg daily for two years. He was recently hospitalized for acute coronary syndrome and additional therapies were added. His CPK concentration is 820 IU/L (50-200). What is the most probable cause of his statin-related myopathy?
Your Answer: Omega-3 fatty acids
Explanation:Statin-Associated Myopathy and Drug Interactions
Statin-associated myopathy is a potential side effect that affects up to 5% of individuals taking statins. This condition can be exacerbated by the co-prescription of certain drugs, including calcium channel blockers, macrolide antibiotics, fibrates, amiodarone, and grapefruit juice. Even patients who tolerate statins well may experience myopathy or rhabdomyolysis when these agents are added to their treatment regimen.
It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential drug interactions and to monitor patients closely for signs of myopathy. Additionally, NICE guidance on Myocardial infarction: secondary prevention (NG185) advises against the use of omega-3 capsules to prevent another MI. By staying informed and following evidence-based guidelines, healthcare providers can help ensure the safety and well-being of their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
Which lipid profile result would warrant the strongest recommendation for referral to a specialist lipid clinic?
Your Answer: Total cholesterol of 8.5 mmol/L
Correct Answer: LDL cholesterol of 5 mmol/L
Explanation:The Importance of Specialist Lipid Clinics in Managing Adverse Lipid Profiles
Specialist lipid clinics are crucial in managing adverse lipid profiles, particularly those with a familial origin. Elevated levels of lipid profile components can significantly increase the risk of cardiovascular disease, necessitating more aggressive treatment to mitigate this risk. Hypertriglyceridaemia, in particular, is a risk factor for pancreatitis.
To determine when referral to a lipid clinic is necessary, certain levels of total cholesterol, LDL cholesterol, and non-HDL cholesterol must be met. These figures are outlined in the learning point and serve as a guide for healthcare professionals in identifying patients who require specialist lipid care. With the help of lipid clinics, patients can receive tailored treatment plans to manage their lipid profiles and reduce their risk of cardiovascular disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man presents to the surgery with intermittent palpitations, occurring for approximately 60 minutes every five to six days.
Careful questioning reveals no clear precipitating factors, and he is otherwise an infrequent attender to the surgery. On examination, his BP is 140/80 mmHg, his pulse irregular at 100 bpm, but otherwise cardiovascular and respiratory examination is unremarkable.
You arrange for an ECG the following day with the practice nurse, which is normal.
What is the next most appropriate step?Your Answer: Arrange a 24 hour ambulatory ECG monitor
Correct Answer: Arrange an event recorder ECG
Explanation:Recommended Investigation for Diagnosis of Heart Condition
The recommended investigation for confirming the diagnosis of the heart condition in this scenario is an event recorder electrocardiogram (ECG). This is because symptomatic episodes are more than 24 hours apart, making a 24-hour ambulatory ECG less likely to confirm the diagnosis. While echocardiography may be useful in evaluating atrial fibrillation, a diagnosis must first be made.
It is important to note that there is no indication of haemodynamic compromise in this scenario, so acute admission is not necessary. By conducting the appropriate investigation, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat the heart condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 60-year-old man with no medication history comes in with three high blood pressure readings of 155/95 mmHg, 160/100 mmHg, and 164/85 mmHg.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Essential hypertension
Explanation:Understanding Hypertension
Ninety five percent of patients diagnosed with hypertension have essential or primary hypertension, while the remaining five percent have secondary hypertension. Essential hypertension is caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors, resulting in high blood pressure. On the other hand, secondary hypertension is caused by a specific abnormality in one of the organs or systems of the body.
It is important to understand the type of hypertension a patient has in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan. While essential hypertension may be managed through lifestyle changes and medication, secondary hypertension requires addressing the underlying cause. Regular blood pressure monitoring and consultation with a healthcare professional can help manage hypertension and reduce the risk of complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 72-year-old bus driver comes to you for consultation after undergoing an abdominal ultrasound scan as part of a routine health check. The scan reveals an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) measuring 4 cm, and he has no symptoms.
What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer: Refer for annual ultrasound surveillance
Explanation:Recommended Actions for Patients with Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm
Patients with an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) require careful monitoring and appropriate actions to prevent complications. Here are some recommended actions based on the size of the AAA and the patient’s condition:
Annual ultrasound surveillance: Asymptomatic patients with an AAA measuring 3.0–4.4 cm should undergo annual ultrasound monitoring to detect any changes in size or shape. This can help identify the need for further intervention, such as surgery or endovascular repair. In addition, patients should be advised to quit smoking, control their blood pressure, and take statins and antiplatelet therapy as needed.
Refer for follow-up ultrasound in three months: If the AAA measures between 4.5 and 5.4 cm, a follow-up ultrasound should be arranged in three months to monitor any progression. This can help determine the optimal timing for intervention and prevent rupture or dissection.
Advise the patient to inform the DVLA and cease driving: Patients who have an AAA and hold a Group 2 driving license must notify the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA) and stop driving if the aneurysm diameter is larger than 5.5 cm. This is to ensure the safety of the patient and other road users.
Arrange a repeat scan in one year: The recommended screening interval for AAA is determined by its size, with a maximum interval of one year. Therefore, patients with an AAA measuring more than 5.5 cm or with rapid growth should undergo repeat scans every six months to one year to monitor any changes.
Monitor all patients with an AAA: Regardless of symptoms, all patients with an AAA measuring more than 3 cm require monitoring and appropriate actions to prevent complications. If the patient develops symptoms such as pain, they may need additional investigation and possible intervention to prevent rupture or dissection.
By following these recommended actions, patients with an AAA can receive timely and appropriate care to prevent complications and improve their outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 65-year-old man with a history of depression and lumbar spinal stenosis presents with a swollen and painful left calf. He is seen in the DVT clinic and found to have a raised D-dimer. As a result, he undergoes a Doppler scan which reveals a proximal deep vein thrombosis. Despite being active and otherwise healthy, the patient has not had any recent surgeries or prolonged periods of immobility. He is initiated on a direct oral anticoagulant.
What is the appropriate duration of treatment for this patient?Your Answer: 6 months
Explanation:For provoked cases of venous thromboembolism, such as those following recent surgery, warfarin treatment is typically recommended for a duration of three months. However, for unprovoked cases, where the cause is unknown, a longer duration of six months is typically recommended.
Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines in 2020, recommending the use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. They also recommend the use of DOACs in patients with active cancer, as opposed to low-molecular weight heparin as was previously recommended. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis.
If a patient is suspected of having a DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be performed to assess the likelihood of the condition. If a DVT is ‘likely’ (2 points or more), a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be carried out within 4 hours. If the result is positive, then a diagnosis of DVT is made and anticoagulant treatment should start. If the result is negative, a D-dimer test should be arranged. If a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan cannot be carried out within 4 hours, a D-dimer test should be performed and interim therapeutic anticoagulation administered whilst waiting for the proximal leg vein ultrasound scan (which should be performed within 24 hours).
The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy. The big change in the 2020 guidelines was the increased use of DOACs. Apixaban or rivaroxaban (both DOACs) should be offered first-line following the diagnosis of a DVT. Instead of using low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH) until the diagnosis is confirmed, NICE now advocate using a DOAC once a diagnosis is suspected, with this continued if the diagnosis is confirmed. If neither apixaban or rivaroxaban are suitable, then either LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban OR LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA, i.e. warfarin) can be used.
All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months. Continuing anticoagulation after this period is partly determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked. If the VTE was provoked, the treatment is typically stopped after the initial 3 months (3 to 6 months for people with active cancer). If the VTE was
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A national screening programme exists in the UK for abdominal aortic aneurysms.
Select the single correct statement regarding this process.Your Answer: Patients will be scanned every 5 years from age 50
Correct Answer: Screening all men at 65 is estimated to reduce the rate of premature death from ruptured aortic aneurysm by 50%
Explanation:National Screening Programme for Aortic Aneurysm in Men at 65
The National Screening Programme aims to reduce the rate of premature death from ruptured aortic aneurysm by 50% by screening all men in their 65th year. The prevalence of significant aneurysm in this age group is 4%. Screening will be done through ultrasound, and those without significant aneurysms will be discharged. For those with aneurysms greater than 5.5 cm in diameter, surgery will be offered to 0.5% of men. Those with small aneurysms will enter a follow-up programme. However, the mortality from elective surgery is 5-7%.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 62-year-old man presents with shortness of breath during physical activity. His heart rate is 102 and irregularly irregular. He has a loud first heart sound with an opening snap in early diastole. He also has a mid/late diastolic murmur.
What is the most probable cause of his heart condition from the options given below?Your Answer: Degenerative valvular calcification
Correct Answer: Rheumatic fever
Explanation:Understanding Mitral Stenosis: Symptoms and Causes
Mitral stenosis is a condition that can lead to atrial fibrillation and is characterized by a distinct heart murmur. The first heart sound is louder than usual and may be felt at the apex due to increased force in closing the mitral valve. An opening snap, a high-pitched sound, may be heard after the A2 component of the second heart sound, indicating the forceful opening of the mitral valve. A mid-diastolic rumbling murmur with presystolic accentuation is also present. Rheumatic fever is the most common cause, but degenerative changes and congenital defects can also lead to mitral stenosis. It is important to note that mitral regurgitation, not stenosis, is caused by ischemic heart disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
For which patient is it necessary to utilize a cardiovascular risk assessment tool (such as QRISK) in order to ascertain their likelihood of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD)?
Your Answer: A 55-year-old woman with an eGFR of 50 ml/min/1.73m2 without albuminuria
Correct Answer: A 45-year-old man with type 1 diabetes with a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol and no nephropathy or microalbuminuria
Explanation:High Risk Patients for Cardiovascular Disease
Certain patients are automatically considered at high risk for cardiovascular disease (CVD) and do not require the use of a CVD risk assessment tool such as QRISK2. These high-risk patients include those with pre-existing CVD, those aged 85 and above, those with an eGFR <60 ml/min/1.73m2 and/or albuminuria, those with familial hypercholesterolaemia or other inherited lipid disorders, and those with type 1 diabetes who are over 40 years old, have a history of diabetes for at least 10 years, have established nephropathy, or have other CVD risk factors. However, for patients with a BMI of 38, a CVD risk assessment tool should be used. It is important to note that for patients with a BMI higher than 40 kg/m2, their risk may be underestimated by standard CVD risk assessment tools. By identifying high-risk patients, healthcare providers can take appropriate measures to prevent and manage CVD.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
The nurse practitioner approaches you with a query after the clinic. A 50-year-old patient had visited her for a regular diabetes check-up and disclosed a history of a minor stroke during a trip abroad a few years ago. The nurse observed that this information was not included in the problem list, so she updated the record with a coded diagnosis. As a result, a computer alert was triggered since the patient was not taking any antiplatelet therapy. The nurse seeks your advice on the preferred antiplatelet medication for this patient.
Your Answer: Clopidogrel
Explanation:Clopidogrel is the top choice for antiplatelet therapy in the secondary prevention of stroke. As a second option, aspirin can be combined with modified-release dipyridamole. However, there is some discrepancy among guidelines regarding the preferred antiplatelet for transient ischaemic attack. While NICE recommends aspirin and dipyridamole due to clopidogrel lack of licensing for this indication, the Royal College of Physicians advocates for clopidogrel. It is worth noting that clopidogrel is associated with frequent gastrointestinal side effects.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The guidelines provide recommendations for the management of acute stroke, including maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage, and usually not until 14 days have passed from the onset of an ischaemic stroke. If the cholesterol is > 3.5 mmol/l, patients should be commenced on a statin.
Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if it is administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. There are absolute and relative contraindications to thrombolysis, including previous intracranial haemorrhage, intracranial neoplasm, and active bleeding. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends considering thrombectomy together with intravenous thrombolysis for people last known to be well up to 24 hours previously.
Secondary prevention recommendations from NICE include the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Clopidogrel is recommended ahead of combination use of aspirin plus modified-release dipyridamole in people who have had an ischaemic stroke. Aspirin plus MR dipyridamole is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if clopidogrel is contraindicated or not tolerated. MR dipyridamole alone is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if aspirin or clopidogrel are contraindicated or not tolerated. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
A 58-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with hypertension wants to know your opinion on salt consumption. What would be the most suitable answer based on the latest available evidence?
Your Answer: Lowering salt intake significantly reduces blood pressure, the target should be less than 6g per day
Explanation:Studies conducted recently have highlighted the noteworthy and swift decrease in blood pressure that can be attained through the reduction of salt consumption.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
A 68-year-old man with lung cancer is diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis. He is seen in the hospital clinic and prescribed a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC). What would be the best course of treatment?
Your Answer: Continue on the DOAC for 3-6 months
Explanation:In 2020, NICE revised their guidance to suggest the use of DOACs for individuals with active cancer who have VTE. Prior to this, low molecular weight heparin was the recommended treatment.
Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines in 2020, recommending the use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. They also recommend the use of DOACs in patients with active cancer, as opposed to low-molecular weight heparin as was previously recommended. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis.
If a patient is suspected of having a DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be performed to assess the likelihood of the condition. If a DVT is ‘likely’ (2 points or more), a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be carried out within 4 hours. If the result is positive, then a diagnosis of DVT is made and anticoagulant treatment should start. If the result is negative, a D-dimer test should be arranged. If a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan cannot be carried out within 4 hours, a D-dimer test should be performed and interim therapeutic anticoagulation administered whilst waiting for the proximal leg vein ultrasound scan (which should be performed within 24 hours).
The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy. The big change in the 2020 guidelines was the increased use of DOACs. Apixaban or rivaroxaban (both DOACs) should be offered first-line following the diagnosis of a DVT. Instead of using low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH) until the diagnosis is confirmed, NICE now advocate using a DOAC once a diagnosis is suspected, with this continued if the diagnosis is confirmed. If neither apixaban or rivaroxaban are suitable, then either LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban OR LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA, i.e. warfarin) can be used.
All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months. Continuing anticoagulation after this period is partly determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked. If the VTE was provoked, the treatment is typically stopped after the initial 3 months (3 to 6 months for people with active cancer). If the VTE was
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
A 50-year-old man with a medical history of type II diabetes mellitus presents with hypertension on home blood pressure recordings (155/105 mmHg). His medical records indicate a recent hospitalization for pyelonephritis where he was diagnosed with renal artery stenosis. What is the most suitable medication to initiate for his hypertension management?
Your Answer: Amlodipine
Explanation:In patients with renovascular disease, ACE inhibitors are contraindicated. Therefore, a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine would be the first-line treatment according to NICE guidelines. If hypertension persists despite CCB and thiazide-like diuretic treatment and serum potassium is over 4.5mmol/L, a cardioselective beta-blocker like carvedilol may be considered. If blood pressure is still not adequately controlled with a CCB, a thiazide-like diuretic such as indapamide would be the second-line treatment. Losartan, an angiotensin II receptor blocker, is also contraindicated in patients with renovascular disease for the same reason as ACE inhibitors.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
A 78-year-old man is being evaluated for his hypertension. He has been taking bendroflumethiazide 2.5mg od for the past 8 years. His current blood pressure is 152/96 mmHg. Upon clinical examination, no significant findings were noted. An echocardiogram from three months ago revealed an ejection fraction of 40% and mild left ventricular hypertrophy. What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Add ramipril 1.25 mg od
Explanation:The echocardiogram indicates that there is some level of left ventricular dysfunction. To manage this condition, it is crucial to initiate treatment with an ACE inhibitor. This medication will not only regulate the patient’s blood pressure but also decelerate the decline in her heart’s performance. Additionally, a beta-blocker is recommended as there is evidence of heart failure.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 18
Correct
-
A 70-year-old man with a history of hypertension only complains of worsening breathlessness and swollen ankles for the past 3 months. You plan to conduct a BNP test. What could cause a falsely low BNP result in this patient?
Your Answer: Being on ramipril for his blood pressure
Explanation:Serum levels of B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) and N-terminal pro-BNP (NT-proBNP) can be measured to assess the likelihood of heart failure in patients. NT-proBNP is the inactive prohormone of BNP and is released from the left ventricle in response to ventricular strain. It acts to increase renal excretion of water and sodium, and relax vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilation.
BNP measurements are recommended for patients with suspected heart failure who have not had a previous myocardial infarction. Elevated BNP levels (>400) indicate a poor prognosis and require an urgent referral for echocardiography and specialist assessment. However, normal BNP levels do not confirm the absence of heart failure, as levels may be elevated due to other conditions such as left ventricular hypertrophy, pulmonary hypertension, or renal impairment.
NICE guidelines suggest that BNP measurements are not necessary for patients with suspected heart failure who have had a previous myocardial infarction, as urgent referral and assessment are required regardless of BNP levels. BNP levels may also be affected by medications such as ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers, as well as obesity.
Overall, BNP measurements can be a useful tool in assessing the likelihood of heart failure, but should be interpreted in conjunction with other clinical findings and patient history.
B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a hormone that is primarily produced by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Although heart failure is the most common cause of elevated BNP levels, any condition that causes left ventricular dysfunction, such as myocardial ischemia or valvular disease, may also raise levels. In patients with chronic kidney disease, reduced excretion may also lead to elevated BNP levels. Conversely, treatment with ACE inhibitors, angiotensin-2 receptor blockers, and diuretics can lower BNP levels.
BNP has several effects, including vasodilation, diuresis, natriuresis, and suppression of both sympathetic tone and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Clinically, BNP is useful in diagnosing patients with acute dyspnea. A low concentration of BNP (<100 pg/mL) makes a diagnosis of heart failure unlikely, but elevated levels should prompt further investigation to confirm the diagnosis. Currently, NICE recommends BNP as a helpful test to rule out a diagnosis of heart failure. In patients with chronic heart failure, initial evidence suggests that BNP is an extremely useful marker of prognosis and can guide treatment. However, BNP is not currently recommended for population screening for cardiac dysfunction.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 52-year-old heavy smoker with a long history of self-neglect presents to his GP with severe leg pain. On examination there are several, small punched-out ulcers situated on the lower third of both legs. Both dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses appear absent.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Multiple venous ulcers
Correct Answer: Multiple arterial ulcers
Explanation:Arterial Ulceration in Smokers: Symptoms and Treatment Options
Arterial ulceration is a common problem among smokers, which is characterized by intense leg pain and sleep interference. The absence of foot pulses bilaterally indicates peripheral vascular disease, and it is important to assess for ischaemic heart disease and carotid disease as well. Angioplasty or bypass surgery may be appropriate for improving the peripheral blood supply in a limited number of cases only, while peripheral vasodilators are rarely effective. However, other options such as varicose veins, vasculitis, injury, or bites should be ruled out before making a diagnosis. In this article, we will discuss the symptoms and treatment options for arterial ulceration in smokers.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman, who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin and digoxin, tells you that she has been feeling low lately and has been self medicating with St John's wort which she bought from a health store.
Which of the following interactions can be anticipated between St John's Wort and her current medication?Your Answer: There is an increased risk of digoxin toxicity
Correct Answer: INR is likely to be reduced
Explanation:St John’s Wort and Medication Interactions
St John’s wort is a popular natural remedy for depressive symptoms. However, it is important to note that it is a liver enzyme inducer, which can lead to interactions with other medications. For example, St John’s wort may reduce the efficacy of warfarin, a blood thinner, requiring an increased dose to maintain the desired level of anticoagulation. It may also reduce the efficacy of digoxin, a medication used to treat heart failure. Therefore, it is important to discuss the use of St John’s wort with a healthcare provider before taking it in combination with other medications. By doing so, potential interactions can be identified and managed appropriately.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)