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  • Question 1 - A 26-year-old man with chronic renal failure received a renal transplant from a...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man with chronic renal failure received a renal transplant from a matched related donor. After being discharged with a functioning graft, he returned to the nephrology clinic a month later with a high fever and was admitted for further investigation. During his first evening in the hospital, his condition rapidly worsened, and he became dyspneic. A full blood count revealed significant leukopenia, and his liver function tests were severely abnormal. What is the probable cause of his illness?

      Your Answer: coxsackievirus

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      CMV Infection and Organ Transplantation

      Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality in patients who have undergone organ transplantation. The likelihood of developing CMV infection after transplantation depends on two primary factors: whether the donor or recipient has a latent virus that can reactivate after transplantation and the degree of immunosuppression after the procedure.

      The most severe type of post-transplant CMV infection is primary disease, which occurs in individuals who have never been infected with CMV and receive an allograft that contains latent virus from a CMV-seropositive donor. This type of infection is the most common and can be particularly dangerous for patients who have undergone organ transplantation. Proper monitoring and management of CMV infection are essential for ensuring the best possible outcomes for these patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      265.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old man has been experiencing pain with urination for the past week....

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man has been experiencing pain with urination for the past week. His temperature is 37.5 °C. On digital rectal examination, his prostate is slightly enlarged and mildly tender to palpation. Laboratory studies show his white blood cell count to be 13 000 mL. Urine culture grows > 100 000 Escherichia coli organisms. His serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is 6 ng/ml (normal < 5ng/ml). He receives antibiotic therapy and his clinical condition initially improves. However, his symptoms recur six times over the next 12 months.
      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Chronic bacterial prostatitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prostate Conditions: Differentiating Chronic Bacterial Prostatitis, Nodular Prostatic Hyperplasia, Prostatic Adenocarcinoma, Prostatodynia, and Urothelial Carcinoma of the Urethra

      Prostate conditions can cause various symptoms and complications, making it crucial to differentiate between them for proper diagnosis and treatment. Chronic bacterial prostatitis, for instance, is characterized by recurrent bacteriuria and UTIs, often caused by E. coli. Nodular prostatic hyperplasia, on the other hand, can lead to an enlarged prostate and recurrent UTIs due to obstruction. Prostatic adenocarcinoma, which is usually non-tender, can cause a palpable nodule and significantly elevated PSA levels. Prostatodynia, meanwhile, presents with prostatitis-like symptoms but without inflammation or positive urine cultures. Lastly, urothelial carcinoma of the urethra is rare but may cause haematuria and UTI predisposition. Understanding these conditions and their distinguishing features can aid in prompt and accurate diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An 80-year-old man comes to the Neurology Clinic complaining of increasing dysphagia. You...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the Neurology Clinic complaining of increasing dysphagia. You observe that he is having some trouble speaking, and upon further inquiry, he reveals that this has also been worsening over time. He reports no issues with chewing. During the examination, you note that he has a missing gag reflex and displays tongue atrophy and fasciculations.
      What would be the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Nerve conduction studies, computed tomography (CT) head, ophthalmology review, speech and language therapy

      Correct Answer: MRI brain, syphilis serology, poliomyelitis serology, lumbar puncture

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Investigations for a Patient with Bulbar Palsy

      Bulbar palsy is a condition that affects the lower motor neurons of the cranial nerves, causing difficulty in speech and swallowing. To manage a patient with this condition, appropriate investigations must be conducted to determine the underlying cause.

      MRI brain, syphilis serology, poliomyelitis serology, and lumbar puncture are some of the most appropriate investigations to manage a patient with bulbar palsy. These investigations can help identify reversible causes such as brainstem stroke or tumor, neurodegenerative diseases, infectious neuropathies, and autoimmune neuropathies.

      On the other hand, investigations such as nerve conduction studies and viral PCR have no place in the management of this patient. CT head may be helpful, but MRI brain is a more appropriate form of imaging. Routine bloods can also be done to determine the systemic health of the patient.

      Speech and language therapy is an essential part of managing a patient with bulbar palsy, as it can help improve their speech and swallowing. However, ophthalmology review and ECG are not necessary unless there is a clear clinical indication.

      In summary, appropriate investigations for a patient with bulbar palsy include MRI brain, serology for infectious neuropathies, lumbar puncture, and routine bloods. Speech and language therapy is also crucial for managing the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 57-year-old motorcyclist is involved in a road traffic accident and suffers a...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old motorcyclist is involved in a road traffic accident and suffers a displaced femoral shaft fracture. There are no other injuries detected during the primary or secondary surveys. The fracture is treated with closed, antegrade intramedullary nailing. The next day, the patient becomes increasingly confused and agitated. Upon examination, he is pyrexial, hypoxic with SaO2 at 90% on 6 litres O2, tachycardic, and normotensive. A non-blanching petechial rash is observed over the torso during systemic examination. What is the most probable explanation for this?

      Your Answer: Meningococcal sepsis

      Correct Answer: Fat embolism

      Explanation:

      The triad of symptoms for this individual includes respiratory distress, neurological issues, and a petechial rash that typically appears after the first two symptoms. It is suspected that the individual may be experiencing fat embolism syndrome due to a recent injury and physical signs that align with this condition. Meningococcal sepsis is not typically associated with initial hypoxia, and pyrexia is not commonly linked to pulmonary emboli.

      Understanding Fat Embolism: Diagnosis, Clinical Features, and Treatment

      Fat embolism is a medical condition that occurs when fat globules enter the bloodstream and obstruct blood vessels. This condition is commonly seen in patients with long bone fractures, particularly in the femur and tibia. The diagnosis of fat embolism is based on clinical features, including respiratory symptoms such as tachypnea, dyspnea, and hypoxia, as well as dermatological symptoms such as a red or brown petechial rash. CNS symptoms such as confusion and agitation may also be present. Imaging may not always show vascular occlusion, but a ground glass appearance may be seen at the periphery.

      Prompt fixation of long bone fractures is crucial in the treatment of fat embolism. However, there is some debate regarding the benefit versus risk of medullary reaming in femoral shaft or tibial fractures in terms of increasing the risk of fat embolism. DVT prophylaxis and general supportive care are also important in the management of this condition. While fat embolism can be a serious and potentially life-threatening condition, prompt diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old, malnourished patient needs to have a nasogastric tube (NGT) inserted for...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old, malnourished patient needs to have a nasogastric tube (NGT) inserted for enteral feeding. What is the most important measure to take before beginning the feeding plan?

      Your Answer: Aspirate 10 ml from the tube and observe the appearance of the tube aspirate

      Correct Answer: Chest radiograph

      Explanation:

      Confirming Nasogastric Tube Placement: The Role of Chest Radiograph

      Confirming the placement of a nasogastric tube (NGT) is crucial to prevent potential harm to the patient. While pH testing was previously used, chest radiograph has become the preferred method due to its increasing availability and negligible radiation exposure. The NGT has two main indications: enteral feeding/medication administration and stomach decompression. A chest radiograph should confirm that the NGT is passed down the midline, past the carina, past the level of the diaphragm, deviates to the left, and the tip is seen in the stomach. Respiratory distress absence is a reliable indicator of correct placement, while aspirating or auscultating the tube is unreliable. Abdominal radiographs are not recommended due to their inability to visualize the entire length of the NGT and the unnecessary radiation risk to the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the most frequent negative outcome of nicotinic acid therapy in the...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequent negative outcome of nicotinic acid therapy in the management of dyslipidemia patients?

      Your Answer: Facial flushing

      Explanation:

      Common Side Effects of Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs)

      Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used to relieve pain and inflammation. However, they can also cause side effects. The most common side effects of NSAIDs include facial flushing, which is caused by changes in prostaglandin metabolism. NSAIDs can also cause gastritis, peptic ulcer formation, hepatitis, gout, hyperglycemia, and rhabdomyolysis, especially when combined with statins. These side effects can be serious and should be monitored closely by a healthcare provider. It is important to discuss any concerns or questions about NSAIDs with a healthcare provider before taking them. Proper use and monitoring can help minimize the risk of side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old woman presents with a 4-year history of a progressively worsening rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with a 4-year history of a progressively worsening rash on her face, characterised by dark-coloured lesions with periodic background scaling, burning and pruritus. Physical examination reveals well-defined patches of flaky skin which is yellow and dry on the scalp. There is also flaking in the nasolabial folds, eyebrows and behind the ears. The patient’s eyelids are also red and inflamed. They report itchiness and discomfort.
      Given the likely diagnosis of this patient, what is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Emollients

      Correct Answer: Ketoconazole

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Seborrheic Dermatitis and Psoriasis

      Seborrheic dermatitis and psoriasis are two common skin conditions that can cause discomfort and irritation. Fortunately, there are several treatment options available to help manage symptoms and improve overall skin health.

      Ketoconazole is the preferred medication for treating seborrheic dermatitis in adults. It is available as a 2% cream and should be applied once or twice daily for at least four weeks. Antifungal shampoo can also be used on the scalp. For infants with seborrheic dermatitis, clotrimazole is a suitable option and should be applied 2-3 times a day for up to four weeks.

      Emollients are often used to relieve symptoms of psoriasis by moisturizing dry skin and reducing itching. They can be used before starting steroid treatment for psoriasis. It is important to avoid using soap and shaving creams on the face, as they can exacerbate irritation. Instead, non-greasy emollients or emollient soaps can be used as an alternative.

      Topical steroids are commonly used to treat psoriasis by reducing skin inflammation. Mild topical steroids can be used on the face or skinfolds. It is important to follow the instructions provided by your healthcare provider and to use these medications as directed.

      In summary, there are several treatment options available for managing seborrheic dermatitis and psoriasis. By working with your healthcare provider, you can find the best approach to improve your skin health and overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 58-year-old lady with multiple myeloma visits the Oncology Day Hospital for her...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old lady with multiple myeloma visits the Oncology Day Hospital for her monthly infusion of intravenous zoledronic acid. She reports experiencing neck pain and new weakness and paraesthesiae in her left hand and arm.
      What is the most suitable initial approach for managing this woman?

      Your Answer: X-ray C-spine

      Correct Answer: Urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) whole spine

      Explanation:

      Urgent Management for a Patient with Acute Neck Pain and Malignancy

      Explanation:

      When a patient with malignancy presents with acute neck pain and focal neurological deficits, urgent investigation is necessary. This is particularly important for patients with multiple myeloma, who are at risk for developing plasmacytomas, which can cause spinal cord compression or pathological fractures. In this case, an urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the whole spine is needed to assess for spinal cord compression.

      While blood cultures may be important in other situations, they would not affect the management of this patient. Instead, the focus should be on obtaining a diagnosis and definitive treatment. Plasmacytomas are radiosensitive, so urgent radiotherapy is indicated for treatment.

      Although analgesia and pain assessment are necessary, they are not the top priority. Physiotherapy assessment for hand weakness may be beneficial, but it does not need to be done urgently. An X-ray of the cervical spine is not sensitive enough to detect all plasmacytomas, so an MRI of the whole spine is necessary to assess for multiple levels of disease.

      In summary, urgent management for a patient with acute neck pain and malignancy includes an urgent MRI of the whole spine to assess for spinal cord compression, followed by urgent radiotherapy for treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 57-year-old man is currently admitted to the ward following a fundoplication procedure...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man is currently admitted to the ward following a fundoplication procedure for a hiatus hernia. He has been experiencing worsening chest and epigastric pain 48 hours after the operation, and a chest x-ray has revealed bilateral small pleural effusions. As a healthcare provider, you are concerned about the possibility of oesophageal perforation. Considering the patient's recent fundoplication, where would you anticipate the most probable site of oesophageal perforation to be?

      Your Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      The Anatomy and Function of the Oesophagus and Gastro-Oesophageal Junction

      The oesophagus is a muscular tube that runs from the pharynx to the stomach, measuring approximately 25 cm in length and 2 cm in diameter. Its muscle layer is arranged in both longitudinal and circular orientations and can be divided into thirds, with the top third being striated, the middle third being mixed striated and smooth, and the bottom third being completely smooth. The oesophagus enters the abdomen via the oesophageal hiatus in the diaphragm and continues for a further 2-3 cm before reaching the gastro-oesophageal junction.

      The gastro-oesophageal junction is a specialised area of circular muscle that permits the passage of food by relaxing during swallowing. It is also where the non-keratinised stratified squamous epithelium mucosa changes to simple columnar epithelium. A hiatus hernia occurs when the gastro-oesophageal junction and/or part of the stomach protrudes through a defect in the diaphragm into the thorax, causing acid reflux and inflammation.

      Treatment for a hiatus hernia typically involves medication such as antacids, Gaviscon, H2 antagonists, and proton pump inhibitors. However, if the hernia is large or symptoms persist, surgery may be necessary. Nissen’s fundoplication is a surgical procedure that involves pulling the hernia back into the abdomen, repairing the hole in the diaphragm, and wrapping the stomach around the abdominal portion of the oesophagus to increase pressure and prevent reflux.

      In conclusion, the oesophagus and gastro-oesophageal junction play important roles in the digestive system. their anatomy and function can help diagnose and treat conditions such as hiatus hernia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 6-month-old girl is not gaining weight and has had repeated chest infections...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old girl is not gaining weight and has had repeated chest infections since birth. During examination, she appears weak and undernourished. A continuous murmur is heard most prominently under the left clavicle upon auscultation of the precordium. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary stenosis

      Correct Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus

      Explanation:

      The conditions that can cause poor weight gain and recurrent infections have similar symptoms, but the type of murmur heard can help differentiate between them. A continuous murmur is associated with Patent ductus, while Pulmonary stenosis presents with a systolic murmur. The symptoms described rule out an innocent murmur, which is a normal sound heard during circulation and disappears with age. ASD’s have a fixed split S2 sound due to increased venous return overloading the right ventricle during inspiration, delaying closure of the pulmonary valve. VSD is associated with a pansystolic murmur.

      Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.

      The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 9-week-old boy is presented to his GP by his parents who are...

    Correct

    • A 9-week-old boy is presented to his GP by his parents who are concerned about an undescended testis. The patient was born at term following an uncomplicated pregnancy and birth and has been healthy since birth. On examination, the left testicle is not palpable in the scrotal sac and is unretractable, while the right testicle has fully descended. What is the most suitable next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Review in 1 month

      Explanation:

      If a male child’s testes have not descended by 3 months of age, it is important to refer them for further evaluation. In the case of a 2-month-old child with a unilateral undescended testicle, the appropriate course of action is to review the situation again in 1 month. It is crucial to monitor the child’s condition as undescended testes can increase the risk of testicular cancer and infertility. While there is a chance that the testicle may descend on its own, it is important to ensure that it does so. Reassurance without follow-up would not be appropriate in this case. If the child were over 3 months of age, a routine referral would be necessary, but in this scenario, the child is only 2 months old. An urgent referral is not necessary at this stage. Waiting until the child is 1 year old to review the case would be inappropriate. If the testicle remains undescended by 3 months of age, the child should be referred to paediatric surgery for orchidopexy by 18 months of age.

      Undescended Testis: Causes, Complications, and Management

      Undescended testis is a condition that affects around 2-3% of male infants born at term, but it is more common in preterm babies. Bilateral undescended testes occur in about 25% of cases. This condition can lead to complications such as infertility, torsion, testicular cancer, and psychological issues.

      To manage unilateral undescended testis, NICE CKS recommends considering referral from around 3 months of age, with the baby ideally seeing a urological surgeon before 6 months of age. Orchidopexy, a surgical procedure, is typically performed at around 1 year of age, although surgical practices may vary.

      For bilateral undescended testes, it is crucial to have the child reviewed by a senior paediatrician within 24 hours as they may require urgent endocrine or genetic investigation. Proper management of undescended testis is essential to prevent complications and ensure the child’s overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 55-year-old man comes to the doctor complaining of double vision. Upon examination,...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man comes to the doctor complaining of double vision. Upon examination, his eye is turned down and out, and he has limited adduction, elevation, and depression of the eye, as well as ptosis. Additionally, his pupil is fixed and dilated. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Third nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      Common Cranial Nerve Palsies and Their Symptoms

      Cranial nerve palsies can cause a variety of symptoms depending on which nerve is affected. Here are some common cranial nerve palsies and their associated symptoms:

      Third Nerve Palsy: This affects the oculomotor nerve and causes the eye to be positioned downward and outward, along with ptosis (drooping eyelid) and mydriasis (dilated pupil).

      Sixth Nerve Palsy: This affects the abducens nerve and causes medial deviation of the eye.

      Fourth Nerve Palsy: This affects the trochlear nerve and causes the eye to look out and down, resulting in vertical or oblique diplopia (double vision). Patients may tilt their head away from the affected side to correct this.

      Horner’s Syndrome: This presents with miosis (constricted pupil), ptosis, and ipsilateral anhidrosis (lack of sweating on one side of the face).

      Fifth Nerve Palsy: This affects the trigeminal nerve, which is responsible for facial sensation and some motor functions related to biting and chewing. It does not affect the eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Samantha Masters, a 16-year-old high school student, visits the Dermatology Clinic with concerns...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha Masters, a 16-year-old high school student, visits the Dermatology Clinic with concerns about her appearance. She has been struggling with severe acne for a few years and has tried various over-the-counter treatments and antibiotics, but none have worked. She has been researching RoaccutaneÂź (isotretinoin) and is interested in trying it. What is the most frequent side effect Samantha may encounter while taking RoaccutaneÂź?

      Your Answer: Weight gain

      Correct Answer: Dry skin and lips

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Side-Effects of RoaccutaneÂź: Dry Skin and Lips

      RoaccutaneÂź is a powerful medication used to treat severe acne when other treatments have failed. While it is highly effective, it is also associated with a range of side-effects that patients should be aware of. One of the most common side-effects is severe dry skin and lips, which can be uncomfortable and require additional moisturizing. Other potential side-effects include dryness of the eyes, mucous membranes, and scalp, as well as muscle pain and hair loss.

      It is important to note that RoaccutaneÂź is highly teratogenic, meaning it can cause birth defects if taken during pregnancy. Women who are taking RoaccutaneÂź should use at least two forms of contraception to prevent pregnancy. Additionally, all patients should have their liver function and lipid levels monitored before and during treatment, as RoaccutaneÂź can cause elevated levels of both.

      While night sweats and peptic ulceration are not recognised side-effects of RoaccutaneÂź, photosensitivity is a potential side-effect, although it is not the most common. Weight gain is also not a recognised side-effect. Patients taking RoaccutaneÂź should be aware of these potential side-effects and discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A man in his early 60s is undergoing treatment for high blood pressure....

    Correct

    • A man in his early 60s is undergoing treatment for high blood pressure. During a dental check-up, his dentist informs him that he has gingival hyperplasia. Which medication is the most probable culprit for this condition?

      Your Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Drugs Associated with Gingival Hyperplasia

      Gingival hyperplasia is a condition characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to discomfort, difficulty in maintaining oral hygiene, and even tooth loss. There are several drugs that have been associated with this condition, including Phenytoin, Ciclosporin, and Nifedipine. These drugs are commonly used to treat various medical conditions, such as epilepsy, organ transplant rejection, and hypertension.

      According to Medscape, drug-induced gingival hyperplasia is a well-known side effect of these medications. The exact mechanism by which these drugs cause gingival hyperplasia is not fully understood, but it is believed to be related to their effect on the immune system and the production of collagen in the gums.

      It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this potential side effect when prescribing these medications, and to monitor patients for any signs of gingival hyperplasia. Patients who are taking these drugs should also be advised to maintain good oral hygiene and to visit their dentist regularly for check-ups and cleanings.

      In summary, Phenytoin, Ciclosporin, and Nifedipine are drugs that have been associated with gingival hyperplasia. Healthcare providers should be aware of this potential side effect and monitor patients accordingly, while patients should maintain good oral hygiene and visit their dentist regularly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      4.8
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  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old woman comes to the antenatal clinic at 14 weeks pregnant. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to the antenatal clinic at 14 weeks pregnant. She was surprised to discover her pregnancy just last week, as it was unexpected. This is her fourth pregnancy, but she has had three miscarriages in the past. The midwife suggests a quadruple test due to the late discovery of her pregnancy, which reveals the following results:

      - Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is low
      - Unconjugated oestriol (uE3) is low
      - Total human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) is low
      - Inhibin-A is normal

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Neural tube defects

      Correct Answer: Edward's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The quadruple test result shows a decrease in AFP, oestriol, and hCG, without change in inhibin A, indicating Edward’s syndrome. This condition is caused by trisomy 18 and can present with physical features such as micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping fingers. The quadruple test is a screening test used to identify pregnancies with a higher risk of Down’s syndrome, Edwards’ syndrome, Patau’s syndrome, or neural tube defects. It is typically offered to patients who discover their pregnancy late and are no longer eligible for the combined test. ARPKD cannot be diagnosed with a quadruple test, but it can be detected prenatally with an ultrasound. Down’s syndrome would present with low AFP, low unconjugated oestriol, high hCG, and inhibin A, while neural tube defects would present with high AFP and normal oestriol, hCG, and inhibin A.

      NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      129.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 67-year-old man complains of intense epigastric pain that spreads to his back....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man complains of intense epigastric pain that spreads to his back. He reports the pain to be excruciating, with a severity of 9/10. He also experiences nausea and vomiting. His serum amylase levels are elevated, leading you to suspect acute pancreatitis.
      What would be your initial approach to managing his acute pain?

      Your Answer: IV morphine 10 mg STAT

      Correct Answer: IV morphine in 1-2 mg boluses until comfortable

      Explanation:

      To alleviate the severe pain of this patient, administering an opiate such as IV morphine in 1-2 mg boluses until they are comfortable would be the appropriate initial approach. Additionally, it would be wise to provide regular paracetamol to reduce the need for opioids. However, paracetamol alone would not be the primary option for managing severe acute pain.

      Pain management can be achieved through various methods, including the use of analgesic drugs and local anesthetics. The World Health Organisation (WHO) recommends a stepwise approach to pain management, starting with peripherally acting drugs such as paracetamol or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). If pain control is not achieved, weak opioid drugs such as codeine or dextropropoxyphene can be introduced, followed by strong opioids such as morphine as a final option. Local anesthetics can also be used to provide pain relief, either through infiltration of a wound or blockade of plexuses or peripheral nerves.

      For acute pain management, the World Federation of Societies of Anaesthesiologists (WFSA) recommends a similar approach, starting with strong analgesics in combination with local anesthetic blocks and peripherally acting drugs. The use of strong opioids may no longer be required once the oral route can be used to deliver analgesia, and peripherally acting agents and weak opioids can be used instead. The final step is when pain can be controlled by peripherally acting agents alone.

      Local anesthetics can be administered through infiltration of a wound with a long-acting agent such as Bupivacaine, providing several hours of pain relief. Blockade of plexuses or peripheral nerves can also provide selective analgesia, either for surgery or postoperative pain relief. Spinal and epidural anesthesia are other options, with spinal anesthesia providing excellent analgesia for lower body surgery and epidural anesthesia providing continuous infusion of analgesic agents. Transversus Abdominal Plane block (TAP) is a technique that uses ultrasound to identify the correct muscle plane and injects local anesthetic to block spinal nerves, providing a wide field of blockade without the need for indwelling devices.

      Patient Controlled Analgesia (PCA) allows patients to administer their own intravenous analgesia and titrate the dose to their own end-point of pain relief using a microprocessor-controlled pump. Opioids such as morphine and pethidine are commonly used, but caution is advised due to potential side effects and toxicity. Non-opioid analgesics such as paracetamol and NSAIDs can also be used, with NSAIDs being more useful for superficial pain and having relative contraindications for certain medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 32-year-old man was admitted to the ICU 10 days ago following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man was admitted to the ICU 10 days ago following a car accident. He was intubated upon admission and has been on a ventilator for the past 10 days. During examination, it was observed that he had abdominal distension related to ventilation. Here are his investigations for the past three days:
      8 days ago 9 days ago Today
      CRP 2 5 10
      WCC (x1011/L) 8 13 17
      Chest X-ray Normal Normal?

      Your Answer: Traumatic endotracheal tube insertion

      Correct Answer: Tracheo-oesophageal fistula formation

      Explanation:

      Tracheo-oesophageal fistula (TOF) formation is a potential complication of long term mechanical ventilation in trauma patients. This can increase the risk of ventilator-associated pneumonias and aspiration pneumonias, which are caused by the inhalation of stomach contents. The pressure exerted by the endotracheal tube on the posterior membranous wall of the trachea can lead to ischaemic necrosis that affects the anterior wall of the oesophagus, resulting in TOF formation.

      It is unlikely that post nasal drip is responsible for the abdominal distension and infective symptoms in this case. A traumatic endotracheal tube insertion would have been detected much earlier than day fourteen, and proper placement of the tube during insertion would have ruled out TOF. Viral thyroiditis and oesophageal reflux are also unlikely to cause these clinical manifestations or airway obstruction.

      Airway Management Devices and Techniques

      Airway management is a crucial aspect of medical care, especially in emergency situations. In addition to airway adjuncts, there are simple positional manoeuvres that can be used to open the airway, such as head tilt/chin lift and jaw thrust. There are also several devices that can be used for airway management, each with its own advantages and limitations.

      The oropharyngeal airway is easy to insert and use, making it ideal for short procedures. It is often used as a temporary measure until a more definitive airway can be established. The laryngeal mask is widely used and very easy to insert. It sits in the pharynx and aligns to cover the airway, but it does not provide good control against reflux of gastric contents. The tracheostomy reduces the work of breathing and may be useful in slow weaning, but it requires humidified air and may dry secretions. The endotracheal tube provides optimal control of the airway once the cuff is inflated and can be used for long or short-term ventilation, but errors in insertion may result in oesophageal intubation.

      It is important to note that paralysis is often required for some of these devices, and higher ventilation pressures can be used with the endotracheal tube. Capnography should be monitored to ensure proper placement and ventilation. Each device has its own unique benefits and drawbacks, and the choice of device will depend on the specific needs of the patient and the situation at hand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      49
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old pharmacist with a longstanding diagnosis of sarcoidosis presents to the Dermatology...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old pharmacist with a longstanding diagnosis of sarcoidosis presents to the Dermatology Clinic with an unsightly rash. The rash has been present for a number of years, but the area affected is becoming more prominent and is making her feel very self-conscious. She has been told previously that the rash is connected to her sarcoidosis; however, she would like to know if anything can be done to treat it.
      Which one of the following dermatological conditions is diagnostic of chronic sarcoidosis?

      Your Answer: Keloid formation

      Correct Answer: Lupus pernio

      Explanation:

      Cutaneous Manifestations of Sarcoidosis

      Sarcoidosis is a systemic disease that can affect multiple organs, including the skin. Cutaneous manifestations of sarcoidosis can vary and may present differently depending on the stage of the disease. Here are some common cutaneous manifestations of sarcoidosis:

      Lupus pernio: This is a specific skin involvement that affects the bridge of the nose and the area beneath the eyes and cheeks. It is diagnostic for the chronic form of sarcoidosis. The lesions are typically large, bluish-red and dusky purple, infiltrated, plaque-like nodules.

      Erythema nodosum: This is seen in the acute stage of sarcoidosis, but it is also seen in many other diseases.

      Keloid formation: This is a classic cutaneous lesion of sarcoidosis, but it is not diagnostic of chronic sarcoidosis.

      Subcutaneous nodules: These can also be seen in rheumatoid arthritis and are not diagnostic of sarcoidosis.

      It is important to note that cutaneous manifestations of sarcoidosis can be nonspecific and may resemble other skin conditions. Therefore, a thorough evaluation by a healthcare provider is necessary for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      34.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 49-year-old man with a long history of sarcoidosis presents for review. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man with a long history of sarcoidosis presents for review. He has been intermittently treated with varying doses of oral prednisolone and chloroquine. On this occasion, he complains of drooping and weakness affecting the left-hand side of his face, blurred vision, thirst and polyuria. On examination, he has a left facial nerve palsy.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 119 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 4.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 195 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 149 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 5.4 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 15.1 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 195 ÎŒmol/l 50–120 ”mol/l
      Ca2+ corrected 2.21 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      Random glucose 5.4 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 36 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      Which of the following diagnoses fit best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Bell’s palsy

      Correct Answer: Neurosarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Neurological Symptoms: Neurosarcoidosis, Bacterial Meningitis, Bell’s Palsy, Viral Meningitis, and Intracerebral Abscess

      A man with a history of sarcoidosis presents with neurological symptoms, including polyuria, polydipsia, and blurred vision. These symptoms suggest the possibility of cranial diabetes insipidus, a consequence of neurosarcoidosis. Hypercalcemia and hyperglycemia are ruled out as potential causes based on normal glucose and calcium levels. Treatment for neurosarcoidosis typically involves oral corticosteroids and immunosuppressant agents.

      Bacterial meningitis, which presents with headache, neck stiffness, and photophobia, is ruled out as there is no evidence of infection. Bell’s palsy, an isolated facial nerve palsy, does not explain the patient’s other symptoms. Viral meningitis, which also presents with photophobia, neck stiffness, and headache, is unlikely as the patient’s white blood cell count is normal. An intracerebral abscess, which typically presents with headache and fever, is unlikely to produce the other symptoms experienced by the patient.

      In summary, the differential diagnosis for this patient’s neurological symptoms includes neurosarcoidosis, bacterial meningitis, Bell’s palsy, viral meningitis, and intracerebral abscess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - An 83-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of increased pain from...

    Incorrect

    • An 83-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of increased pain from his metastatic prostate cancer. He has been taking morphine sulphate modified release tablets orally at a dose of 60 mg twice a day, but the registrar has recommended switching to subcutaneous administration due to his inability to tolerate oral tablets and vomiting.

      What is the appropriate dosage of morphine for a continuous subcutaneous infusion over a 24-hour period?

      Your Answer: 30 mg

      Correct Answer: 60 mg

      Explanation:

      Converting Oral Morphine to Subcutaneous Morphine

      When converting a patient from oral morphine to subcutaneous morphine, it is important to calculate the total dose of oral morphine taken in 24 hours and divide it by two. This will give you the correct dosage for subcutaneous morphine. For example, if a patient is taking 60 mg of oral morphine twice a day, the total daily dose would be 120 mg. Dividing this by two would give you a subcutaneous morphine dosage of 60 mg. It is important to note that if the patient were to be converted to subcutaneous diamorphine, the dosage would be different. Underdosing or overdosing the patient can have serious consequences, so it is crucial to calculate the correct dosage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant presents to the Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant presents to the Emergency Department with sudden onset abdominal pain and some very light vaginal bleeding which has subsequently stopped. On examination her abdomen is tense and tender. The mother says she has not noticed any reduction in foetal movements. Her vital signs are as follows:

      HR 105 bpm
      BP 120/80 mmHg
      Temperature 37.1ÂșC
      Respiratory Rate 20 min-1

      Cardiotocography (CTG) was performed and showed a foetal heart rate of 140 bpm, with beat-beat variability of 5-30 bpm and 3 accelerations were seen in a 20 minute period.

      Ultrasound demonstrates normal foetal biophysical profile and liquor volume. There is a small collection of retroplacental blood.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Admit for IV corticosteroids and monitor maternal and foetal condition

      Explanation:

      In the case of a small placental abruption without signs of foetal distress and a gestational age of less than 36 weeks, the recommended management is to admit the patient and administer steroids. While vitamin K can aid in blood clotting, it is not the optimal choice in this situation. A caesarean section is not immediately necessary as the foetus is not in distress and is under 36 weeks. Antibiotics are not indicated as there are no signs of infection and the patient is not experiencing a fever. Continuous monitoring with CTG for 24 hours is not necessary if the foetus is not displaying any distress on initial presentation and the mother has not reported a decrease in foetal movements.

      Placental Abruption: Causes, Management, and Complications

      Placental abruption is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal haemorrhage. The severity of the condition depends on the extent of the separation and the gestational age of the fetus. Management of placental abruption is crucial to prevent maternal and fetal complications.

      If the fetus is alive and less than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, close observation, administration of steroids, and no tocolysis are recommended. The decision to deliver depends on the gestational age of the fetus. If the fetus is alive and more than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, vaginal delivery is recommended. If the fetus is dead, vaginal delivery should be induced.

      Placental abruption can lead to various maternal complications, including shock, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), renal failure, and postpartum haemorrhage (PPH). Fetal complications include intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), hypoxia, and death. The condition is associated with a high perinatal mortality rate and is responsible for 15% of perinatal deaths.

      In conclusion, placental abruption is a serious condition that requires prompt management to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Close monitoring and timely intervention can improve the prognosis for both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      19.9
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  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old woman presents with shiny, flat, red papules over her anterior wrists...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with shiny, flat, red papules over her anterior wrists and forearms. The papules are extremely pruritic and some of them have a central depression. Similar papules are seen along the scratch line at the volar surface of the forearm. The patient is a nurse and has had at least three needlestick injuries during the past 2 years. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay is negative. Hepatitis B surface antigen and anti-HBc antibody are negative, but anti-HBs antibody is positive. Anti-hepatitis C (HCV) antibody is positive.
      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Dermatomyositis

      Correct Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions and Associated Antibodies

      Lichen Planus: This skin condition is associated with viral hepatitis, specifically hepatitis B and C. Antibodies may indicate the presence of hepatitis and other conditions such as erythema multiforme, urticaria, polyarteritis nodosa, cryoglobulinemia, and porphyria cutanea tarda.

      Chronic Hepatitis B: A negative anti-HBc antibody status suggests that the patient has not been exposed to the hepatitis B virus. A positive anti-HBs antibody status may indicate vaccination.

      Dermatitis Herpetiformis: This condition is characterized by extremely itchy papulovesicles on the elbows, knees, upper back, and buttocks. It is often associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy. Autoantibodies such as anti-gliadin, anti-endomysial, and anti-tissue transglutaminase may be present.

      Essential Mixed Cryoglobulinemia: This condition presents with palpable purpura and arthritis, among other signs of systemic vasculitis. It is also associated with hepatitis C virus infection, and rheumatoid factor is usually positive.

      Dermatomyositis: Gottron’s papules, which are violet, flat-topped lesions, are associated with dermatomyositis and the anti-Jo-1 autoantibody. They are typically seen over the metacarpophalangeal or interphalangeal joints.

      Skin Conditions and Their Antibody Associations

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 68-year-old man complains of severe pain in his calves after walking his...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man complains of severe pain in his calves after walking his dog for only 10 minutes. Upon examination, his lower limbs appear normal except for the absence of posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulses. He has a history of myocardial infarction three years ago and is a heavy smoker, consuming 30 cigarettes per day. What medication should be prescribed daily for secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aspirin 300mg

      Correct Answer: Clopidogrel 75 mg

      Explanation:

      Patients diagnosed with peripheral arterial disease require treatment for secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease. This includes prescribing antiplatelet medication such as clopidogrel 75 mg (or aspirin 75 mg if clopidogrel is not suitable) and a high-intensity statin like atorvastatin 80mg. It is important to note that clopidogrel 300 mg and aspirin 300mg are loading doses and should not be taken daily. NICE recommends atorvastatin 80 mg as the statin of choice for secondary prevention of CVD.

      Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is a condition that is strongly associated with smoking. Therefore, patients who still smoke should be provided with assistance to quit smoking. It is also important to treat any comorbidities that the patient may have, such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and obesity. All patients with established cardiovascular disease, including PAD, should be taking a statin, with Atorvastatin 80 mg being the recommended dosage. In 2010, NICE published guidance recommending the use of clopidogrel as the first-line treatment for PAD patients instead of aspirin. Exercise training has also been shown to have significant benefits, and NICE recommends a supervised exercise program for all PAD patients before other interventions.

      For severe PAD or critical limb ischaemia, there are several treatment options available. Endovascular revascularization and percutaneous transluminal angioplasty with or without stent placement are typically used for short segment stenosis, aortic iliac disease, and high-risk patients. On the other hand, surgical revascularization, surgical bypass with an autologous vein or prosthetic material, and endarterectomy are typically used for long segment lesions, multifocal lesions, lesions of the common femoral artery, and purely infrapopliteal disease. Amputation should only be considered for patients with critical limb ischaemia who are not suitable for other interventions such as angioplasty or bypass surgery.

      There are also drugs licensed for use in PAD, including naftidrofuryl oxalate, a vasodilator sometimes used for patients with a poor quality of life. Cilostazol, a phosphodiesterase III inhibitor with both antiplatelet and vasodilator effects, is not recommended by NICE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 36-year-old G5P2 woman comes to antenatal clinic at 35+2 gestation with a...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old G5P2 woman comes to antenatal clinic at 35+2 gestation with a history of uneventful pregnancy except for moderate morning sickness in the first trimester. She reports several minor symptoms. What symptoms would require further investigation and raise concern?

      Your Answer: Dysuria

      Explanation:

      While many symptoms experienced during pregnancy are normal and not a cause for concern, it is important to be aware of symptoms that may indicate a medical issue, such as dysuria.

      Dysuria, or painful urination, can be a sign of a urinary tract infection (UTI), which should be treated promptly during any stage of pregnancy. UTIs have been linked to premature birth, as the inflammation caused by the infection can irritate the cervix and trigger preterm labor.

      Fatigue during pregnancy is a common experience and can have multiple causes. In the third trimester, it is considered normal. Lower back pain is also a common symptom, caused by the hormone relaxin increasing laxity in the sacroiliac joints and the added mechanical strain of pregnancy.

      Nausea and vomiting are most commonly experienced in the first trimester, but can still occur throughout pregnancy and are generally considered normal.

      Minor Symptoms of Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, women may experience minor symptoms that are common and not usually a cause for concern. These symptoms may include nausea and vomiting, tiredness, and musculoskeletal pains. Nausea and vomiting, commonly known as morning sickness, can occur at any time of the day and may last throughout the first trimester. Tiredness is also a common symptom, especially during the first and third trimesters. Musculoskeletal pains, such as back pain and pelvic pain, may also occur due to the changes in the body’s structure and weight distribution. While these symptoms may be uncomfortable, they are typically manageable and can be relieved with rest, exercise, and proper nutrition. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider if these symptoms become severe or persistent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 60-year-old woman with localised breast cancer is considering starting tamoxifen therapy. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman with localised breast cancer is considering starting tamoxifen therapy. She has a history of well-controlled hypertension (on amlodipine) and underwent a total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy 3 years ago. What is the most crucial aspect for the woman to be informed about regarding the proposed treatment?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of osteoporosis

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of venous thromboembolism

      Explanation:

      Tamoxifen therapy is known to increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, a condition where blood clots form in the veins and can potentially travel to the lungs, causing serious complications. Tamoxifen is commonly used in the treatment of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer, as it selectively blocks oestrogen from binding to receptors in breast tissue, reducing the risk of cancer recurrence. However, tamoxifen is believed to have oestrogen-like effects in other parts of the body, which can increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.

      It is important to note that tamoxifen therapy does not increase cholesterol levels, but may actually decrease total serum cholesterol, particularly low-density lipoproteins (LDLs). Tamoxifen is also not associated with an increased risk of osteoporosis, as it is believed to have a protective effect on bone tissue.

      While tamoxifen is known to increase the risk of endometrial cancer, this risk is not relevant in patients who have had a total hysterectomy, as in the case of this patient. Similarly, the risk of ovarian cancer is not a major concern in this patient, as she has had her ovaries removed during her previous surgery. However, it is important to counsel the patient on the increased risk of venous thromboembolism associated with tamoxifen therapy.

      Tamoxifen: A SERM for Breast Cancer Management

      Tamoxifen is a medication that belongs to the class of Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulators (SERMs). It works by acting as an antagonist to the oestrogen receptor while also partially agonizing it. This medication is commonly used in the management of breast cancer that is positive for oestrogen receptors. However, tamoxifen can cause some adverse effects such as menstrual disturbances like vaginal bleeding and amenorrhoea, hot flashes, venous thromboembolism, and endometrial cancer. Climacteric side-effects are also common, with 3% of patients stopping tamoxifen due to this reason. Typically, tamoxifen is used for five years after the removal of the tumour. For those who are at risk of endometrial cancer, raloxifene is a better option as it is a pure oestrogen receptor antagonist and carries a lower risk of endometrial cancer.

      Overall, tamoxifen is a useful medication for the management of breast cancer that is positive for oestrogen receptors. However, it is important to be aware of the potential adverse effects that it can cause. Patients who experience any of these side-effects should consult their healthcare provider. Additionally, for those who are at risk of endometrial cancer, raloxifene may be a better option to consider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 16-year-old boy comes to the emergency department after taking 60 of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy comes to the emergency department after taking 60 of his father's fluoxetine tablets about four hours ago.

      Which of the following symptoms is consistent with his reported ingestion?

      Your Answer: QRS duration of 120 ms (<100)

      Correct Answer: Vomiting

      Explanation:

      Safety and Adverse Effects of Fluoxetine Overdose

      Fluoxetine, an SSRI, is considered safe in overdose and has minimal adverse effects compared to tricyclic antidepressants. However, there have been rare reports of tachycardia occurring alongside symptoms such as tremors, drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting. If pupillary constriction or respiratory suppression is present, it may suggest an opiate overdose. On the other hand, a prolonged QRS complex is consistent with a tricyclic antidepressant overdose. Despite these potential symptoms, fluoxetine remains a relatively safe option for treating depression and anxiety disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 70-year-old man, who has been a diabetic for over 20 years, visits...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man, who has been a diabetic for over 20 years, visits his GP for a routine check-up. During the appointment, he mentions to his doctor that he has been experiencing difficulty with his vision in his right eye for the past few months. He describes it as blurry vision and seeing halos around lights at night. The man has never had any vision problems before. He is currently taking medications for his high blood pressure and cholesterol levels. Other than his vision, his physical examination is unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis for the man's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Diabetic retinopathy

      Correct Answer: Cataract

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms and medical history strongly suggest a diagnosis of cataract. Their elderly age, long-standing diabetes mellitus, and unilateral blurry vision with halos around light sources are all classic signs of cataract. There is no indication of steroid use, which can also increase the risk of cataract development.

      While primary open-angle glaucoma is a possibility, it is less likely given the patient’s symptoms. This condition typically presents with peripheral visual field loss rather than blurry vision. Acute angle-closure glaucoma is also a possibility, but it is more commonly associated with halos than primary open-angle glaucoma.

      Uveitis is unlikely given the absence of pain and redness in the eye. Additionally, it is not typically associated with diabetes. Diabetic retinopathy is another possibility in this patient, but it is often asymptomatic or presents with hemorrhage.

      Understanding Cataracts: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      A cataract is a common eye condition that affects the lens of the eye, causing it to become cloudy and reducing the amount of light that reaches the retina. This can lead to blurred or reduced vision, making it difficult to see clearly. Cataracts are more common in women and tend to increase in incidence with age. While the normal ageing process is the most common cause, other factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes, and long-term corticosteroid use can also contribute to the development of cataracts.

      Symptoms of cataracts include reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex is also a sign of cataracts. Diagnosis is typically made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which can reveal the presence of a visible cataract.

      In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts and involves removing the cloudy lens and replacing it with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, and patient choice. Complications following surgery can include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis.

      Overall, cataracts are a common and treatable eye condition that can significantly impact a person’s vision. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options can help individuals make informed decisions about their eye health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      16.5
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  • Question 28 - An 80-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of difficulty breathing. His...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of difficulty breathing. His vital signs show a pulse rate of 105 bpm, a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute, and SpO2 saturations of 80% on pulse oximetry. He has a history of COPD for the past 10 years. Upon examination, there is reduced air entry bilaterally and coarse crackles. What would be the most crucial investigation to conduct next?

      Your Answer: Arterial blood gas (ABG)

      Explanation:

      Importance of Different Investigations in Assessing Acute Respiratory Failure

      When a patient presents with acute respiratory failure, it is important to conduct various investigations to determine the underlying cause and severity of the condition. Among the different investigations, arterial blood gas (ABG) is the most important as it helps assess the partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide, as well as the patient’s pH level. This information can help classify respiratory failure into type I or II and identify potential causes of respiratory deterioration. In patients with a history of COPD, ABG can also determine if they are retaining carbon dioxide, which affects their target oxygen saturations.

      While a chest X-ray may be considered to assess for underlying pathology, it is not the most important investigation. A D-dimer may be used to rule out pulmonary embolism, and an electrocardiogram (ECG) may be done to assess for cardiac causes of respiratory failure. However, ABG should be prioritized before these investigations.

      Pulmonary function tests may be required after initial assessment of oxygen saturations to predict potential respiratory failure based on the peak expiratory flow rate. Overall, a combination of these investigations can help diagnose and manage acute respiratory failure effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 3-year-old child is admitted with poor appetite. Over the last 24 hours,...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old child is admitted with poor appetite. Over the last 24 hours, they have eaten only 25% of their usual amount and have had significantly fewer wet diapers than usual. The child has been particularly irritable over this time and is not settling. There is no past medical history, no known allergies, and there has been no travel outside of the UK.

      On examination, the child appears unsettled and grouchy. There are no rashes on exposure and the fontanelles appear normal. The physical observations reveal tachycardia and a fever of 39ÂșC. When you attempt to manually flex the child's neck you note that they also flex the hips and knees.

      What is the most appropriate empirical intravenous treatment for this child?

      Your Answer: Vancomycin + cefotaxime

      Correct Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children

      Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. When investigating meningitis, it is important to note any contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or signs of cerebral herniation. For patients with meningococcal septicaemia, a lumbar puncture is contraindicated, and blood cultures and PCR for meningococcal should be obtained instead.

      The management of meningitis in children involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and IV cefotaxime for children under three months, and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for children over three months. Steroids should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals certain findings, such as purulent cerebrospinal fluid, a high white blood cell count, or bacteria on Gram stain. Fluids should be administered to treat shock, and cerebral monitoring should be conducted, including mechanical ventilation if necessary.

      It is also important to notify public health authorities and administer antibiotic prophylaxis to contacts. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for this purpose. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of meningitis in children is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      6.5
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  • Question 30 - You are requested to examine a 65-year-old man at your clinic. He was...

    Correct

    • You are requested to examine a 65-year-old man at your clinic. He was diagnosed with an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) 18 months ago after being invited to the national screening program. The aneurysm was initially measured at 4.5 cm in diameter. He has recently undergone his follow-up scan and was informed that his aneurysm has now increased to 5.8 cm in diameter. The patient is asymptomatic and feels healthy.
      What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Two week wait referral to vascular surgery for repair

      Explanation:

      If an aneurysm is rapidly enlarging, regardless of its size, it should be repaired even if the patient is asymptomatic. In this case, the patient’s AAA was detected through a one-time screening program for males at 65 years of age. Although the aneurysm is still below the referral threshold of 5.5 cm, it has grown more than 1.0cm in one year, necessitating an urgent referral to vascular surgery via the two-week wait pathway for repair.

      Discharging the patient from yearly ultrasound surveillance is not recommended, as continued monitoring is necessary. Yearly ultrasound surveillance is appropriate for aneurysms measuring 3-4.4 cm or if the aneurysm has grown. Increasing the frequency of ultrasound surveillance to every 3 months is appropriate for aneurysms measuring 4.5-5.4 cm, but in this case, urgent referral for repair is necessary due to the substantial growth of the aneurysm.

      Although the patient is not displaying symptoms of aneurysm rupture, emergency repair is not appropriate.

      Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, which is why it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If it is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. For a width of 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or more, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.

      For patients with a low risk of rupture, which includes those with a small or medium aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter less than 5.5 cm) and no symptoms, abdominal US surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture, which includes those with a large aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter of 5.5 cm or more) or rapidly enlarging aneurysm (more than 1 cm/year) or those with symptoms, they should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention. Treatment for these patients may involve elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if EVAR is not suitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, which occurs when the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      7.9
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Nephrology (0/1) 0%
Urology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/3) 33%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/4) 25%
Dermatology (0/4) 0%
Oncology (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (1/3) 33%
Cardiology (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (2/3) 67%
Surgery (1/3) 33%
Emergency Medicine (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Passmed