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  • Question 1 - Which of the following conditions is an example of the principle of locus...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions is an example of the principle of locus heterogeneity?

      Your Answer: Alzheimer's

      Explanation:

      Understanding Locus Heterogeneity in Genetic Disorders

      Locus heterogeneity is a term used to describe a genetic disorder of trait that is caused by mutations in genes located at different chromosomal loci. This means that multiple genes can contribute to the development of the same disorder of trait. For instance, Alzheimer’s disease is a classic example of locus heterogeneity. The condition can be caused by mutations in three different genes: presenilin 1, presenilin 2, and APP.

      The concept of locus heterogeneity is important in genetics because it highlights the complexity of genetic disorders. It means that a single genetic test may not be sufficient to diagnose a particular condition, as mutations in different genes can produce similar symptoms. Therefore, a comprehensive genetic analysis that examines multiple genes and loci may be necessary to accurately diagnose and treat a patient.

      In summary, locus heterogeneity is a common phenomenon in genetic disorders, where mutations in different genes can lead to the same condition. Understanding this concept is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment of genetic disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      80.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following is an NaRI? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an NaRI?

      Your Answer: Venlafaxine

      Correct Answer: Reboxetine

      Explanation:

      Some important noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (NaRIs) include Reboxetine and Atomoxetine.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is classified as a mature defence? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is classified as a mature defence?

      Your Answer: Hypochondriasis

      Correct Answer: Suppression

      Explanation:

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      899.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - When do most children acquire the capacity to identify and utilize gender labels...

    Incorrect

    • When do most children acquire the capacity to identify and utilize gender labels in their language?

      Your Answer: 24-30 months

      Correct Answer: 18-24 months

      Explanation:

      Gender Development

      Gender identity is the sense of oneself as male of female, which is different from a person’s assigned sex at birth. Gender dysphoria occurs when a person’s gender does not match their sex. Infants as young as 10 months old can form stereotypic associations between faces of women and men and gender-typed objects. By 18-24 months, most children can label gender groups and use gender labels in their speech. Children typically develop gender awareness of their own self around 18 months and declare a gender identity of male of female by age 5-6. It is normal for children to experiment with gender expression and roles. For the majority of pre-pubertal children, gender dysphoria does not persist into adolescence, with only a minority (15%) experiencing persistent gender dysphoria. (Levy, 1994; Martin, 2010; Steensma, 2011).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      56.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - In which sleep stage are K complexes mostly observed? ...

    Correct

    • In which sleep stage are K complexes mostly observed?

      Your Answer: II

      Explanation:

      Sleep Stages

      Sleep is divided into two distinct states called rapid eye movement (REM) and non-rapid eye movement (NREM). NREM is subdivided into four stages.

      Sleep stage
      Approx % of time spent in stage
      EEG findings
      Comment

      I
      5%
      Theta waves (4-7 Hz)
      The dozing off stage. Characterized by hypnic jerks: spontaneous myoclonic contractions associated with a sensation of twitching of falling.

      II
      45%
      Theta waves, K complexes and sleep spindles (short bursts of 12-14 Hz activity)
      Body enters a more subdued state including a drop in temperature, relaxed muscles, and slowed breathing and heart rate. At the same time, brain waves show a new pattern and eye movement stops.

      III
      15%
      Delta waves (0-4 Hz)
      Deepest stage of sleep (high waking threshold). The length of stage 3 decreases over the course of the night.

      IV
      15%
      Mixed, predominantly beta
      High dream activity.

      The percentage of REM sleep decreases with age.

      It takes the average person 15-20 minutes to fall asleep, this is called sleep latency (characterised by the onset of stage I sleep). Once asleep one descends through stages I-II and then III-IV (deep stages). After about 90 minutes of sleep one enters REM. The rest of the sleep comprises of cycles through the stages. As the sleep progresses the periods of REM become greater and the periods of NREM become less. During an average night’s sleep one spends 25% of the sleep in REM and 75% in NREM.

      REM sleep has certain characteristics that separate it from NREM

      Characteristics of REM sleep

      – Autonomic instability (variability in heart rate, respiratory rate, and BP)
      – Loss of muscle tone
      – Dreaming
      – Rapid eye movements
      – Penile erection

      Deafness:

      (No information provided on deafness in relation to sleep stages)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the commonly used scale in research studies to assess symptoms of...

    Correct

    • What is the commonly used scale in research studies to assess symptoms of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: PANSS

      Explanation:

      The PANSS scale is a commonly utilized tool in schizophrenia research to assess both positive and negative symptoms. The BDI measures depression using the Beck inventory, while the Calgary scale is specifically designed to rate depression in individuals with schizophrenia. CIWA is a scale used to evaluate the severity of alcohol withdrawal, and LUNSER is a rating scale for neuroleptic side effects developed by Liverpool University.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Description And Measurement
      114.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An EEG analysis indicates the presence of a mass in the brain. What...

    Incorrect

    • An EEG analysis indicates the presence of a mass in the brain. What were the observed wave patterns?

      Your Answer: Beta activity (β)

      Correct Answer: Delta activity (δ)

      Explanation:

      While alpha (α) and beta (β) activity are typical in adults who are awake and at rest, delta activity (δ) may suggest the presence of a brain tumor. Mu (μ) activity is linked to movement, and theta activity (θ) is uncommon in the waking adult population, occurring briefly in only 15% of individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      14.7
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  • Question 8 - A child explains during a conversation that 'When I saw the man holding...

    Incorrect

    • A child explains during a conversation that 'When I saw the man holding a glass of wine, I knew my father was dead'.

      This is most indicative of what?

      Your Answer: Reflex hallucination

      Correct Answer: Delusional perception

      Explanation:

      Borderline Learning Disability

      Borderline learning disability is a term used to describe individuals with an IQ between 70-85. This category is not officially recognized as a diagnosis by the ICD-11. It is estimated that approximately 15% of the population falls within this range (Chaplin, 2005). Unlike mild learning disability, borderline learning disability is not typically associated with deficits in adaptive functioning, such as grooming, dressing, safety, of money management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      50.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What category of adverse drug reaction does insomnia and anxiety resulting from benzodiazepine...

    Incorrect

    • What category of adverse drug reaction does insomnia and anxiety resulting from benzodiazepine withdrawal fall under?

      Your Answer: Type B

      Correct Answer: Type E

      Explanation:

      The MHRA categorizes adverse drug reactions into five types. Type A reactions occur when a drug’s normal pharmacological actions are exaggerated at the usual therapeutic dose, and are typically dose-dependent. Type B reactions are unexpected responses that do not align with the drug’s known pharmacological actions. Type C reactions persist for an extended period of time, while Type D reactions become apparent after some time has passed since the medication was used. Finally, Type E reactions are linked to the discontinuation of a medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      19.6
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  • Question 10 - What was the psychiatric thinking model that George Engel advocated for? ...

    Incorrect

    • What was the psychiatric thinking model that George Engel advocated for?

      Your Answer: Biomedical model

      Correct Answer: Biopsychosocial model

      Explanation:

      In 1977, Engel introduced the term ‘biopsychosocial model’ in an article for Science, advocating for a more comprehensive approach to understanding psychiatric illness. The biomedical model, which originated in the mid 19th Century, has been widely used. Aaron Beck has promoted the diathesis-stress model of psychopathology in relation to depression. August Weismann developed genetic determinism in 1890. Brown and Stewart, among others, have advocated for patient-centred care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
      317.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A teenage girl is referred by her GP due to concerns about her...

    Correct

    • A teenage girl is referred by her GP due to concerns about her academic performance and her atypical physical characteristics. She is observed to be shorter than her peers and have a neck with excess skin folds. Upon further examination, she displays a wide chest and signs of hypothyroidism. What condition do you suspect?

      Your Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Turner Syndrome

      Turner syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects only females. It occurs when one of the two X chromosomes is missing of partially missing. This happens randomly and does not increase the risk of the condition in future siblings. Although X-inactivation occurs in females, having only one X chromosome can cause issues as not all genes are inactivated in the inactivated X chromosome.

      The features of Turner syndrome include short stature, a webbed neck, a broad chest with widely spaced nipples, gonadal dysfunction leading to amenorrhea and infertility, congenital heart disease, and hypothyroidism. Despite these physical characteristics, girls with Turner syndrome typically have normal intelligence, with a mean full-scale IQ of 90. However, they may struggle with nonverbal, social, and psychomotor skills. It is important to understand the symptoms and effects of Turner syndrome to provide appropriate care and support for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      46.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the primary mechanism of action of Valdoxan (agomelatine), an antidepressant? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary mechanism of action of Valdoxan (agomelatine), an antidepressant?

      Your Answer: D2 receptor antagonism

      Correct Answer: Melatonin (MT) receptor agonism

      Explanation:

      Agomelatine (Valdoxan) is a novel antidepressant that functions as an agonist at both MT1 and MT2 receptors, while also acting as a 5HT2C antagonist. Unlike most other antidepressants, it does not affect monoamine uptake.
      First-generation antipsychotics work by antagonizing D2 receptors.
      Benzodiazepines exert their effects by potentiating GABA.
      Noradrenaline reuptake inhibition is a common mechanism of action for many antidepressants, including SNRIs and tricyclics.
      SSRI (and other) antidepressants function by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the purpose of the Thematic Apperception Test? ...

    Correct

    • What is the purpose of the Thematic Apperception Test?

      Your Answer: Personality

      Explanation:

      The TAT is a psychological test that uses ambiguous pictures of people to elicit narratives from subjects. These narratives provide insight into the subjects’ underlying motives, concerns, and social perspectives.

      Neuropsychological Tests

      Neuropsychological tests are used to assess cognitive function and behavior in individuals with neurological of psychiatric conditions. These tests are designed to evaluate specific domains of cognitive function, such as attention, language, memory, visuospatial skills, executive function, and intelligence. They can also be used to assess personality traits and emotional functioning.

      Attention: The digit span test measures an individual’s ability to remember and repeat a series of numbers. The Trails A test assesses visual attention and processing speed.

      Language: The Boston Naming Test evaluates an individual’s ability to name objects. Verbal fluency tests assess an individual’s ability to generate words within a specific category.

      Memory: The Wechsler Memory Scale assesses different aspects of memory, including immediate and delayed recall. The Ray Auditory Verbal Learning Test measures an individual’s ability to remember a list of words.

      Visuospatial skills: The Ray-Osterrieth Complex Figure test assesses an individual’s ability to copy and recall a complex figure.

      Executive function: The Wisconsin Card Sort Test measures an individual’s ability to shift cognitive strategies. The Stroop test assesses an individual’s ability to inhibit automatic responses. The Trails B test evaluates an individual’s ability to switch between tasks.

      Intelligence: The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Test assesses an individual’s overall intellectual functioning. The National Adult Reading Test measures an individual’s premorbid intelligence. The Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale assesses intellectual functioning in children and adults.

      Personality (Projective Tests): The Rorschach Inkblot test assesses an individual’s personality and emotional functioning based on their interpretation of inkblots. The Thematic Apperception Test evaluates an individual’s personality and emotional functioning based on their interpretation of ambiguous pictures. The Draw-A-Person test assesses an individual’s personality and emotional functioning based on their drawing of a person. Sentence completion tests assess an individual’s personality and emotional functioning based on their responses to incomplete sentences.

      Personality (Objective Tests): The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory assesses an individual’s personality and emotional functioning based on their responses to a standardized questionnaire. The Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16PF) evaluates an individual’s personality based on 16 different traits. The NEO Personality Inventory assesses an individual’s personality based on five different dimensions. The Eysenck Personality Questionnaire (EPQ) measures an individual’s personality based on three different dimensions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      69.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is a true statement about lithium? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about lithium?

      Your Answer: It exists in an unbound form in the blood

      Explanation:

      Lithium has a tendency to remain unattached to proteins and instead remains unbound within the body, resulting in its efficient elimination from the bloodstream through haemodialysis.

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the correct definition of the QT interval? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct definition of the QT interval?

      Your Answer: The QT interval is measured from the end of the QRS complex to the beginning of the T wave

      Correct Answer: The QT interval is measured from the beginning of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave

      Explanation:

      QTc Prolongation: Risks and Identification

      The QT interval is a measure of the time it takes for the ventricles to repolarize and is calculated from the beginning of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave. However, the QT interval varies with the heart rate, making it difficult to use a single number as a cut-off for a prolonged QT. Instead, a corrected QT interval (QTc) is calculated for each heart rate using various formulas. A QTc over the 99th percentile is considered abnormally prolonged, with approximate values of 470 ms for males and 480 ms for females.

      Prolonged QT intervals can lead to torsade de pointes (TdP), a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia that can be fatal if it degenerates into ventricular fibrillation. TdP is characterized by a twisting of the QRS complexes around an isoelectric line and is often asymptomatic but can also be associated with syncope and death. An accurate diagnosis requires an ECG to be recorded during the event. It is important to note that an increase in the QT interval due to a new conduction block should not be considered indicative of acquired LQTS and risk for TdP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      84.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What triggers the release of neurotransmitter from presynaptic vesicles into the synaptic cleft?...

    Incorrect

    • What triggers the release of neurotransmitter from presynaptic vesicles into the synaptic cleft?

      Your Answer: Sodium

      Correct Answer: Calcium

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - From which part of the embryonic brain does the cerebellum originate? ...

    Incorrect

    • From which part of the embryonic brain does the cerebellum originate?

      Your Answer: Telencephalon

      Correct Answer: Metencephalon

      Explanation:

      Development of the cerebellum commences from the metencephalon in the sixth week.

      Neurodevelopment: Understanding Brain Development

      The development of the central nervous system begins with the neuroectoderm, a specialized region of ectoderm. The embryonic brain is divided into three areas: the forebrain (prosencephalon), midbrain (mesencephalon), and hindbrain (rhombencephalon). The prosencephalon further divides into the telencephalon and diencephalon, while the hindbrain subdivides into the metencephalon and myelencephalon.

      The telencephalon, of cerebrum, consists of the cerebral cortex, underlying white matter, and the basal ganglia. The diencephalon includes the prethalamus, thalamus, hypothalamus, subthalamus, epithalamus, and pretectum. The mesencephalon comprises the tectum, tegmentum, ventricular mesocoelia, cerebral peduncles, and several nuclei and fasciculi.

      The rhombencephalon includes the medulla, pons, and cerebellum, which can be subdivided into a variable number of transversal swellings called rhombomeres. In humans, eight rhombomeres can be distinguished, from caudal to rostral: Rh7-Rh1 and the isthmus. Rhombomeres Rh7-Rh4 form the myelencephalon, while Rh3-Rh1 form the metencephalon.

      Understanding neurodevelopment is crucial in comprehending brain development and its complexities. By studying the different areas of the embryonic brain, we can gain insight into the formation of the central nervous system and its functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      30.9
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  • Question 18 - A 45-year-old woman is admitted to a medical ward for an alcohol detox....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is admitted to a medical ward for an alcohol detox. She has a history of memory lapses. Upon examination, there are no significant cognitive impairments. What nutritional supplement should be considered to decrease her chances of experiencing neuropsychiatric complications?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B1

      Explanation:

      For individuals undergoing treatment for alcohol dependence, it is recommended to administer prophylactic Vitamin B1 (thiamine) to prevent the development of neuropsychiatric complications such as Wernicke’s of Korsakoff’s syndrome. The administration of intravenous of intramuscular thiamine (Pabrinex) is effective in reducing the risk of such complications. However, a lower dosage is used for prophylactic purposes compared to the dosage used for individuals with established cognitive deficits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Prevention Of Psychological Disorder
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  • Question 19 - Which of the following indicates the presence of a dominant parietal lobe injury?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following indicates the presence of a dominant parietal lobe injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Finger agnosia

      Explanation:

      Parietal Lobe Dysfunction: Types and Symptoms

      The parietal lobe is a part of the brain that plays a crucial role in processing sensory information and integrating it with other cognitive functions. Dysfunction in this area can lead to various symptoms, depending on the location and extent of the damage.

      Dominant parietal lobe dysfunction, often caused by a stroke, can result in Gerstmann’s syndrome, which includes finger agnosia, dyscalculia, dysgraphia, and right-left disorientation. Non-dominant parietal lobe dysfunction, on the other hand, can cause anosognosia, dressing apraxia, spatial neglect, and constructional apraxia.

      Bilateral damage to the parieto-occipital lobes, a rare condition, can lead to Balint’s syndrome, which is characterized by oculomotor apraxia, optic ataxia, and simultanagnosia. These symptoms can affect a person’s ability to shift gaze, interact with objects, and perceive multiple objects at once.

      In summary, parietal lobe dysfunction can manifest in various ways, and understanding the specific symptoms can help diagnose and treat the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 20 - What study intentionally gave hepatitis to children with learning disabilities? ...

    Incorrect

    • What study intentionally gave hepatitis to children with learning disabilities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Willowbrook Study

      Explanation:

      The Willowbrook School Study was conducted in a state-supported institution for children with learning difficulties in New York during the 1960s. The study involved inoculating healthy children with hepatitis and administering gamma globulin to assess its potential to treat the disorder.

      The Tuskegee syphilis experiment was a controversial follow-up study of people with syphilis. Many participants were not informed of their illness and did not receive available treatment, even though it became available halfway through the study. The Belmont report introduced changes to US law on research ethics as a result of this study.

      The Stanford prison experiment involved creating a simulated prison environment at Stanford University. Participants were assigned as either a prison of a guard and were given no guidelines for how to behave. Within two days, the participants began to act out their assigned roles, with guards becoming harsh and sometimes cruel to the prisoners. The study was terminated after only six days due to extreme emotional reactions from some of the prisoners.

      The Tearooms Study involved Humphreys hanging around public toilets where men meet to have sex in order to study the population and learn more about the types of men that did it. The method was controversial as he never disclosed his motives when he interviewed the men and instead pretended to be a ‘watch queen’, raising issues of informed consent in research.

      Milgram’s Study investigated authority and obedience. Participants were assigned the role of teacher and administered fake shocks to a confederate playing the learner. Despite expressing concern, 30% of participants continued to administer shocks until 450 volts was reached. The study raised concerns for the wellbeing of participants, but Milgram decided not to terminate it as prior participants seemed to recover relatively well.

      Beecher’s Study

      Beecher’s study revealed more than 20 instances where individuals were subjected to experimentation without being fully informed of their participation in research and the potential risks involved. One of the cases cited was the Willowbrook State School study, where children with mental disabilities were intentionally infected with hepatitis under the guise of a vaccination program.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 21 - Which of the following is not assessed in the MMSE? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not assessed in the MMSE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Executive function

      Explanation:

      Although individuals with executive cognitive dysfunction may receive a normal score on the MMSE, they can still experience significant impairments in their daily functioning.

      Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE)

      The Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE) was developed in 1975 by Folstein et al. Its original purpose was to differentiate between organic and functional disorders, but it is now mainly used to detect and track the progression of cognitive impairment. The exam is scored out of 30 and is divided into seven categories: orientation to place and time, registration, attention and concentration, recall, language, visual construction, and attention to written command. Each category has a possible score, and the total score can indicate the severity of cognitive impairment. A score equal to or greater than 27 indicates normal cognition, while scores below this can indicate severe, moderate, of mild cognitive impairment. The MMSE is a useful tool for detecting and tracking cognitive impairment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 22 - What instruments can be utilized to assess psychotic symptoms? ...

    Incorrect

    • What instruments can be utilized to assess psychotic symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: BPRS (brief psychiatric rating scale)

      Explanation:

      Assessment Tools for Schizophrenia

      There are several assessment tools available for use in patients with schizophrenia. The Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale (BPRS) is a semi-structured interview that covers 18 items, including positive symptoms, general psychopathology, and affective symptoms. Another tool that can be used to assess psychotic symptoms in schizophrenia is the Positive and Negative Symptom Scale (PANSS).

      The Beck Depression Inventory is a self-report questionnaire that consists of 21 items. However, it does not include any questions about psychotic symptoms. The General Health Questionnaire is a screening tool for mental illness, but the 12-item version does not contain any questions about psychosis.

      The Liverpool University Neuroleptic Side Effect Rating Scale (LUNSERS) is a tool that asks about the side effects of neuroleptics, including extrapyramidal, hyperprolactinemia, and autonomic effects. Finally, the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) is an intelligence test that is specifically designed for use in adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Description And Measurement
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      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What are the roles of purposes of the amygdala? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the roles of purposes of the amygdala?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      The Amygdala: A Key Player in Emotional Processing

      The amygdala is a small, almond-shaped structure located in the anterior temporal lobe of the brain. As a core component of the limbic system, it plays a crucial role in emotional processing and regulation.

      To better understand its function, we can use the metaphor of a car being driven on the road. The frontal lobe of the brain acts as the driver, making decisions and navigating the environment. The amygdala, on the other hand, serves as the dashboard, providing the driver with important information about the car’s status, such as temperature and fuel levels. In this way, the amygdala gives emotional meaning to sensory input, allowing us to respond appropriately to potential threats of opportunities.

      One of the amygdala’s primary functions is to activate the fight or flight response in response to perceived danger. It does this by sending signals to the hypothalamus, which in turn triggers the release of stress hormones like adrenaline and cortisol. This prepares the body to either confront the threat of flee from it.

      In addition to its role in the fight or flight response, the amygdala also plays a role in regulating appetite and eating behavior. Studies have shown that damage to the amygdala can lead to overeating and obesity, suggesting that it may be involved in the hypothalamic control of feeding behavior.

      Overall, the amygdala is a key player in emotional processing and regulation, helping us to respond appropriately to the world around us.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 24 - Who is the psychiatrist known for writing 'The Divided Self' and whose work...

    Incorrect

    • Who is the psychiatrist known for writing 'The Divided Self' and whose work has been the subject of controversy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: R D Laing

      Explanation:

      In 1960, psychiatrist R D (Ronald David) Laing, a Scottish author, published ‘The Divided Self’, which made him a significant figure in the antipsychiatry movement. Despite acknowledging the importance of treating mental distress, he believed that ‘schizophrenia was a theory, not a fact.’ Other notable authors in the field of psychiatry include Anthony Clare, who wrote ‘Psychiatry in Dissent,’ Carl Jung, who wrote ‘The Red Book,’ Scott Peck, who wrote ‘The Road Less Travelled,’ and Thomas Szasz, who wrote ‘The Myth of Mental Illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
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  • Question 25 - The patient's complaint of being unable to identify objects in their hand without...

    Incorrect

    • The patient's complaint of being unable to identify objects in their hand without visual confirmation is an instance of what?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Astereognosia

      Explanation:

      Agnosia is a condition where a person loses the ability to recognize objects, persons, sounds, shapes, of smells, despite having no significant memory loss of defective senses. There are different types of agnosia, such as prosopagnosia (inability to recognize familiar faces), anosognosia (inability to recognize one’s own condition/illness), autotopagnosia (inability to orient parts of the body), phonagnosia (inability to recognize familiar voices), simultanagnosia (inability to appreciate two objects in the visual field at the same time), and astereoagnosia (inability to recognize objects by touch).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 26 - What is the most probable outcome of a blockage in the anterior cerebral...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most probable outcome of a blockage in the anterior cerebral artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Motor aphasia

      Explanation:

      The frontal part of the brain responsible for motor function is supplied by the anterior cerebral artery.

      Aphasia is a language impairment that affects the production of comprehension of speech, as well as the ability to read of write. The areas involved in language are situated around the Sylvian fissure, referred to as the ‘perisylvian language area’. For repetition, the primary auditory cortex, Wernicke, Broca via the Arcuate fasciculus (AF), Broca recodes into articulatory plan, primary motor cortex, and pyramidal system to cranial nerves are involved. For oral reading, the visual cortex to Wernicke and the same processes as for repetition follows. For writing, Wernicke via AF to premotor cortex for arm and hand, movement planned, sent to motor cortex. The classification of aphasia is complex and imprecise, with the Boston Group classification and Luria’s aphasia interpretation being the most influential. The important subtypes of aphasia include global aphasia, Broca’s aphasia, Wernicke’s aphasia, conduction aphasia, anomic aphasia, transcortical motor aphasia, and transcortical sensory aphasia. Additional syndromes include alexia without agraphia, alexia with agraphia, and pure word deafness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 27 - For which medical conditions is Modafinil prescribed? ...

    Incorrect

    • For which medical conditions is Modafinil prescribed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Narcolepsy

      Explanation:

      Modafinil: A Psychostimulant for Wakefulness and Attention Enhancement

      Modafinil is a type of psychostimulant that is known to improve wakefulness, attention, and vigilance. Although it is similar to amphetamines, it does not produce the same euphoric effects and is not associated with dependence of tolerance. Additionally, it does not seem to cause psychosis. Modafinil is approved for the treatment of narcolepsy, obstructive sleep apnea, and chronic shift work. It is also suggested as an adjunctive treatment for depression by the Maudsley. Recently, it has gained popularity as a smart drug due to its potential to enhance cognitive functioning in healthy individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 28 - What is divided by the fissure of Rolando? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is divided by the fissure of Rolando?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The frontal and parietal lobes

      Explanation:

      The Cerebral Cortex and Neocortex

      The cerebral cortex is the outermost layer of the cerebral hemispheres and is composed of three parts: the archicortex, paleocortex, and neocortex. The neocortex accounts for 90% of the cortex and is involved in higher functions such as thought and language. It is divided into 6-7 layers, with two main cell types: pyramidal cells and nonpyramidal cells. The surface of the neocortex is divided into separate areas, each given a number by Brodmann (e.g. Brodmann’s area 17 is the primary visual cortex). The surface is folded to increase surface area, with grooves called sulci and ridges called gyri. The neocortex is responsible for higher cognitive functions and is essential for human consciousness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 29 - Which of the following is considered a voluntary action? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is considered a voluntary action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mannerism

      Explanation:

      Mannerisms are deliberate movements that convey a specific meaning, while tics are involuntary muscle contractions that disrupt normal activities and are often preceded by a strong urge. Hemiballismus refers to uncontrolled flinging movements of one arm and leg, while chorea involves irregular, jerky, and unpredictable movements that can occur anywhere in the body. Athetosis describes writhing movements, particularly in the arms and hands, and is often associated with cerebral palsy resulting from perinatal anoxia of kernicterus. Infants with athetosis may exhibit delayed motor milestones and floppy movements before developing athetoid movements before the age of 5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
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  • Question 30 - Which option is not considered a scoring factor in the clock drawing test?...

    Incorrect

    • Which option is not considered a scoring factor in the clock drawing test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Knowing the actual time

      Explanation:

      Clock Drawing Test: A Screening Tool for Cognitive Dysfunction

      The clock drawing test is a widely used screening tool for cognitive dysfunction. It involves asking the patient to draw a clock on a piece of paper, placing the numbers on the clock face and drawing the hands to indicate 10 minutes past 11. This simple task assesses a range of cognitive functions, including visuospatial ability, motor function, attention, and comprehension.

      The test is quick and easy to administer, making it a useful tool for healthcare professionals to identify potential cognitive impairment in patients. The clock drawing test has been shown to be effective in detecting cognitive dysfunction in a variety of conditions, including Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s disease.

      The image below illustrates examples of clocks drawn correctly by healthy controls and those drawn by patients with Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s disease. By comparing the drawings, healthcare professionals can quickly identify potential cognitive dysfunction and take appropriate action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Genetics (1/1) 100%
Psychopharmacology (1/5) 20%
Classification And Assessment (0/2) 0%
Psychological Development (1/2) 50%
Neurosciences (1/4) 25%
Description And Measurement (1/1) 100%
Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Social Psychology (1/1) 100%
Passmed