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  • Question 1 - What is a personality disorder category in ICD-10? ...

    Correct

    • What is a personality disorder category in ICD-10?

      Your Answer: Anankastic personality disorder

      Explanation:

      ICD-10’s Anankastic personality disorder is the same as DSM V obsessive-compulsive personality disorder, while inadequate and passive aggressive personality disorders are not recognized in either classification system. Additionally, DSM V includes narcissistic personality disorder as a distinct category of personality disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - How can a form of cultural assimilation be described? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can a form of cultural assimilation be described?

      Your Answer: Accommodation

      Correct Answer: Melting pot

      Explanation:

      Multiculturalism is the coexistence of various cultural of ethnic groups within a shared social and political framework. Acculturation is the process of cultural and psychological change that occurs when different cultural groups come into contact with each other. Canadian psychologist John Berry identified four paths to acculturation: assimilation, integration, separation, and marginalization. Assimilation involves giving up one’s home culture and adopting the dominant culture, while integration involves maintaining one’s home culture while also embracing the dominant culture. Separation involves maintaining one’s home culture while being isolated from the dominant culture, and marginalization involves giving up one’s home culture and failing to related properly to the dominant culture. There is a cultural debate regarding assimilation and multiculturalism, with two forms of assimilation recognized: total assimilation, which involves the obliteration of the non-dominant culture, and melting pot assimilation, which refers to a less extreme version where a new form of the dominant culture emerges. Laissez-faire multiculturalism refers to multiculturalism that occurs without planning, such as the existence of Chinatowns in most cities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the antidepressant classification of a SARI? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the antidepressant classification of a SARI?

      Your Answer: Agomelatine

      Correct Answer: Trazodone

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which individual is recognized for coining the phrase 'good enough mother'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which individual is recognized for coining the phrase 'good enough mother'?

      Your Answer: Karen Horney

      Correct Answer: Donald Winnicott

      Explanation:

      Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which statement accurately defines bioavailability? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately defines bioavailability?

      Your Answer: The fraction of an administered dose of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic circulation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bioavailability in Drug Trials

      Bioavailability is a crucial factor in drug trials, as it determines the percentage of a drug that reaches the systemic circulation after administration. This can be affected by factors such as absorption and metabolic clearance. For example, if a drug called X is administered orally and only 60% reaches the systemic circulation, its bioavailability is 0.6 of 60%. However, if the same drug is administered intravenously, plasma levels may reach 100%.

      One way to potentially increase bioavailability is through the rectal route, which bypasses around two thirds of the first-pass metabolism. This is because the rectum’s venous drainage is two thirds systemic (middle and inferior rectal vein) and one third portal (superior rectal vein). As a result, drugs administered rectally may reach the circulatory system with less alteration and in greater concentrations. Understanding bioavailability and exploring different administration routes can help optimize drug efficacy in clinical trials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Through which route does the caudate nucleus obtain its blood supply? ...

    Correct

    • Through which route does the caudate nucleus obtain its blood supply?

      Your Answer: Anterior and middle cerebral arteries

      Explanation:

      The blood supply to the caudate nucleus primarily comes from the deep penetrators of the anterior and middle cerebral arteries. The effects of caudate infarcts can differ depending on the study, but typically include behavioral symptoms such as abulia and agitation, loss of executive function, and motor weakness.

      Brain Blood Supply and Consequences of Occlusion

      The brain receives blood supply from the internal carotid and vertebral arteries, which form the circle of Willis. The circle of Willis acts as a shunt system in case of vessel damage. The three main vessels arising from the circle are the anterior cerebral artery (ACA), middle cerebral artery (MCA), and posterior cerebral artery (PCA). Occlusion of these vessels can result in various neurological deficits. ACA occlusion may cause hemiparesis of the contralateral foot and leg, sensory loss, and frontal signs. MCA occlusion is the most common and can lead to hemiparesis, dysphasia/aphasia, neglect, and visual field defects. PCA occlusion may cause alexia, loss of sensation, hemianopia, prosopagnosia, and cranial nerve defects. It is important to recognize these consequences to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following is not recommended as a treatment for dystonia caused...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not recommended as a treatment for dystonia caused by antipsychotic medication?

      Your Answer: Tetrabenazine

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which area is typically affected by an infarction that leads to locked-in syndrome?...

    Correct

    • Which area is typically affected by an infarction that leads to locked-in syndrome?

      Your Answer: Pons

      Explanation:

      Locked-in Syndrome: A Condition of Total Dependence on Caregivers

      Locked-in syndrome is a medical condition that renders a patient mute, quadriplegic, bedridden, and completely reliant on their caregivers. Despite their physical limitations, patients with locked-in syndrome remain alert and cognitively intact, and can communicate by moving their eyes. This condition typically occurs as a result of an infarction of the pons or medulla, which is often caused by an embolus blocking a branch of the basilar artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the accomplishment of the concrete operational stage in human development, as...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accomplishment of the concrete operational stage in human development, as per Piaget's theory?

      Your Answer: Object permanence

      Correct Answer: Syllogistic reasoning

      Explanation:

      Piaget’s Stages of Development and Key Concepts

      Piaget developed four stages of development that describe how children think and acquire knowledge. The first stage is the Sensorimotor stage, which occurs from birth to 18-24 months. In this stage, infants learn through sensory observation and gain control of their motor functions through activity, exploration, and manipulation of the environment.

      The second stage is the Preoperational stage, which occurs from 2 to 7 years. During this stage, children use symbols and language more extensively, but they are unable to think logically of deductively. They also use a type of magical thinking and animistic thinking.

      The third stage is the Concrete Operational stage, which occurs from 7 to 11 years. In this stage, egocentric thought is replaced by operational thought, which involves dealing with a wide array of information outside the child. Children in this stage begin to use limited logical thought and can serialise, order, and group things into classes on the basis of common characteristics.

      The fourth and final stage is the Formal Operations stage, which occurs from 11 through the end of adolescence. This stage is characterized by the ability to think abstractly, to reason deductively, to define concepts, and also by the emergence of skills for dealing with permutations and combinations.

      Piaget also developed key concepts, including schema, assimilation, and accommodation. A schema is a category of knowledge and the process of obtaining that knowledge. Assimilation is the process of taking new information into an existing schema, while accommodation involves altering a schema in view of additional information.

      Overall, Piaget’s stages of development and key concepts provide a framework for understanding how children learn and acquire knowledge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is a true statement about how methadone works? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about how methadone works?

      Your Answer: It is a mu receptor agonist

      Explanation:

      Compared to other opioid receptors, methadone exhibits significantly greater affinity for mu receptors.

      Opioid Pharmacology and Treatment Medications

      Opioids work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain, specifically the µ, k, and δ receptors. The µ receptor is the main target for opioids and mediates euphoria, respiratory depression, and dependence. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, leading to the reward and euphoria that drives repeated use. However, with repeated exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, leading to dysphoria and drug craving.

      There are several medications used in opioid treatment. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, with some action against k and δ receptors, and has a half-life of 15-22 hours. However, it carries a risk of respiratory depression, especially when used with hypnotics and alcohol. Buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors, as well as a partial k agonist of functional antagonist and a weak δ antagonist. It has a high affinity for µ receptors and a longer half-life of 24-42 hours, making it safer than methadone. Naloxone is an antagonist targeting all opioid receptors and is used to reverse opioid overdose, with a half-life of 30-120 minutes. However, it can cause noncardiogenic pulmonary edema in some cases. Naltrexone is a reversible competitive antagonist at µ and ĸ receptors, with a half-life of 4-6 hours, and is used as an adjunctive prophylactic treatment for detoxified formerly opioid-dependent people.

      Alpha2 adrenergic agonists, such as clonidine and lofexidine, can ameliorate opioid withdrawal symptoms associated with the noradrenaline system, including sweating, shivering, and runny nose and eyes. The locus coeruleus, a nucleus in the pons with a high density of noradrenergic neurons possessing µ-opioid receptors, is involved in wakefulness, blood pressure, breathing, and overall alertness. Exposure to opioids results in heightened neuronal activity of the nucleus cells, and if opioids are not present to suppress this activity, increased amounts of norepinephrine are released, leading to withdrawal symptoms. Clonidine was originally developed as an antihypertensive, but its antihypertensive effects are problematic in detox, so lofexidine was developed as an alternative with less hypotensive effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is a true statement about the Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale?

      Your Answer: It is not an appropriate scale to use to determine treatment response in mania

      Correct Answer: The expanded version includes items on guilt, self neglect, and suicidality

      Explanation:

      The Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale is a useful tool for evaluating treatment effectiveness in individuals with mental illnesses such as schizophrenia and mania. It takes into account both clinical observation and the patient’s self-report, and has also been found to be beneficial in assessing unipolar depression.

      Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale: An Instrument for Evaluating Psychopathology in Psychiatric Patients

      The Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale (BPRS) is a widely used tool for assessing psychopathology in psychiatric patients. It was developed in the 1960s by Overall and Gorham, using factor analysis, to evaluate the severity of schizophrenic states and provide clinicians with a quick way to assess patient change. Initially, the BPRS consisted of 16 items, but two more items were added to create the standard 18-item version. Later, an expanded 24-item version was introduced to measure additional aspects of schizophrenia, such as bizarre behavior, self-neglect, suicidality, elevated mood, motor hyperactivity, and distractibility.

      The BPRS is rated by a clinician, who assesses each item on a 7-point scale of severity. Higher scores indicate greater severity of symptoms. The assessment relies on a combination of self-report and observation. Several variables are rated based on observation, while the rest are assessed through a short interview. The total score severity, using the 18-item version, has been estimated as mildly ill (31), moderately ill (41), and markedly ill (53). The administration of the BPRS can take 10-40 minutes, and versions have been validated for use in both children and older adults. As it is clinician-administered, the BPRS does not require patients to be able to read of write.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What gene has been associated with dyslexia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What gene has been associated with dyslexia?

      Your Answer: DISC1

      Correct Answer: DCDC2

      Explanation:

      Genetics and Dyslexia: Insights from a Genome-wide Association Study

      Dyslexia is a learning disorder characterized by difficulty in reading despite adequate intelligence and educational opportunities. It is believed to have a genetic component, with heritability estimates ranging from 40-60%. Recent research has identified several candidate genes associated with dyslexia, including DCDC2, DYX1C1, KIAA0319, GCFC2, MRPL19, and ROBO1.

      A genome-wide association study conducted by Gialluisi (2020) sheds new light on the genetic correlates of dyslexia. The study identified several genetic variants associated with dyslexia, including those located in of near the candidate genes mentioned above. These findings provide further evidence for the genetic basis of dyslexia and may help to improve our understanding of the underlying biological mechanisms involved in the disorder.

      Overall, the study highlights the importance of genetics in dyslexia and underscores the need for continued research in this area. By identifying specific genetic variants associated with dyslexia, researchers may be able to develop more targeted interventions and treatments for individuals with this disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What are the defining features of Klein's depressive position? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the defining features of Klein's depressive position?

      Your Answer: Splitting

      Correct Answer: Ambivalence

      Explanation:

      Melanie Klein, a prominent psychoanalyst, introduced two significant concepts in her work: the paranoid-schizoid position and the depressive position. The paranoid-schizoid position is a state of mind where the individual perceives the world as fragmented, dividing it into good and bad. This position is characterized by the defense mechanism of splitting, where the individual separates the good and bad aspects of themselves and others.

      On the other hand, the depressive position follows the paranoid-schizoid position and is characterized by the ability to accept ambivalence, where something can be both good and bad. This position represents a more integrated state of mind, where the individual can hold conflicting emotions and thoughts simultaneously. These concepts have been influential in psychoanalytic theory and have contributed to our understanding of the human psyche.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - From which amino acid is serotonin synthesized? ...

    Correct

    • From which amino acid is serotonin synthesized?

      Your Answer: Tryptophan

      Explanation:

      Serotonin: Synthesis and Breakdown

      Serotonin, also known as 5-Hydroxytryptamine (5-HT), is synthesized in the central nervous system (CNS) in the raphe nuclei located in the brainstem, as well as in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract in enterochromaffin cells. The amino acid L-tryptophan, obtained from the diet, is used to synthesize serotonin. L-tryptophan can cross the blood-brain barrier, but serotonin cannot.

      The transformation of L-tryptophan into serotonin involves two steps. First, hydroxylation to 5-hydroxytryptophan is catalyzed by tryptophan hydroxylase. Second, decarboxylation of 5-hydroxytryptophan to serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine) is catalyzed by L-aromatic amino acid decarboxylase.

      Serotonin is taken up from the synapse by a monoamine transporter (SERT). Substances that block this transporter include MDMA, amphetamine, cocaine, TCAs, and SSRIs. Serotonin is broken down by monoamine oxidase (MAO) and then by aldehyde dehydrogenase to 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the presumed cause of the sexual dysfunction associated with SSRIs? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the presumed cause of the sexual dysfunction associated with SSRIs?

      Your Answer: 5-HT3 antagonism

      Correct Answer: 5-HT2 agonism

      Explanation:

      The inhibition of sexual behavior is caused by the activation of 5-HT2 receptors. However, this effect can be reversed by using 5-HT2 antagonists like cyproheptadine and 5-HT1a agonists like buspirone. These drugs are effective in treating sexual dysfunction caused by selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).

      Antidepressants can cause sexual dysfunction as a side-effect, although the rates vary. The impact on sexual desire, arousal, and orgasm can differ depending on the type of antidepressant. It is important to rule out other causes and consider non-pharmacological strategies such as reducing the dosage of taking drug holidays. If necessary, switching to a lower risk antidepressant of using pharmacological options such as phosphodiesterase inhibitors of mirtazapine augmentation can be considered. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition provides a helpful table outlining the risk of sexual dysfunction for different antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What type of speech disorder is commonly associated with spasticity and would be...

    Correct

    • What type of speech disorder is commonly associated with spasticity and would be most likely to be observed in a patient?

      Your Answer: Pseudobulbar palsy

      Explanation:

      Dysarthria is a speech disorder that affects the volume, rate, tone, of quality of spoken language. There are different types of dysarthria, each with its own set of features, associated conditions, and localisation. The types of dysarthria include spastic, flaccid, hypokinetic, hyperkinetic, and ataxic.

      Spastic dysarthria is characterised by explosive and forceful speech at a slow rate and is associated with conditions such as pseudobulbar palsy and spastic hemiplegia.

      Flaccid dysarthria, on the other hand, is characterised by a breathy, nasal voice and imprecise consonants and is associated with conditions such as myasthenia gravis.

      Hypokinetic dysarthria is characterised by slow, quiet speech with a tremor and is associated with conditions such as Parkinson’s disease.

      Hyperkinetic dysarthria is characterised by a variable rate, inappropriate stoppages, and a strained quality and is associated with conditions such as Huntington’s disease, Sydenham’s chorea, and tardive dyskinesia.

      Finally, ataxic dysarthria is characterised by rapid, monopitched, and slurred speech and is associated with conditions such as Friedreich’s ataxia and alcohol abuse. The localisation of each type of dysarthria varies, with spastic and flaccid dysarthria affecting the upper and lower motor neurons, respectively, and hypokinetic, hyperkinetic, and ataxic dysarthria affecting the extrapyramidal and cerebellar regions of the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is meant by formication, an abnormal sensation experienced by some individuals? ...

    Correct

    • What is meant by formication, an abnormal sensation experienced by some individuals?

      Your Answer: Hallucinations of movements just below the skin

      Explanation:

      Formication refers to the sensation of movement under the skin, which can be associated with cocaine abuse and is commonly referred to as the cocaine bug. Autoscopic hallucinations occur when an individual perceives their own body as being projected into external space. Delirium tremens, a symptom of alcohol withdrawal, can cause visual hallucinations such as dark shadows of rats, often appearing as Lilliputian figures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      14.7
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  • Question 18 - A middle-aged patient with a lengthy mental health history and multiple medications presents...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged patient with a lengthy mental health history and multiple medications presents at the clinic with complaints of deteriorating physical health in the past six months. They report experiencing constipation, lethargy, and heightened depression. Additionally, they disclose being hospitalized two weeks ago and diagnosed with kidney stones. Which of their prescribed medications is the probable culprit for their symptoms?

      Your Answer: Antabuse

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Lithium is known to cause hypercalcemia and hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to various symptoms. These symptoms may include constipation (groans), kidney stones (stones), bone pain (bones), and mental health issues such as depression, lethargy, and confusion (psychic moans).

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      35.3
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  • Question 19 - What is the term used to describe sudden muscle movements that cannot be...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe sudden muscle movements that cannot be controlled or stopped?

      Your Answer: Chorea

      Correct Answer: Myoclonus

      Explanation:

      It is important to note that myoclonus is a common occurrence when individuals are falling asleep and is not considered abnormal in this context. Tics share similarities with myoclonus, but one key difference is that tics can be partially suppressed.

      Movement Disorders: Key Features

      Movement disorders refer to a range of conditions that affect voluntary muscle movements. These disorders can be caused by various factors, including neurological conditions, medication side effects, and metabolic imbalances. The following table outlines some of the key features of common movement disorders:

      Akinesia: Absence of loss of control of voluntary muscle movements, often seen in severe Parkinson’s disease.

      Bradykinesia: Slowness of voluntary movement, a core symptom of Parkinson’s disease.

      Akathisia: Subjective feeling of inner restlessness, often caused by antipsychotic medication use.

      Athetosis: Continuous stream of slow, flowing, writhing involuntary movements, often seen in cerebral palsy, stroke, and Huntington’s disease.

      Chorea: Brief, quasi-purposeful, irregular contractions that appear to flow from one muscle to the next, often seen in Huntington’s disease and Wilson’s disease.

      Dystonia: Involuntary sustained of intermittent muscle contractions that cause twisting and repetitive movements, abnormal postures, of both.

      Dyskinesia: General term referring to problems with voluntary movements and the presence of involuntary movements, often drug-induced.

      Myoclonus: A sequence of repeated, often non-rhythmic, brief shock-like jerks due to sudden involuntary contraction of relaxation of one of more muscles.

      Parkinsonism: Syndrome characterized by tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia.

      Tic: Sudden, repetitive, non-rhythmic, stereotyped motor movement of vocalization involving discrete muscle groups, often seen in Tourette’s syndrome.

      Tremor: Involuntary, rhythmic, alternating movement of one of more body parts, often seen in essential tremor, Parkinson’s disease, and alcohol withdrawal.

      Hemiballismus: Repetitive, but constantly varying, large amplitude involuntary movements of the proximal parts of the limbs, often seen in stroke and traumatic brain injury.

      Stereotypies: Repetitive, simple movements that can be voluntarily suppressed, often seen in autism and intellectual disability.

      It is important to consider the underlying conditions and factors that may contribute to movement disorders in order to properly diagnose and treat these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Are athetoid movements commonly associated with basal ganglia dysfunction rather than cerebellar dysfunction?...

    Correct

    • Are athetoid movements commonly associated with basal ganglia dysfunction rather than cerebellar dysfunction?

      Your Answer: Athetoid movements

      Explanation:

      Abnormal movements known as athetoid movements are commonly associated with issues in the basal ganglia.

      Cerebellar Dysfunction: Symptoms and Signs

      Cerebellar dysfunction is a condition that affects the cerebellum, a part of the brain responsible for coordinating movement and balance. The symptoms and signs of cerebellar dysfunction include ataxia, intention tremor, nystagmus, broad-based gait, slurred speech, dysdiadochokinesis, and dysmetria (lack of finger-nose coordination).

      Ataxia refers to the lack of coordination of voluntary movements, resulting in unsteady gait, difficulty with balance, and clumsiness. Intention tremor is a type of tremor that occurs during voluntary movements, such as reaching for an object. Nystagmus is an involuntary movement of the eyes, characterized by rapid, jerky movements.

      Broad-based gait refers to a wide stance while walking, which is often seen in individuals with cerebellar dysfunction. Slurred speech, also known as dysarthria, is a common symptom of cerebellar dysfunction, which affects the ability to articulate words clearly. Dysdiadochokinesis is the inability to perform rapid alternating movements, such as tapping the fingers on the palm of the hand.

      Dysmetria refers to the inability to accurately judge the distance and direction of movements, resulting in errors in reaching for objects of touching the nose with the finger. These symptoms and signs of cerebellar dysfunction can be caused by a variety of conditions, including stroke, multiple sclerosis, and alcoholism. Treatment depends on the underlying cause and may include medications, physical therapy, and surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following is not an example of paramnesia? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not an example of paramnesia?

      Your Answer: Retrograde amnesia

      Explanation:

      The term paramnesia refers to memory disorders where fantasy and reality are confused. There are various types of paramnesias, including déjà vu, jamais vu, confabulation, reduplicative paramnesia, retrospective falsification, and cryptomnesia. Reduplicative paramnesia is a subset of delusional misidentification syndromes, which include Capgras delusion, the Fregoli delusion, and others. A review of reduplicative paramnesia was conducted by Politis in 2012.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - For which age group is the WAIS-IV considered suitable? ...

    Incorrect

    • For which age group is the WAIS-IV considered suitable?

      Your Answer: Age 16 - 65

      Correct Answer: Age 16 - 90

      Explanation:

      The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) is a widely used intelligence test in clinical settings, designed for individuals aged 16 to 90. Its counterpart for children is the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC). The current version of WAIS, WAIS-IV, consists of four index scores, each comprising several subsets. These are the Verbal Comprehension Index, Perceptual Reasoning Index, Working Memory Index, and Processing Speed Index. The results are presented as two scores: Full Scale IQ and General Ability Index. The average score is 100, with a standard deviation of 15. However, the test becomes less accurate at the extremes of IQ (70-130). About 3% of people score below 70, which is the general cut-off for a significant learning disability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What antidepressant belongs to the NaSSA classification? ...

    Correct

    • What antidepressant belongs to the NaSSA classification?

      Your Answer: Mianserin

      Explanation:

      Mirtazapine and Mianserin are significant NaSSA’s (Noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressants) that function by blocking adrenergic and serotonergic receptors. In contrast to the majority of antidepressants, they do not impact the reuptake of serotonin.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 24 - How can we differentiate between a pseudohallucination and a true hallucination? ...

    Correct

    • How can we differentiate between a pseudohallucination and a true hallucination?

      Your Answer: Occurs in inner subjective space

      Explanation:

      The distinguishing factors between the two are based on personal interpretation and tangible versus intangible concepts.

      Altered Perceptual Experiences

      Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.

      Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.

      Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 25 - What cognitive ability is assessed by Raven's Progressive Matrices? ...

    Correct

    • What cognitive ability is assessed by Raven's Progressive Matrices?

      Your Answer: Intelligence

      Explanation:

      Intelligence Test: Raven’s Progressive Matrices

      The Raven’s Progressive Matrices (RPM) test is designed to measure general intelligence without the use of verbal language. The test consists of a series of items where the participant is required to identify the missing pattern in a sequence. The difficulty level of the items increases progressively, which demands greater cognitive capacity to encode and analyze the patterns.

      There are three versions of the RPM test, each designed for different age groups and abilities. The Coloured Progressive Matrices is intended for younger children and special groups, while the Stanford Progressive Matrices is suitable for individuals aged 6 to 80 years old with average intelligence. The Advanced Progressive Matrices is designed for above-average adolescents and adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 26 - After receiving a negative evaluation from his supervisor, John spends the entire evening...

    Correct

    • After receiving a negative evaluation from his supervisor, John spends the entire evening playing basketball with his buddy. What would be the most appropriate way to describe this behavior?

      Your Answer: Sublimation

      Explanation:

      In the given example, Mark is using sublimation as a defence mechanism to express his internal impulses in a socially acceptable way. It is not an example of aggression. Similarly, playing tennis cannot be considered as constructive gratifying service to others, which is a characteristic of altruism. Instead, it is an example of displacement, where Mark is transferring his emotional response to a situation that carries less emotional risk. Mark is externalizing his feelings through sublimation, rather than turning them into self-harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Psychological Processes
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  • Question 27 - Which drug was introduced into clinical practice by Kane? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug was introduced into clinical practice by Kane?

      Your Answer: Haloperidol

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine has a unique past, having been initially utilized in Europe during the early 1970s. Its effectiveness was notable, particularly due to its lack of causing EPSE’s. However, its popularity declined after several instances of agranulocytosis. In 1988, Kane conducted a study that demonstrated its safe use with proper blood monitoring, leading to its introduction in both the UK and the US.

      A Historical Note on the Development of Zimelidine, the First Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor

      In 1960s, evidence began to emerge suggesting a significant role of serotonin in depression. This led to the development of zimelidine, the first selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Zimelidine was derived from pheniramine and was marketed in Europe in 1982. However, it was removed from the market in 1983 due to severe side effects such as hypersensitivity reactions and Guillain-Barre syndrome.

      Despite its short-lived availability, zimelidine paved the way for the development of other SSRIs such as fluoxetine, which was approved by the FDA in 1987 and launched in the US market in 1988 under the trade name Prozac. The development of SSRIs revolutionized the treatment of depression and other mood disorders, providing a safer and more effective alternative to earlier antidepressants such as the tricyclics and MAO inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 28 - What information of tool would be of the least use to a doctor...

    Correct

    • What information of tool would be of the least use to a doctor who wants to assess a patient for a personality disorder?

      Your Answer: BPRS

      Explanation:

      The BPRS is a tool used to assess symptoms in individuals with functional mental illness. There are also various screening tools available for personality disorders, which you should have a basic knowledge of for the exam. These include the SAPAS, which is an interview method that focuses on 8 areas and takes 2 minutes to complete. It is scored between 0 and 8 based on yes/no answers to 8 statements, and a score of 3 of more warrants further assessment. The FFMRF is a self-reported tool consisting of 30 items rated 1-5 for each item, based on symptoms rather than diagnosis. The IPDE is a semistructured clinical interview compatible with the ICD and DSM, which includes both a patient questionnaire and an interview.

      In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 29 - Who is credited with creating the term 'institutional neurosis'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who is credited with creating the term 'institutional neurosis'?

      Your Answer: Foulkes

      Correct Answer: Barton

      Explanation:

      Barton introduced the concept of ‘institutional neurosis’ in 1960, describing it as a condition that affects individuals who have been institutionalized for a prolonged period of time. This condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including apathy, lack of motivation, disinterest in anything beyond the mundane, submission to authority, and an inability to express resentment towards unfair treatment. Other symptoms include a lack of interest in the future, an inability to make practical plans, a decline in personal hygiene and standards, and a loss of individuality. Those affected by institutional neurosis often resign themselves to the belief that things will remain unchanged and unchanging indefinitely.

      D.W. Winnicott – Good enough mother, transitional object: Winnicott believed that a good enough mother is one who provides a secure and nurturing environment for her child, allowing them to develop a sense of self and independence. He also introduced the concept of the transitional object, such as a teddy bear of blanket, which helps a child transition from the mother’s care to the outside world.

      Carl Jung – Collective unconscious, archetype, anima, animus: Jung believed in the existence of a collective unconscious, a shared pool of knowledge and experience that all humans possess. He also introduced the concept of archetypes, universal symbols and patterns that are present in the collective unconscious. The anima and animus are archetypes representing the feminine and masculine aspects of the psyche.

      Melanie Klein – Paranoid-schizoid position, depressive position, splitting: Klein introduced the concept of the paranoid-schizoid position, a stage of development in which a child experiences intense anxiety and fear of persecution. She also introduced the depressive position, a stage in which the child learns to integrate positive and negative feelings towards others. Splitting is the defense mechanism in which a person sees things as either all good of all bad.

      Sigmund Freud – Free association, transference, ego, super-ego, id, eros, thanatos, defense mechanisms, oedipus Complex, the unconscious: Freud is known for his theories on the unconscious mind, including the id, ego, and super-ego. He also introduced the concepts of eros (the life instinct) and thanatos (the death instinct), as well as defense mechanisms such as repression and denial. The Oedipus complex is a theory about a child’s sexual desire for their opposite-sex parent.

      Wilfred Bion – Basic assumption group: Bion introduced the concept of the basic assumption group, a group that forms around a shared fantasy of assumption. He believed that these groups can be helpful of harmful, depending on the assumptions they are based on.

      Karen Horney – Womb envy: Horney believed that men experience womb envy, a feeling of inferiority and jealousy towards women due to their inability to bear children. She also introduced the concept of neurotic needs, such as the need for affection and the need for power.

      Erving Goffman – Total institution: Goffman introduced the concept of the total institution, a place where people are completely cut off from the outside world and subjected to strict rules and regulations. Examples include prisons and mental hospitals.

      Siegfried Foulkes – Foundation matrix: Foulkes introduced the concept of the foundation matrix, a group’s shared history and experiences that shape their current dynamics and interactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 30 - Among the given chromosomal abnormalities, which one is commonly linked to aggressive behavior?...

    Correct

    • Among the given chromosomal abnormalities, which one is commonly linked to aggressive behavior?

      Your Answer: 47 XYY

      Explanation:

      While XYY has been proposed as a potential contributor to aggressive behavior, it is more likely that the observed increase in aggression among individuals with this genetic makeup is a result of other factors such as low IQ and social deprivation, which are more prevalent in the XYY population. Therefore, XYY is not considered to be the sole cause of aggressiveness.

      XYY Syndrome

      XYY Syndrome, also known as Jacobs’ Syndrome of super-males, is a genetic condition where males have an extra Y chromosome, resulting in a 47, XYY karyotype. In some cases, mosaicism may occur, resulting in a 47,XYY/46,XY karyotype. The error leading to the 47,XYY genotype occurs during spermatogenesis of post-zygotic mitosis. The prevalence of XYY Syndrome is as high as 1:1000 male live births, but many cases go unidentified as they are not necessarily associated with physical of cognitive impairments. The most common features are high stature and a strong build, and fertility and sexual development are usually unaffected. In the past, XYY Syndrome was linked to aggressiveness and deviance, but this is likely due to intermediate factors such as reduced IQ and social deprivation. XYY Syndrome is best thought of as a risk factor rather than a cause. There is an increased risk of developmental disorders such as learning difficulties, ASD, ADHD, and emotional problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Classification And Assessment (4/7) 57%
Social Psychology (0/4) 0%
Psychopharmacology (4/8) 50%
Neurosciences (5/5) 100%
Psychological Development (1/2) 50%
Genetics (1/2) 50%
Descriptive Psychopathology (1/1) 100%
Basic Psychological Processes (1/1) 100%
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