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  • Question 1 - A 49-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain that started an hour ago. She reports feeling unwell recently, but this is the first time she has experienced this type of pain, which is mainly located in the right upper quadrant. During the examination, the physician notes hepatomegaly and ascites, and the patient's eyes have a slight yellow tint. An ultrasound scan reveals reduced blood flow in the hepatic veins, and there is no history of recent travel, drug use, or needlestick injury. The patient has not experienced recent weight loss, and her last menstrual period was two weeks ago. She is not taking any regular or over-the-counter medications. What condition could potentially be causing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Protein C deficiency

      Explanation:

      Budd-Chiari syndrome, which is characterized by abdominal pain, ascites, hepatomegaly, and jaundice, can be caused by hypercoagulable states such as protein C and S deficiencies. In this case, the patient’s protein C deficiency increased their risk of developing a thrombus in the hepatic veins, leading to Budd-Chiari syndrome. Other risk factors for thrombus formation include pregnancy and hepatocellular carcinoma. The use of oral contraceptives would also increase the risk of thrombus formation, while warfarin treatment would decrease it. Atrial fibrillation, on the other hand, would predispose a patient to systemic embolism, which can cause ischaemic symptoms in various arterial circulations.

      Understanding Budd-Chiari Syndrome

      Budd-Chiari syndrome, also known as hepatic vein thrombosis, is a condition that is often associated with an underlying hematological disease or another procoagulant condition. The causes of this syndrome include polycythemia rubra vera, thrombophilia, pregnancy, and the use of combined oral contraceptive pills. The symptoms of Budd-Chiari syndrome typically include sudden onset and severe abdominal pain, ascites leading to abdominal distension, and tender hepatomegaly.

      To diagnose Budd-Chiari syndrome, an ultrasound with Doppler flow studies is usually the initial radiological investigation. This test is highly sensitive and can help identify the presence of the condition. It is important to diagnose and treat Budd-Chiari syndrome promptly to prevent complications such as liver failure and portal hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 2 - A 72-year-old woman is being evaluated on the ward due to concerns raised...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman is being evaluated on the ward due to concerns raised by the nursing staff regarding her altered bowel habits. The patient has been experiencing bowel movements approximately 12 times a day for the past two days and is experiencing crampy abdominal pain.

      The patient's blood test results are as follows:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb) level of 124 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L)
      - Platelet count of 175 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L)
      - White blood cell (WBC) count of 16.4 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L)

      Upon reviewing her medication chart, it is noted that she recently finished a course of ceftriaxone for meningitis.

      Based on the likely diagnosis, what would be the most probable finding on stool microscopy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gram-positive bacilli

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis for this patient is a Clostridium difficile infection, which is a gram-positive bacillus bacteria. This infection is triggered by recent broad-spectrum antibiotic use, as seen in this patient who was prescribed ceftriaxone for meningitis. The patient’s symptoms of crampy abdominal pain and sudden onset diffuse diarrhoea, along with a marked rise in white blood cells, are consistent with this diagnosis. Gram-negative bacilli, gram-negative cocci, and gram-negative spirillum bacteria are unlikely causes of this patient’s symptoms.

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 3 - A 68-year-old male presents with sudden and severe abdominal pain. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male presents with sudden and severe abdominal pain. He has a medical history of ischaemic heart disease and takes nitrates, atenolol and amlodipine for it. Upon examination, his pulse is irregularly irregular and measures 115 bpm, his blood pressure is 104/72 mmHg, and his temperature is 37.4°C. The abdomen is diffusely tender and bowel sounds are absent. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mesenteric ischaemia

      Explanation:

      Narrowing Down the Differential Diagnosis for Acute Abdomen

      When presented with a patient experiencing an acute abdomen, the differential diagnosis can be extensive. However, by taking note of the key points in the patient’s history and conducting a thorough examination, one can narrow down the potential causes. In the case of a man with absent bowel sounds, atrial fibrillation, and a history of ischemic heart disease, the most likely cause of his presentation is mesenteric ischemia. This is due to the fact that he is not obstructed and has vascular disease. For further information on acute mesenteric ischemia, Medscape provides a helpful resource. By utilizing these tools and resources, healthcare professionals can more accurately diagnose and treat patients with acute abdominal symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 4 - Which enzyme is primarily responsible for breaking down starch into sugars? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which enzyme is primarily responsible for breaking down starch into sugars?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amylase

      Explanation:

      Amylase is an enzyme that converts starch into sugars.

      Enzymes play a crucial role in the breakdown of carbohydrates in the gastrointestinal system. Amylase, which is present in both saliva and pancreatic secretions, is responsible for breaking down starch into sugar. On the other hand, brush border enzymes such as maltase, sucrase, and lactase are involved in the breakdown of specific disaccharides. Maltase cleaves maltose into glucose and glucose, sucrase cleaves sucrose into fructose and glucose, while lactase cleaves lactose into glucose and galactose. These enzymes work together to ensure that carbohydrates are broken down into their simplest form for absorption into the bloodstream.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 5 - How many unpaired branches does the abdominal aorta have to provide blood supply...

    Incorrect

    • How many unpaired branches does the abdominal aorta have to provide blood supply to the abdominal organs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Three

      Explanation:

      The abdominal viscera has three branches that are not paired, namely the coeliac axis, the SMA, and the IMA. Meanwhile, the branches to the adrenals, renal arteries, and gonadal vessels are paired. It is worth noting that the fourth unpaired branch of the abdominal aorta, which is the median sacral artery, does not provide direct supply to the abdominal viscera.

      Branches of the Abdominal Aorta

      The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to the abdominal organs and lower extremities. It gives rise to several branches that supply blood to various organs and tissues. These branches can be classified into two types: parietal and visceral.

      The parietal branches supply blood to the walls of the abdominal cavity, while the visceral branches supply blood to the abdominal organs. The branches of the abdominal aorta include the inferior phrenic, coeliac, superior mesenteric, middle suprarenal, renal, gonadal, lumbar, inferior mesenteric, median sacral, and common iliac arteries.

      The inferior phrenic artery arises from the upper border of the abdominal aorta and supplies blood to the diaphragm. The coeliac artery supplies blood to the liver, stomach, spleen, and pancreas. The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the small intestine, cecum, and ascending colon. The middle suprarenal artery supplies blood to the adrenal gland. The renal arteries supply blood to the kidneys. The gonadal arteries supply blood to the testes or ovaries. The lumbar arteries supply blood to the muscles and skin of the back. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum. The median sacral artery supplies blood to the sacrum and coccyx. The common iliac arteries are the terminal branches of the abdominal aorta and supply blood to the pelvis and lower extremities.

      Understanding the branches of the abdominal aorta is important for diagnosing and treating various medical conditions that affect the abdominal organs and lower extremities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old male with a history of Crohn's disease visits his gastroenterologist for...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male with a history of Crohn's disease visits his gastroenterologist for a routine checkup. During the appointment, he inquires about the underlying cause of his condition. Which gene variations have been associated with Crohn's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: NOD-2

      Explanation:

      The development of Crohn’s disease is connected to a genetic abnormality in the NOD-2 gene.

      Phenylketonuria is linked to the PKU mutation.

      Cystic fibrosis is associated with the CFTR mutation.

      Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is connected to the COL1A1 mutation.

      Understanding Crohn’s Disease

      Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. The exact cause of Crohn’s disease is unknown, but there is a strong genetic component. Inflammation occurs in all layers of the affected area, which can lead to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions.

      Symptoms of Crohn’s disease typically appear in late adolescence or early adulthood and can include non-specific symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy, as well as more specific symptoms like diarrhea, abdominal pain, and perianal disease. Extra-intestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and osteoporosis, are also common in patients with Crohn’s disease.

      To diagnose Crohn’s disease, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers, increased faecal calprotectin, anemia, and low levels of vitamin B12 and vitamin D. It’s important to note that Crohn’s disease shares some features with ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease, but there are also important differences between the two conditions. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic criteria for Crohn’s disease can help patients and healthcare providers manage this chronic condition more effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 7 - A 70-year-old man is admitted to the hospital for angiography after experiencing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man is admitted to the hospital for angiography after experiencing a recent NSTEMI. He has been smoking 20 cigarettes a day since he was 15 years old and complains of foot pain when walking. During his stay, he develops worsening abdominal pain and bloody stools. After receiving fluids, a CT scan reveals pneumatosis and abnormal wall enhancement, indicating ischaemic colitis. Which part of the bowel is typically affected in this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Splenic flexure

      Explanation:

      Ischaemic colitis commonly affects the splenic flexure, which is a watershed area for arterial supply from the superior and inferior mesenteric artery. The descending colon is supplied by the left colic branch of the inferior mesenteric artery, while the hepatic flexure is supplied by the right colic branch of the superior mesenteric artery. The rectum receives arterial blood from the inferior mesenteric artery, middle rectal artery (from internal iliac artery), and inferior rectal artery (from the internal pudendal artery). The sigmoid colon is the second most common site for ischaemic colitis and is also a watershed area known as ‘Sudeck’s point’.

      Understanding Ischaemic Colitis

      Ischaemic colitis is a condition that occurs when there is a temporary reduction in blood flow to the large bowel. This can cause inflammation, ulcers, and bleeding. The condition is more likely to occur in areas of the bowel that are located at the borders of the territory supplied by the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries, such as the splenic flexure.

      When investigating ischaemic colitis, doctors may look for a sign called thumbprinting on an abdominal x-ray. This occurs due to mucosal edema and hemorrhage. It is important to diagnose and treat ischaemic colitis promptly to prevent complications and ensure a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 8 - A 14-year-old boy is brought to the hospital due to severe nausea and...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy is brought to the hospital due to severe nausea and vomiting. He has been unable to eat or drink for the past 48 hours and has not urinated in the last 24 hours. The doctor prescribes an antiemetic, but which antiemetic should be avoided in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      The effectiveness of antiemetics depends on their ability to interact with different receptors. Therefore, the selection of an appropriate antiemetic will depend on the patient and the underlying cause of nausea.

      Metoclopramide is a dopamine antagonist that also has peripheral 5HT3 agonist and muscarinic antagonist effects, which help to promote gastric emptying. However, it is not recommended for use in children and young adults due to the potential risk of oculogyric crisis.

      Understanding the Mechanism and Uses of Metoclopramide

      Metoclopramide is a medication primarily used to manage nausea, but it also has other uses such as treating gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and gastroparesis secondary to diabetic neuropathy. It is often combined with analgesics for the treatment of migraines. However, it is important to note that metoclopramide has adverse effects such as extrapyramidal effects, acute dystonia, diarrhoea, hyperprolactinaemia, tardive dyskinesia, and parkinsonism. It should also be avoided in bowel obstruction but may be helpful in paralytic ileus.

      The mechanism of action of metoclopramide is quite complicated. It is primarily a D2 receptor antagonist, but it also has mixed 5-HT3 receptor antagonist/5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. Its antiemetic action is due to its antagonist activity at D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, and at higher doses, the 5-HT3 receptor antagonist also has an effect. The gastroprokinetic activity is mediated by D2 receptor antagonist activity and 5-HT4 receptor agonist activity.

      In summary, metoclopramide is a medication with multiple uses, but it also has adverse effects that should be considered. Its mechanism of action is complex, involving both D2 receptor antagonist and 5-HT3 receptor antagonist/5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. Understanding the uses and mechanism of action of metoclopramide is important for its safe and effective use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 9 - A 68-year-old man presents with a 6-day history of abdominal pain, nausea, severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with a 6-day history of abdominal pain, nausea, severe diarrhoea, fever, and malaise. He had received treatment for community-acquired pneumonia with ceftriaxone 3 weeks ago which has since resolved. Upon examination, he displays a fever of 38.4°C and abdominal distension and tenderness. Blood tests reveal a raised white cell count, leading to suspicion of Clostridium difficile infection.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe oral vancomycin

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for Clostridium difficile infections is antibiotics, with oral vancomycin being the first line option. IV metronidazole is only used in severe cases and in combination with oral vancomycin. Bezlotoxumab, a monoclonal antibody, may be used to prevent recurrence but is not currently considered cost-effective. Oral clarithromycin is not the preferred antibiotic for this type of infection. Conservative treatment with IV fluids and antipyretics is not appropriate and antibiotics should be administered.

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 10 - During a left hemicolectomy the sigmoid colon is mobilised. As the bowel is...

    Incorrect

    • During a left hemicolectomy the sigmoid colon is mobilised. As the bowel is retracted medially a vessel is injured, anterior to the colon. Which one of the following is the most likely vessel?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gonadal vessels

      Explanation:

      During a right hemicolectomy, the gonadal vessels and ureter are crucial structures located at the posterior aspect that may be vulnerable to injury.

      The Caecum: Location, Relations, and Functions

      The caecum is a part of the colon located in the proximal right colon below the ileocaecal valve. It is an intraperitoneal structure that has posterior relations with the psoas, iliacus, femoral nerve, genitofemoral nerve, and gonadal vessels. Its anterior relations include the greater omentum. The caecum is supplied by the ileocolic artery and its lymphatic drainage is through the mesenteric nodes that accompany the venous drainage.

      The caecum is known for its distensibility, making it the most distensible part of the colon. However, in cases of complete large bowel obstruction with a competent ileocaecal valve, the caecum is the most likely site of eventual perforation. Despite this potential complication, the caecum plays an important role in the digestive system. It is responsible for the absorption of fluids and electrolytes, as well as the fermentation of indigestible carbohydrates. Additionally, the caecum is a site for the growth and proliferation of beneficial bacteria that aid in digestion and immune function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 11 - Liam, who is also suffering from chronic pancreatitis, undergoes a distal pancreatectomy. During...

    Incorrect

    • Liam, who is also suffering from chronic pancreatitis, undergoes a distal pancreatectomy. During a post-surgery consultation, he expresses his concern to the doctor about the possibility of experiencing poor food digestion after the operation, as he has read about others who have had the same issue. What measures can the doctor take to prevent this from happening to Liam?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe pancreatic enzymes (e.g. Creon)

      Explanation:

      To aid digestion of food in patients with chronic pancreatitis, the management plan includes the replacement of pancreatic enzymes such as Creon. Inadequacy of pancreatic enzymes due to pancreatic surgery can also lead to poor digestion of food, which can be prevented by providing patients with pancreatic enzyme supplements like Creon. However, proton pump inhibitors or probiotics are not effective in replacing pancreatic enzymes. Fiona does not require a low fibre diet.

      Understanding Chronic Pancreatitis

      Chronic pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation that can affect both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas. While alcohol excess is the leading cause of this condition, up to 20% of cases are unexplained. Other causes include genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and haemochromatosis, as well as ductal obstruction due to tumors, stones, and structural abnormalities.

      Symptoms of chronic pancreatitis include pain that worsens 15 to 30 minutes after a meal, steatorrhoea, and diabetes mellitus. Abdominal x-rays and CT scans are used to detect pancreatic calcification, which is present in around 30% of cases. Functional tests such as faecal elastase may also be used to assess exocrine function if imaging is inconclusive.

      Management of chronic pancreatitis involves pancreatic enzyme supplements, analgesia, and antioxidants. While there is limited evidence to support the use of antioxidants, one study suggests that they may be beneficial in early stages of the disease. Overall, understanding the causes and symptoms of chronic pancreatitis is crucial for effective management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 12 - You are an FY2 on the gastroenterology ward. A 35-year-old patient being treated...

    Incorrect

    • You are an FY2 on the gastroenterology ward. A 35-year-old patient being treated for Crohn's disease complains of nausea. After considering various anti-emetics, your consultant instructs you to initiate metoclopramide as he believes it will be beneficial in this case due to its distinct mechanism of action.

      What is the unique mechanism of action of metoclopramide as an anti-emetic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blocks dopamine receptors at the CTZ and acts on 5-HT receptors

      Explanation:

      Anti-emetics have different mechanisms of action and are used based on the cause of the patient’s nausea and vomiting. Metoclopramide works by blocking dopamine receptors in the CTZ and acting on 5-HT receptors in the GI tract. On the other hand, 5-HT antagonists like ondansetron block 5-HT3 serotonin receptors in the GI tract, solitary tract nucleus, and CTZ to prevent nausea and vomiting. NK-1 receptor antagonists such as aprepitant reduce substance P to prevent emesis. Somatostatin analogues like octreotide relieve nausea and vomiting caused by bowel obstruction. Vasodilators can produce nitric oxide, which activates guanylyl cyclase and leads to protein kinase G production and subsequent vasodilation.

      Understanding the Mechanism and Uses of Metoclopramide

      Metoclopramide is a medication primarily used to manage nausea, but it also has other uses such as treating gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and gastroparesis secondary to diabetic neuropathy. It is often combined with analgesics for the treatment of migraines. However, it is important to note that metoclopramide has adverse effects such as extrapyramidal effects, acute dystonia, diarrhoea, hyperprolactinaemia, tardive dyskinesia, and parkinsonism. It should also be avoided in bowel obstruction but may be helpful in paralytic ileus.

      The mechanism of action of metoclopramide is quite complicated. It is primarily a D2 receptor antagonist, but it also has mixed 5-HT3 receptor antagonist/5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. Its antiemetic action is due to its antagonist activity at D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, and at higher doses, the 5-HT3 receptor antagonist also has an effect. The gastroprokinetic activity is mediated by D2 receptor antagonist activity and 5-HT4 receptor agonist activity.

      In summary, metoclopramide is a medication with multiple uses, but it also has adverse effects that should be considered. Its mechanism of action is complex, involving both D2 receptor antagonist and 5-HT3 receptor antagonist/5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. Understanding the uses and mechanism of action of metoclopramide is important for its safe and effective use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 13 - A 40-year-old female presents to the hepatology clinic with a 4-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old female presents to the hepatology clinic with a 4-month history of abdominal pain, jaundice, and abdominal swelling. She has a medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus and is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill. During abdominal examination, a palpable mass is detected in the right upper quadrant and shifting dullness is observed. Further investigations reveal a high serum-ascites albumin gradient (> 11g/L) in a small amount of ascitic fluid that was collected for analysis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Budd-Chiari syndrome

      Explanation:

      A high SAAG gradient (> 11g/L) on ascitic tap indicates portal hypertension, but in this case, the correct diagnosis is Budd-Chiari syndrome. This condition occurs when the hepatic veins, which drain the liver, become blocked, leading to abdominal pain, ascites, and hepatomegaly. The patient’s medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus and combined oral contraceptive pill use put her at risk for blood clot formation, which likely caused the hepatic vein occlusion. The high SAAG gradient is due to increased hydrostatic pressure within the hepatic portal system. Other conditions that cause portal hypertension, such as right heart failure, liver metastasis, and alcoholic liver disease, also produce a high SAAG gradient. Acute pancreatitis, on the other hand, has a low SAAG gradient since it is not associated with increased portal pressure. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis and Kwashiorkor also have low SAAG gradients.

      Ascites is a medical condition characterized by the accumulation of abnormal amounts of fluid in the abdominal cavity. The causes of ascites can be classified into two groups based on the serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) level. If the SAAG level is greater than 11g/L, it indicates portal hypertension, which is commonly caused by liver disorders such as cirrhosis, alcoholic liver disease, and liver metastases. Other causes of portal hypertension include cardiac conditions like right heart failure and constrictive pericarditis, as well as infections like tuberculous peritonitis. On the other hand, if the SAAG level is less than 11g/L, ascites may be caused by hypoalbuminaemia, malignancy, pancreatitis, bowel obstruction, and other conditions.

      The management of ascites involves reducing dietary sodium and sometimes fluid restriction if the sodium level is less than 125 mmol/L. Aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone are often prescribed, and loop diuretics may be added if necessary. Therapeutic abdominal paracentesis may be performed for tense ascites, and large-volume paracentesis requires albumin cover to reduce the risk of complications. Prophylactic antibiotics may also be given to prevent spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. In some cases, a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) may be considered.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 14 - A 29-year-old man contacts his primary care physician with concerns about his skin...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man contacts his primary care physician with concerns about his skin turning yellow. He reports that this change has been occurring gradually over the past few days and is not accompanied by any pain or other symptoms. Upon further inquiry, the patient discloses that he was recently discharged from the hospital after receiving treatment for pyelonephritis. He denies any recent travel outside of his local area.

      The patient's liver function tests reveal the following results:
      - Bilirubin: 32 µmol/L (normal range: 3 - 17)
      - ALP: 41 u/L (normal range: 30 - 100)
      - ALT: 19 u/L (normal range: 3 - 40)
      - γGT: 26 u/L (normal range: 8 - 60)
      - Albumin: 43 g/L (normal range: 35 - 50)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gilbert's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient’s presentation is consistent with Gilbert’s syndrome, which is characterized by an increase in serum bilirubin during times of physiological stress due to a deficiency in the liver’s ability to process bilirubin. This can be triggered by illness, exercise, or fasting.

      Autoimmune hepatitis, on the other hand, typically results in severely abnormal liver function tests with significantly elevated liver enzymes, which is not the case for this patient.

      Hepatitis A is often associated with recent foreign travel and is accompanied by symptoms such as abdominal pain and diarrhea.

      Mirizzi syndrome is a rare condition in which a gallstone becomes lodged in the biliary tree, causing a blockage of the bile duct. It typically presents with upper right quadrant pain and signs of obstructive jaundice.

      While painless jaundice can be a symptom of pancreatic cancer, it is highly unlikely in a 27-year-old patient and is therefore an unlikely diagnosis in this case.

      Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain conditions such as fasting, exercise, or illness. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.

      To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. While the exact mode of inheritance is still debated, it is known to be an autosomal recessive disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 15 - A 22-year-old university student with a history of primary sclerosing cholangitis presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old university student with a history of primary sclerosing cholangitis presents to the gastroenterologists with symptoms suggestive of ulcerative colitis. She has been experiencing bloody diarrhoea and fatigue for the past three months, with an average of seven bowel movements per day. Her medical history includes a childhood hepatitis A infection and an uncomplicated appendicectomy three years ago. She also has a family history of hepatocellular carcinoma.

      During examination, stage 1 haemorrhoids and a scar over McBurney's point are noted. Given her medical history, which condition warrants annual colonoscopy in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Annual colonoscopy is recommended for individuals who have both ulcerative colitis and PSC.

      Colorectal Cancer Risk in Ulcerative Colitis Patients

      Ulcerative colitis patients have a significantly higher risk of developing colorectal cancer compared to the general population. The risk is mainly related to chronic inflammation, and studies report varying rates. Unfortunately, patients with ulcerative colitis often experience delayed diagnosis, leading to a worse prognosis. Lesions may also be multifocal, further increasing the risk of cancer.

      Several factors increase the risk of colorectal cancer in ulcerative colitis patients, including disease duration of more than 10 years, pancolitis, onset before 15 years old, unremitting disease, and poor compliance to treatment. To manage this risk, colonoscopy surveillance is recommended, and the frequency of surveillance depends on the patient’s risk stratification.

      Patients with lower risk require a colonoscopy every five years, while those with intermediate risk require a colonoscopy every three years. Patients with higher risk require a colonoscopy every year. The risk stratification is based on factors such as the extent of colitis, the severity of active endoscopic/histological inflammation, the presence of post-inflammatory polyps, and family history of colorectal cancer. Primary sclerosing cholangitis or a family history of colorectal cancer in first-degree relatives aged less than 50 years also increase the risk of cancer. By following these guidelines, ulcerative colitis patients can receive appropriate surveillance and management to reduce their risk of developing colorectal cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain and vomiting. He reports not having a bowel movement for the past five days.

      His medical history includes a ruptured appendix three years ago. There is no significant medical or family history.

      During the examination, you observe abdominal distension and tinkling bowel sounds.

      An abdominal X-ray shows dilated loops of small bowel.

      What is the leading cause of the probable diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adhesions

      Explanation:

      The leading cause of small bowel obstruction is adhesions, which can occur due to previous abdominal surgery and cause internal surfaces to stick together. An abdominal X-ray showing dilated small bowel loops is a common indicator of this condition. While a hernia can also cause small bowel obstruction, it is less likely in this case due to the patient’s surgical history. Intussusception is rare in adults and more commonly seen in young children. Malignancy is a less common cause of small bowel obstruction, especially in patients without risk factors or demographic factors that suggest a higher likelihood of cancer.

      Small bowel obstruction occurs when the small intestines are blocked, preventing the passage of food, fluids, and gas. The most common causes of this condition are adhesions resulting from previous surgeries and hernias. Symptoms include diffuse, central abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting (often bilious), constipation, and abdominal distension. Tinkling bowel sounds may also be present in early stages of obstruction. Abdominal x-ray is typically the first imaging test used to diagnose small bowel obstruction, showing distended small bowel loops with fluid levels. CT is more sensitive and considered the definitive investigation, particularly in early stages of obstruction. Management involves NBM, IV fluids, and a nasogastric tube with free drainage. Conservative management may be effective for some patients, but surgery is often necessary.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 17 - A 42-year-old man undergoes a partial thyroidectomy and experiences hoarseness upon returning to...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man undergoes a partial thyroidectomy and experiences hoarseness upon returning to the ward. As a healthcare professional, you know that this is a common complication of thyroid surgery. Which nerve is most likely responsible for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The recurrent laryngeal nerve is a branch of the vagus nerve (CN X) that provides motor supply to all but one of the laryngeal muscles and sensory supply to the larynx below the vocal cords. The left nerve loops under the arch of the aorta and passes deep to the inferior constrictor muscle of the pharynx, while the right nerve usually loops under the right subclavian artery. Both nerves pass close to or through the thyroid ligament, making them susceptible to injury during thyroid surgery. Dysfunction of either nerve can result in a hoarse voice.

      The internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve is the only other nerve among the given options that innervates the larynx. It carries sensory supply to the larynx above the vocal cords, while the external branch supplies the cricothyroid muscle. Dysfunction of the external branch can cause a hoarse voice, but dysfunction of the internal branch will not.

      The greater auricular nerve and transverse cervical nerve are superficial cutaneous nerves that arise from the cervical plexus and supply the skin overlying the mandible, ear auricle, and neck. The phrenic nerve, also arising from the cervical plexus, provides motor innervation to the diaphragm and sensation to the parietal pericardium and pleura adjacent to the mediastinum.

      During surgical procedures, there is a risk of nerve injury caused by the surgery itself. This is not only important for the patient’s well-being but also from a legal perspective. There are various operations that carry the risk of nerve damage, such as posterior triangle lymph node biopsy, Lloyd Davies stirrups, thyroidectomy, anterior resection of rectum, axillary node clearance, inguinal hernia surgery, varicose vein surgery, posterior approach to the hip, and carotid endarterectomy. Surgeons must have a good understanding of the anatomy of the area they are operating on to minimize the incidence of nerve lesions. Blind placement of haemostats is not recommended as it can also cause nerve damage.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old male is diagnosed with carcinoid syndrome. What hormone is secreted by...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male is diagnosed with carcinoid syndrome. What hormone is secreted by carcinoids?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serotonin

      Explanation:

      The rule of thirds for carcinoids is that one-third of cases involve multiple tumors, one-third affect the small bowel, and one-third result in metastasis or the development of a second tumor. It is important to note that carcinoids secrete serotonin, and carcinoid syndrome only occurs when there are liver metastases present, as the liver typically metabolizes the hormone released from primary lesions.

      Carcinoid tumours are a type of cancer that can cause a condition called carcinoid syndrome. This syndrome typically occurs when the cancer has spread to the liver and releases serotonin into the bloodstream. In some cases, it can also occur with lung carcinoid tumours, as the mediators are not cleared by the liver. The earliest symptom of carcinoid syndrome is often flushing, but it can also cause diarrhoea, bronchospasm, hypotension, and right heart valvular stenosis (or left heart involvement in bronchial carcinoid). Additionally, other molecules such as ACTH and GHRH may be secreted, leading to conditions like Cushing’s syndrome. Pellagra, a rare condition caused by a deficiency in niacin, can also develop as the tumour diverts dietary tryptophan to serotonin.

      To investigate carcinoid syndrome, doctors may perform a urinary 5-HIAA test or a plasma chromogranin A test. Treatment for the condition typically involves somatostatin analogues like octreotide, which can help manage symptoms like diarrhoea. Cyproheptadine may also be used to alleviate diarrhoea. Overall, early detection and treatment of carcinoid tumours can help prevent the development of carcinoid syndrome and improve outcomes for patients.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old woman with a family history of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with a family history of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 visits her GP complaining of upper abdominal pain. She reports experiencing worsening dyspepsia after meals for the past three months. Upon further questioning, she discloses that she has had loose stools and unintentionally lost approximately one stone in weight during this time.

      What is the typical physiological function of the hormone that is accountable for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase H+ secretion by gastric parietal cells

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is that gastrin increases the secretion of H+ by gastric parietal cells. This patient is suffering from Zollinger-Ellison syndrome due to a gastrinoma, which results in excessive production of gastrin and an overly acidic environment in the duodenum. This leads to symptoms such as dyspepsia, diarrhoea, and weight loss, as the intestinal pH is no longer optimal for digestion. The patient’s family history of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 is also a clue, as this condition is associated with around 25% of gastrinomas. Gastrin’s normal function is to increase the secretion of H+ by gastric parietal cells to aid in digestion.

      The options delay gastric emptying, increase H+ secretion by gastric chief cells, and stimulate pancreatic bicarbonate secretion are incorrect. Gastrin’s role is to promote digestion and increase gastric emptying, not delay it. Gastric chief cells secrete pepsinogen and gastric lipase to aid in protein and fat digestion, not H+. Finally, pancreatic bicarbonate secretion is stimulated by secretin, which is produced by duodenal S-cells, not gastrin.

      Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones

      Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.

      One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.

      Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.

      Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.

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  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old man with a carcinoma of the lower third of the oesophagus...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a carcinoma of the lower third of the oesophagus is having an oesophagogastrectomy. During the mobilization of the lower part of the oesophagus, where is the thoracic duct most likely to be encountered by the surgeons?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior to the oesophagus

      Explanation:

      The thoracic duct is situated at the back of the oesophagus and takes a leftward course at the Angle of Louis. It joins the aorta at T12 as it enters the thorax.

      The Thoracic Duct: Anatomy and Clinical Significance

      The thoracic duct is a continuation of the cisterna chyli located in the abdomen. It enters the thorax at the level of T12 and runs posterior to the esophagus for most of its intrathoracic course. At T5, it passes to the left side of the body. Lymphatics from the left side of the head and neck join the thoracic duct before it empties into the left brachiocephalic vein. In contrast, lymphatics from the right side of the head and neck drain into the right lymphatic duct, which eventually empties into the right brachiocephalic vein via the mediastinal trunk.

      The thoracic duct’s location in the thorax makes it vulnerable to injury during oesophageal surgery. To avoid damaging the duct, some surgeons apply cream to patients before oesophagectomy to help identify the cut ends of the duct. Understanding the anatomy and clinical significance of the thoracic duct is essential for healthcare professionals involved in thoracic surgery and lymphatic drainage disorders.

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  • Question 21 - A 28-year-old woman with a three week history of abdominal pain, diarrhoea and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with a three week history of abdominal pain, diarrhoea and weight loss undergoes a colonoscopy. Biopsies are taken and a diagnosis of Crohn's disease is made.

      What microscopic changes are expected to be observed in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased goblet cells

      Explanation:

      Crohn’s disease is characterized by an increase in goblet cells on microscopic examination. Unlike ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease may have skip lesions and transmural inflammation. Pseudopolyps and shortening of crypts are more commonly seen in ulcerative colitis.

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a condition that includes two main types: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Although they share many similarities in terms of symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment, there are some key differences between the two. Crohn’s disease is characterized by non-bloody diarrhea, weight loss, upper gastrointestinal symptoms, mouth ulcers, perianal disease, and a palpable abdominal mass in the right iliac fossa. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis is characterized by bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant, tenesmus, gallstones, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Complications of Crohn’s disease include obstruction, fistula, and colorectal cancer, while ulcerative colitis has a higher risk of colorectal cancer than Crohn’s disease. Pathologically, Crohn’s disease lesions can be seen anywhere from the mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis inflammation always starts at the rectum and never spreads beyond the ileocaecal valve. Endoscopy and radiology can help diagnose and differentiate between the two types of IBD.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 22 - Which statement about peristalsis is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about peristalsis is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Longitudinal smooth muscle propels the food bolus through the oesophagus

      Explanation:

      Peristalsis: The Movement of Food Through the Digestive System

      Peristalsis is the process by which food is moved through the digestive system. Circular smooth muscle contracts behind the food bolus, while longitudinal smooth muscle propels the food through the oesophagus. Primary peristalsis spontaneously moves the food from the oesophagus into the stomach, taking about 9 seconds. Secondary peristalsis occurs when food does not enter the stomach, and stretch receptors are stimulated to cause peristalsis.

      In the small intestine, peristalsis waves slow to a few seconds and cause a mixture of chyme. In the colon, three main types of peristaltic activity are recognised. Segmentation contractions are localised contractions in which the bolus is subjected to local forces to maximise mucosal absorption. Antiperistaltic contractions towards the ileum are localised reverse peristaltic waves to slow entry into the colon and maximise absorption. Mass movements are migratory peristaltic waves along the entire colon to empty the organ prior to the next ingestion of a food bolus.

      Overall, peristalsis is a crucial process in the digestive system that ensures food is moved efficiently through the body.

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  • Question 23 - A 59-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and swelling in the central abdomen.

      During his last visit to his family doctor two weeks ago, he experienced colicky abdominal pain and was diagnosed with gallstones after further testing. He was scheduled for an elective cholecystectomy in 8 weeks.

      The patient is administered pain relief and scheduled for an urgent abdominal X-ray (AXR).

      What is the most probable finding on the AXR that indicates a cholecystoenteric fistula?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pneumobilia

      Explanation:

      The presence of air in the gallbladder and biliary tree on an abdominal X-ray is most likely caused by a cholecystoenteric fistula. This is a serious complication of gallstones, particularly those larger than 2 cm, and can result in symptoms of small bowel obstruction such as severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and abdominal distension. While pneumoperitoneum may also be present in cases of cholecystoenteric fistula, it is not a specific finding and can be caused by other factors that weaken or tear hollow viscus organs. On the other hand, the presence of an appendicolith, a small calcified stone in the appendix, is highly indicative of appendicitis in patients with right iliac fossa pain and other associated symptoms, but is not seen in cases of cholecystoenteric fistula on an abdominal X-ray.

      Gallstones are a common condition, with up to 24% of women and 12% of men affected. Local infection and cholecystitis may develop in up to 30% of cases, and 12% of patients undergoing surgery will have stones in the common bile duct. The majority of gallstones are of mixed composition, with pure cholesterol stones accounting for 20% of cases. Symptoms typically include colicky right upper quadrant pain that worsens after fatty meals. Diagnosis is usually made through abdominal ultrasound and liver function tests, with magnetic resonance cholangiography or intraoperative imaging used to confirm suspected bile duct stones. Treatment options include expectant management for asymptomatic gallstones, laparoscopic cholecystectomy for symptomatic gallstones, and surgical management for stones in the common bile duct. ERCP may be used to remove bile duct stones, but carries risks such as bleeding, duodenal perforation, cholangitis, and pancreatitis.

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  • Question 24 - A 28-year-old male patient is diagnosed with an inguinal hernia and is scheduled...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male patient is diagnosed with an inguinal hernia and is scheduled for open surgical repair. During the procedure, the surgeons opt to use a mesh to reinforce the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. What structures will be located behind the mesh?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transversalis fascia

      Explanation:

      The posterior wall of the inguinal canal is formed by the transversalis fascia, the conjoint tendon, and the deep inguinal ring located laterally. The superior wall (roof) is made up of the internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles, while the anterior wall consists of the aponeurosis of the external oblique and internal oblique muscles. The lower wall (floor) is formed by the inguinal ligament and lacunar ligament.

      The inguinal canal is located above the inguinal ligament and measures 4 cm in length. Its superficial ring is situated in front of the pubic tubercle, while the deep ring is found about 1.5-2 cm above the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle. The canal is bounded by the external oblique aponeurosis, inguinal ligament, lacunar ligament, internal oblique, transversus abdominis, external ring, and conjoint tendon. In males, the canal contains the spermatic cord and ilioinguinal nerve, while in females, it houses the round ligament of the uterus and ilioinguinal nerve.

      The boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle, which are frequently tested, are located in the inguinal region. Additionally, the inguinal canal is closely related to the vessels of the lower limb, which should be taken into account when repairing hernial defects in this area.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 25 - A 52-year-old man presents with a dry cough at night that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man presents with a dry cough at night that has been bothering him for the past 2 years. He also reports several incidences of heartburn and regurgitation. He has tried multiple over-the-counter antitussives but there has been no improvement in his symptoms. He smokes one pack of cigarettes a day. Vitals are unremarkable and body mass index is 35 kg/m2. Upper endoscopy is performed which shows salmon-coloured mucosa at the lower third oesophagus. A biopsy is taken for histopathology which shows intestinal-type columnar epithelium.

      What oesophageal complication is the patient at high risk for due to his microscopic findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Barrett’s oesophagus poses the greatest risk for the development of adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus. The patient’s symptoms of heartburn, regurgitation, and nocturnal dry cough suggest the presence of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GORD), which is characterized by the reflux of gastric acid into the oesophagus. The normal oesophageal mucosa is not well-equipped to withstand the corrosive effects of gastric acid, and thus, it undergoes metaplasia to intestinal-type columnar epithelium, resulting in Barrett’s oesophagus. This condition is highly susceptible to dysplasia and progression to adenocarcinoma, and can be identified by its salmon-colored appearance during upper endoscopy.

      Achalasia, on the other hand, is a motility disorder of the oesophagus that is not associated with GORD or Barrett’s oesophagus. However, it may increase the risk of squamous cell carcinoma of the oesophagus, rather than adenocarcinoma.

      Mallory-Weiss syndrome (MWS) is characterized by a mucosal tear in the oesophagus, which is typically caused by severe vomiting. It is not associated with regurgitation due to GORD.

      Oesophageal perforation is usually associated with endoscopy or severe vomiting. Although the patient is at risk of oesophageal perforation due to the previous endoscopy, the question specifically pertains to the risk associated with microscopic findings.

      Barrett’s oesophagus is a condition where the lower oesophageal mucosa is replaced by columnar epithelium, which increases the risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma by 50-100 fold. It is usually identified during an endoscopy for upper gastrointestinal symptoms such as dyspepsia, as there are no screening programs for it. The length of the affected segment determines the chances of identifying metaplasia, with short (<3 cm) and long (>3 cm) subtypes. The prevalence of Barrett’s oesophagus is estimated to be around 1 in 20, and it is identified in up to 12% of those undergoing endoscopy for reflux.

      The columnar epithelium in Barrett’s oesophagus may resemble that of the cardiac region of the stomach or that of the small intestine, with goblet cells and brush border. The single strongest risk factor for Barrett’s oesophagus is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), followed by male gender, smoking, and central obesity. Alcohol is not an independent risk factor for Barrett’s, but it is associated with both GORD and oesophageal cancer. Patients with Barrett’s oesophagus often have coexistent GORD symptoms.

      The management of Barrett’s oesophagus involves high-dose proton pump inhibitor, although the evidence base for its effectiveness in reducing the progression to dysplasia or inducing regression of the lesion is limited. Endoscopic surveillance with biopsies is recommended every 3-5 years for patients with metaplasia but not dysplasia. If dysplasia of any grade is identified, endoscopic intervention is offered, such as radiofrequency ablation, which is the preferred first-line treatment, particularly for low-grade dysplasia, or endoscopic mucosal resection.

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  • Question 26 - An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute and severe abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute and severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and bloody stools. He has a medical history of atrial fibrillation and ischaemic heart disease. Upon examination, his heart rate is 140 beats per minute, blood pressure is 98/58mmHg, respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute, oxygen saturations are 98% on air, and temperature is 38.8ºC. A CT scan with contrast of the abdomen reveals air in the intestinal wall. During surgery, it is discovered that the distal third of the colon to the superior part of the rectum is necrotic.

      Which artery is responsible for supplying blood to this portion of the bowel?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The correct artery supplying the affected area in this patient is the inferior mesenteric artery. This artery branches off the abdominal aorta and supplies the hindgut, which includes the distal third of the colon and the rectum superior to the pectinate line. It’s important to note that the anal canal is divided into two parts by the pectinate line, with the upper half supplied by the superior rectal artery branch of the inferior mesenteric artery, and the lower half supplied by the inferior rectal artery branch of the internal pudendal artery. Ischaemic heart disease and atrial fibrillation are risk factors for acute mesenteric ischaemia in this patient, which presents with severe, poorly-localised abdominal pain and tenderness. The coeliac trunk, which supplies the foregut, is not involved in this case. The internal pudendal artery supplies the inferior part of the anal canal, perineum, and genitalia, while the right colic artery, a branch of the superior mesenteric artery, supplies the ascending colon, which is not affected in this patient.

      The Inferior Mesenteric Artery: Supplying the Hindgut

      The inferior mesenteric artery (IMA) is responsible for supplying the embryonic hindgut with blood. It originates just above the aortic bifurcation, at the level of L3, and passes across the front of the aorta before settling on its left side. At the point where the left common iliac artery is located, the IMA becomes the superior rectal artery.

      The hindgut, which includes the distal third of the colon and the rectum above the pectinate line, is supplied by the IMA. The left colic artery is one of the branches that emerges from the IMA near its origin. Up to three sigmoid arteries may also exit the IMA to supply the sigmoid colon further down the line.

      Overall, the IMA plays a crucial role in ensuring that the hindgut receives the blood supply it needs to function properly. Its branches help to ensure that the colon and rectum are well-nourished and able to carry out their important digestive functions.

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  • Question 27 - A 45-year-old man presents to the surgical team with abdominal pain, bloating, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the surgical team with abdominal pain, bloating, and vomiting. Based on an abdominal x-ray, there is suspicion of a malignancy causing intestinal obstruction. Which of the following antiemetics should be avoided for managing the patient's vomiting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      It is not recommended to use metoclopramide as an antiemetic in cases of bowel obstruction. This is because metoclopramide works by blocking dopamine receptors and stimulating peripheral 5HT3 receptors, which promote gastric emptying. However, in cases of intestinal obstruction, gastric emptying is not possible and this effect can be harmful. The choice of antiemetic should be based on the patient’s individual needs and the underlying cause of their nausea.

      Understanding the Mechanism and Uses of Metoclopramide

      Metoclopramide is a medication primarily used to manage nausea, but it also has other uses such as treating gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and gastroparesis secondary to diabetic neuropathy. It is often combined with analgesics for the treatment of migraines. However, it is important to note that metoclopramide has adverse effects such as extrapyramidal effects, acute dystonia, diarrhoea, hyperprolactinaemia, tardive dyskinesia, and parkinsonism. It should also be avoided in bowel obstruction but may be helpful in paralytic ileus.

      The mechanism of action of metoclopramide is quite complicated. It is primarily a D2 receptor antagonist, but it also has mixed 5-HT3 receptor antagonist/5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. Its antiemetic action is due to its antagonist activity at D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, and at higher doses, the 5-HT3 receptor antagonist also has an effect. The gastroprokinetic activity is mediated by D2 receptor antagonist activity and 5-HT4 receptor agonist activity.

      In summary, metoclopramide is a medication with multiple uses, but it also has adverse effects that should be considered. Its mechanism of action is complex, involving both D2 receptor antagonist and 5-HT3 receptor antagonist/5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. Understanding the uses and mechanism of action of metoclopramide is important for its safe and effective use.

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  • Question 28 - Sophie presents acutely to the hospital with severe epigastric pain that is radiating...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie presents acutely to the hospital with severe epigastric pain that is radiating to the back, nausea and vomiting. Upon questioning, she has suffered from several episodes of biliary colic in the past. A blood test reveals a lipase level of 1000U/L.

      What is the underlying pathophysiology of Sophie's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreatic enzymes released as a result of inflammation autodigest the pancreatic tissue

      Explanation:

      The cause of acute pancreatitis is the autodigestion of pancreatic tissue by pancreatic enzymes, which results in tissue necrosis. The patient is experiencing typical symptoms of acute pancreatitis, including epigastric pain that radiates to the back, nausea, and vomiting. The presence of elevated lipase levels, which are more than three times the upper limit of normal, is also indicative of acute pancreatitis. The patient’s history of biliary colic suggests that gallstones may be the underlying cause of this condition.

      During acute pancreatitis, inflammation of the pancreas triggers the release and activation of pancreatic enzymes, which then begin to digest the pancreatic tissue. This process is known as autodigestion. Autodigestion of fat can lead to tissue necrosis, while autodigestion of blood vessels can cause retroperitoneal hemorrhage, which can be identified by the presence of Grey Turner’s sign and Cullen’s sign.

      Understanding Acute Pancreatitis

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by alcohol or gallstones. It occurs when the pancreatic enzymes start to digest the pancreatic tissue, leading to necrosis. The most common symptom of acute pancreatitis is severe epigastric pain that may radiate through to the back. Vomiting is also common, and examination may reveal epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. Although rare, periumbilical discolouration (Cullen’s sign) and flank discolouration (Grey-Turner’s sign) may also be present.

      To diagnose acute pancreatitis, doctors typically measure the levels of serum amylase and lipase in the blood. While amylase is raised in 75% of patients, it does not correlate with disease severity. Lipase, on the other hand, is more sensitive and specific than amylase and has a longer half-life, making it useful for late presentations. Imaging, such as ultrasound or contrast-enhanced CT, may also be necessary to assess the aetiology of the condition.

      Scoring systems, such as the Ranson score, Glasgow score, and APACHE II, are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that may require intensive care management. Factors indicating severe pancreatitis include age over 55 years, hypocalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hypoxia, neutrophilia, and elevated LDH and AST. However, the actual amylase level is not of prognostic value.

      In summary, acute pancreatitis is a condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort. It is important to diagnose and manage it promptly to prevent complications.

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  • Question 29 - A 55-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden abdominal pain in the epigastric region. He has a history of heavy alcohol consumption, but this is his first visit to the department. Upon examination, he is sweating profusely and has a fever. His heart rate is 130 beats per minute, and his blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. You diagnose him with acute pancreatitis and are concerned about potential complications.

      What symptom is most likely to be present in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blue discolouration of the flank regions

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing acute pancreatitis, possibly due to excessive alcohol consumption. As this is his first visit to the emergency department, it is unlikely to be a sudden attack on top of chronic pancreatitis. The presence of tachycardia and hypotension suggests that he is also experiencing blood loss. The correct answer should identify an acute condition associated with blood loss.

      a. Bulky, greasy stools are a long-term complication of chronic pancreatitis, indicating that the pancreas has lost its exocrine function and is unable to properly digest food.

      b. Grey Turner’s sign is a sign of blood pooling in the retroperitoneal space, which can occur due to inflammation of the retroperitoneal pancreas.

      c. This is a complication of long-term diabetes or chronic pancreatitis.

      d. Ascites is not typically associated with an acute first-time presentation of pancreatitis, although it can have many causes.

      e. This description is typical of an abdominal obstruction, which may cause nausea and vomiting.

      The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.

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  • Question 30 - An 83-year-old man visits his GP complaining of weight loss and a change...

    Incorrect

    • An 83-year-old man visits his GP complaining of weight loss and a change in bowel habit that has been ongoing for the past 6 months. Following a colonoscopy and biopsy, he is diagnosed with a malignancy of the transverse colon. The transverse colon is connected to the posterior abdominal wall by a double fold of the peritoneum. Which other organ is also attached to similar double folds of the peritoneum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The stomach

      Explanation:

      The mesentery is present in the stomach and the first part of the duodenum as they are intraperitoneal structures.

      In the abdomen, organs are categorized as either intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal. The intraperitoneal organs include the stomach, spleen, liver, bulb of the duodenum, jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. The retroperitoneal organs include the remaining part of the duodenum, the cecum and ascending colon, the descending colon, the pancreas, and the kidneys.

      The peritoneum has different functions in the abdomen and can be classified accordingly. It is called a mesentery when it anchors organs to the posterior abdominal wall and a ligament when it connects two different organs. The lesser and greater curvatures of the stomach have folds known as the lesser and greater omenta.

      The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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