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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of vertigo, describing a sensation...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of vertigo, describing a sensation of the room spinning around him. He reports that the symptoms are exacerbated when he rolls over in bed. The GP suspects that otoliths in the semicircular canals of the inner ear may be the cause. What diagnostic test could the GP perform to confirm this suspicion?

      Your Answer: Romberg's test

      Correct Answer: Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is suspected based on the patient’s history. To confirm the diagnosis, the Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre can be performed, which involves quickly moving the patient from a sitting to supine position and observing for nystagmus.

      If BPPV is confirmed, the Epley manoeuvre can be used for treatment. This manoeuvre aims to dislodge otoliths by promoting fluid movement in the inner ear’s semicircular canals.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome can be diagnosed by a positive Tinel’s sign. This involves tapping the median nerve over the flexor retinaculum, causing paraesthesia in the median nerve’s distribution.

      The Trendelenburg test is used to assess venous valve competency in patients with varicose veins.

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo that occurs suddenly when there is a change in head position. It is more prevalent in individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms of BPPV include dizziness and vertigo, which can be accompanied by nausea. Each episode typically lasts for 10-20 seconds and can be triggered by rolling over in bed or looking upwards. A positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which is indicated by vertigo and rotatory nystagmus, can confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.

      Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and usually resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited effectiveness. However, it is important to note that around half of individuals with BPPV may experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old man has been diagnosed with testicular cancer and is worried about...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man has been diagnosed with testicular cancer and is worried about the possibility of it spreading. He has come to his urologist seeking more information. The urologist explains that testicular cancer can metastasize to the lymph nodes that drain lymph from the testes. Which lymph node is most likely to be affected by metastatic spread from the testes?

      Your Answer: Para-aortic lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      The testes drain into the para-aortic lymph nodes, while the scrotum drains into the superficial inguinal lymph nodes and the glans penis drains into the deep inguinal lymph nodes. The anal canal above the pectinate line drains into the internal iliac lymph nodes, and the descending colon drains into the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes. For a comprehensive list of lymph nodes and their associated drainage sites, please refer to the attached notes.

      Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.

      The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.

      Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      105.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 67-year-old patient with well-controlled Parkinson's disease presents following several syncopal episodes. Each...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old patient with well-controlled Parkinson's disease presents following several syncopal episodes. Each episode is preceded by a change in posture, typically when the patient gets out of bed in the morning. The patient feels dizzy and nauseous and falls. He recovers within seconds after the event. The neurologist states these symptoms are likely a side-effect of the patient's levodopa, and prescribes a medication to treat the condition.

      What medication would be the most appropriate for managing the symptoms of this patient?

      Your Answer: Adenosine

      Correct Answer: Fludrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Orthostatic hypotension can be treated with midodrine or fludrocortisone. Fludrocortisone is a synthetic mineralocorticoid that can replace low levels of aldosterone and is often used as an alternative to midodrine, which can cause side-effects such as hypertension and BPH in some patients. Atenolol is a beta-blocker used to treat angina and hypertension, while losartan is an angiotensin-II-receptor antagonist used to manage hypertension. Adenosine is a medication used to treat supraventricular tachycardias.

      Understanding Orthostatic Hypotension

      Orthostatic hypotension is a condition that is more commonly observed in older individuals and those who have neurodegenerative diseases such as Parkinson’s, diabetes, or hypertension. Additionally, certain medications such as alpha-blockers used for benign prostatic hyperplasia can also cause this condition. The primary feature of orthostatic hypotension is a sudden drop in blood pressure, usually more than 20/10 mm Hg, within three minutes of standing. This can lead to presyncope or syncope, which is a feeling of lightheadedness or fainting.

      Fortunately, there are treatment options available for orthostatic hypotension. Midodrine and fludrocortisone are two medications that can be used to manage this condition. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case. By understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for orthostatic hypotension, individuals can take steps to manage this condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      49.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A motorcyclist in his mid-thirties is in a road traffic accident and sustains...

    Incorrect

    • A motorcyclist in his mid-thirties is in a road traffic accident and sustains a complex humeral shaft fracture that requires plating. After the surgery, he reports an inability to extend his fingers. What structure is most likely to have been damaged?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      Mnemonic for the muscles innervated by the radial nerve: BEST

      B – Brachioradialis
      E – Extensors
      S – Supinator
      T – Triceps

      Remembering this acronym can help in recalling the muscles that are supplied by the radial nerve, which is responsible for the movement of the extensor compartment of the forearm.

      The Radial Nerve: Anatomy, Innervation, and Patterns of Damage

      The radial nerve is a continuation of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, with root values ranging from C5 to T1. It travels through the axilla, posterior to the axillary artery, and enters the arm between the brachial artery and the long head of triceps. From there, it spirals around the posterior surface of the humerus in the groove for the radial nerve before piercing the intermuscular septum and descending in front of the lateral epicondyle. At the lateral epicondyle, it divides into a superficial and deep terminal branch, with the deep branch crossing the supinator to become the posterior interosseous nerve.

      The radial nerve innervates several muscles, including triceps, anconeus, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis. The posterior interosseous branch innervates supinator, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, and other muscles. Denervation of these muscles can lead to weakness or paralysis, with effects ranging from minor effects on shoulder stability to loss of elbow extension and weakening of supination of prone hand and elbow flexion in mid prone position.

      Damage to the radial nerve can result in wrist drop and sensory loss to a small area between the dorsal aspect of the 1st and 2nd metacarpals. Axillary damage can also cause paralysis of triceps. Understanding the anatomy, innervation, and patterns of damage of the radial nerve is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is inaccurate? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is inaccurate?

      Your Answer: Mediated by type 2 helper T cells

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis is caused by type 1 helper T cells that participate in the cellular immune response, as opposed to type 2 helper T cells.

      Psoriasis: A Chronic Skin Disorder with Various Subtypes and Complications

      Psoriasis is a prevalent chronic skin disorder that affects around 2% of the population. It is characterized by red, scaly patches on the skin, but it is now known that patients with psoriasis are at an increased risk of arthritis and cardiovascular disease. The pathophysiology of psoriasis is multifactorial and not yet fully understood. It is associated with genetic factors such as HLA-B13, -B17, and -Cw6, and abnormal T cell activity that stimulates keratinocyte proliferation. Environmental factors such as skin trauma, stress, streptococcal infection, and sunlight exposure can worsen, trigger, or improve psoriasis.

      There are several recognized subtypes of psoriasis, including plaque psoriasis, flexural psoriasis, guttate psoriasis, and pustular psoriasis. Each subtype has its own unique characteristics and affects different areas of the body. Psoriasis can also cause nail signs such as pitting and onycholysis, as well as arthritis.

      Complications of psoriasis include psoriatic arthropathy, metabolic syndrome, cardiovascular disease, venous thromboembolism, and psychological distress. It is important for patients with psoriasis to receive proper management and treatment to prevent these complications and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old female who has previously had a colectomy for familial adenomatous polyposis...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female who has previously had a colectomy for familial adenomatous polyposis coli complains of a solid mass located at the lower part of her rectus abdominis muscle. What type of cell is commonly linked with these types of tumors?

      Your Answer: Myocytes

      Correct Answer: Myofibroblasts

      Explanation:

      The most probable differential diagnosis in this case would be desmoid tumors, which involve the abnormal growth of myofibroblast cells.

      Desmoid tumours are growths that arise from musculoaponeurotic structures and are made up of clonal proliferations of myofibroblasts. They are typically firm and have a tendency to infiltrate surrounding tissue. These tumours are often seen in patients with familial adenomatous polyposis coli, and are most commonly found in women after childbirth in the rectus abdominis muscle. Bi allelic APC mutations are usually present in desmoid tumours.

      The preferred treatment for desmoid tumours is radical surgical resection, although radiotherapy and chemotherapy may be considered in some cases. Non-surgical therapy is generally less effective than surgical resection. In certain cases of abdominal desmoids, observation may be preferred as some tumours may spontaneously regress. However, desmoids have a high likelihood of local recurrence. These tumours consist of sheets of differentiated fibroblasts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 72-year-old woman is brought to the stroke unit with a suspected stroke....

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman is brought to the stroke unit with a suspected stroke. She has a medical history of hypertension, type II diabetes, and hypothyroidism. Additionally, she experienced a myocardial infarction 4 years ago. Upon arrival, the patient exhibited a positive FAST result and an irregular breathing pattern. An urgent brain CT scan was performed and is currently under review. What region of the brainstem is responsible for regulating the fundamental breathing rhythm?

      Your Answer: Medulla oblongata

      Explanation:

      The medullary rhythmicity area in the medullary oblongata controls the basic rhythm of breathing through its inspiratory and expiratory neurons. During quiet breathing, the inspiratory area is active for approximately 2 seconds, causing the diaphragm and external intercostals to contract, followed by a period of inactivity lasting around 3 seconds as the muscles relax and there is elastic recoil. Additional brainstem regions can be stimulated to regulate various aspects of breathing, such as extending inspiration in the apneustic area (refer to the table below).

      The Control of Ventilation in the Human Body

      The control of ventilation in the human body is a complex process that involves various components working together to regulate the respiratory rate and depth of respiration. The respiratory centres, chemoreceptors, lung receptors, and muscles all play a role in this process. The automatic, involuntary control of respiration occurs from the medulla, which is responsible for controlling the respiratory rate and depth of respiration.

      The respiratory centres consist of the medullary respiratory centre, apneustic centre, and pneumotaxic centre. The medullary respiratory centre has two groups of neurons, the ventral group, which controls forced voluntary expiration, and the dorsal group, which controls inspiration. The apneustic centre, located in the lower pons, stimulates inspiration and activates and prolongs inhalation. The pneumotaxic centre, located in the upper pons, inhibits inspiration at a certain point and fine-tunes the respiratory rate.

      Ventilatory variables, such as the levels of pCO2, are the most important factors in ventilation control, while levels of O2 are less important. Peripheral chemoreceptors, located in the bifurcation of carotid arteries and arch of the aorta, respond to changes in reduced pO2, increased H+, and increased pCO2 in arterial blood. Central chemoreceptors, located in the medulla, respond to increased H+ in brain interstitial fluid to increase ventilation. It is important to note that the central receptors are not influenced by O2 levels.

      Lung receptors also play a role in the control of ventilation. Stretch receptors respond to lung stretching, causing a reduced respiratory rate, while irritant receptors respond to smoke, causing bronchospasm. J (juxtacapillary) receptors are also involved in the control of ventilation. Overall, the control of ventilation is a complex process that involves various components working together to regulate the respiratory rate and depth of respiration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      69.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old woman presents with an absent corneal reflex on cranial nerve examination....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with an absent corneal reflex on cranial nerve examination. The examining neurologist suspects a lesion affecting either the afferent or efferent limb of this reflex. Which two cranial nerves should be considered as potential culprits?

      Your Answer: Oculomotor and facial nerve

      Correct Answer: Trigeminal and facial nerve

      Explanation:

      The trigeminal nerve’s ophthalmic branch serves as the input or arriving limb in the corneal reflex, while the facial nerve acts as the output or exiting limb.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      39.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is true about placebos? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true about placebos?

      Your Answer: The same compound has been found to have a more powerful placebo effect if it is branded than if it is unbranded

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Placebo Effect

      The placebo effect refers to the phenomenon where a patient experiences an improvement in their condition after receiving an inert substance or treatment that has no inherent pharmacological activity. This can include a sugar pill or a sham procedure that mimics a real medical intervention. The placebo effect is influenced by various factors, such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the patient’s expectations.

      It is important to note that the placebo effect is not the same as receiving no care, as patients who maintain contact with medical services tend to have better outcomes. The placebo response is also greater in mild illnesses and can be difficult to separate from spontaneous remission. Patients who enter randomized controlled trials (RCTs) are often acutely unwell, and their symptoms may improve regardless of the intervention.

      The placebo effect has been extensively studied in depression, where it tends to be abrupt and early in treatment, and less likely to persist compared to improvement from antidepressants. Placebo sag refers to a situation where the placebo effect is diminished with repeated use.

      Overall, the placebo effect is a complex phenomenon that is influenced by various factors and can have significant implications for medical research and treatment. Understanding the placebo effect can help healthcare professionals provide better care and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      40.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A study examines the effectiveness of amoxicillin in treating acute sinusitis in patients...

    Incorrect

    • A study examines the effectiveness of amoxicillin in treating acute sinusitis in patients aged 50 and above compared to a placebo. The study yielded the following results:

      Total number of patients Number who achieved resolution of symptoms at 7 days
      Amoxicillin 100 60
      Placebo 75 30

      What is the odds ratio of a patient aged 50 and above achieving symptom resolution at 7 days if they take amoxicillin compared to placebo?

      Your Answer: 1.5

      Correct Answer: 2.25

      Explanation:

      The concept of odds involves comparing the number of people who experience a certain outcome to those who do not, rather than comparing it to the total number of people. For example, the odds of symptom resolution with amoxicillin would be calculated by dividing the number of people who experienced symptom resolution by the number who did not, resulting in a ratio of 60 to 40, or 1.5. Similarly, the odds of symptom resolution with a placebo would be calculated by dividing the number of people who experienced symptom resolution by the number who did not, resulting in a ratio of 30 to 45, or 2/3. To determine the odds ratio, the odds of symptom resolution with amoxicillin would be divided by the odds of symptom resolution with placebo, resulting in a ratio of 2.25.

      Understanding Odds and Odds Ratio

      When analyzing data, it is important to understand the difference between odds and probability. Odds are a ratio of the number of people who experience a particular outcome to those who do not. On the other hand, probability is the fraction of times an event is expected to occur in many trials. While probability is always between 0 and 1, odds can be any positive number.

      In case-control studies, odds ratios are the usual reported measure. This ratio compares the odds of a particular outcome with experimental treatment to that of a control group. It is important to note that odds ratios approximate to relative risk if the outcome of interest is rare.

      For example, in a trial comparing the use of paracetamol for dysmenorrhoea compared to placebo, the odds of achieving significant pain relief with paracetamol were 2, while the odds of achieving significant pain relief with placebo were 0.5. Therefore, the odds ratio was 4.

      Understanding odds and odds ratio is crucial in interpreting data and making informed decisions. By knowing the difference between odds and probability and how to calculate odds ratios, researchers can accurately analyze and report their findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      353.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 26-year-old first-time mother is interested in learning about the benefits of breastfeeding...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old first-time mother is interested in learning about the benefits of breastfeeding for her newborn. You inform her that breast milk contains essential nutrients and enzymes, including lactoferrin.

      What is the function of lactoferrin in breast milk?

      Your Answer: Promotes rapid absorption of iron

      Explanation:

      Breast Milk lactoferrin facilitates the quick absorption of iron in the gut, while simultaneously limiting the amount of iron accessible to gut bacteria due to its antibacterial properties. Additionally, lactoferrin has been found to promote bone health by increasing bone formation and reducing bone resorption.

      Advantages and Disadvantages of Breastfeeding

      Breastfeeding has numerous advantages for both the mother and the baby. For the mother, it promotes bonding with the baby and helps with the involution of the uterus. It also provides protection against breast and ovarian cancer and is a cheap alternative to formula feeding as there is no need to sterilize bottles. However, it should not be relied upon as a contraceptive method as it is unreliable.

      Breast milk contains immunological components such as IgA, lysozyme, and lactoferrin that protect mucosal surfaces, have bacteriolytic properties, and ensure rapid absorption of iron so it is not available to bacteria. This reduces the incidence of ear, chest, and gastrointestinal infections, as well as eczema, asthma, and type 1 diabetes mellitus. Breastfeeding also reduces the incidence of sudden infant death syndrome.

      One of the advantages of breastfeeding is that the baby is in control of how much milk it takes. However, there are also disadvantages such as the transmission of drugs and infections such as HIV. Prolonged breastfeeding may also lead to nutrient inadequacies such as vitamin D and vitamin K deficiencies, as well as breast milk jaundice.

      In conclusion, while breastfeeding has numerous advantages, it is important to be aware of the potential disadvantages and to consult with a healthcare professional to ensure that both the mother and the baby are receiving adequate nutrition and care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A man in his 50s arrives at the emergency department exhibiting signs of...

    Correct

    • A man in his 50s arrives at the emergency department exhibiting signs of a stroke. After undergoing a CT angiogram, it is revealed that there is a constriction in the artery that provides blood to the right common carotid.

      What is the name of the affected artery?

      Your Answer: Brachiocephalic artery

      Explanation:

      The largest branch from the aortic arch is the brachiocephalic artery, which originates from it. This artery gives rise to both the right subclavian artery and the right common carotid arteries. The brachiocephalic artery is supplied by the aortic arch, while the coronary arteries are supplied by the ascending aorta. Additionally, the coeliac trunk is a branch that stems from the abdominal aorta.

      The Brachiocephalic Artery: Anatomy and Relations

      The brachiocephalic artery is the largest branch of the aortic arch, originating at the apex of the midline. It ascends superiorly and posteriorly to the right, lying initially anterior to the trachea and then on its right-hand side. At the level of the sternoclavicular joint, it divides into the right subclavian and right common carotid arteries.

      In terms of its relations, the brachiocephalic artery is anterior to the sternohyoid, sterno-thyroid, thymic remnants, left brachiocephalic vein, and right inferior thyroid veins. Posteriorly, it is related to the trachea, right pleura, right lateral, right brachiocephalic vein, superior part of the SVC, left lateral, thymic remnants, origin of left common carotid, inferior thyroid veins, and trachea at a higher level.

      The brachiocephalic artery typically has no branches, but it may have the thyroidea ima artery. Understanding the anatomy and relations of the brachiocephalic artery is important for medical professionals, as it is a crucial vessel in the human body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      1245.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 68-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with complaints of shortness of...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with complaints of shortness of breath and palpitations. During the examination, you observe an irregularly irregular pulse. To check for signs of atrial fibrillation, you opt to conduct an ECG. In a healthy individual, where is the SA node located in the heart?

      Your Answer: Right atrium

      Explanation:

      The SA node is situated at the junction of the superior vena cava and the right atrium, and is responsible for initiating cardiac impulses in a healthy heart. The AV node, located in the atrioventricular septum, regulates the spread of excitation from the atria to the ventricles. The patient’s symptoms of palpitations and shortness of breath, along with an irregularly irregular pulse, strongly indicate atrial fibrillation. ECG findings consistent with atrial fibrillation include an irregularly irregular rhythm and the absence of P waves.

      The heart has four chambers and generates pressures of 0-25 mmHg on the right side and 0-120 mmHg on the left. The cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume, typically 5-6L per minute. The cardiac impulse is generated in the sino atrial node and conveyed to the ventricles via the atrioventricular node. Parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers project to the heart via the vagus and release acetylcholine and noradrenaline, respectively. The cardiac cycle includes mid diastole, late diastole, early systole, late systole, and early diastole. Preload is the end diastolic volume and afterload is the aortic pressure. Laplace’s law explains the rise in ventricular pressure during the ejection phase and why a dilated diseased heart will have impaired systolic function. Starling’s law states that an increase in end-diastolic volume will produce a larger stroke volume up to a point beyond which stroke volume will fall. Baroreceptor reflexes and atrial stretch receptors are involved in regulating cardiac output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 72-year-old man is receiving an angiogram to investigate gastrointestinal bleeding. During the...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man is receiving an angiogram to investigate gastrointestinal bleeding. During the procedure, the radiologist inserts the catheter into the coeliac axis. What is the usual spinal level where this vessel originates from the aorta?

      Your Answer: T12

      Explanation:

      The coeliac axis is positioned at T12 and branches off the aorta at an almost horizontal angle. It comprises three significant branches.

      Branches of the Abdominal Aorta

      The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to the abdominal organs and lower extremities. It gives rise to several branches that supply blood to various organs and tissues. These branches can be classified into two types: parietal and visceral.

      The parietal branches supply blood to the walls of the abdominal cavity, while the visceral branches supply blood to the abdominal organs. The branches of the abdominal aorta include the inferior phrenic, coeliac, superior mesenteric, middle suprarenal, renal, gonadal, lumbar, inferior mesenteric, median sacral, and common iliac arteries.

      The inferior phrenic artery arises from the upper border of the abdominal aorta and supplies blood to the diaphragm. The coeliac artery supplies blood to the liver, stomach, spleen, and pancreas. The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the small intestine, cecum, and ascending colon. The middle suprarenal artery supplies blood to the adrenal gland. The renal arteries supply blood to the kidneys. The gonadal arteries supply blood to the testes or ovaries. The lumbar arteries supply blood to the muscles and skin of the back. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum. The median sacral artery supplies blood to the sacrum and coccyx. The common iliac arteries are the terminal branches of the abdominal aorta and supply blood to the pelvis and lower extremities.

      Understanding the branches of the abdominal aorta is important for diagnosing and treating various medical conditions that affect the abdominal organs and lower extremities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following is not a tumor suppressor gene? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a tumor suppressor gene?

      Your Answer: NF-1

      Correct Answer: myc

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tumour Suppressor Genes

      Tumour suppressor genes are responsible for controlling the cell cycle and preventing the development of cancer. When these genes lose their function, the risk of cancer increases. It is important to note that both alleles of the gene must be mutated before cancer can occur. Examples of tumour suppressor genes include p53, APC, BRCA1 & BRCA2, NF1, Rb, WT1, and MTS-1. Each of these genes is associated with specific types of cancer, and their loss of function can lead to an increased risk of developing these cancers.

      On the other hand, oncogenes are genes that, when they gain function, can also increase the risk of cancer. Unlike tumour suppressor genes, oncogenes promote cell growth and division, leading to uncontrolled cell growth and the development of cancer. Understanding the role of both tumour suppressor genes and oncogenes is crucial in the development of cancer treatments and prevention strategies. By identifying and targeting these genes, researchers can work towards developing more effective treatments for cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 14-year-old male immigrant from India visits his primary care physician complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old male immigrant from India visits his primary care physician complaining of gradually worsening shortness of breath, particularly during physical exertion, and widespread joint pain. He had a severe untreated throat infection in the past, but his vaccination record is complete. During the physical examination, a high-pitched holosystolic murmur is heard at the apex with radiation to the axilla.

      Hemoglobin: 135 g/L
      Platelets: 150 * 10^9/L
      White blood cells: 9.5 * 10^9/L
      Anti-streptolysin O titers: >200 units/mL

      What is the most probable histological finding in his heart?

      Your Answer: Schiller-Duval bodies

      Correct Answer: Aschoff bodies

      Explanation:

      Rheumatic heart fever is characterized by the presence of Aschoff bodies, which are granulomatous nodules. The mitral valve is commonly affected in this condition, and an elevated ASO titre indicates exposure to group A streptococcus bacteria. Rheumatic heart disease is also associated with the presence of Anitschkow cells, which are enlarged macrophages with an ovoid, wavy, rod-like nucleus. Other types of bodies seen in different conditions include Councilman bodies in hepatitis C and yellow fever, Mallory bodies in alcoholism affecting hepatocytes, and Call-Exner bodies in granulosa cell tumours.

      Rheumatic fever is a condition that occurs as a result of an immune response to a recent Streptococcus pyogenes infection, typically occurring 2-4 weeks after the initial infection. The pathogenesis of rheumatic fever involves the activation of the innate immune system, leading to antigen presentation to T cells. B and T cells then produce IgG and IgM antibodies, and CD4+ T cells are activated. This immune response is thought to be cross-reactive, mediated by molecular mimicry, where antibodies against M protein cross-react with myosin and the smooth muscle of arteries. This response leads to the clinical features of rheumatic fever, including Aschoff bodies, which are granulomatous nodules found in rheumatic heart fever.

      To diagnose rheumatic fever, evidence of recent streptococcal infection must be present, along with 2 major criteria or 1 major criterion and 2 minor criteria. Major criteria include erythema marginatum, Sydenham’s chorea, polyarthritis, carditis and valvulitis, and subcutaneous nodules. Minor criteria include raised ESR or CRP, pyrexia, arthralgia, and prolonged PR interval.

      Management of rheumatic fever involves antibiotics, typically oral penicillin V, as well as anti-inflammatories such as NSAIDs as first-line treatment. Any complications that develop, such as heart failure, should also be treated. It is important to diagnose and treat rheumatic fever promptly to prevent long-term complications such as rheumatic heart disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A young man presents after multiple episodes of optic neuritis, during which he...

    Incorrect

    • A young man presents after multiple episodes of optic neuritis, during which he develops unilateral eye pain. Upon examination, he is found to have decreased visual acuity and colour saturation on his affected eye. His doctor suspects multiple sclerosis. What features would be expected on a T2-weighted MRI?

      Your Answer: Unilateral semilunar lesion

      Correct Answer: Multiple hyperintense lesions

      Explanation:

      MS is characterized by the spread of brain lesions over time and space.

      Dementia is often linked to cortical atrophy.

      If there is only one hyperintense lesion, it may indicate a haemorrhage rather than other conditions.

      A semilunar lesion on one side may indicate a subdural haemorrhage.

      Raised intracranial pressure, which can be caused by space-occupying lesions and haemorrhages, can be indicated by midline shift.

      Investigating Multiple Sclerosis

      Diagnosing multiple sclerosis (MS) requires the identification of lesions that are disseminated in both time and space. There are several methods used to investigate MS, including magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis, and visual evoked potentials (VEP).

      MRI is a commonly used tool to identify MS lesions. High signal T2 lesions and periventricular plaques are often observed, as well as Dawson fingers, which are hyperintense lesions perpendicular to the corpus callosum. CSF analysis can also aid in diagnosis, as it may reveal oligoclonal bands that are not present in serum and an increased intrathecal synthesis of IgG.

      VEP testing can also be used to diagnose MS. This test measures the electrical activity in the visual pathway and can reveal a delayed but well-preserved waveform in MS patients.

      Overall, a combination of these methods is often used to diagnose MS and demonstrate the dissemination of lesions in time and space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      34.4
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  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old man has been diagnosed with a gastrointestinal stromal tumour in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has been diagnosed with a gastrointestinal stromal tumour in his stomach. What is the typical cell type that gives rise to these tumours?

      Your Answer: Antral goblet cells

      Correct Answer: Interstitial cells of Cajal

      Explanation:

      Gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GISTs) originate from Cajal’s interstitial pacemaker cells, which are typically found outside the mucosal layer and cause minimal damage to it.

      Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumours: Characteristics and Treatment Options

      Gastrointestinal stromal tumours (GISTs) are rare tumours that originate from the interstitial pacemaker cells of Cajal. These tumours are primarily found in the stomach (70%), with the remainder occurring in the small intestine (20%) and colon/rectum (5%). Most GISTs are solitary lesions and are sporadic in nature. The majority of GISTs express CD117, a transmembrane tyrosine kinase receptor, and have a mutation of the c-KIT gene.

      The main goal of surgery for GISTs is to resect the tumour with a 1-2 cm margin of normal tissue. Extensive resections are not usually required. However, there is a high local recurrence rate, which is related to the site of the tumour, incomplete resections, and high mitotic count. Salvage surgery for recurrent disease is associated with a median survival of 15 months.

      In high-risk patients, the use of imatinib has greatly improved prognosis. In the ACOSOG trial, imatinib reduced relapse rates from 17% to 2%. In the UK, imatinib is recommended by NICE for use in patients with metastatic disease or locally unresectable disease.

      Overall, GISTs are rare tumours that require careful management. Surgery with a margin of normal tissue is the mainstay of treatment, but the risk of recurrence is high. Imatinib has shown promise in improving prognosis for high-risk patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 75-year-old man, Tom, is brought into the emergency department after a fall....

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man, Tom, is brought into the emergency department after a fall. He was discovered by his daughter. Tom is disoriented and unable to provide a clear explanation of what happened. His daughter knows that Tom takes a blood thinner but cannot recall its name. She does know that Tom began taking it after having a metallic heart valve and that he can no longer eat grapefruit for breakfast.

      A CT scan of Tom's head reveals a significant acute subdural hemorrhage, and the emergency department physician prescribes IV vitamin K.

      How does IV vitamin K assist in this situation?

      Your Answer: Activates clotting factors III, IV, V and VIII

      Correct Answer: Activates clotting factors II, VII, IX and X

      Explanation:

      Vitamin K plays a crucial role as a co-factor in the activation of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X through carboxylation. The patient’s use of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication, suggests that they have a metallic heart valve. Warfarin inhibits vitamin K-epoxide-reductase (VKOR), which is responsible for converting vitamin K into its active state. By inhibiting VKOR, warfarin prevents the activation of the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. However, administering the active form of vitamin K can reverse the effects of warfarin by allowing the activation of these clotting factors without VKOR. It is important for patients taking warfarin to be mindful of their diet, as some foods can interact with the medication and affect its effectiveness. Clotting factors III, IV, V, and VIII are not affected by warfarin as they function independently of vitamin K. Vitamin K does not bind directly to warfarin or affect its metabolism.

      Understanding Vitamin K

      Vitamin K is a type of fat-soluble vitamin that plays a crucial role in the carboxylation of clotting factors such as II, VII, IX, and X. This vitamin acts as a cofactor in the process, which is essential for blood clotting. In clinical settings, vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarinisation, a process that inhibits blood clotting. However, it may take up to four hours for the INR to change after administering vitamin K.

      Vitamin K deficiency can occur in conditions that affect fat absorption since it is a fat-soluble vitamin. Additionally, prolonged use of broad-spectrum antibiotics can eliminate gut flora, leading to a deficiency in vitamin K. It is essential to maintain adequate levels of vitamin K to ensure proper blood clotting and prevent bleeding disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      167.6
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  • Question 20 - An 80-year-old man visits his GP complaining of abdominal pain, early satiety, lethargy,...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man visits his GP complaining of abdominal pain, early satiety, lethargy, and weight loss. After conducting several tests, he is diagnosed with gastric adenocarcinoma following an endoscopic biopsy. What is the most probable histological characteristic that will be observed in the biopsy?

      Your Answer: Crypt abscesses

      Correct Answer: Signet ring cells

      Explanation:

      Gastric cancer is a relatively uncommon type of cancer, accounting for only 2% of all cancer diagnoses in developed countries. It is more prevalent in older individuals, with half of patients being over the age of 75, and is more common in males than females. Several risk factors have been identified, including Helicobacter pylori infection, atrophic gastritis, certain dietary habits, smoking, and blood group. Symptoms of gastric cancer can include abdominal pain, weight loss, nausea, vomiting, and dysphagia. In some cases, lymphatic spread may result in the appearance of nodules in the left supraclavicular lymph node or periumbilical area. Diagnosis is typically made through oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy with biopsy, and staging is done using CT. Treatment options depend on the extent and location of the cancer and may include endoscopic mucosal resection, partial or total gastrectomy, and chemotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following is not a branch of the abdominal aorta? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a branch of the abdominal aorta?

      Your Answer: Superior phrenic artery

      Explanation:

      To remember the order of branches, use the phrase ‘Prostitutes Cause Sagging Swollen Red Testicles [in men] Living In Sin’:

      Phrenic [inferior]
      Celiac
      Superior mesenteric
      Suprarenal [middle]
      Renal
      Testicular [‘in men’ only]
      Lumbars
      Inferior mesenteric
      Sacral

      Note that the superior phrenic artery branches from the aorta in the thorax.

      Branches of the Abdominal Aorta

      The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to the abdominal organs and lower extremities. It gives rise to several branches that supply blood to various organs and tissues. These branches can be classified into two types: parietal and visceral.

      The parietal branches supply blood to the walls of the abdominal cavity, while the visceral branches supply blood to the abdominal organs. The branches of the abdominal aorta include the inferior phrenic, coeliac, superior mesenteric, middle suprarenal, renal, gonadal, lumbar, inferior mesenteric, median sacral, and common iliac arteries.

      The inferior phrenic artery arises from the upper border of the abdominal aorta and supplies blood to the diaphragm. The coeliac artery supplies blood to the liver, stomach, spleen, and pancreas. The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the small intestine, cecum, and ascending colon. The middle suprarenal artery supplies blood to the adrenal gland. The renal arteries supply blood to the kidneys. The gonadal arteries supply blood to the testes or ovaries. The lumbar arteries supply blood to the muscles and skin of the back. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum. The median sacral artery supplies blood to the sacrum and coccyx. The common iliac arteries are the terminal branches of the abdominal aorta and supply blood to the pelvis and lower extremities.

      Understanding the branches of the abdominal aorta is important for diagnosing and treating various medical conditions that affect the abdominal organs and lower extremities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 23-year-old female medical student arrives at the emergency department with haematemesis, a...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female medical student arrives at the emergency department with haematemesis, a fever and weakness. She had been experiencing headache, myalgia and nausea for the past 3 days, but felt slightly better yesterday before feeling much worse today. She had recently travelled to Uganda for her elective and did not receive any of the recommended travel vaccines. Upon examination, she is bradycardic, weak all over and visibly jaundiced.

      What is the most appropriate description of the infection that this student is currently suffering from?

      Your Answer: Non-zoonotic protozoal infection

      Correct Answer: Zoonotic viral infection

      Explanation:

      The probable cause of the patient’s illness is yellow fever, which is a zoonotic infection. The symptoms, temporary relief, and recent travel to a region with a high incidence of yellow fever all point to this diagnosis. Yellow fever is a viral disease that is transmitted by the Aedes mosquito and can infect other primates as well. It is recommended that individuals traveling to yellow fever-prone areas receive the yellow fever vaccine before departure.

      Yellow Fever: A Viral Hemorrhagic Fever Spread by Mosquitos

      Yellow fever is a type of viral hemorrhagic fever that is spread by Aedes mosquitos. The incubation period for this zoonotic infection is typically between 2 to 14 days. While some individuals may experience only mild flu-like symptoms lasting less than a week, the classic description of yellow fever involves a sudden onset of high fever, rigors, nausea, and vomiting. Bradycardia, or a slow heart rate, may also develop. After a brief remission, jaundice, haematemesis, and oliguria may occur. In severe cases, individuals may experience jaundice and haematemesis. Councilman bodies, which are inclusion bodies, may also be seen in the hepatocytes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      55.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 17-year-old boy is out on a movie date with his girlfriend. During...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old boy is out on a movie date with his girlfriend. During the film, he keeps his arm over her seat. However, when the movie ends, he realizes that he has limited wrist movement. Upon examination, he is unable to extend his wrist and has reduced sensation in his anatomical snuff box. Which nerve did he damage while at the cinema?

      Your Answer: Radial

      Explanation:

      Saturday night syndrome is a condition where the brachial plexus is compressed due to sleeping with the arm over the back of a chair. This can result in a radial nerve palsy, commonly known as wrist drop, where the patient is unable to extend their wrist and it hangs flaccidly.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - You are a third year medical student assisting a plastic surgeon in theatre....

    Incorrect

    • You are a third year medical student assisting a plastic surgeon in theatre. The plastic surgeon hands you a surgical retractor and asks you to retract the latissimus dorsi muscle. Once you have successfully done so, the surgeon inquires about the nerve responsible for innervating this muscle.

      What is the nerve that innervates the latissimus dorsi muscle?

      Your Answer: Lateral pectoral nerve

      Correct Answer: Thoracodorsal nerve

      Explanation:

      The Functions of Different Nerves in the Brachial Plexus

      The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that originate from the spinal cord and provide innervation to the upper limb. Each nerve in the brachial plexus has a specific function and innervates a particular muscle or group of muscles. the functions of these nerves is essential for diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions.

      One of the nerves in the brachial plexus is the thoracodorsal nerve, which originates from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus. Its primary function is to provide somatic innervation to the latissimus dorsi muscle, which is a large muscle in the posterior thorax involved in shoulder joint movement.

      Another nerve in the brachial plexus is the upper subscapular nerve, which innervates the subscapularis muscle. The long thoracic nerve, on the other hand, innervates the serratus anterior muscle, and damage to this nerve can cause a winging effect on the scapula.

      The axillary nerve is another nerve in the brachial plexus that originates from the posterior cord. Its primary motor supply is to the deltoid muscle, which is involved in shoulder abduction.

      Lastly, the lateral pectoral nerve is a branch of the lateral cord and innervates the pectoralis major muscle. The pectoralis major muscle also receives innervation from the medial pectoral nerve, which is a branch of the median cord of the brachial plexus.

      In summary, each nerve in the brachial plexus has a specific function and innervates a particular muscle or group of muscles. the functions of these nerves is crucial for diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      47.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 58-year-old woman presents to the colorectal clinic with complaints of pruritus ani....

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman presents to the colorectal clinic with complaints of pruritus ani. During the examination, a polypoidal mass is discovered below the dentate line. A biopsy confirms the presence of squamous cell carcinoma. Which lymph node groups are at risk of metastasis from this lesion?

      Your Answer: External iliac

      Correct Answer: Inguinal

      Explanation:

      If there are any injuries or abnormalities located beyond the dentate line, they will be drained towards the inguinal nodes. In some cases, this may require a block dissection of the groin.

      Anatomy of the Rectum

      The rectum is a capacitance organ that measures approximately 12 cm in length. It consists of both intra and extraperitoneal components, with the transition from the sigmoid colon marked by the disappearance of the tenia coli. The extra peritoneal rectum is surrounded by mesorectal fat that contains lymph nodes, which are removed during rectal cancer surgery. The fascial layers that surround the rectum are important clinical landmarks, with the fascia of Denonvilliers located anteriorly and Waldeyers fascia located posteriorly.

      In males, the rectum is adjacent to the rectovesical pouch, bladder, prostate, and seminal vesicles, while in females, it is adjacent to the recto-uterine pouch (Douglas), cervix, and vaginal wall. Posteriorly, the rectum is in contact with the sacrum, coccyx, and middle sacral artery, while laterally, it is adjacent to the levator ani and coccygeus muscles.

      The superior rectal artery supplies blood to the rectum, while the superior rectal vein drains it. Mesorectal lymph nodes located superior to the dentate line drain into the internal iliac and then para-aortic nodes, while those located inferior to the dentate line drain into the inguinal nodes. Understanding the anatomy of the rectum is crucial for surgical procedures and the diagnosis and treatment of rectal diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      57
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old man comes to the hospital after experiencing two instances of bright...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man comes to the hospital after experiencing two instances of bright red urine in the morning. He is extremely anxious and informs the doctor that he has never had such an occurrence before. The man has recently started working at an engineering firm and is preparing to get married in a few months. He has been feeling fatigued for the past few months but attributed it to his job, which requires him to travel to construction sites daily. He has no significant medical history except for an appendectomy during childhood. A blood test shows a hemoglobin concentration of 11.5 g/dL and a reticulocyte count of 14% of red blood cells. What is the most probable finding that will be reported after flow cytometry of a blood sample from this patient?

      Your Answer: C3 negative cells

      Correct Answer: CD55 and CD59 negative cells

      Explanation:

      Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) is a chronic form of intrinsic hemolytic anemia that can present with symptoms such as hematuria, anemia, and venous thrombosis. The classic triad of PNH includes hemolytic anemia, pancytopenia, and venous thrombosis. The gold standard test for PNH is flow cytometry for CD59 and CD55, which shows a deficiency of these proteins on red and white blood cells.

      A deficiency of C3 is a complement deficiency disorder that increases the risk of recurrent bacterial infections. While a deficiency of CD59 or CD55 may be present in this patient, PNH patients typically have a deficiency of both proteins. Terminal complement deficiency, indicated by a deficiency of complements forming the membrane attack membrane, confers a high risk of infection with Neisseria organisms. Eculizumab, a humanized monoclonal antibody, is approved for the treatment of PNH and works by inhibiting the terminal complement cascade.

      Understanding Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria

      Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH) is a condition that causes the breakdown of haematological cells, mainly intravascular haemolysis. It is believed to be caused by a lack of glycoprotein glycosyl-phosphatidylinositol (GPI), which acts as an anchor that attaches surface proteins to the cell membrane. This leads to the improper binding of complement-regulating surface proteins, such as decay-accelerating factor (DAF), to the cell membrane. As a result, patients with PNH are more prone to venous thrombosis.

      PNH can affect red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets, or stem cells, leading to pancytopenia. Patients may also experience haemoglobinuria, which is characterized by dark-coloured urine in the morning. Thrombosis, such as Budd-Chiari syndrome, is also a common feature of PNH. In some cases, patients may develop aplastic anaemia.

      To diagnose PNH, flow cytometry of blood is used to detect low levels of CD59 and CD55. This has replaced Ham’s test as the gold standard investigation for PNH. Ham’s test involves acid-induced haemolysis, which normal red cells would not undergo.

      Management of PNH involves blood product replacement, anticoagulation, and stem cell transplantation. Eculizumab, a monoclonal antibody directed against terminal protein C5, is currently being trialled and is showing promise in reducing intravascular haemolysis. Understanding PNH is crucial in managing this condition and improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      98.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 32-year-old single mum has been recommended for genetic testing after her 10-months-old...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old single mum has been recommended for genetic testing after her 10-months-old daughter was diagnosed with congenital nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. She has no symptoms and does not know of any family history of this disorder.

      Which part of the kidney is frequently impacted in this condition?

      Your Answer: Aquaporin 1 channel (AQP1)

      Correct Answer: Vasopressin receptor

      Explanation:

      Diabetes insipidus is a medical condition that can be caused by either a decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from the pituitary gland (cranial DI) or an insensitivity to ADH (nephrogenic DI). Cranial DI can be caused by various factors such as head injury, pituitary surgery, and infiltrative diseases like sarcoidosis. On the other hand, nephrogenic DI can be caused by genetic factors, electrolyte imbalances, and certain medications like lithium and demeclocycline. The common symptoms of DI are excessive urination and thirst. Diagnosis is made through a water deprivation test and checking the osmolality of the urine. Treatment options include thiazides and a low salt/protein diet for nephrogenic DI, while central DI can be treated with desmopressin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What distinguishes articular cartilage from other types of hyaline cartilage? ...

    Incorrect

    • What distinguishes articular cartilage from other types of hyaline cartilage?

      Your Answer: More glycosaminoglycans

      Correct Answer: Regular arrangement of collagen fibres

      Explanation:

      Types of Cartilage

      Hyaline cartilage is a type of cartilage that is firm and is composed of type II collagen. It is found in various parts of the body such as the nose, the cartilaginous rings of the trachea, the foetal skeleton, and lines synovial joints in a specialized form known as articular cartilage. Articular cartilage has a more regular arrangement of collagen fibers and slightly more elastin, which makes it less frictional and facilitates the movement of synovial joints.

      Fibrocartilage, on the other hand, is made up of type I collagen and is much more solid. It is used to hold bones together, such as in the pubic symphysis. Lastly, elastic cartilage has a rich elastin content and forms the pinna of the ear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Histology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 60-year-old man is being seen at the heart failure clinic. Despite being...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man is being seen at the heart failure clinic. Despite being stable, he is bothered by the persistent swelling in his ankles. He is currently on furosemide, but the cardiologist decides to prescribe amiloride to see if it helps. What is the intended target of this new medication?

      Your Answer: Sodium-potassium-chloride cotransporter

      Correct Answer: Epithelial sodium channel

      Explanation:

      Amiloride is a type of potassium-sparing diuretic that selectively blocks the epithelial sodium transport channels in the distal convoluted tubule. It is often used in combination with thiazide/loop diuretics to counteract potassium loss. Amiloride does not affect the aldosterone receptor, which is targeted by drugs like spironolactone and eplerenone. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors like dorzolamide and acetazolamide are typically used for glaucoma, while thiazide diuretics like bendroflumethiazide target the sodium-chloride transporter. Loop diuretics like furosemide inhibit the sodium-potassium-chloride cotransporter.

      Potassium-sparing diuretics are classified into two types: epithelial sodium channel blockers (such as amiloride and triamterene) and aldosterone antagonists (such as spironolactone and eplerenone). However, caution should be exercised when using these drugs in patients taking ACE inhibitors as they can cause hyperkalaemia. Amiloride is a weak diuretic that blocks the epithelial sodium channel in the distal convoluted tubule. It is usually given with thiazides or loop diuretics as an alternative to potassium supplementation since these drugs often cause hypokalaemia. On the other hand, aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone act in the cortical collecting duct and are used to treat conditions such as ascites, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome. In patients with cirrhosis, relatively large doses of spironolactone (100 or 200 mg) are often used to manage secondary hyperaldosteronism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      75.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of these openings allows the facial nerve to enter the temporal bone?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these openings allows the facial nerve to enter the temporal bone?

      Your Answer: Stylomastoid foramen

      Correct Answer: Internal acoustic meatus

      Explanation:

      The facial nerve passes through the internal acoustic meatus of the temporal bone and emerges from the stylomastoid foramen.

      The facial nerve is responsible for supplying the muscles of facial expression, the digastric muscle, and various glandular structures. It also contains a few afferent fibers that originate in the genicular ganglion and are involved in taste. Bilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by conditions such as sarcoidosis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, Lyme disease, and bilateral acoustic neuromas. Unilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by these conditions as well as lower motor neuron issues like Bell’s palsy and upper motor neuron issues like stroke.

      The upper motor neuron lesion typically spares the upper face, specifically the forehead, while a lower motor neuron lesion affects all facial muscles. The facial nerve’s path includes the subarachnoid path, where it originates in the pons and passes through the petrous temporal bone into the internal auditory meatus with the vestibulocochlear nerve. The facial canal path passes superior to the vestibule of the inner ear and contains the geniculate ganglion at the medial aspect of the middle ear. The stylomastoid foramen is where the nerve passes through the tympanic cavity anteriorly and the mastoid antrum posteriorly, and it also includes the posterior auricular nerve and branch to the posterior belly of the digastric and stylohyoid muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 26-year-old man with a strong family history of Huntington's disease undergoes genome...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man with a strong family history of Huntington's disease undergoes genome analysis. The analysis reveals the presence of a single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) within the Huntington gene. This SNP causes a GUA codon to be transcribed as GUC. However, after careful examination, it is determined that this SNP did not affect the primary structure of the Huntington protein synthesized by the patient.

      What is the type of mutation that occurred in this case?

      Your Answer: Silent

      Explanation:

      Types of DNA Mutations

      There are different types of DNA mutations that can occur in an organism’s genetic material. One type is called a silent mutation, which does not change the amino acid sequence of a protein. This type of mutation often occurs in the third position of a codon, where the change in the DNA base does not affect the final amino acid produced.

      Another type of mutation is called a nonsense mutation, which results in the formation of a stop codon. This means that the protein being produced is truncated and may not function properly.

      A missense mutation is a point mutation that changes the amino acid sequence of a protein. This can have significant effects on the protein’s function, as the altered amino acid may not be able to perform its intended role.

      Finally, a frameshift mutation occurs when a number of nucleotides are inserted or deleted from the DNA sequence. This can cause a shift in the reading frame of the DNA, resulting in a completely different amino acid sequence downstream. These mutations can have serious consequences for the organism, as the resulting protein may be non-functional or even harmful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      39.7
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 75-year-old woman presents with a five-day history of difficulty initiating abduction of...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman presents with a five-day history of difficulty initiating abduction of her right arm. She denies any pain or previous shoulder issues and has not experienced any trauma. During examination, her passive range of motion is normal, but she is unable to begin abduction from a neutral position. However, if she uses her left arm to lift her right arm to approximately 15 degrees, she is then able to continue abduction without difficulty. Which muscle is responsible for initiating shoulder abduction?

      Your Answer: Trapezius

      Correct Answer: Supraspinatus

      Explanation:

      The Supraspinatus muscle is responsible for starting the process of lifting the arm away from the body, up to a point of about 15 degrees. After this point, the Deltoid muscle takes over as the primary muscle responsible for continuing the arm’s upward movement. When the arm is lifted beyond 90 degrees, the Trapezius muscle comes into play, elevating the shoulder and rotating the scapula. Finally, the Infraspinatus muscle is responsible for producing lateral rotation of the arm at the shoulder.

      Understanding the Rotator Cuff Muscles

      The rotator cuff muscles are a group of four muscles that are responsible for the movement and stability of the shoulder joint. These muscles are known as the SItS muscles, which stands for Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, teres minor, and Subscapularis. Each of these muscles has a specific function in the movement of the shoulder joint.

      The Supraspinatus muscle is responsible for abducting the arm before the deltoid muscle. It is the most commonly injured muscle in the rotator cuff. The Infraspinatus muscle rotates the arm laterally, while the teres minor muscle adducts and rotates the arm laterally. Lastly, the Subscapularis muscle adducts and rotates the arm medially.

      Understanding the functions of each of these muscles is important in diagnosing and treating rotator cuff injuries. By identifying which muscle is injured, healthcare professionals can develop a treatment plan that targets the specific muscle and promotes healing. Overall, the rotator cuff muscles play a crucial role in the movement and stability of the shoulder joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      41
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A patient in her 50s undergoes spirometry, during which she is instructed to...

    Correct

    • A patient in her 50s undergoes spirometry, during which she is instructed to perform a maximum forced exhalation following a maximum inhalation. The volume of exhaled air is measured. What is the term used to describe the difference between this volume and her total lung capacity?

      Your Answer: Residual volume

      Explanation:

      The total lung capacity can be calculated by adding the vital capacity and residual volume. The expiratory reserve volume refers to the amount of air that can be exhaled after a normal breath compared to a maximal exhalation. The functional residual capacity is the amount of air remaining in the lungs after a normal exhalation. The inspiratory reserve volume is the difference between the amount of air in the lungs after a normal breath and a maximal inhalation. The residual volume is the amount of air left in the lungs after a maximal exhalation, which is the difference between the total lung capacity and vital capacity. The vital capacity is the maximum amount of air that can be inhaled and exhaled, measured by the volume of air exhaled after a maximal inhalation.

      Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology

      In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.

      Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.

      Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.

      Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.

      Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.

      Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      43.6
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - You are in charge of the care of a 23-year-old man who has...

    Correct

    • You are in charge of the care of a 23-year-old man who has come for a military medical evaluation. Based on his symptoms, you suspect that he has type 1 diabetes and has been secretly administering insulin. What clinical methods can you use to evaluate his endogenous insulin production?

      Your Answer: C-peptide

      Explanation:

      C-peptide is a reliable indicator of insulin production as it is secreted in proportion to insulin. It is often used clinically to measure endogenous insulin production.

      Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that plays a crucial role in regulating the metabolism of carbohydrates and fats in the body. It works by causing cells in the liver, muscles, and fat tissue to absorb glucose from the bloodstream, which is then stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles or as triglycerides in fat cells. The human insulin protein is made up of 51 amino acids and is a dimer of an A-chain and a B-chain linked together by disulfide bonds. Pro-insulin is first formed in the rough endoplasmic reticulum of pancreatic beta cells and then cleaved to form insulin and C-peptide. Insulin is stored in secretory granules and released in response to high levels of glucose in the blood. In addition to its role in glucose metabolism, insulin also inhibits lipolysis, reduces muscle protein loss, and increases cellular uptake of potassium through stimulation of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 54-year-old man visits the clinic after his spouse was diagnosed with hypertension...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man visits the clinic after his spouse was diagnosed with hypertension and advised him to get his blood pressure checked. He has no symptoms. Upon measurement, his blood pressure is 155/92 mmHg. To further evaluate, a 24-hour blood pressure monitoring is scheduled. During the consultation, you discuss the physiology of blood pressure and mention the significance of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system in maintaining blood pressure homeostasis. Can you identify the primary site of aldosterone action in the kidney?

      Your Answer: Distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct of the nephron

      Explanation:

      Aldosterone functions in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts of the nephron. Spironolactone is a diuretic that preserves potassium levels by blocking aldosterone receptors. The loop of Henle and Bowman’s capsule are located closer to the beginning of the nephron. Prostaglandins regulate the afferent arteriole of the glomerulus, causing vasodilation. NSAIDs can lead to renal failure by inhibiting prostaglandin production. The vasa recta are straight capillaries that run parallel to the loop of Henle in the kidney. To confirm a diagnosis of hypertension, NICE recommends a 24-hour ambulatory blood pressure reading to account for the potential increase in blood pressure in clinical settings.

      Aldosterone is a hormone that is primarily produced by the adrenal cortex in the zona glomerulosa. Its main function is to stimulate the reabsorption of sodium from the distal tubules, which results in the excretion of potassium. It is regulated by various factors such as angiotensin II, potassium, and ACTH, which increase its secretion. However, when there is an overproduction of aldosterone, it can lead to primary hyperaldosteronism, which is a common cause of secondary hypertension. This condition can be caused by an adrenal adenoma, which is also known as Conn’s syndrome. It is important to note that spironolactone, an aldosterone antagonist, can cause hyperkalemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      45.4
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 30-year-old male presents to his GP with concerns about lumps on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male presents to his GP with concerns about lumps on his hands. He recalls his father having similar spots and is worried about their appearance after comments from his colleagues. On examination, soft yellow papules are found on the base of the 1st and 3rd digit. A blood test reveals elevated cholesterol and triglycerides, with low HDL and high LDL. What is the underlying genetic mutation causing this patient's lipid transport defect?

      Your Answer: Apolipoprotein C (Apo-C)

      Correct Answer: Apolipoprotein E (Apo-E)

      Explanation:

      Hyperlipidaemia Classification

      Hyperlipidaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of lipids (fats) in the blood. The Fredrickson classification system was previously used to categorize hyperlipidaemia based on the type of lipid and genetic factors. However, it is now being replaced by a classification system based solely on genetics.

      The Fredrickson classification system included five types of hyperlipidaemia, each with a specific genetic cause. Type I was caused by lipoprotein lipase deficiency or apolipoprotein C-II deficiency, while type IIa was caused by familial hypercholesterolaemia. Type IIb was caused by familial combined hyperlipidaemia, and type III was caused by remnant hyperlipidaemia or apo-E2 homozygosity. Type IV was caused by familial hypertriglyceridaemia or familial combined hyperlipidaemia, and type V was caused by familial hypertriglyceridaemia.

      Hyperlipidaemia can primarily be caused by raised cholesterol or raised triglycerides. Familial hypercholesterolaemia and polygenic hypercholesterolaemia are primarily caused by raised cholesterol, while familial hypertriglyceridaemia and lipoprotein lipase deficiency or apolipoprotein C-II deficiency are primarily caused by raised triglycerides. Mixed hyperlipidaemia disorders, such as familial combined hyperlipidaemia and remnant hyperlipidaemia, involve a combination of raised cholesterol and raised triglycerides.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      37.3
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset of difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She has a history of asthma but is otherwise healthy. Upon admission, she is observed to be breathing rapidly, using her accessory muscles, and is experiencing cold and clammy skin. Upon chest auscultation, widespread wheezing is detected.

      An arterial blood gas analysis reveals:

      pH 7.46
      pO2 13 kPa
      pCO2 2.7 kPa
      HCO3- 23 mmol/l

      Which aspect of the underlying disease is affected in this patient?

      Your Answer: Forced Vital Capacity

      Correct Answer: Forced Expiratory Volume

      Explanation:

      It is probable that this individual is experiencing an acute episode of asthma. Asthma is a condition that results in the constriction of the airways, known as an obstructive airway disease. Its distinguishing feature is its ability to be reversed. The forced expiratory volume is the most impacted parameter in asthma and other obstructive airway diseases.

      Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology

      In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.

      Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.

      Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.

      Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.

      Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.

      Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      76.8
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Which of the cranial nerves listed below is least likely to carry parasympathetic...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the cranial nerves listed below is least likely to carry parasympathetic fibers?

      Your Answer: VII

      Correct Answer: II

      Explanation:

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      41.5
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 35-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue and difficulty breathing. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue and difficulty breathing. She has a medical history of hypothyroidism and rheumatoid arthritis. Upon examination, her blood tests reveal the following results: Hb 102 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L), B12 650 pg/mL (normal range: 150-900 pg/mL), MCV 110 fl (normal range: 80-100 fl), platelets 324 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L), and WBC 6.8 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L). A blood film confirms the presence of megaloblastic anemia. What is the most probable underlying cause of the patient's anemia?

      Your Answer: Pernicious anaemia

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      The likely cause of the patient’s megaloblastic macrocytic anaemia is Methotrexate therapy, which can result in folate deficiency. This drug is commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. Lead poisoning, high alcohol intake, and hyperthyroidism are not likely causes of this type of anaemia. Pernicious anaemia, an autoimmune condition that can lead to B12 deficiency, is also not the cause in this case as the patient has normal B12 levels.

      Understanding Macrocytic Anaemia

      Macrocytic anaemia is a type of anaemia that can be classified into two categories: megaloblastic and normoblastic. Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12 or folate, which leads to the production of abnormally large red blood cells in the bone marrow. This type of anaemia can also be caused by certain medications, alcohol, liver disease, hypothyroidism, pregnancy, and myelodysplasia.

      On the other hand, normoblastic anaemia is caused by an increase in the number of immature red blood cells, known as reticulocytes, in the bone marrow. This can occur as a result of certain medications, such as methotrexate, or in response to other underlying medical conditions.

      It is important to identify the underlying cause of macrocytic anaemia in order to provide appropriate treatment. This may involve addressing any nutritional deficiencies, managing underlying medical conditions, or adjusting medications. With proper management, most cases of macrocytic anaemia can be successfully treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      111.2
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 70-year-old man has a brain mass, but there is no rise in...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man has a brain mass, but there is no rise in intracranial pressure. What could be the reason for the absence of increased intracranial pressure?

      Your Answer: Reduced CSF as dictated by the Monro-Kelly Doctrine

      Explanation:

      The Monro-Kelly Doctrine views the brain as a closed box, where any increase in one of the three components within the skull (brain, CSF, and blood) must be compensated by a decrease in one of the other components or else intracranial pressure will rise. To maintain intracranial pressure, changes in CSF volume can offset initial increases in brain volume. The CNS has the ability to regulate its own blood supply, so changes in diastolic and systolic pressure do not affect cerebral pressure. Cushing’s triad, which includes hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular breathing, is a set of symptoms that typically occur in the final stages of acute head injury due to increased intracranial pressure.

      Understanding Cerebral Blood Flow and Angiography

      Cerebral blood flow is regulated by the central nervous system, which can adjust its own blood supply. Various factors can affect cerebral pressure, including CNS metabolism, trauma, pressure, and systemic carbon dioxide levels. The most potent mediator is PaCO2, while acidosis and hypoxemia can also increase cerebral blood flow to a lesser degree. In patients with head injuries, increased intracranial pressure can impair blood flow. The Monro-Kelly Doctrine governs intracerebral pressure, which considers the brain as a closed box, and changes in pressure are offset by the loss of cerebrospinal fluid. However, when this is no longer possible, intracranial pressure rises.

      Cerebral angiography is an invasive test that involves injecting contrast media into the carotid artery using a catheter. Radiographs are taken as the dye works its way through the cerebral circulation. This test can be used to identify bleeding aneurysms, vasospasm, and arteriovenous malformations, as well as differentiate embolism from large artery thrombosis. Understanding cerebral blood flow and angiography is crucial in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      33.3
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 35-year-old vegan mother comes to the clinic seeking dietary advice for her...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old vegan mother comes to the clinic seeking dietary advice for her upcoming pregnancy. She wants to ensure her child's optimal health without consuming any animal-based products.

      What recommendations should be provided to her?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12 will need to be supplemented to ensure adequate levels

      Explanation:

      As vitamin B12 can only be obtained from animal-based foods in a human diet, it is necessary to provide this patient with vitamin B12 supplementation to prevent serious complications such as neural tube defects during pregnancy. It would be incorrect to reassure the patient that a plant-based diet can provide all necessary nutrients, as this could lead to vitamin B12 deficiency and harm the baby. While it is important to check for iron deficiency given the patient’s dietary patterns, not all plant-based foods lack iron, and dietary education on this topic is necessary. The use of supplemental vitamins can help ensure a healthy pregnancy with a plant-based diet. Therefore, it is untrue to suggest that the baby’s growth will be significantly impeded and that there is a high risk of pregnancy complications.

      Vitamin B12 is a type of water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. Unlike other vitamins, it can only be found in animal-based foods. The human body typically stores enough vitamin B12 to last for up to 5 years. This vitamin plays a crucial role in various bodily functions, including acting as a co-factor for the conversion of homocysteine into methionine through the enzyme homocysteine methyltransferase, as well as for the isomerization of methylmalonyl CoA to Succinyl Co A via the enzyme methylmalonyl mutase. Additionally, it is used to regenerate folic acid in the body.

      However, there are several causes of vitamin B12 deficiency, including pernicious anaemia, Diphyllobothrium latum infection, and Crohn’s disease. When the body lacks vitamin B12, it can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anaemia and peripheral neuropathy. To prevent these consequences, it is important to ensure that the body has enough vitamin B12 through a balanced diet or supplements.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 25-year-old male presents with suspected ureteric colic. Where is the stone most...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents with suspected ureteric colic. Where is the stone most likely to be visualized on a KUB style x-ray?

      Your Answer: At the crest of the ilium

      Correct Answer: The tips of the transverse processes between L2 and L5

      Explanation:

      The stones in the ureter can be seen at the anterior of L2 to L5, as well as over the sacro-iliac joints.

      Anatomy of the Ureter

      The ureter is a muscular tube that measures 25-35 cm in length and is lined by transitional epithelium. It is surrounded by a thick muscular coat that becomes three muscular layers as it crosses the bony pelvis. This retroperitoneal structure overlies the transverse processes L2-L5 and lies anterior to the bifurcation of iliac vessels. The blood supply to the ureter is segmental and includes the renal artery, aortic branches, gonadal branches, common iliac, and internal iliac. It is important to note that the ureter lies beneath the uterine artery.

      In summary, the ureter is a vital structure in the urinary system that plays a crucial role in transporting urine from the kidneys to the bladder. Its unique anatomy and blood supply make it a complex structure that requires careful consideration in any surgical or medical intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 36-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department in an ambulance after...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department in an ambulance after being found unconscious by a friend. Shortly after arriving at the hospital, he becomes tachycardic, hypotensive, and stops breathing. The medical team suspects shock and examines him. What could be a potential cause of obstructive shock resulting from interference in ventricular filling?

      Your Answer: Myocardial infarction

      Correct Answer: Tension pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      Shock can be caused by various factors, but only tension pneumothorax affects ventricular filling. Distributive shock, such as anaphylactic shock, hypovolaemic shock caused by chemical burns, and cardiogenic shock resulting from myocardial infarction are other examples. Obstructive shock caused by pulmonary embolism interferes with ventricular emptying, not filling.

      Shock is a condition where there is not enough blood flow to the tissues. There are five main types of shock: septic, haemorrhagic, neurogenic, cardiogenic, and anaphylactic. Septic shock is caused by an infection that triggers a particular response in the body. Haemorrhagic shock is caused by blood loss, and there are four classes of haemorrhagic shock based on the amount of blood loss and associated symptoms. Neurogenic shock occurs when there is a disruption in the autonomic nervous system, leading to decreased vascular resistance and decreased cardiac output. Cardiogenic shock is caused by heart disease or direct myocardial trauma. Anaphylactic shock is a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction. Adrenaline is the most important drug in treating anaphylaxis and should be given as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      40.9
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Where is troponin T located within the body? ...

    Correct

    • Where is troponin T located within the body?

      Your Answer: Heart

      Explanation:

      Troponin and Its Significance in Cardiac Health

      Troponin is an enzyme that is specific to the heart and is used to detect injury to the heart muscle. It is commonly measured in patients who present with chest pain that may be related to heart problems. Elevated levels of troponin can indicate a heart attack or other acute coronary syndromes. However, it is important to note that troponin levels may also be slightly elevated in other conditions such as renal failure, cardiomyopathy, myocarditis, and large pulmonary embolism.

      Troponin is a crucial marker in the diagnosis and management of cardiac conditions. It is a reliable indicator of heart muscle damage and can help healthcare professionals determine the best course of treatment for their patients. Additionally, troponin levels can provide prognostic information, allowing doctors to predict the likelihood of future cardiac events. It is important for individuals to understand the significance of troponin in their cardiac health and to seek medical attention if they experience any symptoms of heart problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Which muscle does not attach to the medial side of the greater trochanter?...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle does not attach to the medial side of the greater trochanter?

      Your Answer: Gemelli

      Correct Answer: Quadratus femoris

      Explanation:

      The mnemonic for muscle attachment on the greater trochanter is POGO, which stands for Piriformis, Obturator internus, and Gemelli.

      The gluteal region is composed of various muscles and nerves that play a crucial role in hip movement and stability. The gluteal muscles, including the gluteus maximus, medius, and minimis, extend and abduct the hip joint. Meanwhile, the deep lateral hip rotators, such as the piriformis, gemelli, obturator internus, and quadratus femoris, rotate the hip joint externally.

      The nerves that innervate the gluteal muscles are the superior and inferior gluteal nerves. The superior gluteal nerve controls the gluteus medius, gluteus minimis, and tensor fascia lata muscles, while the inferior gluteal nerve controls the gluteus maximus muscle.

      If the superior gluteal nerve is damaged, it can result in a Trendelenburg gait, where the patient is unable to abduct the thigh at the hip joint. This weakness causes the pelvis to tilt down on the opposite side during the stance phase, leading to compensatory movements such as trunk lurching to maintain a level pelvis throughout the gait cycle. As a result, the pelvis sags on the opposite side of the lesioned superior gluteal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      18.6
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  • Question 46 - As a third year medical student in an outpatient department with a dermatology...

    Incorrect

    • As a third year medical student in an outpatient department with a dermatology consultant, you are evaluating a 27-year-old patient who is unresponsive to current hyperhidrosis treatment. The consultant suggests starting botox injections to prevent sweating. Can you explain the mechanism of action of botulinum toxin at the neuromuscular junction?

      Your Answer: Blocks acetylcholine receptors on postsynaptic membrane

      Correct Answer: Inhibits vesicles containing acetylcholine binding to presynaptic membrane

      Explanation:

      Botulinum Toxin and its Mechanism of Action

      Botulinum toxin is becoming increasingly popular in the medical field for treating various conditions such as cervical dystonia and achalasia. The toxin works by binding to the presynaptic cleft on the neurotransmitter and forming a complex with the attached receptor. This complex then invaginates the plasma membrane of the presynaptic cleft around the attached toxin. Once inside the cell, the toxin cleaves an important cytoplasmic protein that is required for efficient binding of the vesicles containing acetylcholine to the presynaptic membrane. This prevents the release of acetylcholine across the neurotransmitter.

      It is important to note that the blockage of Ca2+ channels on the presynaptic membrane occurs in Lambert-Eaton syndrome, which is associated with small cell carcinoma of the lung and is a paraneoplastic syndrome. However, this is not related to the mechanism of action of botulinum toxin.

      The effects of botox typically last for two to six months. Once complete denervation has occurred, the synapse produces new axonal terminals which bind to the motor end plate in a process called neurofibrillary sprouting. This allows for interrupted release of acetylcholine. Overall, botulinum toxin is a powerful tool in the medical field for treating various conditions by preventing the release of acetylcholine across the neurotransmitter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      1200.4
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 13-year-old girl visits your clinic and requests a prescription for the morning...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl visits your clinic and requests a prescription for the morning after pill. She had unprotected sex with her 12-year-old boyfriend, and the condom they used broke. You determine that there are no medical reasons why she cannot take emergency contraception, and she appears to be Fraser competent. The girl asks you to keep the consultation confidential and not to share it with other healthcare providers. She is visibly distressed by the situation. What should you do next?

      Your Answer: Discuss the case with the locally designated clinician with responsibility of child protection with a view to arranging a review of the situation by social services. Prescribe emergency contraception only after you have obtained permission to do so from the girl's parents.

      Correct Answer: Discuss the case with the locally designated clinician with responsibility of child protection with a view to arranging a review of the situation by social services. Prescribe emergency contraception.

      Explanation:

      Ethical and Legal Considerations in a Case of Underage Sexual Activity

      In a case of underage sexual activity, it is important to consider various ethical and legal principles to make an appropriate decision. The patient’s right to autonomy must be balanced with the potential harm that may arise from a sexual relationship with a very young patient, including the risk of unwanted pregnancy. Additionally, the patient’s right to confidentiality must be weighed against the need to protect her from potential harm.

      To ensure that the patient is not subject to sexual abuse, it is necessary to establish the facts of the case. If the patient’s boyfriend is older, breaking confidentiality may be justified on the grounds of public interest and the duty to act in the child’s best interests. Therefore, sharing information with appropriate agencies may be necessary to ensure the patient’s safety.

      Emergency contraception should be offered to the patient, and if she is deemed competent, she can consent to receiving this treatment without involving her parents. Pregnancy could result in significant harm to the patient, and offering emergency contraception would be in her best interests.

      Overall, it is crucial to consider the ethical and legal implications of underage sexual activity to ensure the patient’s safety and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Law
      43.8
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 9-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with acute onset pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with acute onset pain in her hands for the past 2 hours. She has a history of recurrent infections. Physical examination shows tender diffuse swelling of her hands bilaterally.

      Her blood tests show:
      Hb 85 g/L Male: (119-150)
      Female: (119-150)
      Platelets 250 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 6 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 90 fL (80-100)

      Peripheral smear examination shows numerous sickled red blood cells (RBC) and Howell-jolly bodies. Haemoglobin electrophoresis confirms sickle cell disease.

      Which of the following is a beneficial prophylactic drug for her?

      Your Answer: Erythropoietin

      Correct Answer: Hydroxyurea

      Explanation:

      Hydroxyurea is utilized in the prophylactic management of sickle cell anemia to prevent painful episodes by increasing the levels of HbF. The management of sickle cell disease involves two aspects: acute episodes and chronic management. Acute episodes are treated with adequate hydration and effective analgesia, while chronic management aims to prevent acute episodes and treat complications. Hydroxyurea has been proven to reduce the frequency of painful crises and the need for blood transfusions by increasing HbF levels, which has a higher affinity for oxygen than haemoglobin A. Acetaminophen is an analgesic that inhibits the cyclooxygenase enzyme and is only useful in mild pain cases. Methotrexate is a chemotherapeutic agent that has no role in sickle cell disease management.

      Managing Sickle-Cell Anaemia

      Sickle-cell anaemia is a genetic blood disorder that causes red blood cells to become misshapen and break down, leading to a range of complications. When a crisis occurs, management involves providing analgesia, rehydration, oxygen, and potentially antibiotics if there is evidence of infection. Blood transfusions may also be necessary, and in some cases, an exchange transfusion may be required if there are neurological complications.

      In the longer term, prophylactic management of sickle-cell anaemia involves the use of hydroxyurea, which increases the levels of HbF to prevent painful episodes. Additionally, it is recommended that sickle-cell patients receive the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine every five years to reduce the risk of infection. By implementing these management strategies, individuals with sickle-cell anaemia can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - Which nerve is situated in the groove between the oesophagus and trachea, on...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerve is situated in the groove between the oesophagus and trachea, on the medial side of the thyroid gland?

      Your Answer: Vagus nerve

      Correct Answer: Recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The inferior thyroid artery ligation can cause injury to the recurrent laryngeal nerve at this location.

      Anatomy of the Thyroid Gland

      The thyroid gland is a butterfly-shaped gland located in the neck, consisting of two lobes connected by an isthmus. It is surrounded by a sheath from the pretracheal layer of deep fascia and is situated between the base of the tongue and the fourth and fifth tracheal rings. The apex of the thyroid gland is located at the lamina of the thyroid cartilage, while the base is situated at the fourth and fifth tracheal rings. In some individuals, a pyramidal lobe may extend from the isthmus and attach to the foramen caecum at the base of the tongue.

      The thyroid gland is surrounded by various structures, including the sternothyroid, superior belly of omohyoid, sternohyoid, and anterior aspect of sternocleidomastoid muscles. It is also related to the carotid sheath, larynx, trachea, pharynx, oesophagus, cricothyroid muscle, and parathyroid glands. The superior and inferior thyroid arteries supply the thyroid gland with blood, while the superior and middle thyroid veins drain into the internal jugular vein, and the inferior thyroid vein drains into the brachiocephalic veins.

      In summary, the thyroid gland is a vital gland located in the neck, responsible for producing hormones that regulate metabolism. Its anatomy is complex, and it is surrounded by various structures that are essential for its function. Understanding the anatomy of the thyroid gland is crucial for the diagnosis and treatment of thyroid disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Breast cancer usually presents with non-specific symptoms and is therefore often diagnosed at...

    Correct

    • Breast cancer usually presents with non-specific symptoms and is therefore often diagnosed at a late stage. A new assay for cancer antigen 15-3 (CA 15-3) is being evaluated for potential use in a breast cancer screening programme. You are asked to analyze the results by the programme director shown below and report the specificity.

      Breast cancer present Breast cancer absent
      CA 15-3 positive 300 60
      CA 15-3 negative 40 200

      What figure will you report to the screening programme director?

      Your Answer: 75%

      Explanation:

      The negative predictive value is 86%, calculated as 275 divided by the sum of 275 and 50, which equals 0.846 or 84.6%.

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      189.9
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A couple in their early 30s come to your clinic seeking advice. The...

    Correct

    • A couple in their early 30s come to your clinic seeking advice. The husband has a history of haemophilia B and they are worried about the possibility of passing it on to their children. Can you determine which of their offspring will be affected by the disease?

      Your Answer: All daughters will be carriers; no sons will be affected

      Explanation:

      The inheritance of Haemophilia A and B is crucial in identifying individuals who are at risk of developing the condition. Haemophilia A and B are genetic disorders that are inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. Haemophilia A is caused by a deficiency in clotting factor VIII, while haemophilia B is caused by a deficiency in clotting factor IX.

      On the other hand, haemophilia C, which is caused by a deficiency in clotting factor XI, is primarily inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. In X-linked recessive conditions like haemophilia B, males are more likely to be affected than females. This is because males only need one abnormal copy of the gene, which is carried on the X chromosome, to be affected.

      Females, on the other hand, can be carriers of the condition if they carry one normal and one abnormal copy of the gene. While carriers can have clotting abnormalities, these are usually milder than those seen in affected individuals. Men cannot pass the condition to their sons, but they will pass on the abnormal X chromosome to all their daughters, who will be carriers.

      Female carriers can pass on the condition to around half their sons, and half their daughters will be carriers. Females can only be affected if they are the offspring of an affected male and a carrier female. In summary, the inheritance of haemophilia A and B is crucial in identifying individuals who are at risk of developing the condition. It also helps in providing appropriate genetic counseling and management for affected individuals and their families.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 52 - A 65-year-old patient has been discharged from the hospital after experiencing a myocardial...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient has been discharged from the hospital after experiencing a myocardial infarction. What is the most suitable combination of medication for the patient to be discharged with?

      Your Answer: Aspirin, beta blocker, ACE inhibitor and statin

      Explanation:

      Medications for Secondary Prevention of Myocardial Infarction

      According to the NICE guidelines on myocardial infarction (MI), patients who have suffered from a heart attack should be discharged with specific medications for secondary prevention. These medications include aspirin, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and statins. The purpose of these medications is to prevent further cardiac events and improve the patient’s overall cardiovascular health.

      Aspirin is a blood thinner that helps to prevent blood clots from forming in the arteries, which can lead to another heart attack. ACE inhibitors help to lower blood pressure and reduce the workload on the heart, which can help to prevent further damage to the heart muscle. Beta-blockers also help to lower blood pressure and reduce the workload on the heart, as well as slow down the heart rate. Statins are cholesterol-lowering medications that help to reduce the risk of plaque buildup in the arteries, which can lead to a heart attack.

      These medications are prescribed for tertiary prevention, which means they are used in conjunction with cardiac rehabilitation to help prevent future cardiac events. Cardiac rehabilitation typically involves exercise, education, and counseling to help patients make lifestyle changes that can improve their cardiovascular health.

      In summary, patients who have suffered from a heart attack should be discharged with aspirin, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and statins for secondary prevention. These medications, along with cardiac rehabilitation, can help to prevent future cardiac events and improve the patient’s overall cardiovascular health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      657
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 59-year-old man comes to the GP complaining of lower back pain, weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man comes to the GP complaining of lower back pain, weight loss, an abdominal mass, and visible haematuria. The GP eliminates the possibility of a UTI and refers him through a 2-week wait pathway. An ultrasound reveals a tumour, and a biopsy confirms renal cell carcinoma. From which part of the kidney does his cancer originate?

      Your Answer: Transitional cell

      Correct Answer: Proximal renal tubular epithelium

      Explanation:

      Renal cell carcinoma originates from the proximal renal tubular epithelium, while the other options, such as blood vessels, distal renal tubular epithelium, and glomerular basement membrane, are all parts of the kidney but not the site of origin for renal cell carcinoma. Transitional cell carcinoma, on the other hand, arises from the transitional cells in the lining of the renal pelvis.

      Renal cell cancer, also known as hypernephroma, is a primary renal neoplasm that accounts for 85% of cases. It originates from the proximal renal tubular epithelium and is commonly associated with smoking and conditions such as von Hippel-Lindau syndrome and tuberous sclerosis. The clear cell subtype is the most prevalent, comprising 75-85% of tumors.

      Renal cell cancer is more common in middle-aged men and may present with classical symptoms such as haematuria, loin pain, and an abdominal mass. Other features include endocrine effects, such as the secretion of erythropoietin, parathyroid hormone-related protein, renin, and ACTH. Metastases are present in 25% of cases at presentation, and paraneoplastic syndromes such as Stauffer syndrome may also occur.

      The T category criteria for renal cell cancer are based on tumor size and extent of invasion. Management options include partial or total nephrectomy, depending on the tumor size and extent of disease. Patients with a T1 tumor are typically offered a partial nephrectomy, while alpha-interferon and interleukin-2 may be used to reduce tumor size and treat metastases. Receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitors such as sorafenib and sunitinib have shown superior efficacy compared to interferon-alpha.

      In summary, renal cell cancer is a common primary renal neoplasm that is associated with various risk factors and may present with classical symptoms and endocrine effects. Management options depend on the extent of disease and may include surgery and targeted therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      28.8
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  • Question 54 - A 75-year-old male ex-smoker presents to a urologist with a complaint of painless...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male ex-smoker presents to a urologist with a complaint of painless haematuria that has been ongoing for 3 weeks. He has experienced a weight loss of 5 kg over the past two months. During an urgent cystoscopy, a suspicious mass is discovered and subsequently biopsied. The histology confirms a transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis reveals multiple enlarged lymph nodes. Which lymph node is the most probable site of metastasis?

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric lymph nodes

      Correct Answer: Internal and external iliac lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      The external and internal iliac nodes are the main recipients of lymphatic drainage from the bladder, while the testes and ovaries are primarily drained by the para-aortic lymph nodes.

      Bladder Anatomy and Innervation

      The bladder is a three-sided pyramid-shaped organ located in the pelvic cavity. Its apex points towards the symphysis pubis, while the base lies anterior to the rectum or vagina. The bladder’s inferior aspect is retroperitoneal, while the superior aspect is covered by peritoneum. The trigone, the least mobile part of the bladder, contains the ureteric orifices and internal urethral orifice. The bladder’s blood supply comes from the superior and inferior vesical arteries, while venous drainage occurs through the vesicoprostatic or vesicouterine venous plexus. Lymphatic drainage occurs mainly to the external iliac and internal iliac nodes, with the obturator nodes also playing a role. The bladder is innervated by parasympathetic nerve fibers from the pelvic splanchnic nerves and sympathetic nerve fibers from L1 and L2 via the hypogastric nerve plexuses. The parasympathetic fibers cause detrusor muscle contraction, while the sympathetic fibers innervate the trigone muscle. The external urethral sphincter is under conscious control, and voiding occurs when the rate of neuronal firing to the detrusor muscle increases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      27.1
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  • Question 55 - A clinical research group is conducting a study on diabetes epidemiology. As part...

    Incorrect

    • A clinical research group is conducting a study on diabetes epidemiology. As part of the study, researchers are collecting data on the age profile of a sample population in India.

      Among the various data collected, one of the variables was the age of a person. This was divided into four categories: under 18, 18-30, 30-50, and over 50. Respondents were asked to select one of these four options.

      What is this type of variable called?

      Your Answer: Nominal categorical variable

      Correct Answer: Ordinal categorical variable

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Data

      When analyzing data, it is important to understand the different types of variables that can be encountered. One such variable is socio-economic status, which is not a numerical value but can be categorized into four ordinal categories. Ordinal categorical data has a logical order to its categorization, but mathematical functions cannot be performed with the numbers assigned to each category.

      Continuous metric data, on the other hand, can take any value and allows for mathematical functions to be performed. Examples of continuous data include height and weight. Discrete metric data is numerical but only takes certain values, such as the number of children in a family. Nominal categorical data has no hierarchy or gradation, such as blood group or yes/no questions.

      Normal parametric data assumes that variables are normally distributed, but this may not be the case for small sample populations. It is important to note that data can often fall into multiple categories. For example, systolic blood pressure can be considered continuous metric data, but in practice, it is often recorded as integers, making it somewhat like a discrete variable. Additionally, if a cut-off point is used, such as 140 mmHg, the data may become dichotomous and fall into the nominal category. the different types of data is crucial for accurate analysis and interpretation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      130.7
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  • Question 56 - A 25-year-old man visits his primary care physician worried about a lump on...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man visits his primary care physician worried about a lump on his testes. He has no significant medical history and has recently started a new job after completing his education. His cousin was diagnosed with testicular cancer last year, and he is anxious that he might have the same condition.

      During the examination, the physician observes a diffuse swelling of the testes with tenderness on palpation.

      After prescribing a short course of ibuprofen, the patient remains concerned about testicular cancer and inquires about its presenting features in young men.

      What could be a possible presenting feature of testicular cancer in men in their mid-twenties?

      Your Answer: Epididymitis

      Correct Answer: Hydrocele

      Explanation:

      Testicular cancer in young men may manifest as a hydrocele, which is the accumulation of fluid around the testicle. Therefore, it is important to investigate all cases of hydrocele to rule out cancer. On the other hand, epididymitis, which is usually caused by a bacterial infection, is unlikely to be a presenting feature of testicular cancer. If a male patient presents with frank haematuria, urgent investigation is necessary to rule out bladder cancer. A chancre, which is a painless genital ulcer commonly seen in the primary stage of syphilis, is not a presenting feature of testicular cancer.

      Testicular cancer is a common type of cancer that affects men between the ages of 20 and 30. The majority of cases (95%) are germ-cell tumors, which can be further classified as seminomas or non-seminomas. Non-germ cell tumors, such as Leydig cell tumors and sarcomas, are less common. Risk factors for testicular cancer include infertility, cryptorchidism, family history, Klinefelter’s syndrome, and mumps orchitis. Symptoms may include a painless lump, pain, hydrocele, and gynaecomastia.

      Tumour markers can be used to diagnose testicular cancer. For germ cell tumors, hCG may be elevated in seminomas, while AFP and/or beta-hCG are elevated in non-seminomas. LDH may also be elevated in germ cell tumors. Ultrasound is the first-line diagnostic tool.

      Treatment for testicular cancer depends on the type and stage of the tumor. Orchidectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy may be used. Prognosis is generally excellent, with a 5-year survival rate of around 95% for Stage I seminomas and 85% for Stage I teratomas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
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  • Question 57 - A 63-year-old woman is referred to dermatology for evaluation of a concerning lesion...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old woman is referred to dermatology for evaluation of a concerning lesion on her arm. She reports that it was previously a uniform shape and approximately 5 mm in size, but has since grown and become irregular in shape with multiple colors. A biopsy confirms advanced melanoma and she is started on ipilimumab. What is the mechanism of action for this medication?

      Your Answer: Blockage of Cytotoxic T Lymphocyte-associated Protein 4 (CTLA-4)

      Explanation:

      Ipilimumab is a type of immune checkpoint inhibitor that is used to treat melanoma by blocking CTLA-4. Other immune checkpoint inhibitors, such as nivolumab and pembrolizumab, block PD-1 and can be used to treat various cancers including melanoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and non-small cell lung cancer. Atezolizumab and durvalumab are examples of immune checkpoint inhibitors that block PD-L1 and can be used to treat lung and urothelial cancer. Alkylating agents like cyclophosphamide exert their effect by cross-linking DNA, while medications like vincristine and vinblastine inhibit the formation of microtubules.

      Understanding Immune Checkpoint Inhibitors

      Immune checkpoint inhibitors are a type of immunotherapy that is becoming increasingly popular in the treatment of certain types of cancer. Unlike traditional therapies such as chemotherapy, these targeted treatments work by harnessing the body’s natural anti-cancer immune response. They boost the immune system’s ability to attack and destroy cancer cells, rather than directly affecting their growth and proliferation.

      T-cells are an essential part of our immune system that helps destroy cancer cells. However, some cancer cells produce high levels of proteins that turn T-cells off. Checkpoint inhibitors block this process and reactivate and increase the body’s T-cell population, enhancing the immune system’s ability to recognize and fight cancer cells.

      There are different types of immune checkpoint inhibitors, including Ipilimumab, Nivolumab, Pembrolizumab, Atezolizumab, Avelumab, and Durvalumab. These drugs block specific proteins found on T-cells and cancer cells, such as CTLA-4, PD-1, and PD-L1. They are administered by injection or intravenous infusion and can be given as a single-agent treatment or combined with chemotherapy or each other.

      However, the mechanism of action of these drugs can result in side effects termed ‘Immune-related adverse events’ that are inflammatory and autoimmune in nature. This is because all immune cells are boosted by these drugs, not just the ones that target cancer. The overactive T-cells can produce side effects such as dry, itchy skin and rashes, nausea and vomiting, decreased appetite, diarrhea, tiredness and fatigue, shortness of breath, and a dry cough. Management of such side effects reflects the inflammatory nature, often involving corticosteroids. It is important to monitor liver, kidney, and thyroid function as these drugs can affect these organs.

      In conclusion, the early success of immune checkpoint inhibitors in solid tumors has generated tremendous interest in further developing and exploring these strategies across the oncology disease spectrum. Ongoing testing in clinical trials creates new hope for patients affected by other types of disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 58 - A 68-year-old woman is recuperating from a hip replacement surgery. She is experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman is recuperating from a hip replacement surgery. She is experiencing localized discomfort and is worried about the buildup of chromium. What is the primary function of chromium in the human body?

      Your Answer: Regulation of magnesium homeostasis

      Correct Answer: Regulation of glucose homeostasis

      Explanation:

      Chromium and Cobalt Accumulation in Hip Prostheses and Their Effects on the Body

      Chromium and cobalt can build up around faulty metal-on-metal hip prostheses, leading to potential health concerns. While chromium is considered safe at normal levels in the human diet, isolated cases of chromium deficiency are rare. Chromium plays various roles in the body, including regulating blood sugar levels, lipid metabolism, enhancing protein synthesis, and potentially enhancing RNA synthesis. However, many individuals following Western-style diets may not consume enough chromium, leading to subtle symptoms such as dyslipidemia and impaired glucose tolerance.

      Toxicity due to chromium is uncommon, but local irritation from metal-on-metal hip prostheses can cause the development of cysts rich in chromium, known as pseudotumors. The exact mechanism behind these pathological changes is not yet fully understood. Overall, while chromium is an essential micronutrient, its accumulation in hip prostheses can lead to potential health concerns.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 59 - A 7-day-old infant is brought to a community paediatrician by a general physician...

    Correct

    • A 7-day-old infant is brought to a community paediatrician by a general physician due to poor feeding, vomiting, and increasing lethargy. The baby was born at term through a spontaneous vaginal delivery, and antenatal scans showed no complications.

      During the examination, the infant appears weak and exhausted. The nappy is wet and has a distinct smell of maple syrup.

      What is the potential complication of leaving this condition untreated, considering the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Untreated maple syrup disease can lead to ketoacidosis, which is a recognized complication. This occurs when alpha-ketoacids accumulate in the bloodstream, causing metabolic acidosis. Although respiratory function may be affected in response to the acidosis, it is not the primary cause.

      Understanding Maple Syrup Urine Disease

      Maple syrup urine disease is a genetic disorder that occurs when the body is unable to break down certain amino acids, specifically leucine, isoleucine, and valine. This is due to a deficiency in the branched-chain alpha-keto acid dehydrogenase complex. As a result, there is an increase in alpha-ketoacids in the blood, which can lead to severe neurological defects, ketoacidosis, and even death if left untreated. One of the most noticeable symptoms of this disease is sweet-smelling urine that resembles maple syrup.

      The treatment for maple syrup urine disease involves restricting the intake of leucine, isoleucine, and valine in the diet. This can help prevent the buildup of harmful substances in the body and reduce the risk of complications. It is important for individuals with this condition to work closely with a healthcare provider and a registered dietitian to ensure that they are getting the nutrients they need while avoiding foods that could be harmful. By understanding the causes and consequences of maple syrup urine disease, individuals can take steps to manage their condition and improve their overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      23.5
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  • Question 60 - A 72-year-old male with a history of severe aortic stenosis undergoes valve replacement...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male with a history of severe aortic stenosis undergoes valve replacement surgery. Following the procedure, he is prescribed dipyridamole. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Activated factor 10 (Xa) antagonist

      Correct Answer: Non-specific phosphodiesterase antagonist

      Explanation:

      Dipyridamole is a non-specific phosphodiesterase antagonist that inhibits platelet aggregation and thrombus formation by elevating platelet cAMP levels. It also reduces cellular uptake of adenosine and inhibits thromboxane synthase.

      Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Dipyridamole

      Dipyridamole is a medication that is commonly used in combination with aspirin to prevent the formation of blood clots after a stroke or transient ischemic attack. The drug works by inhibiting phosphodiesterase, which leads to an increase in the levels of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) in platelets. This, in turn, reduces the levels of intracellular calcium, which is necessary for platelet activation and aggregation.

      Apart from its antiplatelet effects, dipyridamole also reduces the cellular uptake of adenosine, a molecule that plays a crucial role in regulating blood flow and oxygen delivery to tissues. By inhibiting the uptake of adenosine, dipyridamole can increase its levels in the bloodstream, leading to vasodilation and improved blood flow.

      Another mechanism of action of dipyridamole is the inhibition of thromboxane synthase, an enzyme that is involved in the production of thromboxane A2, a potent platelet activator. By blocking this enzyme, dipyridamole can further reduce platelet activation and aggregation, thereby preventing the formation of blood clots.

      In summary, dipyridamole exerts its antiplatelet effects through multiple mechanisms, including the inhibition of phosphodiesterase, the reduction of intracellular calcium levels, the inhibition of thromboxane synthase, and the modulation of adenosine uptake. These actions make it a valuable medication for preventing thrombotic events in patients with a history of stroke or transient ischemic attack.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      37
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  • Question 61 - A 63-year-old man is seen in the oncology clinic. He is being monitored...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man is seen in the oncology clinic. He is being monitored for known breast cancer. His recent mammogram and biopsy suggest an increased disease burden. It is decided to initiate Tamoxifen therapy while awaiting a mastectomy.

      What is the mechanism of action of this new medication?

      Your Answer: Androgen receptor blocker

      Explanation:

      Bicalutamide is a medication that blocks the androgen receptor and is commonly used to treat prostate cancer. Abiraterone, on the other hand, is an androgen synthesis inhibitor that is prescribed to patients with metastatic prostate cancer who have not responded to androgen deprivation therapy. GnRH agonists like goserelin can also be used to treat prostate cancer by reducing the release of gonadotrophins and inhibiting androgen production. While cyproterone acetate is a steroidal anti-androgen, it is not as commonly used as non-steroidal anti-androgens like bicalutamide.

      Prostate cancer management varies depending on the stage of the disease and the patient’s life expectancy and preferences. For localized prostate cancer (T1/T2), treatment options include active monitoring, watchful waiting, radical prostatectomy, and radiotherapy (external beam and brachytherapy). For localized advanced prostate cancer (T3/T4), options include hormonal therapy, radical prostatectomy, and radiotherapy. Patients may develop proctitis and are at increased risk of bladder, colon, and rectal cancer following radiotherapy for prostate cancer.

      In cases of metastatic prostate cancer, reducing androgen levels is a key aim of treatment. A combination of approaches is often used, including anti-androgen therapy, synthetic GnRH agonist or antagonists, bicalutamide, cyproterone acetate, abiraterone, and bilateral orchidectomy. GnRH agonists, such as Goserelin (Zoladex), initially cause a rise in testosterone levels before falling to castration levels. To prevent a rise in testosterone, anti-androgens are often used to cover the initial therapy. GnRH antagonists, such as degarelix, are being evaluated to suppress testosterone while avoiding the flare phenomenon. Chemotherapy with docetaxel is also an option for the treatment of hormone-relapsed metastatic prostate cancer in patients who have no or mild symptoms after androgen deprivation therapy has failed, and before chemotherapy is indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
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  • Question 62 - A 42-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a follow-up on her ambulatory...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a follow-up on her ambulatory blood pressure test results. The test shows an average blood pressure of 150/92 mmHg. You suggest starting antihypertensive medication and recommend ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for her age group. These medications work by inhibiting the action of angiotensin-converting-enzyme, which converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Renin catalyzes the hydrolysis of angiotensinogen to produce angiotensin I. Where in the body is renin produced?

      Your Answer: Liver

      Correct Answer: Kidneys

      Explanation:

      Renin, which is produced in the kidneys’ juxtaglomerular cells, plays a crucial role in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system by converting angiotensinogen into angiotensin I. Angiotensin-converting-enzyme, which is primarily located in the lungs, converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II. The adrenal cortex produces aldosterone, a vital compound in the system, while the liver produces angiotensinogen. The pancreas, on the other hand, has no involvement in this system and produces insulin, glucagon, and other hormones and enzymes. Based on the World Health Organisation’s hypertension classification, the patient in question has mild hypertension, and according to current NICE guidelines, individuals under 55 years old with mild hypertension should receive lifestyle advice and be prescribed ACE inhibitors.

      The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is a complex system that regulates blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. The adrenal cortex is divided into three zones, each producing different hormones. The zona glomerulosa produces mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone, which helps regulate sodium and potassium levels in the body. Renin is an enzyme released by the renal juxtaglomerular cells in response to reduced renal perfusion, hyponatremia, and sympathetic nerve stimulation. It hydrolyses angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme in the lungs. Angiotensin II has various actions, including causing vasoconstriction, stimulating thirst, and increasing proximal tubule Na+/H+ activity. It also stimulates aldosterone and ADH release, which causes retention of Na+ in exchange for K+/H+ in the distal tubule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
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  • Question 63 - A woman in her late 40s experiences kidney failure and receives a transplant....

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her late 40s experiences kidney failure and receives a transplant. However, she develops a fever and ceases urine output shortly after. Is hyperacute organ rejection the cause, and which cells are responsible for this reaction?

      Your Answer: Helper T Cells

      Correct Answer: B Cells

      Explanation:

      Hyperacute organ rejection is mediated by B cells.

      The adaptive immune response involves several types of cells, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, B cells, and plasma cells. Helper T cells are responsible for the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class II molecules. They express CD4, CD3, TCR, and CD28 and are a major source of IL-2. Cytotoxic T cells also participate in the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class I molecules. They induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumor cells and express CD8 and CD3. Both helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells mediate acute and chronic organ rejection.

      B cells are the primary cells of the humoral immune response and act as antigen-presenting cells. They also mediate hyperacute organ rejection. Plasma cells are differentiated from B cells and produce large amounts of antibody specific to a particular antigen. Overall, these cells work together to mount a targeted and specific immune response to invading pathogens or abnormal cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 64 - A 30-year-old female patient complains of anxiety and weight loss. During the examination,...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female patient complains of anxiety and weight loss. During the examination, a fine tremor of the outstretched hands, lid lag, and a moderate goitre with a bruit are observed. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Graves' disease

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Disorders and their Differentiation

      Thyroid disorders are a common occurrence, and their diagnosis is crucial for effective treatment. One such disorder is Graves’ disease, which is characterized by a goitre with a bruit. Unlike MNG, Graves’ disease is associated with angiogenesis and thyroid follicular hypertrophy. Other signs of Graves’ disease include eye signs such as conjunctival oedema, exophthalmos, and proptosis. Additionally, pretibial myxoedema is a dermatological manifestation of this disease.

      DeQuervain’s thyroiditis is another thyroid disorder that follows a viral infection and is characterized by painful thyroiditis. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, on the other hand, is a chronic autoimmune degradation of the thyroid. Multinodular goitre (MNG) is the most common form of thyroid disorder, leading to the formation of multiple nodules over the gland. Lastly, a toxic thyroid nodule is a solitary lesion on the thyroid that produces excess thyroxine.

      In conclusion, the different types of thyroid disorders and their symptoms is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 65 - A 65-year-old male visits his GP complaining of feeling unwell for the past...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male visits his GP complaining of feeling unwell for the past 5 days. He reports experiencing fatigue, myalgia, fevers, and overall malaise. After examination, the doctor diagnoses him with influenzae. The patient expresses disbelief, stating that he received the flu vaccine last year and should be immune. What is the reason for the need for annual flu vaccinations?

      Your Answer: Antigenic drift

      Explanation:

      The reason why an annual flu vaccine is necessary is because of the antigenic drift process. The influenzae virus has an enzyme called RNA-dependent RNA polymerase, which does not have the ability to proofread. As a result, errors accumulate during RNA replication, leading to a constantly evolving antigenic site that the immune response is less effective against. This is why the influenzae vaccine needs to be updated with new strains every year.

      On the other hand, antigenic shift refers to a sudden and drastic change in one of the antigenic proteins, such as neuraminidase or haemagglutinin. This abrupt change creates a new subtype that the population has very little immunity against, potentially causing a pandemic.

      Respiratory Pathogens and Associated Conditions

      Respiratory pathogens are microorganisms that cause infections in the respiratory system. The most common respiratory pathogens include respiratory syncytial virus, parainfluenza virus, rhinovirus, influenzae virus, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus aureus, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Legionella pneumophilia, and Pneumocystis jiroveci. Each of these pathogens is associated with specific respiratory conditions, such as bronchiolitis, croup, common cold, flu, community-acquired pneumonia, acute epiglottitis, atypical pneumonia, and tuberculosis.

      Flu-like symptoms are often the first sign of respiratory infections caused by these pathogens, followed by a dry cough. Complications may include haemolytic anaemia, erythema multiforme, lymphopenia, deranged liver function tests, and hyponatraemia. Patients with Pneumocystis jiroveci infections typically have few chest signs and develop exertional dyspnoea. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can cause a wide range of presentations, from asymptomatic to disseminated disease, and may be accompanied by cough, night sweats, and weight loss.

      Overall, understanding the different respiratory pathogens and their associated conditions is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment of respiratory infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 66 - A 31-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department feeling lethargic. Her Glasgow coma...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department feeling lethargic. Her Glasgow coma scale score is 12/15 upon examination.

      Her capillary blood glucose level is 1.9 mmol/L.

      What is the initial hormone released naturally in this situation?

      Your Answer: Glucagon

      Explanation:

      When blood glucose levels drop, the first hormone to be secreted is glucagon. This can happen due to various reasons, such as insulin or alcohol consumption. The initial response to hypoglycaemia is a decrease in insulin secretion, followed by the release of glucagon from the pancreas’ alpha cells. This prompts the liver to convert stored glycogen into glucose, thereby increasing blood glucose levels.

      Later on, growth hormone and cortisol are also released in response to hypoglycaemia. If cortisol production is reduced, as in Addison’s disease, it can lead to low blood glucose levels. This concept is used in the insulin tolerance test, where cortisol levels are measured after inducing hypoglycaemia with insulin.

      Incretins, on the other hand, are hormones that lower blood glucose levels, especially after meals. One such incretin is glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1), which is used to treat type 2 diabetes. Exenatide is an example of an injectable GLP-1 analogue medication.

      Understanding Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Features, and Management

      Hypoglycaemia is a condition characterized by low blood sugar levels, which can lead to a range of symptoms and complications. There are several possible causes of hypoglycaemia, including insulinoma, liver failure, Addison’s disease, and alcohol consumption. The physiological response to hypoglycaemia involves hormonal and sympathoadrenal responses, which can result in autonomic and neuroglycopenic symptoms. While blood glucose levels and symptom severity are not always correlated, common symptoms of hypoglycaemia include sweating, shaking, hunger, anxiety, nausea, weakness, vision changes, confusion, and dizziness. In severe cases, hypoglycaemia can lead to convulsions or coma.

      Managing hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the symptoms and the setting in which it occurs. In the community, individuals with diabetes who inject insulin may be advised to consume oral glucose or a quick-acting carbohydrate such as GlucoGel or Dextrogel. A ‘HypoKit’ containing glucagon may also be prescribed for home use. In a hospital setting, treatment may involve administering a quick-acting carbohydrate or subcutaneous/intramuscular injection of glucagon for unconscious or unable to swallow patients. Alternatively, intravenous glucose solution may be given through a large vein.

      Overall, understanding the causes, features, and management of hypoglycaemia is crucial for individuals with diabetes or other conditions that increase the risk of low blood sugar levels. Prompt and appropriate treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 67 - A 67-year old man with a history of cardiovascular disease and COPD visits...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year old man with a history of cardiovascular disease and COPD visits his GP. During a routine blood test, the GP observes that the patient has mild hyponatraemia. Which medication could have played a role in causing his hyponatraemia?

      Your Answer: Beclometasone

      Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Thiazide diuretics have been linked to the adverse effect of hyponatremia, while caution is advised when using β2-agonists like salbutamol in patients with hypokalemia due to their potential to decrease serum potassium. In cases of hyperkalemia, β2-agonists may be used as a temporary treatment option. Bendroflumethiazide, a thiazide diuretic, can cause electrolyte imbalances such as hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, and hypochloremic alkalosis. On the other hand, ACE inhibitors like ramipril may lead to hyperkalemia, especially in patients with renal impairment, diabetes mellitus, or those taking potassium-sparing diuretics, potassium supplements, or potassium-containing salts. Atenolol, however, is not directly associated with electrolyte disturbances.

      Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlorthalidone.

      Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.

      It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      16.5
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  • Question 68 - A patient with common bile duct obstruction is undergoing an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with common bile duct obstruction is undergoing an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP). During the procedure, the Ampulla of Vater, a structure that marks the anatomical transition from the foregut to midgut is encountered.

      What two structures combine to form the Ampulla of Vater in a different patient?

      Your Answer: Common bile duct and sphincter of Oddi

      Correct Answer: Pancreatic duct and common bile duct

      Explanation:

      The correct anatomy of the biliary and pancreatic ducts is as follows: the common hepatic duct and cystic duct merge to form the common bile duct, which then joins with the pancreatic duct to form the Ampulla of Vater. This structure, also known as the hepatopancreatic duct, enters the second part of the duodenum. The flow of pancreatic enzymes and bile into the duodenum is controlled by the Sphincter of Oddi, a muscular valve also known as Glisson’s sphincter.

      Anatomy of the Pancreas

      The pancreas is located behind the stomach and is a retroperitoneal organ. It can be accessed surgically by dividing the peritoneal reflection that connects the greater omentum to the transverse colon. The pancreatic head is situated in the curvature of the duodenum, while its tail is close to the hilum of the spleen. The pancreas has various relations with other organs, such as the inferior vena cava, common bile duct, renal veins, superior mesenteric vein and artery, crus of diaphragm, psoas muscle, adrenal gland, kidney, aorta, pylorus, gastroduodenal artery, and splenic hilum.

      The arterial supply of the pancreas is through the pancreaticoduodenal artery for the head and the splenic artery for the rest of the organ. The venous drainage for the head is through the superior mesenteric vein, while the body and tail are drained by the splenic vein. The ampulla of Vater is an important landmark that marks the transition from foregut to midgut and is located halfway along the second part of the duodenum. Overall, understanding the anatomy of the pancreas is crucial for surgical procedures and diagnosing pancreatic diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      60.5
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A 67-year-old man comes to the hospital with a sudden onset of vision...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man comes to the hospital with a sudden onset of vision changes while watching TV. He has a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation but admits to poor adherence to his medication regimen.

      During the eye exam, there are no apparent changes in the sclera. The visual field test shows a homonymous quadrantanopia with a loss of the left inferior aspect of vision. All eye movements are normal, pupils are equal and reactive to light, and fundoscopy appears normal.

      Based on these findings, where is the most likely location of the lesion in this patient?

      Your Answer: Left superior optic radiations in the temporal lobe

      Correct Answer: Left superior optic radiations in the parietal lobe

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely experiencing an inferior homonymous quadrantanopia due to a lesion in the superior optic radiations of the parietal lobe. This type of visual field defect occurs when there is damage to the opposite side of the brain from where the defect is present. Lesions in the inferior temporal lobe result in superior defects, while lesions in the superior parietal lobe result in inferior defects. It is important to note that the left superior optic radiations are located in the parietal lobe, not the temporal lobe, and therefore a lesion in the left superior optic radiations in the temporal lobe is not possible. Additionally, a lesion in the right inferior optic radiations in the parietal lobe or the right superior optic radiations in the temporal lobe would not cause a defect on the patient’s right side, as the lesion must be on the opposite side of the brain from the defect.

      Understanding Visual Field Defects

      Visual field defects can occur due to various reasons, including lesions in the optic tract, optic radiation, or occipital cortex. A left homonymous hemianopia indicates a visual field defect to the left, which is caused by a lesion in the right optic tract. On the other hand, homonymous quadrantanopias can be categorized into PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior) and can be caused by lesions in the inferior or superior optic radiations in the temporal or parietal lobes.

      When it comes to congruous and incongruous defects, the former refers to complete or symmetrical visual field loss, while the latter indicates incomplete or asymmetric visual field loss. Incongruous defects are caused by optic tract lesions, while congruous defects are caused by optic radiation or occipital cortex lesions. In cases where there is macula sparing, it is indicative of a lesion in the occipital cortex.

      Bitemporal hemianopia, on the other hand, is caused by a lesion in the optic chiasm. The type of defect can indicate the location of the compression, with an upper quadrant defect being more common in inferior chiasmal compression, such as a pituitary tumor, and a lower quadrant defect being more common in superior chiasmal compression, such as a craniopharyngioma.

      Understanding visual field defects is crucial in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. By identifying the type and location of the defect, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      66.4
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - A 25-year-old man with cystic fibrosis comes in for a routine checkup. You...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man with cystic fibrosis comes in for a routine checkup. You observe that he is not taking any vitamin supplements and are worried about the potential impact on his health.

      What inquiries would you make about his eyes?

      Your Answer: Worsened vision peripherally

      Correct Answer: Difficulty seeing in the dark

      Explanation:

      Night blindness is a symptom of vitamin A deficiency.

      If a person has cystic fibrosis, they may experience fat malabsorption which can lead to a deficiency in vitamin A, causing night blindness.

      While pain and redness in the eye can be caused by various factors, it is important to consider vitamin A deficiency as a possible cause, especially if the patient has no risk factors for other conditions such as scleritis or acute angle glaucoma.

      Worsened central vision and distorted straight lines are common symptoms of age-related macular degeneration, which typically affects older individuals. Therefore, it would not be relevant to ask about these symptoms in a young patient.

      Open angle glaucoma is a condition that can cause peripheral vision loss, and its incidence increases with age.

      Vitamin A, also known as retinol, is a type of fat soluble vitamin that plays several important roles in the body. One of its key functions is being converted into retinal, which is a crucial visual pigment. Additionally, vitamin A is essential for proper epithelial cell differentiation and acts as an antioxidant to protect cells from damage.

      When the body lacks sufficient vitamin A, it can lead to a condition known as night blindness. This is because retinal is necessary for the eyes to adjust to low light conditions, and a deficiency can impair this process. Therefore, it is important to ensure adequate intake of vitamin A through a balanced diet or supplements to maintain optimal health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      23.9
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  • Question 71 - Samantha is a 75-year-old woman who is currently recovering in hospital following a...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 75-year-old woman who is currently recovering in hospital following a stroke. Her MRI scan report says there is evidence of ischaemic damage to the superior optic radiation within the right temporal lobe.

      What type of visual impairment is Samantha likely experiencing?

      Your Answer: Right homonymous hemianopia

      Correct Answer: Right superior homonymous quadrantanopia

      Explanation:

      Lesions in the temporal lobe inferior optic radiations are responsible for superior homonymous quadrantanopias.

      If the left temporal lobe is damaged, the resulting visual field defect would be in the right side. Specific damage to the inferior optic radiation would cause a superior homonymous quadrantanopia.

      Damage to the right inferior optic radiation would lead to a left superior homonymous quadrantanopia.

      A right inferior homonymous quadrantanopia would occur if the left superior optic radiation is damaged.

      If the left occipital lobe is damaged, a right homonymous hemianopia would result.

      Understanding Visual Field Defects

      Visual field defects can occur due to various reasons, including lesions in the optic tract, optic radiation, or occipital cortex. A left homonymous hemianopia indicates a visual field defect to the left, which is caused by a lesion in the right optic tract. On the other hand, homonymous quadrantanopias can be categorized into PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior) and can be caused by lesions in the inferior or superior optic radiations in the temporal or parietal lobes.

      When it comes to congruous and incongruous defects, the former refers to complete or symmetrical visual field loss, while the latter indicates incomplete or asymmetric visual field loss. Incongruous defects are caused by optic tract lesions, while congruous defects are caused by optic radiation or occipital cortex lesions. In cases where there is macula sparing, it is indicative of a lesion in the occipital cortex.

      Bitemporal hemianopia, on the other hand, is caused by a lesion in the optic chiasm. The type of defect can indicate the location of the compression, with an upper quadrant defect being more common in inferior chiasmal compression, such as a pituitary tumor, and a lower quadrant defect being more common in superior chiasmal compression, such as a craniopharyngioma.

      Understanding visual field defects is crucial in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. By identifying the type and location of the defect, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - A 29-year-old woman is currently under investigation by her GP for chronic diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman is currently under investigation by her GP for chronic diarrhoea due to repeated occurrences of loose, bloody stools. As per the WHO guidelines, what is the definition of chronic diarrhoea?

      Your Answer: Diarrhoea for >2 months

      Correct Answer: Diarrhoea for >14 days

      Explanation:

      Chronic diarrhoea is defined by the WHO as lasting for more than 14 days. The leading causes of this condition are irritable bowel syndrome, ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease, coeliac disease, hyperthyroidism, and infection. The remaining options provided are incorrect and do not align with the WHO’s definition.

      Understanding Diarrhoea: Causes and Characteristics

      Diarrhoea is defined as having more than three loose or watery stools per day. It can be classified as acute if it lasts for less than 14 days and chronic if it persists for more than 14 days. Gastroenteritis, diverticulitis, and antibiotic therapy are common causes of acute diarrhoea. On the other hand, irritable bowel syndrome, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, colorectal cancer, and coeliac disease are some of the conditions that can cause chronic diarrhoea.

      Symptoms of gastroenteritis may include abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Diverticulitis is characterized by left lower quadrant pain, diarrhoea, and fever. Antibiotic therapy, especially with broad-spectrum antibiotics, can also cause diarrhoea, including Clostridium difficile infection. Chronic diarrhoea may be caused by irritable bowel syndrome, which is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits. Ulcerative colitis may cause bloody diarrhoea, crampy abdominal pain, and weight loss. Crohn’s disease may cause crampy abdominal pain, diarrhoea, and malabsorption. Colorectal cancer may cause diarrhoea, rectal bleeding, anaemia, and weight loss. Coeliac disease may cause diarrhoea, abdominal distension, lethargy, and weight loss.

      Other conditions associated with diarrhoea include thyrotoxicosis, laxative abuse, appendicitis, and radiation enteritis. It is important to seek medical attention if diarrhoea persists for more than a few days or is accompanied by other symptoms such as fever, severe abdominal pain, or blood in the stool.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      255.6
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  • Question 73 - A child psychologist creates a new survey for use in schools that aims...

    Incorrect

    • A child psychologist creates a new survey for use in schools that aims to detect students with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). What term refers to the degree to which the survey accurately identifies those with ADHD?

      Your Answer: Sensitivity

      Correct Answer: Validity

      Explanation:

      Validity refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study. This means we are confident that the independent variable caused the observed change in the dependent variable, rather than other factors. There are several threats to internal validity, such as poor control of extraneous variables and loss of participants over time. External validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. Threats to external validity include the representativeness of the sample and the artificiality of the research setting. There are also other types of validity, such as face validity and content validity, which refer to the general impression and full content of a test, respectively. Criterion validity compares tests, while construct validity measures the extent to which a test measures the construct it aims to.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - An 80-year-old woman is recuperating in the hospital after undergoing a right hemicolectomy....

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman is recuperating in the hospital after undergoing a right hemicolectomy. She has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and a previous pulmonary embolism. On the fifth day following the surgery, she experiences confusion and has a NEWS2 score of 7, leading to suspicion of sepsis and initiation of the sepsis 6 protocol. The following day, she is diagnosed with AKI, with a sudden rise in serum creatinine and potassium levels.

      Which medication(s) should be discontinued due to the risk of exacerbating renal function?

      Your Answer: Gentamicin

      Explanation:

      Aminoglycosides, such as gentamicin, should be discontinued in cases of AKI as they may exacerbate renal function. Gentamicin may have been prescribed to treat suspected sepsis. Other medications that should be stopped for the same reason include NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists, and diuretics. Atenolol is safe to continue in AKI, but not recommended for use in asthma. Atorvastatin is also safe to continue in AKI, but not during pregnancy or breastfeeding. Paracetamol is generally safe to continue in AKI and is also safe during pregnancy and breastfeeding, unlike NSAIDs.

      Acute kidney injury (AKI) is a condition where there is a reduction in renal function following an insult to the kidneys. It was previously known as acute renal failure and can result in long-term impaired kidney function or even death. AKI can be caused by prerenal, intrinsic, or postrenal factors. Patients with chronic kidney disease, other organ failure/chronic disease, a history of AKI, or who have used drugs with nephrotoxic potential are at an increased risk of developing AKI. To prevent AKI, patients at risk may be given IV fluids or have certain medications temporarily stopped.

      The kidneys are responsible for maintaining fluid balance and homeostasis, so a reduced urine output or fluid overload may indicate AKI. Symptoms may not be present in early stages, but as renal failure progresses, patients may experience arrhythmias, pulmonary and peripheral edema, or features of uraemia. Blood tests such as urea and electrolytes can be used to detect AKI, and urinalysis and imaging may also be necessary.

      Management of AKI is largely supportive, with careful fluid balance and medication review. Loop diuretics and low-dose dopamine are not recommended, but hyperkalaemia needs prompt treatment to avoid life-threatening arrhythmias. Renal replacement therapy may be necessary in severe cases. Patients with suspected AKI secondary to urinary obstruction require prompt review by a urologist, and specialist input from a nephrologist is required for cases where the cause is unknown or the AKI is severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      42.4
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  • Question 75 - Which one of the following does not decrease the functional residual capacity? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following does not decrease the functional residual capacity?

      Your Answer: Obesity

      Correct Answer: Upright position

      Explanation:

      When a patient is in an upright position, the functional residual capacity (FRC) can increase due to less pressure from the diaphragm and abdominal organs on the lung bases. This increase in FRC can also be caused by emphysema and asthma. On the other hand, factors such as abdominal swelling, pulmonary edema, reduced muscle tone of the diaphragm, and aging can lead to a decrease in FRC. Additionally, laparoscopic surgery, obesity, and muscle relaxants can also contribute to a reduction in FRC.

      Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology

      In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.

      Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.

      Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.

      Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.

      Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.

      Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - A 32-year-old alcoholic woman presents with visible jaundice and confusion and is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old alcoholic woman presents with visible jaundice and confusion and is admitted to the gastroenterology ward. Upon examination, she has a distended tender abdomen with hepatomegaly and shifting dullness. All her observations are within normal limits. The following blood test results are obtained:

      - Hb: 121 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L)
      - MCV: 103 g/L (normal range: 82-100 g/L)
      - Bilirubin: 78 µmol/L (normal range: 3-17 µmol/L)
      - ALP: 112 u/L (normal range: 30-100 u/L)
      - ALT: 276 u/L (normal range: 3-40 u/L)
      - AST: 552 u/L (normal range: 3-30 u/L)
      - γGT: 161 u/L (normal range: 8-60 u/L)

      An aspirate of fluid is taken and shows a serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) of 14 g/L. What is the most likely diagnosis that explains the SAAG value in this patient?

      Your Answer: Biliary ascites

      Correct Answer: Portal hypertension

      Explanation:

      Ascites can be diagnosed by measuring the SAAG value, with a high SAAG gradient (>11g/L) indicating the presence of portal hypertension. In the case of a SAAG value of >11g/L, the ascites is considered a transudate and is likely caused by portal hypertension. This is consistent with the patient’s symptoms, which suggest ascites due to alcoholic liver disease leading to liver cirrhosis and portal hypertension. Other potential causes of ascites would result in an exudative picture with a SAAG value of <11g/L. Biliary ascites is a rare consequence of biliary procedures or trauma, and would present with abdominal distension but not hepatomegaly. While bile is sterile, peritonitis is likely to occur, leading to septic symptoms. However, the SAAG value and the patient’s symptoms make biliary ascites less likely. Bowel obstruction is not consistent with the patient’s symptoms, as it would not explain the presence of jaundice. While a distended abdomen may be present, other features of delirium would also be expected. Additionally, a patient with bowel obstruction would report a history of not passing flatus or bowel movements. Nephrotic syndrome would present with oedema, proteinuria, and hypoalbuminaemia, which are not described in the patient’s symptoms. The raised liver enzymes and macrocytic anaemia are more consistent with liver pathology. Ascites is a medical condition characterized by the accumulation of abnormal amounts of fluid in the abdominal cavity. The causes of ascites can be classified into two groups based on the serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) level. If the SAAG level is greater than 11g/L, it indicates portal hypertension, which is commonly caused by liver disorders such as cirrhosis, alcoholic liver disease, and liver metastases. Other causes of portal hypertension include cardiac conditions like right heart failure and constrictive pericarditis, as well as infections like tuberculous peritonitis. On the other hand, if the SAAG level is less than 11g/L, ascites may be caused by hypoalbuminaemia, malignancy, pancreatitis, bowel obstruction, and other conditions. The management of ascites involves reducing dietary sodium and sometimes fluid restriction if the sodium level is less than 125 mmol/L. Aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone are often prescribed, and loop diuretics may be added if necessary. Therapeutic abdominal paracentesis may be performed for tense ascites, and large-volume paracentesis requires albumin cover to reduce the risk of complications. Prophylactic antibiotics may also be given to prevent spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. In some cases, a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      58
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A 45-year-old woman is currently being treated with lithium for bipolar depression. It...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is currently being treated with lithium for bipolar depression. It is believed that the drug affects the phosphoinositide cycle, resulting in a decrease in both Km and Vmax. This can be observed on a Lineweaver-Burk plot, where the Y-intercept shifts upwards, the X-intercept shifts to the left, and the slope remains constant. What type of inhibition is being described in this situation?

      Your Answer: Non-competitive

      Correct Answer: Uncompetitive

      Explanation:

      Types of Reversible Enzyme Inhibition

      There are three types of reversible enzyme inhibition: competitive, non-competitive, and uncompetitive. Competitive inhibitors are similar in structure to the substrate and compete for the active site of the enzyme. This results in an increase in Km, but Vmax remains unchanged. Non-competitive inhibitors bind to a different site on the enzyme and do not resemble the substrate. This causes a decrease in Vmax, but Km remains unchanged. Uncompetitive inhibitors bind to the enzyme-substrate complex and render the enzyme inactive, leading to a decrease in both Km and Vmax. On a Lineweaver-Burk plot, the slope increases for competitive and non-competitive inhibitors, but remains the same for uncompetitive inhibitors. The Y-intercept shifts upwards for non-competitive inhibitors, but remains unchanged for competitive and uncompetitive inhibitors. The X-intercept shifts to the right for competitive inhibitors, but remains unchanged for non-competitive and uncompetitive inhibitors. It is important to note that irreversible inhibitors covalently bind to the enzyme and permanently inactivate it, causing the same kinetic effects as non-competitive inhibitors. Dilution is not a mechanism of enzyme inhibition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      71.3
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  • Question 78 - A 55-year-old man and his wife visit their primary care physician. The man's...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man and his wife visit their primary care physician. The man's wife has noticed a change in the size of his chest and suspects he may be developing breast tissue. She mentions that his nipples appear larger and more prominent when he wears tight-fitting shirts. The man seems unconcerned. He has been generally healthy, with a medical history of knee osteoarthritis, benign prostatic hyperplasia, and gastroesophageal reflux disease. He cannot recall the names of his medications and has left the list at home.

      Which medication is most likely responsible for his gynecomastia?

      Your Answer: Tamoxifen

      Correct Answer: Ranitidine

      Explanation:

      Gynaecomastia can be caused by H2 receptor antagonists like ranitidine, which is a known drug-induced side effect. Clomiphene, an anti-oestrogen, is not used in the treatment of gynaecomastia. Danazol, a synthetic derivative of testosterone, can inhibit pituitary secretion of LH and FSH, leading to a decrease in estrogen synthesis from the testicles. In some cases, complete resolution of breast enlargement has been reported with the use of danazol.

      Histamine-2 Receptor Antagonists and their Withdrawal from the Market

      Histamine-2 (H2) receptor antagonists are medications used to treat dyspepsia, which includes conditions such as gastritis and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease. They were previously considered a first-line treatment option, but have since been replaced by more effective proton pump inhibitors. One example of an H2 receptor antagonist is ranitidine.

      However, in 2020, ranitidine was withdrawn from the market due to the discovery of small amounts of the carcinogen N-nitrosodimethylamine (NDMA) in products from multiple manufacturers. This led to concerns about the safety of the medication and its potential to cause cancer. As a result, patients who were taking ranitidine were advised to speak with their healthcare provider about alternative treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - Which of the following is most impacted by the frequency of a condition?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most impacted by the frequency of a condition?

      Your Answer: Precision

      Correct Answer: Positive predictive value

      Explanation:

      Precision, sensitivity, accuracy, and specificity remain consistent regardless of the prevalence of the condition as they are inherent qualities. However, the positive predictive value may be impacted in situations where the prevalence of the condition is low. This is because a decrease in true positives results in a smaller numerator, leading to a lower PPV.

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - A 26-year-old woman visits her doctor, 9 weeks postpartum, with complaints of pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman visits her doctor, 9 weeks postpartum, with complaints of pain in her left breast while breastfeeding. She is concerned about continuing to feed her baby. During the examination, the doctor observes a 2 cm x 2 cm reddish lesion on the left breast, which is tender and warm to the touch. The right breast appears normal. As the patient has a temperature of 38.2ºC, the doctor prescribes antibiotics and advises her to continue breastfeeding. What is the primary location for lymphatic drainage in the affected area?

      Your Answer: Parasternal nodes

      Correct Answer: Ipsilateral axillary nodes

      Explanation:

      The primary location for lymphatic drainage of the breast is the ipsilateral axillary nodes. While there have been cases of breast cancer spreading to contralateral axillary nodes, these nodes do not represent the main site of lymphatic drainage for the opposite breast. The parasternal nodes receive some lymphatic drainage, but they are not the primary site for breast drainage. The supraclavicular nodes may occasionally receive drainage from the breast, but this is not significant. The infraclavicular nodes, despite their proximity, do not drain the breast; they instead receive drainage from the forearm and hand.

      The breast is situated on a layer of pectoral fascia and is surrounded by the pectoralis major, serratus anterior, and external oblique muscles. The nerve supply to the breast comes from branches of intercostal nerves from T4-T6, while the arterial supply comes from the internal mammary (thoracic) artery, external mammary artery (laterally), anterior intercostal arteries, and thoraco-acromial artery. The breast’s venous drainage is through a superficial venous plexus to subclavian, axillary, and intercostal veins. Lymphatic drainage occurs through the axillary nodes, internal mammary chain, and other lymphatic sites such as deep cervical and supraclavicular fossa (later in disease).

      The preparation for lactation involves the hormones oestrogen, progesterone, and human placental lactogen. Oestrogen promotes duct development in high concentrations, while high levels of progesterone stimulate the formation of lobules. Human placental lactogen prepares the mammary glands for lactation. The two hormones involved in stimulating lactation are prolactin and oxytocin. Prolactin causes milk secretion, while oxytocin causes contraction of the myoepithelial cells surrounding the mammary alveoli to result in milk ejection from the breast. Suckling of the baby stimulates the mechanoreceptors in the nipple, resulting in the release of both prolactin and oxytocin from the pituitary gland (anterior and posterior parts respectively).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      34.4
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  • Question 81 - A 35-year-old motorcyclist is in a road traffic collision resulting in a severely...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old motorcyclist is in a road traffic collision resulting in a severely displaced humerus fracture. During surgical repair, the surgeon observes an injury to the radial nerve. Which of the following muscles is most likely to be unaffected by this injury?

      Your Answer: Abductor pollicis longus

      Correct Answer: None of the above

      Explanation:

      BEST

      The Radial Nerve: Anatomy, Innervation, and Patterns of Damage

      The radial nerve is a continuation of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, with root values ranging from C5 to T1. It travels through the axilla, posterior to the axillary artery, and enters the arm between the brachial artery and the long head of triceps. From there, it spirals around the posterior surface of the humerus in the groove for the radial nerve before piercing the intermuscular septum and descending in front of the lateral epicondyle. At the lateral epicondyle, it divides into a superficial and deep terminal branch, with the deep branch crossing the supinator to become the posterior interosseous nerve.

      The radial nerve innervates several muscles, including triceps, anconeus, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis. The posterior interosseous branch innervates supinator, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, and other muscles. Denervation of these muscles can lead to weakness or paralysis, with effects ranging from minor effects on shoulder stability to loss of elbow extension and weakening of supination of prone hand and elbow flexion in mid prone position.

      Damage to the radial nerve can result in wrist drop and sensory loss to a small area between the dorsal aspect of the 1st and 2nd metacarpals. Axillary damage can also cause paralysis of triceps. Understanding the anatomy, innervation, and patterns of damage of the radial nerve is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      68.4
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  • Question 82 - What is the initial event that triggers puberty in boys? ...

    Correct

    • What is the initial event that triggers puberty in boys?

      Your Answer: Nocturnal rise in luteinising hormone (LH)

      Explanation:

      The Process of Puberty in Males

      Puberty is a complex process that is not yet fully understood. The changes that lead to puberty begin years before any visible changes occur. The process starts with an increase in the secretion of luteinising hormone (LH) at night, which gradually leads to an increase in sex hormone production. This increase is stimulated by gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH), which causes LH secretion to change from being predominantly at night to being secreted during the day and night. Over time, the pattern of secretion starts to resemble the adult pattern of circadian variation.

      As GnRH secretion increases, levels of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) also increase gradually. In males, this leads to an increase in testosterone levels, which causes the development of secondary sexual characteristics such as facial, pubic, and axillary hair, testicular growth, and vocal changes. The growth spurt for boys occurs in mid-puberty, around the age of 14 years.

      The process of puberty in males can be broken down into several stages. The first stage is adrenarche, which occurs around age 11-12 on average. This is when adrenal androgen production increases, causing acne, sexual hair production, and body odour. The second stage is gonadarche, which causes testicular enlargement and reddening of the scrotum. This occurs around the same time as adrenarche. The third stage is spermatogenesis, which occurs around age 13-14 on average. The final stage is the growth spurt, which starts in mid-puberty and reaches peak height velocity around the age of 14.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - Control of ventilation. Which statement is false? ...

    Correct

    • Control of ventilation. Which statement is false?

      Your Answer: Central chemoreceptors respond to changes in O2

      Explanation:

      The central chemoreceptors increase ventilation in response to an increase in H+ in the brain interstitial fluid.

      The Control of Ventilation in the Human Body

      The control of ventilation in the human body is a complex process that involves various components working together to regulate the respiratory rate and depth of respiration. The respiratory centres, chemoreceptors, lung receptors, and muscles all play a role in this process. The automatic, involuntary control of respiration occurs from the medulla, which is responsible for controlling the respiratory rate and depth of respiration.

      The respiratory centres consist of the medullary respiratory centre, apneustic centre, and pneumotaxic centre. The medullary respiratory centre has two groups of neurons, the ventral group, which controls forced voluntary expiration, and the dorsal group, which controls inspiration. The apneustic centre, located in the lower pons, stimulates inspiration and activates and prolongs inhalation. The pneumotaxic centre, located in the upper pons, inhibits inspiration at a certain point and fine-tunes the respiratory rate.

      Ventilatory variables, such as the levels of pCO2, are the most important factors in ventilation control, while levels of O2 are less important. Peripheral chemoreceptors, located in the bifurcation of carotid arteries and arch of the aorta, respond to changes in reduced pO2, increased H+, and increased pCO2 in arterial blood. Central chemoreceptors, located in the medulla, respond to increased H+ in brain interstitial fluid to increase ventilation. It is important to note that the central receptors are not influenced by O2 levels.

      Lung receptors also play a role in the control of ventilation. Stretch receptors respond to lung stretching, causing a reduced respiratory rate, while irritant receptors respond to smoke, causing bronchospasm. J (juxtacapillary) receptors are also involved in the control of ventilation. Overall, the control of ventilation is a complex process that involves various components working together to regulate the respiratory rate and depth of respiration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      29.6
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  • Question 84 - A 30-year-old woman is being evaluated for possible Addison's disease due to experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman is being evaluated for possible Addison's disease due to experiencing atypical exhaustion and observing a mild bronzing of her skin. The underlying cause is believed to be an autoimmune assault on the adrenal cortex, leading to reduced secretion of aldosterone.

      What is the typical physiological trigger for the production of this steroid hormone?

      Your Answer: Angiotensin II

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is Angiotensin II, which stimulates the release of aldosterone. It also has the ability to stimulate the release of ADH, increase blood pressure, and influence the kidneys to retain sodium and water.

      Angiotensin I is not the correct answer as it is converted to angiotensin II by ACE and does not have a direct role in the release of aldosterone by the adrenal cortex.

      ACE is released by the capillaries in the lungs and is responsible for converting angiotensin I to angiotensin II.

      Angiotensinogen is not the correct answer as it is the first step in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. It is released by the liver and converted to angiotensin I by renin.

      The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is a complex system that regulates blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. The adrenal cortex is divided into three zones, each producing different hormones. The zona glomerulosa produces mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone, which helps regulate sodium and potassium levels in the body. Renin is an enzyme released by the renal juxtaglomerular cells in response to reduced renal perfusion, hyponatremia, and sympathetic nerve stimulation. It hydrolyses angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme in the lungs. Angiotensin II has various actions, including causing vasoconstriction, stimulating thirst, and increasing proximal tubule Na+/H+ activity. It also stimulates aldosterone and ADH release, which causes retention of Na+ in exchange for K+/H+ in the distal tubule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      41.1
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  • Question 85 - A 20-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a recent history of...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a recent history of myoclonic seizures and limb weakness. A neurologist performs a variety of investigations, including a muscle biopsy which confirms the diagnosis of a mitochondrial disease. The patient's mother and two siblings also have experienced some similar symptoms, but to varying degrees of severity. The neurologist explains that this is a characteristic of mitochondrial disorders, where there is variable disease expression within a family due to the presence of both normal and mutated mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) within a cell.

      What characteristic of mitochondrial disorders is the neurologist referring to?

      Your Answer: Heteroplasmy

      Explanation:

      The correct term is heteroplasmy, which refers to the presence of multiple types of organellar genome (such as mitochondrial DNA or plastid DNA) within an individual or cell. This can result in variable expression of mitochondrial disease. Anticipation, on the other hand, is a phenomenon seen in trinucleotide repeat disorders where there is increased severity or earlier onset of disease in successive generations, but it is not observed in mitochondrial diseases. Homoplasmy, which refers to a cell having a uniform collection of mtDNA (either completely normal or abnormal), is not the correct answer.

      Mitochondrial diseases are caused by a small amount of double-stranded DNA present in the mitochondria, which encodes protein components of the respiratory chain and some special types of RNA. These diseases are inherited only via the maternal line, as the sperm contributes no cytoplasm to the zygote. None of the children of an affected male will inherit the disease, while all of the children of an affected female will inherit it. Mitochondrial diseases generally encode rare neurological diseases, and there is poor genotype-phenotype correlation due to heteroplasmy, which means that within a tissue or cell, there can be different mitochondrial populations. Muscle biopsy typically shows red, ragged fibers due to an increased number of mitochondria. Examples of mitochondrial diseases include Leber’s optic atrophy, MELAS syndrome, MERRF syndrome, Kearns-Sayre syndrome, and sensorineural hearing loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      285.7
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  • Question 86 - A 42-year-old man is found to have a right-sided colon cancer and a...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man is found to have a right-sided colon cancer and a significant family history of colorectal and ovarian cancer. Upon genetic testing, he is diagnosed with hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) caused by a mutation in the MSH2 gene. What is the role of this gene?

      Your Answer: DNA mismatch repair

      Explanation:

      Colorectal cancer can be classified into three types: sporadic, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Sporadic colon cancer is believed to be caused by a series of genetic mutations, including allelic loss of the APC gene, activation of the K-ras oncogene, and deletion of p53 and DCC tumor suppressor genes. HNPCC, which is an autosomal dominant condition, is the most common form of inherited colon cancer. It is caused by mutations in genes involved in DNA mismatch repair, leading to microsatellite instability. The most common genes affected are MSH2 and MLH1. Patients with HNPCC are also at a higher risk of other cancers, such as endometrial cancer. The Amsterdam criteria are sometimes used to aid diagnosis of HNPCC. FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition that leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. It is caused by a mutation in the APC gene. Patients with FAP are also at risk of duodenal tumors. A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts on the skin. Genetic testing can be done to diagnose HNPCC and FAP, and patients with FAP generally have a total colectomy with ileo-anal pouch formation in their twenties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      17.5
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  • Question 87 - Olivia is a 19-year-old female who has recently started college. She attends a...

    Incorrect

    • Olivia is a 19-year-old female who has recently started college. She attends a party and has many alcoholic drinks and wakes the next morning with a severe headache. She puts this down to being hungover, however, by the next day the headache is worse and she has a widespread non-blanching purpuric rash. She attends the emergency department who suspect meningitis and would like to perform a lumbar puncture to obtain a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) sample. The doctor would like to take the sample from the cauda equina to avoid spinal cord injury, at which level does the spinal cord terminate?

      Your Answer: L4/L5

      Correct Answer: L1/L2

      Explanation:

      CSF Analysis for Meningitis

      Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis is an important diagnostic tool for meningitis. The appearance, glucose level, protein level, and white cell count in the CSF can provide clues to the type of meningitis present. Bacterial meningitis typically results in cloudy CSF with low glucose levels and high protein levels, along with a high number of polymorphs. Viral meningitis, on the other hand, usually results in clear or slightly cloudy CSF with normal or slightly raised protein levels and a high number of lymphocytes. Tuberculous meningitis may result in slightly cloudy CSF with a fibrin web and a high number of lymphocytes, along with low glucose and high protein levels. Fungal meningitis typically results in cloudy CSF with high protein levels and a high number of lymphocytes. In cases of suspected tuberculous meningitis, PCR may be used in addition to the Ziehl-Neelsen stain, which has low sensitivity. It is important to note that mumps and herpes encephalitis may also result in low glucose levels in the CSF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      24.8
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  • Question 88 - A 75-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with abrupt onset of weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with abrupt onset of weakness on his right side. He reports no pain or injury. The primary suspicion is that he has experienced a stroke. What is the most frequent pathological mechanism that leads to a stroke?

      Your Answer: Atherosclerotic occlusion of cerebral vessels

      Correct Answer: Embolic events

      Explanation:

      Stroke: A Brief Overview

      Stroke is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality, with over 150,000 strokes occurring annually in the UK alone. It is the fourth leading cause of death in the UK, killing twice as many women as breast cancer each year. However, the prevention and treatment of strokes have undergone significant changes over the past decade. What was once considered an untreatable condition is now viewed as a ‘brain attack’ that requires emergency assessment to determine if patients may benefit from new treatments such as thrombolysis.

      A stroke, also known as a cerebrovascular accident (CVA), is a sudden interruption in the vascular supply of the brain. There are two main types of strokes: ischaemic and haemorrhagic. Ischaemic strokes occur when there is a blockage in the blood vessel that stops blood flow, while haemorrhagic strokes occur when a blood vessel bursts, leading to a reduction in blood flow. Symptoms of a stroke may include motor weakness, speech problems, swallowing problems, visual field defects, and balance problems.

      Patients with suspected stroke need to have emergency neuroimaging to determine if they are suitable for thrombolytic therapy to treat early ischaemic strokes. The two types of neuroimaging used in this setting are CT and MRI. If the stroke is ischaemic, and certain criteria are met, the patient should be offered thrombolysis. Once haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded, patients should be given aspirin 300mg as soon as possible, and antiplatelet therapy should be continued. If imaging confirms a haemorrhagic stroke, neurosurgical consultation should be considered for advice on further management. The vast majority of patients, however, are not suitable for surgical intervention. Management is therefore supportive as per haemorrhagic stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      45.7
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  • Question 89 - What is the classification of Streptococcus agalactiae? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the classification of Streptococcus agalactiae?

      Your Answer: Alpha-haemolytic

      Correct Answer: Beta-haemolytic Group B

      Explanation:

      Gram Positive Bacteria Classification

      Gram positive bacteria can be categorized into two main groups: rods (bacilli) and spheres (cocci). The Gram positive rods include Clostridium, Bacillus, Listeria, and Corynebacterium. On the other hand, the Gram positive cocci can be either staphylococcal or Streptococcal. Staphylococcal bacteria are catalase-positive and grow in clusters, while Streptococcal bacteria are catalase-negative and grow in chains.

      Streptococci are further divided into three groups based on their ability to haemolyse blood agar. Alpha-haemolytic bacteria have partial haemolysis and a green color on blood agar. Examples of alpha-haemolytic bacteria include Strep. pneumoniae and the Viridans streptococci, which includes S. mutans. Beta-haemolytic bacteria have complete haemolysis and are subdivided by Lancefield antigen. Group A includes Strep. pyogenes, which is an upper respiratory tract pathogen, while Group B includes S. agalactiae, which causes neonatal sepsis and meningitis, and maternal chorioamnionitis. Non-haemolytic bacteria, also known as gamma-haemolytic, include enterococci such as E. faecalis and peptostreptococcus, which are anaerobes.

      In summary, Gram positive bacteria can be classified into rods and spheres, with further subdivisions based on their haemolytic abilities and antigenic properties. these classifications is important in identifying and treating bacterial infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      16.4
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  • Question 90 - A group of educational researchers want to investigate the effect of technology use...

    Incorrect

    • A group of educational researchers want to investigate the effect of technology use on academic performance among middle school students. They plan to select high-achieving, non-tech using students and low-achieving, tech-using students for the study. Then, they will follow up with each group at a later time and compare their academic performance.

      The school review board is worried about the study's design. They note a significant risk of selection bias in this study and suggest several modifications.

      What is the particular concern of the review board?

      Your Answer: There are numerous confounders that may alter the results

      Correct Answer: There is non-random assignment of students to each group

      Explanation:

      Selection bias refers to the non-random allocation of participants to study groups, which can lead to an over or under-representation of certain groups and bias the results. In the case of this study, non-gaming students may perform better due to their prior performance, rather than their lack of gaming experience. To address this, the researchers should ensure that the prior performance of both groups is similar.

      The binary categorization of gaming and non-gaming may be imprecise, but it is not a form of bias that would significantly impact the results. To improve the study, the researchers could ask participants to report their average gaming hours and stratify accordingly.

      Reporting bias, rather than selection bias, may occur if only the best-performing gamers report their results, leading to an overestimation of the group’s ability.

      While there may be confounding variables to consider, such as mental health issues, these are not a form of selection bias.

      Attrition bias, where there is a greater loss of participants from one group compared to the other, may occur but is not a form of selection bias. In this study, poor-performing students may be more likely to drop out, leading to a potential underestimation of the effect size.

      Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials

      Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnoses the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      75.8
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  • Question 91 - A four-year-old child presents with symptoms of an eye infection four days after...

    Incorrect

    • A four-year-old child presents with symptoms of an eye infection four days after a cold. The child has conjunctivitis with purulent discharge and swollen eyelids. Treatment is initiated promptly to prevent complications.

      What are the two most commonly associated organisms with this presentation?

      Your Answer: Adenovirus and varicella-zoster virus

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Explanation:

      The two main organisms responsible for ophthalmia neonatorum, also known as conjunctivitis of the newborn, are Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Adenovirus, varicella-zoster virus, Treponema pallidum, and Staphylococcus aureus are not as commonly associated with this condition. Rhinovirus and astrovirus are not known to cause ophthalmia neonatorum, as they typically cause upper respiratory infections and diarrhea, respectively.

      Understanding Ophthalmia Neonatorum

      Ophthalmia neonatorum is a term used to describe an infection that affects the eyes of newborn babies. This condition is caused by two main organisms, namely Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It is important to note that suspected cases of ophthalmia neonatorum should be referred for immediate ophthalmology or paediatric assessment.

      To prevent complications, it is crucial to identify and treat ophthalmia neonatorum as soon as possible. This condition can cause severe damage to the eyes and even lead to blindness if left untreated. Therefore, parents and healthcare providers should be vigilant and seek medical attention if they notice any signs of eye infection in newborns. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, the prognosis for ophthalmia neonatorum is generally good.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      28.1
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - A 3 day old infant is found to have difficulty urinating and upon...

    Correct

    • A 3 day old infant is found to have difficulty urinating and upon closer examination, is diagnosed with hypospadias. What is the most frequently associated abnormality with this condition?

      Your Answer: Cryptorchidism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypospadias: A Congenital Abnormality of the Penis

      Hypospadias is a congenital abnormality of the penis that affects approximately 3 out of 1,000 male infants. It is usually identified during the newborn baby check, but if missed, parents may notice an abnormal urine stream. This condition is characterized by a ventral urethral meatus, a hooded prepuce, and chordee in more severe forms. In some cases, the urethral meatus may open more proximally in the more severe variants, but 75% of the openings are distally located.

      There appears to be a significant genetic element to hypospadias, with further male children having a risk of around 5-15%. While it most commonly occurs as an isolated disorder, associated conditions include cryptorchidism (present in 10%) and inguinal hernia.

      Once hypospadias has been identified, infants should be referred to specialist services. Corrective surgery is typically performed when the child is around 12 months of age. It is essential that the child is not circumcised prior to the surgery as the foreskin may be used in the corrective procedure. In boys with very distal disease, no treatment may be needed.

      Overall, understanding hypospadias is important for parents and healthcare providers to ensure proper management and treatment for affected infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      34.2
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  • Question 93 - A 6-year-old boy is presented to the doctor with recurrent episodes of allergic...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is presented to the doctor with recurrent episodes of allergic rhinitis and eczema. What cytokine is responsible for atopy and triggers class switching of immunoglobulins to IgE, among other things?

      Your Answer: IL-5

      Correct Answer: IL-4

      Explanation:

      Interleukin-4 plays a crucial role in the development of allergic inflammation by facilitating the following processes: switching to IgE isotype, differentiation of T helper type 2 lymphocytes, expression of vascular cell adhesion molecule-1 (VCAM-1), promotion of eosinophil transmigration across endothelium, and stimulation of mucous secretion.

      Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.

      IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.

      IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.

      IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.

      IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.

      IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 94 - An anaesthetist trainee administers neostigmine to a 60-year-old patient at the end of...

    Incorrect

    • An anaesthetist trainee administers neostigmine to a 60-year-old patient at the end of a brief surgical procedure to reverse the effect of a muscle relaxant. However, no effect is observed. Which of the following skeletal muscle relaxants may have been used during induction of anaesthesia?

      Your Answer: Tubocurarine

      Correct Answer: Suxamethonium

      Explanation:

      Suxamethonium is a type of skeletal muscle relaxant that causes depolarization. Unlike non-depolarizing agents such as tubocurarine, pancuronium, vecuronium, and rocuronium, it cannot be reversed by anticholinesterases because it is broken down by butyrylcholinesterase. Neostigmine, an anticholinesterase, prolongs the effects of acetylcholine by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase in the synaptic cleft, but it cannot reverse the effects of suxamethonium since it is not metabolized by acetylcholinesterase.

      Cholinergic receptors are proteins found in the body that are activated by the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. They are present in both the central and peripheral nervous systems and can be divided into two groups: nicotinic and muscarinic receptors. Nicotinic receptors are ligand-gated ion channels that allow the movement of sodium into the cell and potassium out, resulting in an inward flow of positive ions. Muscarinic receptors, on the other hand, are G-protein coupled receptors that exert their downstream effect by linking with different G-proteins.

      Nicotinic receptors are named after their binding capacity for nicotine, but they respond to acetylcholine. They are found in preganglionic neurons of the autonomic nervous system and at neuromuscular junctions. At preganglionic neurons, they create a local membrane depolarization through the movement of sodium into the cell, while at neuromuscular junctions, they initiate a wave of depolarization across the muscle cell. Muscarinic receptors are found in effector organs of the parasympathetic autonomic nervous system and are divided into five classes. They mediate various effects through different G-protein systems.

      Cholinergic receptors can be targeted pharmacologically using agonists and antagonists. For example, muscarinic antagonist ipratropium can be used to induce bronchodilation in asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. In myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune disease, antibodies are directed against the nicotinic receptor on the neuromuscular junction, resulting in skeletal muscle weakness. Understanding the effects associated with each type of cholinergic receptor is important in understanding physiological responses to drugs and disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      1
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - A 50-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of hot flashes and vaginal...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of hot flashes and vaginal dryness. She reports no menstrual bleeding in the past year and has no significant medical or surgical history. Despite trying lifestyle changes for 6 months, she desires hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for symptom relief. What HRT preparation should be recommended to her?

      Your Answer: Estradiol with norethisterone

      Explanation:

      Women with a uterus taking HRT need a preparation with a progestogen to prevent excess growth and cancer risk. Estradiol with norethisterone is the correct option. Depo-Provera is a progesterone-only contraceptive and estradiol is given to women without a uterus. Norethisterone alone has no effect on menopause symptoms.

      Hormone Replacement Therapy: Uses and Varieties

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves administering a small amount of estrogen, combined with a progestogen (in women with a uterus), to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed significantly over the past decade due to the long-term risks that have become apparent, primarily as a result of the Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study.

      The most common indication for HRT is vasomotor symptoms such as flushing, insomnia, and headaches. Other indications, such as reversal of vaginal atrophy, should be treated with other agents as first-line therapies. HRT is also recommended for women who experience premature menopause, which should be continued until the age of 50 years. The most important reason for giving HRT to younger women is to prevent the development of osteoporosis. Additionally, HRT has been shown to reduce the incidence of colorectal cancer.

      HRT generally consists of an oestrogenic compound, which replaces the diminished levels that occur in the perimenopausal period. This is normally combined with a progestogen if a woman has a uterus to reduce the risk of endometrial cancer. The choice of hormone includes natural oestrogens such as estradiol, estrone, and conjugated oestrogen, which are generally used rather than synthetic oestrogens such as ethinylestradiol (which is used in the combined oral contraceptive pill). Synthetic progestogens such as medroxyprogesterone, norethisterone, levonorgestrel, and drospirenone are usually used. A levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (e.g. Mirena) may be used as the progestogen component of HRT, i.e. a woman could take an oral oestrogen and have endometrial protection using a Mirena coil. Tibolone, a synthetic compound with both oestrogenic, progestogenic, and androgenic activity, is another option.

      HRT can be taken orally or transdermally (via a patch or gel). Transdermal is preferred if the woman is at risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), as the rates of VTE do not appear to rise with transdermal preparations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 96 - What occurs in eukaryotic prometaphase? ...

    Incorrect

    • What occurs in eukaryotic prometaphase?

      Your Answer: The chromosomes align across a plane

      Correct Answer: The nuclear membrane and the nucleoli disintegrate and kinetochores appear

      Explanation:

      The Significance of Prometaphase in Cell Division

      Prometaphase is a crucial phase in cell division that marks the transition from prophase to metaphase. Although it is often considered as a part of these two phases, it has distinct events that make it an individual phase. During prometaphase, the nuclear membrane disintegrates, and the nucleoli are no longer visible. Additionally, each chromosome forms two kinetochores near the centromere, which serve as attachment points for spindle fibers. These fibers connect to the opposite poles of the cell, forming travelling lines that will separate the sister chromatids during anaphase.

      Prophase is characterized by chromatin condensation, while DNA and centrosome duplication occur during interphase. Chromosome alignment takes place during metaphase, and the sister chromatids separate during anaphase. Prometaphase, therefore, plays a crucial role in preparing the chromosomes for separation during anaphase. Its distinct events make it an essential phase in cell division, and its proper execution is necessary for successful cell division.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      21.6
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  • Question 97 - A 12-year-old girl complains of fainting on exertion and her teacher noticed a...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old girl complains of fainting on exertion and her teacher noticed a bluish tinge to her skin before one episode. She says she can prevent fainting by squatting down. During examination, a mid-systolic murmur is heard and her fingernails are clubbed. What is a possible cardiac reason for her clubbing?

      Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      The causes of clubbing are varied and complex. Clubbing is a medical condition that affects the fingers and toes, causing them to become enlarged and rounded. Although the exact cause of clubbing is not fully understood, it is commonly associated with respiratory, gastrointestinal, and cardiovascular disorders.

      Among the cardiovascular causes of clubbing, two main conditions stand out: infective endocarditis and tetralogy of Fallot. Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital heart disorder that is characterized by four malformations in the heart. These include ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, over-riding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy.

      As a result of these malformations, oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mix in the patient’s body, leading to low blood oxygen saturation. This can cause a range of symptoms, including sudden cyanosis followed by syncope, which is commonly referred to as tet spells in children. In older children, squatting can help relieve these symptoms by reducing circulation to the legs and relieving syncope.

      Understanding the causes of clubbing is important, particularly for medical examinations, as it can help identify underlying conditions that may require further investigation and treatment. By recognizing the signs and symptoms of clubbing, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and support to patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      23.2
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  • Question 98 - Which muscle is connected to the front of the fibrous capsule that surrounds...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle is connected to the front of the fibrous capsule that surrounds the elbow joint?

      Your Answer: Triceps

      Correct Answer: Brachialis

      Explanation:

      When the brachialis muscle contracts, it aids in elbow flexion by inserting some of its fibers into the fibrous joint of the elbow capsule.

      Anatomy of the Elbow Joint

      The elbow joint is a large synovial hinge joint that connects the bones of the forearm to the lower end of the humerus. It consists of the humeral articular surface, which comprises the grooved trochlea, the spheroidal capitulum, and the sulcus between them, and the ulnar and radial surfaces. The joint is encased within a fibrous capsule that is relatively weak anteriorly and posteriorly but strengthened at the sides to form the radial and ulnar collateral ligaments. The synovial membrane follows the attachments of the fibrous capsule, and the joint is innervated by the musculocutaneous, median, radial, and ulnar nerves.

      Movement occurs around a transverse axis, with flexion occurring when the forearm makes anteriorly a diminishing angle with the upper arm and extension when the opposite occurs. The axis of movement passes through the humeral epicondyles and is not at right angles with either the humerus or bones of the forearm. In full extension with the forearm supinated, the arm and forearm form an angle which is more than 180 degrees, the extent to which this angle is exceeded is termed the carrying angle. The carrying angle is masked when the forearm is pronated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      29
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  • Question 99 - A 78-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of fresh red blood in his...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of fresh red blood in his stool, tenesmus, and a change in bowel habit that has persisted for 7 weeks. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and takes amlodipine and amlodipine without any allergies. During a digital rectal examination, an irregular mass is detected in the anterior aspect of the rectum. The patient is immediately referred for a flexible sigmoidoscopy, which reveals an adenocarcinoma in the anal canal below the pectinate line.

      In this patient, what is the lymph node region where metastatic spread is most likely to occur initially?

      Your Answer: Superficial inguinal nodes

      Explanation:

      The lymphatic drainage of the anal canal below the pectinate line is provided by the superficial inguinal nodes. These nodes also drain the lower limbs, scrotum/vulva, and the rectum below the pectinate line. The ileocolic nodes primarily drain the ileum and proximal ascending colon, while the inferior mesenteric nodes drain the hindgut structures. The internal iliac nodes drain the inferior rectum, anal canal above the pectinate line, and pelvic viscera. The para-aortic nodes do not directly drain the portion of the rectum below the pectinate line, but they do drain the testes/ovaries.

      Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.

      The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.

      Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      73.3
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  • Question 100 - A man gives birth to a baby weighing 4750 g at birth.

    What is...

    Correct

    • A man gives birth to a baby weighing 4750 g at birth.

      What is the appropriate way to describe this birth weight?

      Your Answer: Macrosomia

      Explanation:

      Macrosomia: Causes and Risks

      Macrosomia is a condition where a baby is born weighing between 4000-4500 grams, regardless of gestational age. This condition is associated with several factors, including maternal diabetes mellitus, rapid maternal weight gain during pregnancy, and past obstetric history. Male fetuses and post-term babies are also at an increased risk of macrosomia.

      Macrosomia can have harmful consequences for both the baby and the mother. Babies with macrosomia are at an increased risk of stillbirth, traumatic injury during birth, and brachial plexus injury. Mothers with macrosomic babies are more likely to require a caesarean delivery and may experience shoulder dystocia, traumatic lacerations to the birth canal, and postpartum hemorrhage.

      It is important for healthcare providers to monitor fetal growth and identify macrosomia early on to prevent potential complications. Women who are at an increased risk of macrosomia should receive appropriate prenatal care and be closely monitored throughout their pregnancy. By the causes and risks associated with macrosomia, healthcare providers can provide better care for both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      58
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  • Question 101 - A 10-year-old boy has been referred to a pediatric neurologist due to a...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy has been referred to a pediatric neurologist due to a persistent headache for the past two months. Initially, his mother thought it was due to school stress, but the boy has also been experiencing accidents while riding his bike. He has reported an inability to see his friends when they ride next to him. The boy was born via C-section and has had normal development and is doing well in school. Upon examination, the doctor discovered a visual defect where the boy cannot perceive the two temporal visual fields. If this boy undergoes surgery for his condition, which part of his hypothalamus would be affected, causing weight gain after surgery?

      Your Answer: Anterior hypothalamus

      Correct Answer: Ventromedial area of the hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      The child displayed symptoms consistent with a craniopharyngioma, a common brain tumor in children that can be mistaken for a pituitary adenoma due to the presence of bitemporal hemianopia. Craniopharyngiomas originate from the Rathke’s pouch and often invade the pituitary and hypothalamus, particularly the ventromedial area.

      1: The ventromedial area of the hypothalamus, along with the paraventricular nucleus, is responsible for synthesizing antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin, which are then stored and released from the posterior hypothalamus.
      2: The posterior hypothalamus generates heat to maintain core body temperature.
      3: The anterior hypothalamus dissipates heat to cool down the body and prevent a rise in temperature that could harm the body’s internal environment.
      4: If the ventromedial area of the hypothalamus is removed during surgery to treat a craniopharyngioma, the patient may experience uninhibited hunger and significant weight gain, as this area controls the satiety center.
      5: The supraoptic nucleus, along with the aforementioned ventromedial area, is responsible for synthesizing antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin, which are stored and released from the posterior hypothalamus.

      Understanding Visual Field Defects

      Visual field defects can occur due to various reasons, including lesions in the optic tract, optic radiation, or occipital cortex. A left homonymous hemianopia indicates a visual field defect to the left, which is caused by a lesion in the right optic tract. On the other hand, homonymous quadrantanopias can be categorized into PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior) and can be caused by lesions in the inferior or superior optic radiations in the temporal or parietal lobes.

      When it comes to congruous and incongruous defects, the former refers to complete or symmetrical visual field loss, while the latter indicates incomplete or asymmetric visual field loss. Incongruous defects are caused by optic tract lesions, while congruous defects are caused by optic radiation or occipital cortex lesions. In cases where there is macula sparing, it is indicative of a lesion in the occipital cortex.

      Bitemporal hemianopia, on the other hand, is caused by a lesion in the optic chiasm. The type of defect can indicate the location of the compression, with an upper quadrant defect being more common in inferior chiasmal compression, such as a pituitary tumor, and a lower quadrant defect being more common in superior chiasmal compression, such as a craniopharyngioma.

      Understanding visual field defects is crucial in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. By identifying the type and location of the defect, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      91
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  • Question 102 - A 72-year-old male with urinary incontinence visits the urogynaecology clinic and is diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old male with urinary incontinence visits the urogynaecology clinic and is diagnosed with overactive bladder incontinence. He is prescribed a medication that works by blocking the parasympathetic pathway. What other drugs have a similar mechanism of action to the one he was prescribed?

      Your Answer: Atropine

      Explanation:

      Atropine is classified as an antimuscarinic drug that works by inhibiting the M1 to M5 muscarinic receptors. While oxybutynin is commonly prescribed for urinary incontinence due to its ability to block the M3 muscarinic receptors, atropine is more frequently used in anesthesia to reduce salivation before intubation.

      Alfuzosin, on the other hand, is an alpha blocker that is primarily used to treat benign prostate hyperplasia.

      Meropenem is an antibiotic that is reserved for infections caused by bacteria that are resistant to most beta-lactams. However, it is typically used as a last resort due to its potential adverse effects.

      Mirabegron is another medication used to treat urinary incontinence, but it works by activating the β3 adrenergic receptors.

      Understanding Atropine and Its Uses

      Atropine is a medication that works against the muscarinic acetylcholine receptor. It is commonly used to treat symptomatic bradycardia and organophosphate poisoning. In cases of bradycardia with adverse signs, IV atropine is the first-line treatment. However, it is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or pulseless electrical activity (PEA) during advanced life support.

      Atropine has several physiological effects, including tachycardia and mydriasis. However, it is important to note that it may trigger acute angle-closure glaucoma in susceptible patients. Therefore, it is crucial to use atropine with caution and under the guidance of a healthcare professional. Understanding the uses and effects of atropine can help individuals make informed decisions about their healthcare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      60.6
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  • Question 103 - A 75-year-old male presents with a non-healing ulcer on his left foot. Blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male presents with a non-healing ulcer on his left foot. Blood cultures grow MRSA. Which antibiotic would you consider in addition to vancomycin to cover this?

      Your Answer: Metronidazole

      Correct Answer: Rifampicin

      Explanation:

      Other antibiotics may not be effective against MRSA due to its resistance.

      Understanding MRSA and its Screening and Treatment

      Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is a type of bacteria that is resistant to many antibiotics. It is a dangerous organism that can cause hospital-acquired infections. To prevent the spread of MRSA, patients awaiting elective admissions and all emergency admissions are screened for the bacteria. The screening involves a nasal swab and examination of skin lesions or wounds. If a patient is identified as a carrier of MRSA, they can be treated with mupirocin for the nose and chlorhexidine gluconate for the skin. Antibiotics such as vancomycin, teicoplanin, and linezolid are commonly used to treat MRSA infections. However, newer antibiotics like linezolid, quinupristin/dalfopristin combinations, and tigecycline should be reserved for resistant cases. It is important to understand MRSA and its screening and treatment to prevent the spread of this dangerous organism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      11.2
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  • Question 104 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a suspected heroin overdose....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a suspected heroin overdose. Her Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 9, with only eye opening to trapezial squeeze and incoherent speech with inappropriate words. During her evaluation, the physician orders an arterial blood gas test.

      What are the expected arterial blood gas results in this situation?

      Your Answer: Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis

      Correct Answer: Uncompensated respiratory acidosis

      Explanation:

      Respiratory acidosis can occur as a result of opioid overdose due to the depression of the central nervous system, which leads to a reduction in respiratory rate. This causes an accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood, resulting in the formation of carbonic acid and a subsequent decrease in blood pH.

      It is unlikely that the respiratory acidosis in an acute opioid overdose would be compensated by the kidneys within the short time frame. Therefore, a normal arterial blood gas (ABG) result would be incorrect.

      Partially compensated respiratory acidosis is also unlikely in this case, as the patient’s respiratory acidosis is unlikely to have been compensated at this stage.

      However, partially compensated respiratory alkalosis may occur if the patient has an increased respiratory rate. This leads to a decrease in carbon dioxide levels in the blood, resulting in an alkalotic state. Over time, the bicarbonate levels in the blood will decrease to correct the pH.

      Understanding Opioids: Types, Receptors, and Clinical Uses

      Opioids are a class of chemical compounds that act upon opioid receptors located within the central nervous system (CNS). These receptors are G-protein coupled receptors that have numerous actions throughout the body. There are three clinically relevant groups of opioid receptors: mu (µ), kappa (κ), and delta (δ) receptors. Endogenous opioids, such as endorphins, dynorphins, and enkephalins, are produced by specific cells within the CNS and their actions depend on whether µ-receptors or δ-receptors and κ-receptors are their main target.

      Drugs targeted at opioid receptors are the largest group of analgesic drugs and form the second and third steps of the WHO pain ladder of managing analgesia. The choice of which opioid drug to use depends on the patient’s needs and the clinical scenario. The first step of the pain ladder involves non-opioids such as paracetamol and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. The second step involves weak opioids such as codeine and tramadol, while the third step involves strong opioids such as morphine, oxycodone, methadone, and fentanyl.

      The strength, routes of administration, common uses, and significant side effects of these opioid drugs vary. Weak opioids have moderate analgesic effects without exposing the patient to as many serious adverse effects associated with strong opioids. Strong opioids have powerful analgesic effects but are also more liable to cause opioid-related side effects such as sedation, respiratory depression, constipation, urinary retention, and addiction. The sedative effects of opioids are also useful in anesthesia with potent drugs used as part of induction of a general anesthetic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      42.1
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  • Question 105 - A 50-year-old patient has heard about the potential benefits of taking a statin....

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old patient has heard about the potential benefits of taking a statin. A research study involving 8901 healthy adults taking a statin and 8901 healthy adults not taking a statin showed that 142 individuals in the statin group experienced a cardiovascular event, while 251 individuals in the control group did. What is the absolute risk reduction?

      Your Answer: 1.2%

      Explanation:

      The incidence of a cardiovascular event among those who took statins was 0.0160 (142 out of 8,901), while the incidence among those who did not take statins was 0.02 (251 out of 8,901).

      Numbers needed to treat (NNT) is a measure that determines how many patients need to receive a particular intervention to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. To calculate NNT, you divide 1 by the absolute risk reduction (ARR) and round up to the nearest whole number. ARR can be calculated by finding the absolute difference between the control event rate (CER) and the experimental event rate (EER). There are two ways to calculate ARR, depending on whether the outcome of the study is desirable or undesirable. If the outcome is undesirable, then ARR equals CER minus EER. If the outcome is desirable, then ARR is equal to EER minus CER. It is important to note that ARR may also be referred to as absolute benefit increase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      176.2
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  • Question 106 - A medical research team is analyzing the expression levels of numerous genes concurrently...

    Correct

    • A medical research team is analyzing the expression levels of numerous genes concurrently to identify Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms (SNPs) in breast cancer.

      Which molecular method would be the most suitable?

      Your Answer: Microarray

      Explanation:

      Microarrays are utilized for the simultaneous profiling of gene expression levels of numerous genes to investigate different diseases and treatments. These arrays consist of grids of thousands of DNA sequences arranged on glass or silicon. The chip is then hybridized with DNA or RNA probes, and a scanner is used to detect the relative amounts of complementary binding.

      Overview of Molecular Biology Techniques

      Molecular biology techniques are essential tools used in the study of biological molecules such as DNA, RNA, and proteins. These techniques are used to detect and analyze these molecules in various biological samples. The most commonly used techniques include Southern blotting, Northern blotting, Western blotting, and enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).

      Southern blotting is a technique used to detect DNA, while Northern blotting is used to detect RNA. Western blotting, on the other hand, is used to detect proteins. This technique involves the use of gel electrophoresis to separate native proteins based on their 3-D structure. It is commonly used in the confirmatory HIV test.

      ELISA is a biochemical assay used to detect antigens and antibodies. This technique involves attaching a colour-changing enzyme to the antibody or antigen being detected. If the antigen or antibody is present in the sample, the sample changes colour, indicating a positive result. ELISA is commonly used in the initial HIV test.

      In summary, molecular biology techniques are essential tools used in the study of biological molecules. These techniques include Southern blotting, Northern blotting, Western blotting, and ELISA. Each technique is used to detect specific molecules in biological samples and is commonly used in various diagnostic tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      188.7
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  • Question 107 - A 70-year-old male smoker complains of calf pain.

    The GP performs a clinical...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male smoker complains of calf pain.

      The GP performs a clinical test by raising the patient's legs and observing for the angle at which there is blanching. After one minute, the legs are lowered over the side of the couch so that they are fully dependent with feet on the floor. Reactive hyperaemia is observed.

      Which clinical test does this describe?

      Your Answer: McMurray's test

      Correct Answer: Buerger's test

      Explanation:

      Tests for Assessing Arterial and Venous Circulation, Hip Dysfunction, and Meniscal Tear

      Buerger’s test is a method used to evaluate the arterial circulation of the lower limb. The test involves observing the angle at which blanching occurs, with a lower angle indicating a higher likelihood of arterial insufficiency. Additionally, the degree of reactive hyperaemia on dependency of the limb after one minute is another positive sign of arterial insufficiency during the test.

      Another test used to assess circulation is the Ankle-Brachial Pressure Index (ABPI), which involves using blood pressure cuffs to determine the degree of claudication. McMurray’s test, on the other hand, is used to evaluate for a meniscal tear within the knee joint.

      Perthe’s test is a method used to assess the patency of the deep femoral vein prior to varicose vein surgery. Lastly, Trendelenburg’s test is used to evaluate hip dysfunction. These tests are important in diagnosing and treating various conditions related to circulation and joint function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      55.3
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  • Question 108 - A 58-year-old male complains of intense pain in the center of his abdomen...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old male complains of intense pain in the center of his abdomen that extends to his back and is accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Upon examination, his abdomen is tender and guarded, and his pulse is 106 bpm while his blood pressure is 120/82 mmHg. What diagnostic test would be beneficial in this case?

      Your Answer: Liver function tests

      Correct Answer: Amylase

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests and Severity Assessment for Acute Pancreatitis

      Acute pancreatitis is a medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. One of the most useful diagnostic tests for this condition is the measurement of amylase levels in the blood. In patients with acute pancreatitis, amylase levels are typically elevated, often reaching three times the upper limit of normal. Other blood parameters, such as troponin T, are not specific to pancreatitis and may be used to diagnose other medical conditions.

      To assess the severity of acute pancreatitis, healthcare providers may use the Modified Glasgow Criteria, which is a mnemonic tool that helps to evaluate various clinical parameters. These parameters include PaO2, age, neutrophil count, calcium levels, renal function, enzymes such as LDH and AST, albumin levels, and blood sugar levels. Depending on the severity of these parameters, patients may be classified as having mild, moderate, or severe acute pancreatitis.

      In summary, the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis relies on the measurement of amylase levels in the blood, while the severity of the condition can be assessed using the Modified Glasgow Criteria. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in patients with acute pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      36.7
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  • Question 109 - A 40-year-old man visits his GP with his wife who is worried about...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man visits his GP with his wife who is worried about his behavior. Upon further inquiry, the wife reveals that her husband has been displaying erratic and impulsive behavior for the past 4 months. She also discloses that he inappropriately touched a family friend, which is out of character for him. When asked about his medical history, the patient mentions that he used to be an avid motorcyclist but had a severe accident 6 months ago, resulting in a month-long hospital stay. He denies experiencing flashbacks and reports generally good mood. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Frontal lobe injury

      Explanation:

      Disinhibition can be a result of frontal lobe lesions.

      Based on his recent accident, it is probable that the man has suffered from a frontal lobe injury. Such injuries can cause changes in behavior, including impulsiveness and a lack of inhibition.

      If the injury were to the occipital lobe, it would likely result in vision loss.

      The patient’s denial of flashbacks and positive mood make it unlikely that he has PTSD.

      Injuries to the parietal and temporal lobes can lead to communication difficulties and sensory perception problems.

      Brain lesions can be localized based on the neurological disorders or features that are present. The gross anatomy of the brain can provide clues to the location of the lesion. For example, lesions in the parietal lobe can result in sensory inattention, apraxias, astereognosis, inferior homonymous quadrantanopia, and Gerstmann’s syndrome. Lesions in the occipital lobe can cause homonymous hemianopia, cortical blindness, and visual agnosia. Temporal lobe lesions can result in Wernicke’s aphasia, superior homonymous quadrantanopia, auditory agnosia, and prosopagnosia. Lesions in the frontal lobes can cause expressive aphasia, disinhibition, perseveration, anosmia, and an inability to generate a list. Lesions in the cerebellum can result in gait and truncal ataxia, intention tremor, past pointing, dysdiadokinesis, and nystagmus.

      In addition to the gross anatomy, specific areas of the brain can also provide clues to the location of a lesion. For example, lesions in the medial thalamus and mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus can result in Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome. Lesions in the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia can cause hemiballism, while lesions in the striatum (caudate nucleus) can result in Huntington chorea. Parkinson’s disease is associated with lesions in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia, while lesions in the amygdala can cause Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is characterized by hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia, and visual agnosia. By identifying these specific conditions, doctors can better localize brain lesions and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      13.7
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  • Question 110 - A 29-year-old man has suffered an irreparable injury to his left testicle. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man has suffered an irreparable injury to his left testicle. The surgeon opts for an orchidectomy and severs the artery supplying the left testicle. What is the origin of this vessel?

      Your Answer: External iliac artery

      Correct Answer: Abdominal aorta

      Explanation:

      The abdominal aorta gives rise to the testicular artery.

      Anatomy of the Scrotum and Testes

      The scrotum is composed of skin and dartos fascia, with an arterial supply from the anterior and posterior scrotal arteries. It is also the site of lymphatic drainage to the inguinal lymph nodes. The testes are surrounded by the tunica vaginalis, a closed peritoneal sac, with the parietal layer adjacent to the internal spermatic fascia. The testicular arteries arise from the aorta, just below the renal arteries, and the pampiniform plexus drains into the testicular veins. The left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein, while the right testicular vein drains into the inferior vena cava. Lymphatic drainage occurs to the para-aortic nodes.

      The spermatic cord is formed by the vas deferens and is covered by the internal spermatic fascia, cremasteric fascia, and external spermatic fascia. The cord contains the vas deferens, testicular artery, artery of vas deferens, cremasteric artery, pampiniform plexus, sympathetic nerve fibers, genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve, and lymphatic vessels. The vas deferens transmits sperm and accessory gland secretions, while the testicular artery supplies the testis and epididymis. The cremasteric artery arises from the inferior epigastric artery, and the pampiniform plexus is a venous plexus that drains into the right or left testicular vein. The sympathetic nerve fibers lie on the arteries, while the parasympathetic fibers lie on the vas. The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve supplies the cremaster. Lymphatic vessels drain to lumbar and para-aortic nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      43.7
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  • Question 111 - Can you provide a definition for moderate intensity exercise? ...

    Incorrect

    • Can you provide a definition for moderate intensity exercise?

      Your Answer: Exercising at 40% of maximal individual capacity

      Correct Answer: Exercising at 60% of maximal individual capacity

      Explanation:

      Exercise Intensity Levels

      Exercise intensity can be determined by comparing it to your maximum capacity or your typical resting state of activity. It is important to note that what may be considered moderate or intense for one person may differ for another based on their fitness and strength levels. Mild intensity exercise involves working at less than 3 times the activity at rest and 20-50% of your maximum capacity. Moderate intensity exercise involves working at 3-5.9 times the activity at rest or 50-60% of your maximum capacity. Examples of moderate intensity exercises include cycling on flat ground, walking fast, hiking, volleyball, and basketball. Vigorous intensity exercise involves working at 6-7 times the activity at rest or 70-80% of your maximum capacity. Examples of vigorous intensity exercises include running, swimming fast, cycling fast or uphill, hockey, martial arts, and aerobics. exercise intensity levels can help you tailor your workouts to your individual needs and goals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      16.9
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  • Question 112 - A 56-year-old man is hospitalized due to heart failure and is given IV...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man is hospitalized due to heart failure and is given IV furosemide. What is the percentage of bioavailability for intravenous administration of furosemide?

      Your Answer: 50%

      Correct Answer: 100%

      Explanation:

      A drug administered through an intravenous route has

      Bioavailability refers to the amount of a drug that enters the bloodstream after it is ingested. This means that an intravenous (IV) drug has 100% bioavailability since it is directly administered into the bloodstream. The bioavailability of a drug can be affected by various factors such as the speed at which the stomach empties, the acidity of the stomach, the way the liver metabolizes the drug, the specific formulation of the drug, and how susceptible the drug is to hydrolysis. However, it is important to note that renal function does not have an impact on bioavailability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 113 - A 10-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy right ear...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy right ear that has been bothering him for the past five days. During the examination, he winces in pain when the outer ear is touched. Can you identify which part of the ear is considered the outer ear?

      Your Answer: Pinna

      Explanation:

      Earache: Types and Anatomy of the Ear

      Earache can be categorized into two types: otitis media and otitis externa. Otitis media refers to the inflammation of the middle ear, while otitis externa is the inflammation of the outer ear and/or canal. Pain on touch or gentle pulling of the outer ear is commonly associated with otitis externa.

      The outer ear is composed of the visible part of the ear, called the pinna, and the external auditory meatus near the tragus. The external auditory meatus extends from the pinna around 26 mm to the tympanic membrane. On the other hand, the middle ear reaches from the tympanic membrane to the oval window of the cochlea. This space contains three ossicles, namely the malleus, incus, and stapes, which transmit sound waves to the inner ear.

      The inner ear is made up of the cochlea, which is responsible for hearing, and the vestibular apparatus, which helps maintain balance. The vestibular apparatus consists of three semicircular canals and the vestibule.

      the anatomy of the ear and the different types of earache can help in identifying and treating ear problems. It is important to seek medical attention if experiencing ear pain or discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      19.9
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  • Question 114 - A 68-year-old woman is undergoing chemotherapy for ovarian cancer. A CT scan during...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman is undergoing chemotherapy for ovarian cancer. A CT scan during the cancer diagnosis and staging showed liver metastases and lymphadenopathy. Which lymph node group would the cancer have spread to initially?

      Your Answer: Sacral

      Correct Answer: Lumbar

      Explanation:

      The lumbar lymph nodes, also referred to as the para-aortic lymph nodes, receive drainage from the ovary.

      Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.

      The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.

      Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      18.8
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  • Question 115 - A 65-year-old man is undergoing assessment for polycythemia and has no history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man is undergoing assessment for polycythemia and has no history of smoking. What type of solid-organ cancer could be a possible cause?

      Your Answer: Pituitary tumour

      Correct Answer: Renal cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Renal cell carcinoma has the potential to secrete various hormones such as erythropoietin, PTHrP, renin, or ACTH. This can lead to secondary polycythemia, hypercalcemia, or other related conditions. On the other hand, small cell lung cancer can cause ectopic secretion of ACTH or ADH, but not erythropoietin. Pituitary tumors, on the other hand, may secrete prolactin.

      Renal cell cancer, also known as hypernephroma, is a primary renal neoplasm that accounts for 85% of cases. It originates from the proximal renal tubular epithelium and is commonly associated with smoking and conditions such as von Hippel-Lindau syndrome and tuberous sclerosis. The clear cell subtype is the most prevalent, comprising 75-85% of tumors.

      Renal cell cancer is more common in middle-aged men and may present with classical symptoms such as haematuria, loin pain, and an abdominal mass. Other features include endocrine effects, such as the secretion of erythropoietin, parathyroid hormone-related protein, renin, and ACTH. Metastases are present in 25% of cases at presentation, and paraneoplastic syndromes such as Stauffer syndrome may also occur.

      The T category criteria for renal cell cancer are based on tumor size and extent of invasion. Management options include partial or total nephrectomy, depending on the tumor size and extent of disease. Patients with a T1 tumor are typically offered a partial nephrectomy, while alpha-interferon and interleukin-2 may be used to reduce tumor size and treat metastases. Receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitors such as sorafenib and sunitinib have shown superior efficacy compared to interferon-alpha.

      In summary, renal cell cancer is a common primary renal neoplasm that is associated with various risk factors and may present with classical symptoms and endocrine effects. Management options depend on the extent of disease and may include surgery and targeted therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
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  • Question 116 - During an Ivor Lewis Oesophagectomy for carcinoma of the upper third of the...

    Incorrect

    • During an Ivor Lewis Oesophagectomy for carcinoma of the upper third of the oesophagus which structure is divided to allow mobilisation of the oesophagus?

      Your Answer: Right inferior lobar bronchus

      Correct Answer: Azygos vein

      Explanation:

      The azygos vein is divided during oesophagectomy to allow mobilisation. It inserts into the SVC on the right side.

      Treatment Options for Oesophageal Cancer

      Oesophageal cancer is typically treated through surgical resection, with neoadjuvant chemotherapy given prior to the procedure. In situ disease may be managed through endoscopic mucosal resection, while unresectable disease may benefit from local ablative procedures, palliative chemotherapy, or stent insertion. However, resections are not typically offered to patients with distant metastasis or N2 disease, and local nodal involvement is not a contraindication to resection.

      For lower and middle third oesophageal tumours, an Ivor-Lewis procedure is commonly performed. This involves a combined laparotomy and right thoracotomy, with the stomach mobilized through a rooftop incision and the oesophagus removed through a thoracotomy. The chest is then closed with underwater seal drainage and tube drains to the abdominal cavity. Postoperatively, patients will typically recover in the intensive care unit and may experience complications such as atelectasis, anastomotic leakage, and delayed gastric emptying.

      Overall, treatment options for oesophageal cancer depend on the extent of the disease and the patient’s individual circumstances. While surgical resection is the mainstay of treatment, other options such as chemotherapy and local ablative procedures may be considered for unresectable disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      388
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  • Question 117 - Which of the following is most likely to affect the external validity of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is most likely to affect the external validity of a study?

      Your Answer: Reactive effects of the research setting

      Explanation:

      Validity refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study. This means we are confident that the independent variable caused the observed change in the dependent variable, rather than other factors. There are several threats to internal validity, such as poor control of extraneous variables and loss of participants over time. External validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. Threats to external validity include the representativeness of the sample and the artificiality of the research setting. There are also other types of validity, such as face validity and content validity, which refer to the general impression and full content of a test, respectively. Criterion validity compares tests, while construct validity measures the extent to which a test measures the construct it aims to.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      121.4
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  • Question 118 - A previously healthy woman of 23 years-old presented with acute epigastric pain. On...

    Incorrect

    • A previously healthy woman of 23 years-old presented with acute epigastric pain. On investigations, a largely elevated lipase was discovered with a normal amylase level, and a diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis was made. This patient rarely drinks alcohol, and ultrasonography of the abdomen ruled out gallstones. The results of tests for autoimmune pancreatitis were negative. Twenty days later, imaging tests using magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) revealed the cause of the chronic pancreatitis.

      What was the most probable reason behind the chronic pancreatitis in this 23-year-old woman?

      Your Answer: Autoimmune pancreatitis

      Correct Answer: Pancreas divisum

      Explanation:

      Pancreas divisum is a condition where the dorsal and ventral buds of the pancreas fail to fuse in a portion of the population. This can lead to chronic pancreatitis due to insufficient drainage of pancreatic secretions through the minor papilla instead of the major papilla. Other causes of chronic pancreatitis include autoimmune pancreatitis and cystic fibrosis, but these have been ruled out in this case as the patient is a previously healthy individual with negative autoimmune antibodies. Acute pancreatitis can be caused by mumps or a Trinidadian scorpion bite.

      Understanding Chronic Pancreatitis

      Chronic pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation that can affect both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas. While alcohol excess is the leading cause of this condition, up to 20% of cases are unexplained. Other causes include genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and haemochromatosis, as well as ductal obstruction due to tumors, stones, and structural abnormalities.

      Symptoms of chronic pancreatitis include pain that worsens 15 to 30 minutes after a meal, steatorrhoea, and diabetes mellitus. Abdominal x-rays and CT scans are used to detect pancreatic calcification, which is present in around 30% of cases. Functional tests such as faecal elastase may also be used to assess exocrine function if imaging is inconclusive.

      Management of chronic pancreatitis involves pancreatic enzyme supplements, analgesia, and antioxidants. While there is limited evidence to support the use of antioxidants, one study suggests that they may be beneficial in early stages of the disease. Overall, understanding the causes and symptoms of chronic pancreatitis is crucial for effective management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      44
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  • Question 119 - A 13-year-old, recently-immigrated girl from Nigeria is referred to the hospital after presenting...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old, recently-immigrated girl from Nigeria is referred to the hospital after presenting to her GP with a growth of the jaw. A number of investigations are performed, including a test for the Epstein-Barr virus which comes back positive. A biopsy is taken, which demonstrates a 'starry sky' appearance.

      Based on the presented information and the probable diagnosis, which translocation is most likely involved?

      Your Answer: T(14:18)

      Correct Answer: T(8:14)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Burkitt’s Lymphoma

      Burkitt’s lymphoma is a type of high-grade B-cell neoplasm that can occur in two major forms. The endemic or African form typically affects the maxilla or mandible, while the sporadic form is commonly found in the abdomen, particularly in patients with HIV. The development of Burkitt’s lymphoma is strongly associated with the c-myc gene translocation, usually t(8:14), and the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is also implicated in its development.

      Microscopy findings of Burkitt’s lymphoma show a starry sky appearance, characterized by lymphocyte sheets interspersed with macrophages containing dead apoptotic tumor cells. Management of this condition involves chemotherapy, which can produce a rapid response but may also cause tumor lysis syndrome. To reduce the risk of this occurring, rasburicase, a recombinant version of urate oxidase, is often given before chemotherapy. Complications of tumor lysis syndrome include hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, hyperuricemia, and acute renal failure.

      In summary, Burkitt’s lymphoma is a serious condition that can occur in two major forms and is associated with c-myc gene translocation and the Epstein-Barr virus. Microscopy findings show a characteristic appearance, and management involves chemotherapy with the use of rasburicase to reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      39.2
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  • Question 120 - A 58-year-old male patient visits the gastroenterology clinic complaining of weight loss and...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old male patient visits the gastroenterology clinic complaining of weight loss and frequent loose, greasy stool for the past 6 months. He has a history of heavy alcohol use and has been admitted to the hospital multiple times for acute pancreatitis. Upon examination, the patient appears malnourished, and there is mild tenderness in the epigastric region. What hormone is likely to be significant in the investigation of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Gastrin

      Correct Answer: Secretin

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest pancreatic insufficiency, possibly due to chronic pancreatitis and alcohol misuse, as evidenced by weight loss and steatorrhea. To test pancreatic function, secretin stimulation test can be used as it increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from pancreas and hepatic duct cells. Gastrin, on the other hand, increases HCL production, while incretin stimulates insulin secretion after food intake. Although insulin and glucagon are pancreatic hormones, they are not primarily involved in the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from pancreas and hepatic duct cells, but rather in regulating glucose levels.

      Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones

      Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.

      One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.

      Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.

      Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      34.7
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  • Question 121 - A 54-year-old female presents to her GP with complaints of constipation, low mood,...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old female presents to her GP with complaints of constipation, low mood, and back pain.

      Her blood results are as follows:
      Hb 125 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
      Calcium 3.1 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Phosphate 0.6 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      Magnesium 0.8 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 4.5 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 9.0 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
      Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 80 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis for the patient’s condition is primary hyperparathyroidism, which is characterized by an excess release of parathyroid hormone (PTH) that stimulates osteoclast activity and causes an increase in blood calcium levels while decreasing phosphate levels. This is different from secondary hyperparathyroidism, which is caused by kidney damage that reduces vitamin D hydroxylation and results in lower/normal calcium levels and higher phosphate levels. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism presents with high levels of PTH, calcium, and phosphate. Hypothyroidism is not the cause as there are no abnormalities in TSH and free T4 levels. Although multiple myeloma also presents with high calcium levels, it is usually accompanied by anemia and renal failure, which are not present in this case as the patient’s hemoglobin and creatinine levels are normal.

      Hormones Controlling Calcium Metabolism

      Calcium metabolism is primarily controlled by two hormones, parathyroid hormone (PTH) and 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (calcitriol). Other hormones such as calcitonin, thyroxine, and growth hormone also play a role. PTH increases plasma calcium levels and decreases plasma phosphate levels. It also increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol. On the other hand, 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels, renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal phosphate reabsorption. It is important to note that osteoclastic activity is increased indirectly by PTH as osteoclasts do not have PTH receptors. Understanding the actions of these hormones is crucial in maintaining proper calcium metabolism in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      144.4
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  • Question 122 - Which statement about the standard error of the mean is accurate? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about the standard error of the mean is accurate?

      Your Answer: Gets smaller as the sample size increases

      Explanation:

      Understanding Confidence Interval and Standard Error of the Mean

      The confidence interval is a widely used concept in medical statistics, but it can be confusing to understand. In simple terms, it is a range of values that is likely to contain the true effect of an intervention. The likelihood of the true effect lying within the confidence interval is determined by the confidence level, which is the specified probability of including the true value of the variable. For instance, a 95% confidence interval means that the range of values should contain the true effect of intervention 95% of the time.

      To calculate the confidence interval, we use the standard error of the mean (SEM), which measures the spread expected for the mean of the observations. The SEM is calculated by dividing the standard deviation (SD) by the square root of the sample size (n). As the sample size increases, the SEM gets smaller, indicating a more accurate sample mean from the true population mean.

      A 95% confidence interval is calculated by subtracting and adding 1.96 times the SEM from the mean value. However, if the sample size is small (n < 100), a 'Student's T critical value' look-up table should be used instead of 1.96. Similarly, if a different confidence level is required, such as 90%, the value used in the formula should be adjusted accordingly. In summary, the confidence interval is a range of values that is likely to contain the true effect of an intervention, and its calculation involves using the standard error of the mean. Understanding these concepts is crucial in interpreting statistical results in medical research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      23.7
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  • Question 123 - A 55-year-old woman is currently experiencing menopausal symptoms and seeks advice from her...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman is currently experiencing menopausal symptoms and seeks advice from her GP regarding treatment options. She has been having irregular periods for a few months and is bothered by reduced libido, vaginal dryness, night sweats, and hot flushes. Initially, she expresses interest in an oestrogen-only HRT based on her friend's experience, but after reviewing her medical history, the GP recommends a combined HRT instead. What is the contraindication that led the GP to suggest this alternative treatment?

      Your Answer: Hypertension controlled with medication

      Correct Answer: Presence of a uterus

      Explanation:

      Women with a uterus taking HRT need a preparation with progestogen to reduce the risk of endometrial cancer. SSRIs can be used as a non-hormonal option for menopausal symptoms. Smoking and uncontrolled hypertension are contraindications to HRT use, but migraines with aura are not. COCP has different contraindications than HRT.

      Hormone Replacement Therapy: Uses and Varieties

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves administering a small amount of estrogen, combined with a progestogen (in women with a uterus), to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed significantly over the past decade due to the long-term risks that have become apparent, primarily as a result of the Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study.

      The most common indication for HRT is vasomotor symptoms such as flushing, insomnia, and headaches. Other indications, such as reversal of vaginal atrophy, should be treated with other agents as first-line therapies. HRT is also recommended for women who experience premature menopause, which should be continued until the age of 50 years. The most important reason for giving HRT to younger women is to prevent the development of osteoporosis. Additionally, HRT has been shown to reduce the incidence of colorectal cancer.

      HRT generally consists of an oestrogenic compound, which replaces the diminished levels that occur in the perimenopausal period. This is normally combined with a progestogen if a woman has a uterus to reduce the risk of endometrial cancer. The choice of hormone includes natural oestrogens such as estradiol, estrone, and conjugated oestrogen, which are generally used rather than synthetic oestrogens such as ethinylestradiol (which is used in the combined oral contraceptive pill). Synthetic progestogens such as medroxyprogesterone, norethisterone, levonorgestrel, and drospirenone are usually used. A levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (e.g. Mirena) may be used as the progestogen component of HRT, i.e. a woman could take an oral oestrogen and have endometrial protection using a Mirena coil. Tibolone, a synthetic compound with both oestrogenic, progestogenic, and androgenic activity, is another option.

      HRT can be taken orally or transdermally (via a patch or gel). Transdermal is preferred if the woman is at risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), as the rates of VTE do not appear to rise with transdermal preparations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 124 - A 35-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset headache rated at 10/10 in severity, which he describes as the worst headache he has ever had. During the examination, the doctor observes photophobia and a decreasing level of consciousness in the patient.

      What potential underlying risk factor could have contributed to this occurrence?

      Your Answer: Acute kidney injury

      Correct Answer: Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

      Explanation:

      Subarachnoid haemorrhage is a potential complication for individuals with Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, a group of connective tissue disorders characterized by joint hypermobility, hyper-extensive skin, and easy bruising. It should be noted that acute kidney injury is not a risk factor, but adult polycystic kidney disease may increase the likelihood of subarachnoid haemorrhage.

      Understanding Subarachnoid Haemorrhage

      Subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of intracranial haemorrhage where blood is present in the subarachnoid space, which is located deep to the subarachnoid layer of the meninges. Spontaneous SAH is caused by various factors such as intracranial aneurysm, arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, arterial dissection, mycotic aneurysms, and perimesencephalic. The most common symptom of SAH is a sudden-onset headache, which is severe and occipital. Other symptoms include nausea, vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and sudden death. SAH can be confirmed through a CT head scan or lumbar puncture. Treatment for SAH depends on the underlying cause, and most intracranial aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, vasospasm, hyponatraemia, seizures, hydrocephalus, and death. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and the amount of blood visible on CT head.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 125 - A 49-year-old male is seeking information about his prescribed secondary prophylaxis medications following...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old male is seeking information about his prescribed secondary prophylaxis medications following a recent myocardial infarction. He expresses concern about taking aspirin due to his history of acid reflux, despite being given gastric protection. As an alternative, he is prescribed celecoxib, another COX inhibitor. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer: Reversible COX-1 inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Reversible COX-2 inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Celecoxib inhibits COX-2 in a reversible manner, while aspirin inhibits both COX-1 and COX-2 irreversibly. Celecoxib is classified as a selective NSAID that works by reducing the production of prostaglandins.

      Understanding Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs) and COX-2 Selective NSAIDs

      Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are medications that work by inhibiting the activity of cyclooxygenase enzymes, which are responsible for producing key mediators involved in inflammation such as prostaglandins. By reducing the production of these mediators, NSAIDs can help alleviate pain and reduce inflammation. Examples of NSAIDs include ibuprofen, diclofenac, naproxen, and aspirin.

      However, NSAIDs can also have important and common side-effects, such as peptic ulceration and exacerbation of asthma. To address these concerns, COX-2 selective NSAIDs were developed. These medications were designed to reduce the incidence of side-effects seen with traditional NSAIDs, particularly peptic ulceration. Examples of COX-2 selective NSAIDs include celecoxib and etoricoxib.

      Despite their potential benefits, COX-2 selective NSAIDs are not widely used due to ongoing concerns about cardiovascular safety. This led to the withdrawal of rofecoxib (‘Vioxx’) in 2004. As with any medication, it is important to discuss the potential risks and benefits of NSAIDs and COX-2 selective NSAIDs with a healthcare provider before use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 126 - A 35-year-old female presents to a rheumatology clinic with uncontrolled rheumatoid arthritis despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female presents to a rheumatology clinic with uncontrolled rheumatoid arthritis despite treatment with methotrexate and NSAIDs. The rheumatologist orders a test to measure serum levels of IL-6.

      What type of cells are responsible for producing IL-6?

      Your Answer: Neutrophils

      Correct Answer: Macrophages

      Explanation:

      Macrophages are the primary source of IL-6 secretion. Elevated levels of IL-6 have been observed in patients with rheumatoid arthritis, and it can serve as an indicator of disease severity. In rheumatoid arthritis, the release of IL-6 by macrophages plays a role in the disease’s development. While B-cells do contribute to the disease process by producing specific antibodies, they do not release IL-6. Basophils do not secrete IL-6, and natural killer cells are involved in regulating apoptosis in tumour and virally infected cells but do not release IL-6.

      Overview of Cytokines and Their Functions

      Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in the immune system. Interleukins are a type of cytokine that are produced by various immune cells and have specific functions. IL-1, produced by macrophages, induces acute inflammation and fever. IL-2, produced by Th1 cells, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cell responses. IL-3, produced by activated T helper cells, stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. IL-4, produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, also produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the production of eosinophils. IL-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, stimulates the differentiation of B cells and induces fever. IL-8, produced by macrophages, promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. IL-10, produced by Th2 cells, inhibits Th1 cytokine production and is known as an anti-inflammatory cytokine. IL-12, produced by dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, activates NK cells and stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells.

      In addition to interleukins, there are other cytokines with specific functions. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, produced by macrophages, induces fever and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. Interferon-gamma, produced by Th1 cells, activates macrophages. Understanding the functions of cytokines is important in developing treatments for various immune-related diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      11.4
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  • Question 127 - During pronation and supination, which bones are involved in movement? ...

    Correct

    • During pronation and supination, which bones are involved in movement?

      Your Answer: Rotation of the radius on the ulna

      Explanation:

      The movement of the arm’s pronation and supination is caused by the rotation of the radius bone, while the ulna bone remains still. This movement involves two joints: the proximal and distal radio-ulnar joints. The humerus bone remains stationary during this process, while the radial head rotates on the humerus’s capitulum. It’s worth noting that the distal carpal bones don’t move in relation to the distal radius during pronation and supination.

      Anatomy of the Radius Bone

      The radius bone is one of the two long bones in the forearm that extends from the lateral side of the elbow to the thumb side of the wrist. It has two expanded ends, with the distal end being the larger one. The upper end of the radius bone has articular cartilage that covers the medial to lateral side and articulates with the radial notch of the ulna by the annular ligament. The biceps brachii muscle attaches to the tuberosity of the upper end.

      The shaft of the radius bone has several muscle attachments. The upper third of the body has the supinator, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor pollicis longus muscles. The middle third of the body has the pronator teres muscle, while the lower quarter of the body has the pronator quadratus muscle and the tendon of supinator longus.

      The lower end of the radius bone is quadrilateral in shape. The anterior surface is covered by the capsule of the wrist joint, while the medial surface has the head of the ulna. The lateral surface ends in the styloid process, and the posterior surface has three grooves that contain the tendons of extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis, extensor pollicis longus, and extensor indicis. Understanding the anatomy of the radius bone is crucial in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions that affect this bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      14
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  • Question 128 - A 36-year-old male visits the GP after being diagnosed with Conn's syndrome, which...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old male visits the GP after being diagnosed with Conn's syndrome, which causes excessive production of aldosterone. How will this affect the balance of sodium and potassium in his blood?

      Your Answer: Increased sodium, decreased potassium

      Explanation:

      Hypertension, hypernatraemia, and hypokalemia are common symptoms of primary hyperaldosteronism.

      The adrenal gland produces aldosterone, which is responsible for regulating potassium levels. Its primary function is to increase sodium absorption and decrease potassium secretion in the distal tubules and collecting duct of the nephron. As a result, sodium levels increase while potassium levels decrease.

      Primary hyperaldosteronism is a condition characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. It was previously believed that adrenal adenoma, also known as Conn’s syndrome, was the most common cause of this condition. However, recent studies have shown that bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia is responsible for up to 70% of cases. It is important to differentiate between the two causes as it determines the appropriate treatment. Adrenal carcinoma is an extremely rare cause of primary hyperaldosteronism.

      To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, the 2016 Endocrine Society recommends a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio as the first-line investigation. This test should show high aldosterone levels alongside low renin levels due to negative feedback from sodium retention caused by aldosterone. If the results are positive, a high-resolution CT abdomen and adrenal vein sampling are used to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. If the CT is normal, adrenal venous sampling (AVS) can be used to distinguish between unilateral adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia.

      The management of primary hyperaldosteronism depends on the underlying cause. Adrenal adenoma is treated with surgery, while bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia is managed with an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone. It is important to accurately diagnose and manage primary hyperaldosteronism to prevent complications such as cardiovascular disease and stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 129 - A 25-year-old man arrives at the emergency department after experiencing a 3-minute tonic-clonic...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man arrives at the emergency department after experiencing a 3-minute tonic-clonic seizure observed by his friend. He has had 2 similar episodes before. The neurology team evaluates him and starts him on carbamazepine.

      What is the mechanism of action of carbamazepine in suppressing seizure activity?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of voltage-gated calcium channels

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of voltage-gated sodium channels

      Explanation:

      The inhibition of Na channels and suppression of excitation are caused by sodium valproate and carbamazepine.

      Treatment Options for Epilepsy

      Epilepsy is a neurological disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. Treatment for epilepsy typically involves the use of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) to control seizures. The decision to start AEDs is usually made after a second seizure, but there are certain circumstances where treatment may be initiated after the first seizure. These include the presence of a neurological deficit, structural abnormalities on brain imaging, unequivocal epileptic activity on EEG, or if the patient or their family considers the risk of having another seizure to be unacceptable.

      It is important to note that there are specific drug treatments for different types of seizures. For generalized tonic-clonic seizures, males are typically prescribed sodium valproate, while females may be given lamotrigine or levetiracetam. For focal seizures, first-line treatment options include lamotrigine or levetiracetam, with carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, or zonisamide used as second-line options. Ethosuximide is the first-line treatment for absence seizures, with sodium valproate or lamotrigine/levetiracetam used as second-line options. For myoclonic seizures, males are usually given sodium valproate, while females may be prescribed levetiracetam. Finally, for tonic or atonic seizures, males are typically given sodium valproate, while females may be prescribed lamotrigine.

      It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for each individual with epilepsy. Additionally, it is important to be aware of potential risks associated with certain AEDs, such as the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy, which has been linked to neurodevelopmental delays in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 130 - A 30-year-old sexually active female complains of urgency and dysuria. Upon conducting a...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old sexually active female complains of urgency and dysuria. Upon conducting a urine dipstick test, leukocytes and nitrites are detected. Further examination through urine culture and gram staining reveals a gram-positive cluster-forming organism that is coagulase-negative.

      What is the probable microorganism responsible for the symptoms?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus saprophyticus

      Explanation:

      UTIs are frequently caused by Staphylococcus saprophyticus in sexually active young women, with Escherichia coli being the most common culprit. Staphylococcus saprophyticus is a cluster-forming gram-positive coccus that is coagulase-negative. In contrast, Staphylococcus aureus is a coagulase-positive gram-positive coccus that grows in clusters, while Proteus mirabilis is a urease-positive gram-negative bacillus.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 131 - An 80-year-old woman comes to the hospital complaining of chest pain, vomiting, and...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman comes to the hospital complaining of chest pain, vomiting, and sweating for the past two hours. She has a medical history of hypertension and peripheral arterial disease. Despite using sublingual nitrate spray at home, the pain has not subsided. Upon admission, she is found to be tachycardic and tachypneic, but no other respiratory or cardiac abnormalities are detected. An ECG reveals ST segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF, as well as ST segment depression in leads I and aVL. Which coronary artery is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The observed ECG alterations are indicative of an ischemic injury in the lower region of the heart. The ST depressions in leads I and aVL, which are located in the lateral wall, are common reciprocal changes that occur during an inferior myocardial infarction. Typically, the right coronary artery is the most probable site of damage in cases involving lesions in the lower wall.

      Understanding Acute Coronary Syndrome

      Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a term used to describe various acute presentations of ischaemic heart disease. It includes ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. ACS usually develops in patients with ischaemic heart disease, which is the gradual build-up of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries. This can lead to a gradual narrowing of the arteries, resulting in less blood and oxygen reaching the myocardium, causing angina. It can also lead to sudden plaque rupture, resulting in a complete occlusion of the artery and no blood or oxygen reaching the area of myocardium, causing a myocardial infarction.

      There are many factors that can increase the chance of a patient developing ischaemic heart disease, including unmodifiable risk factors such as increasing age, male gender, and family history, and modifiable risk factors such as smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia, and obesity.

      The classic and most common symptom of ACS is chest pain, which is typically central or left-sided and may radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms include dyspnoea, sweating, and nausea and vomiting. Patients presenting with ACS often have very few physical signs, and the two most important investigations when assessing a patient with chest pain are an electrocardiogram (ECG) and cardiac markers such as troponin.

      Once a diagnosis of ACS has been made, treatment involves preventing worsening of the presentation, revascularising the vessel if occluded, and treating pain. For patients who’ve had a STEMI, the priority of management is to reopen the blocked vessel. For patients who’ve had an NSTEMI, a risk stratification tool is used to decide upon further management. Patients who’ve had an ACS require lifelong drug therapy to help reduce the risk of a further event, which includes aspirin, a second antiplatelet if appropriate, a beta-blocker, an ACE inhibitor, and a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 132 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her parents after...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her parents after falling off the monkey bars at the playground. Shortly after, her left elbow became swollen and very painful. Her parents are worried because her father has a history of von Willebrand disease. The patient is evaluated for a bleeding disorder. The girl has no previous medical issues and is generally healthy.

      What is the most probable blood test result for this patient?

      Your Answer: Increased bleeding time, decreased PT

      Correct Answer: Increased APTT, normal bleeding time

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia A is the most likely diagnosis for the child based on the family history and presentation of haemarthrosis. Haemophilia is a genetic condition that affects clotting factors VIII or IX, which are part of the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade. APTT is a test that measures the intrinsic and common clotting cascades, but it does not include factor IX, so haemophilia B may not always show an abnormal APTT. PT measures the extrinsic and common pathways of the clotting cascade and is associated with factors I, II, V, VII, and X. Bleeding time measures platelet function, which is normal in haemophilia. Therefore, APTT may be raised, PT will be normal, and bleeding time will be normal in haemophilia.

      Haemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects blood coagulation and is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. It is possible for up to 30% of patients to have no family history of the condition. Haemophilia A is caused by a deficiency of factor VIII, while haemophilia B, also known as Christmas disease, is caused by a lack of factor IX.

      The symptoms of haemophilia include haemoarthroses, haematomas, and prolonged bleeding after surgery or trauma. Blood tests can reveal a prolonged APTT, while the bleeding time, thrombin time, and prothrombin time are normal. However, up to 10-15% of patients with haemophilia A may develop antibodies to factor VIII treatment.

      Overall, haemophilia is a serious condition that can cause significant bleeding and other complications. It is important for individuals with haemophilia to receive appropriate medical care and treatment to manage their symptoms and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 133 - A 65-year-old patient has presented to your neurology clinic for a routine follow-up...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient has presented to your neurology clinic for a routine follow-up a couple of months after being diagnosed with progressive muscular atrophy, a variant of motor neuron disease (MND) that results in a lower motor neuron lesion pattern.

      What signs would you anticipate observing during the examination?

      Your Answer: Hypotonia and hyporeflexia

      Explanation:

      Lower motor neuron lesions result in a reduction of muscle tone and reflexes, which is characterized by hypotonia and hyporeflexia. Additionally, atrophy, wasting, and fasciculations may be observed in the affected muscle groups. It is important to note that hypertonia and hyperreflexia are indicative of an upper motor neuron lesion, and a combination of hypertonia and hyporeflexia or hypotonia and hyperreflexia are not typical patterns of a lower motor neuron lesion. Therefore, normal muscle tone and reflexes would not be expected in a patient with a lower motor neuron lesion.

      The spinal cord is a central structure located within the vertebral column that provides it with structural support. It extends rostrally to the medulla oblongata of the brain and tapers caudally at the L1-2 level, where it is anchored to the first coccygeal vertebrae by the filum terminale. The cord is characterised by cervico-lumbar enlargements that correspond to the brachial and lumbar plexuses. It is incompletely divided into two symmetrical halves by a dorsal median sulcus and ventral median fissure, with grey matter surrounding a central canal that is continuous with the ventricular system of the CNS. Afferent fibres entering through the dorsal roots usually terminate near their point of entry but may travel for varying distances in Lissauer’s tract. The key point to remember is that the anatomy of the cord will dictate the clinical presentation in cases of injury, which can be caused by trauma, neoplasia, inflammatory diseases, vascular issues, or infection.

      One important condition to remember is Brown-Sequard syndrome, which is caused by hemisection of the cord and produces ipsilateral loss of proprioception and upper motor neuron signs, as well as contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Lesions below L1 tend to present with lower motor neuron signs. It is important to keep a clinical perspective in mind when revising CNS anatomy and to understand the ways in which the spinal cord can become injured, as this will help in diagnosing and treating patients with spinal cord injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 134 - A 57-year-old male presents to the urology clinic with painless haematuria and requires...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old male presents to the urology clinic with painless haematuria and requires an urgent assessment. He undergoes a flexible cystoscopy, during which the neck and trigone of the bladder are visualised. What structures make up the trigone of the bladder?

      Your Answer: Two ureteric orifices and the internal urethral orifice

      Explanation:

      The triangular area of the bladder is made up of muscles and is located above the urethra. It is formed by the openings of the two ureters and the internal urethral opening.

      Bladder Anatomy and Innervation

      The bladder is a three-sided pyramid-shaped organ located in the pelvic cavity. Its apex points towards the symphysis pubis, while the base lies anterior to the rectum or vagina. The bladder’s inferior aspect is retroperitoneal, while the superior aspect is covered by peritoneum. The trigone, the least mobile part of the bladder, contains the ureteric orifices and internal urethral orifice. The bladder’s blood supply comes from the superior and inferior vesical arteries, while venous drainage occurs through the vesicoprostatic or vesicouterine venous plexus. Lymphatic drainage occurs mainly to the external iliac and internal iliac nodes, with the obturator nodes also playing a role. The bladder is innervated by parasympathetic nerve fibers from the pelvic splanchnic nerves and sympathetic nerve fibers from L1 and L2 via the hypogastric nerve plexuses. The parasympathetic fibers cause detrusor muscle contraction, while the sympathetic fibers innervate the trigone muscle. The external urethral sphincter is under conscious control, and voiding occurs when the rate of neuronal firing to the detrusor muscle increases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
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  • Question 135 - A 25-year-old male patient visits his physician complaining of a rash that has...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male patient visits his physician complaining of a rash that has been present for two weeks. Upon examination, the doctor observes multiple oval-shaped lesions with a fine-scale on the outer aspects of the lesions. The rash has spread across the patient's trunk and back, resembling a fir tree. The patient reports feeling generally well. The doctor suspects pityriasis rosea and wonders which organism has been linked to its development.

      Your Answer: Herpes hominis virus 7 (HHV-7)

      Explanation:

      Herpes hominis virus 7 (HHV-7) is believed to be involved in the development of pityriasis rosea, while the other choices are not linked to this condition. Slapped cheek syndrome is associated with Parvovirus B-19, while Coxsackie B virus is an enterovirus that is associated with aseptic meningitis, Bornholm disease, pericarditis, and myocarditis.

      Understanding Pityriasis Rosea

      Pityriasis rosea is a rash that typically affects young adults and is characterized by an acute, self-limiting nature. While the exact cause is not fully understood, it is believed that herpes hominis virus 7 (HHV-7) may play a role. Most patients do not experience any warning signs, but some may report a recent viral infection. The rash begins with a herald patch on the trunk, followed by oval, scaly patches that follow a distinct pattern with the longitudinal diameters running parallel to the line of Langer, creating a fir-tree appearance.

      The condition is self-limiting and usually disappears within 6-12 weeks. There is no specific treatment for pityriasis rosea, but topical agents used for psoriasis may be helpful. UVB phototherapy may also be an option. It is important to differentiate pityriasis rosea from guttate psoriasis, which is characterized by tear-drop shaped, scaly papules on the trunk and limbs. Guttate psoriasis is often preceded by a streptococcal sore throat, while pityriasis rosea may be associated with recent respiratory tract infections. Both conditions typically resolve spontaneously within a few months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 136 - An injury to the spinal accessory nerve will impact which movements? ...

    Incorrect

    • An injury to the spinal accessory nerve will impact which movements?

      Your Answer: Protraction of the scapula

      Correct Answer: Upward rotation of the scapula

      Explanation:

      The spinal accessory nerve controls the trapezius muscle, which retracts the scapula and upwardly rotates it through the combined action of its upper and lower fibers.

      The shoulder joint is a shallow synovial ball and socket joint that is inherently unstable but capable of a wide range of movement. Stability is provided by the muscles of the rotator cuff. The glenoid labrum is a fibrocartilaginous rim attached to the free edge of the glenoid cavity. The fibrous capsule attaches to the scapula, humerus, and tendons of various muscles. Movements of the shoulder joint are controlled by different muscles. The joint is closely related to important anatomical structures such as the brachial plexus, axillary artery and vein, and various nerves and vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 137 - A 55-year-old man is scheduled for CABG surgery and your consultant has tasked...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is scheduled for CABG surgery and your consultant has tasked you, a foundation doctor on the surgical ward, with explaining the procedure to him. You are aware that the bypass will involve using the left internal thoracic artery to supply the affected coronary vessel. Can you identify the artery from which the left internal thoracic artery arises?

      Your Answer: Left thyrocervical trunk

      Correct Answer: Left subclavian artery

      Explanation:

      The left internal thoracic artery originates from the left subclavian artery near its source and runs down the chest wall beneath the ribs to supply blood to the front of the chest and breasts. During coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG), the proximal portion of the ITA is preserved while the distal end is grafted beyond the atherosclerotic segment of the affected coronary vessel to restore blood flow to the heart.

      The left axillary artery is a continuation of the left subclavian artery and is referred to as the axillary artery beyond the lateral border of the first rib. It becomes the brachial artery after passing the lower border of the teres major muscle.

      The left common carotid artery emerges from the aortic arch and divides into the internal and external carotid arteries at the fourth cervical vertebrae.

      The aortic arch is a continuation of the ascending aorta and branches off into the right brachiocephalic trunk, the left common carotid artery, and the left subclavian artery before continuing as the descending aorta.

      The thyrocervical trunk, which arises from the subclavian artery, is a brief vessel that gives rise to four branches: the inferior thyroid artery, suprascapular artery, ascending cervical artery, and transverse cervical artery.

      Coronary Artery Bypass Grafting (CABG)

      Coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) is a surgical procedure commonly used to treat coronary artery disease. The procedure involves using multiple grafts, with the internal mammary artery being increasingly used instead of the saphenous vein due to its lower likelihood of narrowing. The surgery requires the use of a heart-lung bypass machine and systemic anticoagulation. Suitability for the procedure is determined by cardiac catheterisation or angiography. The surgery is carried out under general anaesthesia, and patients typically stay in the hospital for 7-10 days, with a return to work within 3 months.

      Complications of CABG include atrial fibrillation (30-40% of cases, usually self-limiting) and stroke (2%). However, the prognosis for the procedure is generally positive, with 90% of operations being successful. Further revascularisation may be needed in 5-10% of cases after 5 years, but the mortality rate is low, at 1-2% at 30 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 138 - As a physician on the surgical ward, you are evaluating a patient who...

    Incorrect

    • As a physician on the surgical ward, you are evaluating a patient who has been experiencing dysphagia of both solids and liquids for the past 6 years. A barium swallow revealed a 'bird's beak' appearance, and the patient was diagnosed with achalasia. Despite previous medical treatments using oesophago-gastroduodenoscopy (OGD), the patient's condition has not improved, and it has been determined that surgical intervention is necessary.

      What is the preferred surgical treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Billroth's operation

      Correct Answer: Heller's cardiomyotomy

      Explanation:

      Surgical intervention should be considered for patients with achalasia who experience recurrent or persistent symptoms. The recommended procedure is Heller’s cardiomyotomy, which is particularly suitable for young patients who would require lifelong dilations or botulinum toxin injections, those who have not responded to multiple nonsurgical treatments, those who choose surgery as their initial treatment, and those who are at high risk of perforation with pneumatic dilation due to previous surgery in the oesophagogastric junction. It is important to note that Billroth’s operation is a different surgical procedure that involves removing the pylorus and anastomosing the proximal stomach directly to the duodenum, while Whipple’s procedure is typically performed for pancreatic cancer.

      Understanding Achalasia: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Achalasia is a medical condition characterized by the failure of oesophageal peristalsis and relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter (LOS) due to the degenerative loss of ganglia from Auerbach’s plexus. This results in a contracted LOS and a dilated oesophagus above it. It is a condition that typically presents in middle-aged individuals and is equally common in both men and women.

      The clinical features of achalasia include dysphagia of both liquids and solids, heartburn, regurgitation of food, and variation in the severity of symptoms. If left untreated, it may lead to cough, aspiration pneumonia, and even malignant changes in a small number of patients. To diagnose achalasia, oesophageal manometry is considered the most important diagnostic test. It shows excessive LOS tone that doesn’t relax on swallowing. A barium swallow may also be used to show a grossly expanded oesophagus, fluid level, and a ‘bird’s beak’ appearance. A chest x-ray may show a wide mediastinum and fluid level.

      The preferred first-line treatment for achalasia is pneumatic (balloon) dilation, which is less invasive and has a quicker recovery time than surgery. However, patients should be a low surgical risk as surgery may be required if complications occur. Surgical intervention with a Heller cardiomyotomy should be considered if recurrent or persistent symptoms occur. In some cases, intra-sphincteric injection of botulinum toxin is used in patients who are a high surgical risk. Drug therapy, such as nitrates and calcium channel blockers, may also have a role in treatment but is limited by side-effects. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment options for achalasia is crucial in managing this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 139 - At a routine appointment, a teenage girl is being educated by her GP...

    Correct

    • At a routine appointment, a teenage girl is being educated by her GP about the ovarian cycle. The GP informs her that the follicle generates hormones that prime the uterus for embryo implantation. What specific component of the follicle is responsible for this function?

      Your Answer: Granulosa cells

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Ovarian Follicle

      The ovarian follicle is a complex structure that plays a crucial role in female reproductive function. It consists of several components, including granulosa cells, the zona pellucida, the theca, the antrum, and the cumulus oophorus.

      Granulosa cells are responsible for producing oestradiol, which is essential for follicular development. Once the follicle becomes the corpus luteum, granulosa lutein cells produce progesterone, which is necessary for embryo implantation. The zona pellucida is a membrane that surrounds the oocyte and contains the protein ZP3, which is responsible for sperm binding.

      The theca produces androstenedione, which is converted into oestradiol by granulosa cells. The antrum is a fluid-filled portion of the follicle that marks the transition of a primary oocyte into a secondary oocyte. Finally, the cumulus oophorus is a cluster of cells surrounding the oocyte that must be penetrated by spermatozoa for fertilisation to occur.

      Understanding the anatomy of the ovarian follicle is essential for understanding female reproductive function and fertility. Each component plays a unique role in the development and maturation of the oocyte, as well as in the processes of fertilisation and implantation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      86
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  • Question 140 - A 10-year-old girl presents to her physician with complaints of polydipsia and fatigue...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl presents to her physician with complaints of polydipsia and fatigue for the past month. She had a mild upper respiratory tract infection a few weeks ago. Her medical history is significant for asthma. Upon urine dip testing, she is found to have ++++ glucose and ketones. The physician suspects diabetic ketoacidosis and initiates fluid resuscitation and insulin therapy.

      Which type of receptor does insulin bind to?

      Your Answer: Nuclear receptor

      Correct Answer: Tyrosine kinase receptor

      Explanation:

      The receptor tyrosine kinase in the cell membrane is bound by insulin.

      Membrane receptors are proteins located on the surface of cells that receive signals from outside the cell and transmit them inside. There are four main types of membrane receptors: ligand-gated ion channel receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, guanylate cyclase receptors, and G protein-coupled receptors. Ligand-gated ion channel receptors mediate fast responses and include nicotinic acetylcholine, GABA-A & GABA-C, and glutamate receptors. Tyrosine kinase receptors include receptor tyrosine kinase such as insulin, insulin-like growth factor (IGF), and epidermal growth factor (EGF), and non-receptor tyrosine kinase such as PIGG(L)ET, which stands for Prolactin, Immunomodulators (cytokines IL-2, Il-6, IFN), GH, G-CSF, Erythropoietin, and Thrombopoietin.

      Guanylate cyclase receptors contain intrinsic enzyme activity and include atrial natriuretic factor and brain natriuretic peptide. G protein-coupled receptors generally mediate slow transmission and affect metabolic processes. They are activated by a wide variety of extracellular signals such as peptide hormones, biogenic amines (e.g. adrenaline), lipophilic hormones, and light. These receptors have 7-helix membrane-spanning domains and consist of 3 main subunits: alpha, beta, and gamma. The alpha subunit is linked to GDP. Ligand binding causes conformational changes to the receptor, GDP is phosphorylated to GTP, and the alpha subunit is activated. G proteins are named according to the alpha subunit (Gs, Gi, Gq).

      The mechanism of G protein-coupled receptors varies depending on the type of G protein involved. Gs stimulates adenylate cyclase, which increases cAMP and activates protein kinase A. Gi inhibits adenylate cyclase, which decreases cAMP and inhibits protein kinase A. Gq activates phospholipase C, which splits PIP2 to IP3 and DAG and activates protein kinase C. Examples of G protein-coupled receptors include beta-1 receptors (epinephrine, norepinephrine, dobutamine), beta-2 receptors (epinephrine, salbuterol), H2 receptors (histamine), D1 receptors (dopamine), V2 receptors (vas

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 141 - A 45-year-old woman presents with chest wall cellulitis after a mastectomy. Upon examination,...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with chest wall cellulitis after a mastectomy. Upon examination, her skin appears significantly red. Among the following acute inflammatory mediators, which one is unlikely to cause vasodilation?

      Your Answer: Serotonin

      Explanation:

      Erythema is a common characteristic of acute inflammation, which is caused by various potent mediators that promote vascular dilatation. These mediators include histamine, prostaglandins, nitric oxide, platelet activating factor, complement C5a (and C3a), and lysosomal compounds. Although serotonin is also associated with acute inflammation, it acts as a vasoconstrictor. However, the effects of serotonin depend on the condition of the vessels in the tissues. When tissues and vessels are healthy, they respond to a serotonin infusion with vasodilation, resulting in flushing (as seen in carcinoid syndrome). Conversely, when released from damaged platelets, serotonin worsens cardiac ischemia in myocardial infarcts.

      Acute inflammation is a response to cell injury in vascularized tissue. It is triggered by chemical factors produced in response to a stimulus, such as fibrin, antibodies, bradykinin, and the complement system. The goal of acute inflammation is to neutralize the offending agent and initiate the repair process. The main characteristics of inflammation are fluid exudation, exudation of plasma proteins, and migration of white blood cells.

      The vascular changes that occur during acute inflammation include transient vasoconstriction, vasodilation, increased permeability of vessels, RBC concentration, and neutrophil margination. These changes are followed by leukocyte extravasation, margination, rolling, and adhesion of neutrophils, transmigration across the endothelium, and migration towards chemotactic stimulus.

      Leukocyte activation is induced by microbes, products of necrotic cells, antigen-antibody complexes, production of prostaglandins, degranulation and secretion of lysosomal enzymes, cytokine secretion, and modulation of leukocyte adhesion molecules. This leads to phagocytosis and termination of the acute inflammatory response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 142 - A 65-year-old man presents to the clinic with a complaint of losing 1...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the clinic with a complaint of losing 1 stone in weight over the past three months. Apart from this, he has no significant medical history. During the physical examination, his abdomen is soft, and no palpable masses are detected. A normal PR examination is also observed. The patient's blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 80 g/L (120-160) and an MCV of 70 fL (80-96). What is the most appropriate initial investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: CT scan of the abdomen and upper GI endoscopy

      Correct Answer: Upper GI endoscopy and colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      Possible GI Malignancy in a Man with Weight Loss and Microcytic Anaemia

      This man is experiencing weight loss and has an unexplained microcytic anaemia. The most probable cause of his blood loss is from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, as there is no other apparent explanation. This could be due to an occult GI malignancy, which is why the recommended initial investigations are upper and lower GI endoscopy. These tests will help to identify any potential sources of bleeding in the GI tract and determine if there is an underlying malignancy. It is important to diagnose and treat any potential malignancy as early as possible to improve the patient’s prognosis. Therefore, prompt investigation and management are crucial in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 143 - What structural characteristic is unique to glycogen? ...

    Correct

    • What structural characteristic is unique to glycogen?

      Your Answer: It is a highly branched polysaccharide around a protein core

      Explanation:

      Glycogen and Other Glucose Polymers

      Glycogen is a type of storage polymer made up of glucose units that are linked together through α1-4 glycosidic linkages. It is highly branched, with glucose molecules at the branch points bound together using α1-6 glycosidic linkages. The glycogen polysaccharide has a central protein core that contains an enzyme called glycogenin, which is involved in glycogen synthesis.

      Starch is another type of glucose polymer found in nature. Amylose is an unbranched polysaccharide chain made up of glucose units linked together through α1-4 glycosidic linkages. It is insoluble in water and generally indigestible in the human gut. Amylopectin is a plant-based starch molecule that is similar in structure to glycogen. It contains both α1-4 and α1-6 glycosidic linkages, giving it a highly branched and relatively soluble structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 144 - A 15-year-old teenage boy comes to see his General Practitioner with swelling in...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old teenage boy comes to see his General Practitioner with swelling in his left scrotum. He reports no pain or other symptoms. During examination in a supine position, the GP notes that the left testicle is smaller than the right and there are no abnormal masses on either side. The GP diagnoses the patient with a varicocele, which is caused by increased hydrostatic pressure in the venous plexus of the left scrotum. The question is, where does the left testicular (gonadal) vein drain into?

      Your Answer: Left renal vein

      Explanation:

      The left renal vein receives drainage from the left testicular vein, while the common iliac and internal iliac veins do not receive any blood from the testicles. The internal iliac veins collect blood from the pelvic internal organs and join the external iliac vein, which drains blood from the legs, to form the common iliac vein. On the other hand, the right testicular vein directly drains into the inferior vena cava since it is situated to the right of the midline. The great saphenous veins, which are located superficially, collect blood from the toes.

      Scrotal Problems: Epididymal Cysts, Hydrocele, and Varicocele

      Epididymal cysts are the most frequent cause of scrotal swellings seen in primary care. They are usually found posterior to the testicle and separate from the body of the testicle. Epididymal cysts may be associated with polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, or von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is usually confirmed by ultrasound, and management is typically supportive. However, surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.

      Hydrocele refers to the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They can be communicating or non-communicating. Communicating hydroceles are common in newborn males and usually resolve within the first few months of life. Non-communicating hydroceles are caused by excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis. Hydroceles may develop secondary to epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, and further investigation, such as ultrasound, is usually warranted to exclude any underlying cause such as a tumor.

      Varicocele is an abnormal enlargement of the testicular veins. They are usually asymptomatic but may be important as they are associated with infertility. Varicoceles are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is made through ultrasound with Doppler studies. Management is usually conservative, but occasionally surgery is required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      67.5
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  • Question 145 - After spending 8 weeks in a plaster cast on his left leg, John,...

    Incorrect

    • After spending 8 weeks in a plaster cast on his left leg, John, a 25-year-old male, visits the clinic to have it removed. During the examination, it is observed that his left foot is in a plantar flexed position, indicating foot drop. Which nerve is typically impacted, resulting in foot drop?

      Your Answer: Obturator nerve

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      Footdrop, which is impaired dorsiflexion of the ankle, can be caused by a lesion of the common peroneal nerve. This nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve and divides into the deep and superficial peroneal nerves after wrapping around the neck of the fibula. The deep peroneal nerve is responsible for innervating muscles that control dorsiflexion of the foot, such as the tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, and extensor digitorum longus. Damage to the common or deep peroneal nerve can result in weakness or paralysis of these muscles, leading to unopposed plantar flexion of the foot. The superficial peroneal nerve, on the other hand, innervates muscles that evert the foot. Other nerves that innervate muscles in the lower limb include the femoral nerve, which controls hip flexion and knee extension, the tibial nerve, which mainly controls plantar flexion and inversion of the foot, and the obturator nerve, which mainly controls thigh adduction.

      The common peroneal nerve originates from the dorsal divisions of the sacral plexus, specifically from L4, L5, S1, and S2. This nerve provides sensation to the skin and fascia of the anterolateral surface of the leg and dorsum of the foot, as well as innervating the muscles of the anterior and peroneal compartments of the leg, extensor digitorum brevis, and the knee, ankle, and foot joints. It is located laterally within the sciatic nerve and passes through the lateral and proximal part of the popliteal fossa, under the cover of biceps femoris and its tendon, to reach the posterior aspect of the fibular head. The common peroneal nerve divides into the deep and superficial peroneal nerves at the point where it winds around the lateral surface of the neck of the fibula in the body of peroneus longus, approximately 2 cm distal to the apex of the head of the fibula. It is palpable posterior to the head of the fibula. The nerve has several branches, including the nerve to the short head of biceps, articular branch (knee), lateral cutaneous nerve of the calf, and superficial and deep peroneal nerves at the neck of the fibula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 146 - A newlywed couple attend a foetal ultrasound scan to monitor the growth of...

    Correct

    • A newlywed couple attend a foetal ultrasound scan to monitor the growth of their unborn child. During the scan, which embryonic structure arises from the endodermal surface of the neck region between the pharyngeal arches?

      Your Answer: Pharyngeal pouches

      Explanation:

      Embryology of Branchial (Pharyngeal) Pouches

      During embryonic development, the branchial (pharyngeal) pouches give rise to various structures in the head and neck region. The first pharyngeal pouch forms the Eustachian tube, middle ear cavity, and mastoid antrum. The second pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the palatine tonsils. The third pharyngeal pouch divides into dorsal and ventral wings, with the dorsal wings forming the inferior parathyroid glands and the ventral wings forming the thymus. Finally, the fourth pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the superior parathyroid glands.

      Understanding the embryology of the branchial pouches is important in the diagnosis and treatment of certain congenital abnormalities and diseases affecting these structures. By knowing which structures arise from which pouches, healthcare professionals can better understand the underlying pathophysiology and develop appropriate management strategies. Additionally, knowledge of the embryology of these structures can aid in the development of new treatments and therapies for related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      607.9
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  • Question 147 - An 85-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a recent onset of...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a recent onset of confusion. Her daughter reports that she had a fall at home last month and hit her head but did not seek medical attention as she appeared to be fine. A CT scan of her head reveals a hyper-dense crescent-shaped area in the left hemisphere. What is the likely diagnosis, and between which meningeal layers is the blood collecting?

      Your Answer: Subarachnoid space

      Correct Answer: Arachnoid mater

      Explanation:

      The middle layer of the meninges is called the arachnoid mater. In an elderly patient with a history like the one described, a subacute subdural hematoma is likely the cause. This occurs when blood collects in the space between the dura mater and arachnoid mater. The arachnoid mater is a very thin layer that is attached to the inside of the dura mater and separated from the innermost layer (pia mater) by the subarachnoid space. Acromion and bone are incorrect answers as they are not related to the meninges, and pia mater is incorrect because it is the innermost layer of the meninges that is attached to the brain and spinal cord.

      The Three Layers of Meninges

      The meninges are a group of membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord, providing support to the central nervous system and the blood vessels that supply it. These membranes can be divided into three distinct layers: the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

      The outermost layer, the dura mater, is a thick fibrous double layer that is fused with the inner layer of the periosteum of the skull. It has four areas of infolding and is pierced by small areas of the underlying arachnoid to form structures called arachnoid granulations. The arachnoid mater forms a meshwork layer over the surface of the brain and spinal cord, containing both cerebrospinal fluid and vessels supplying the nervous system. The final layer, the pia mater, is a thin layer attached directly to the surface of the brain and spinal cord.

      The meninges play a crucial role in protecting the brain and spinal cord from injury and disease. However, they can also be the site of serious medical conditions such as subdural and subarachnoid haemorrhages. Understanding the structure and function of the meninges is essential for diagnosing and treating these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 148 - A patient in their 50s presents with acute onset of slurred speech and...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 50s presents with acute onset of slurred speech and weakness on the left side of their body. During examination, you observe weakness in their left arm and face. Despite the slurred speech, the patient is able to comprehend and respond to your questions. Which of the following sites is the most probable location of the lesion causing dysarthria?

      Your Answer: Broca's area

      Correct Answer: Corticobulbar tract

      Explanation:

      The corticobulbar tract is responsible for motor innervation to the cranial nerves, including the hypoglossal nerve that controls the tongue. A lesion in this tract can cause dysarthria, which is the inability to articulate speech. Other cranial nerve signs, such as facial paralysis and difficulty swallowing, may also occur.

      Wernicke’s area is involved in language comprehension and understanding, and lesions in this area can result in receptive dysphasia. Patients with receptive dysphasia may speak fluently but their sentences may not make sense.

      The primary sensory cortex, located in the parietal lobe, receives sensory innervation. Lesions in this area can cause loss of sensation, proprioception, fine touch, and vibration sense on the contralateral side.

      Broca’s area, found in the frontal lobe, is associated with expressive dysphasia. This type of dysphasia is characterized by difficulty producing language, resulting in labored and non-fluent speech.

      The occipital lobe, responsible for visual processing, can be affected by lesions that cause homonymous hemianopia, agnosias, and cortical blindness.

      Brain lesions can be localized based on the neurological disorders or features that are present. The gross anatomy of the brain can provide clues to the location of the lesion. For example, lesions in the parietal lobe can result in sensory inattention, apraxias, astereognosis, inferior homonymous quadrantanopia, and Gerstmann’s syndrome. Lesions in the occipital lobe can cause homonymous hemianopia, cortical blindness, and visual agnosia. Temporal lobe lesions can result in Wernicke’s aphasia, superior homonymous quadrantanopia, auditory agnosia, and prosopagnosia. Lesions in the frontal lobes can cause expressive aphasia, disinhibition, perseveration, anosmia, and an inability to generate a list. Lesions in the cerebellum can result in gait and truncal ataxia, intention tremor, past pointing, dysdiadokinesis, and nystagmus.

      In addition to the gross anatomy, specific areas of the brain can also provide clues to the location of a lesion. For example, lesions in the medial thalamus and mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus can result in Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome. Lesions in the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia can cause hemiballism, while lesions in the striatum (caudate nucleus) can result in Huntington chorea. Parkinson’s disease is associated with lesions in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia, while lesions in the amygdala can cause Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is characterized by hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia, and visual agnosia. By identifying these specific conditions, doctors can better localize brain lesions and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 149 - A 25-year-old woman visits the endocrinology department for weight management issues. She has...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman visits the endocrinology department for weight management issues. She has been struggling with her weight since she was a child and currently has a BMI of 46 kg/m². Despite eating large portions at meals, she never feels full and snacks between meals. Her parents and two older siblings are all at a healthy weight. Genetic testing reveals a de novo mutation in the satiety signalling pathway. Which hormone's decreased synthesis may be responsible for her condition?

      Your Answer: Leptin

      Explanation:

      Leptin is the hormone that lowers appetite, while ghrelin is the hormone that increases appetite. Leptin is produced by adipose tissue and plays a crucial role in regulating feelings of fullness and satiety. Mutations that affect leptin signaling can lead to severe childhood-onset obesity. On the other hand, ghrelin is known as the hunger hormone and stimulates appetite. However, decreased ghrelin synthesis does not cause obesity. Insulin is an anabolic hormone that promotes glucose uptake and lipogenesis, while obestatin’s role in satiety is still controversial.

      The Physiology of Obesity: Leptin and Ghrelin

      Leptin is a hormone produced by adipose tissue that plays a crucial role in regulating body weight. It acts on the hypothalamus, specifically on the satiety centers, to decrease appetite and induce feelings of fullness. In cases of obesity, where there is an excess of adipose tissue, leptin levels are high. Leptin also stimulates the release of melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) and corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH), which further contribute to the regulation of appetite. On the other hand, low levels of leptin stimulate the release of neuropeptide Y (NPY), which increases appetite.

      Ghrelin, on the other hand, is a hormone that stimulates hunger. It is mainly produced by the P/D1 cells lining the fundus of the stomach and epsilon cells of the pancreas. Ghrelin levels increase before meals, signaling the body to prepare for food intake, and decrease after meals, indicating that the body has received enough nutrients.

      In summary, the balance between leptin and ghrelin plays a crucial role in regulating appetite and body weight. In cases of obesity, there is an imbalance in this system, with high levels of leptin and potentially disrupted ghrelin signaling, leading to increased appetite and weight gain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      229.2
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  • Question 150 - What is an accurate depiction of the proliferative phase during the menstrual cycle?...

    Correct

    • What is an accurate depiction of the proliferative phase during the menstrual cycle?

      Your Answer: Oestrogen produced by the follicle results in the thickening of the endometrium and the formation of spiral arteries and glands

      Explanation:

      The proliferative phase is characterized by the thickening of the endometrium due to the presence of oestrogen secreted by the mature follicle.

      As oestrogen levels rise during this phase, the endometrium undergoes proliferation and thickening. Tubular glands extend and spiral arteries form, leading to increased vascularity. Additionally, oestrogen stimulates progesterone receptors on endometrial cells.

      Phases of the Menstrual Cycle

      The menstrual cycle is a complex process that can be divided into four phases: menstruation, follicular phase, ovulation, and luteal phase. During the follicular phase, a number of follicles develop in the ovaries, with one follicle becoming dominant around the mid-follicular phase. At the same time, the endometrium undergoes proliferation. This phase is characterized by a rise in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), which results in the development of follicles that secrete oestradiol. When the egg has matured, it secretes enough oestradiol to trigger the acute release of luteinizing hormone (LH), which leads to ovulation.

      During the luteal phase, the corpus luteum secretes progesterone, which causes the endometrium to change to a secretory lining. If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum will degenerate, and progesterone levels will fall. Oestradiol levels also rise again during the luteal phase. Cervical mucus thickens and forms a plug across the external os following menstruation. Just prior to ovulation, the mucus becomes clear, acellular, low viscosity, and stretchy. Under the influence of progesterone, it becomes thick, scant, and tacky. Basal body temperature falls prior to ovulation due to the influence of oestradiol and rises following ovulation in response to higher progesterone levels. Understanding the phases of the menstrual cycle is important for women’s health and fertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      37.7
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  • Question 151 - In what location can Leydig cells be found? ...

    Correct

    • In what location can Leydig cells be found?

      Your Answer: Between testicular seminiferous tubules

      Explanation:

      Cell Types and Functions in Male Reproductive System

      The male reproductive system is composed of various organs that work together to produce and transport sperm. Two main types of epithelial cells are present in the testes: Sertoli cells and Leydig cells. Leydig cells are located between the seminiferous tubules and produce androgens, including testosterone. On the other hand, Sertoli cells are arranged in tubular structures and have a basal and luminal compartment where spermatogonia divide and spermatids mature, respectively. Testosterone diffuses into Sertoli cells and is converted into a more active form called 5-hydroxytestosterone.

      The epididymis is lined by tall columnar epithelial cells with long microvilli. These cells phagocytose dead spermatozoa and produce substances that aid in sperm maturation. The prostate gland is an exocrine gland composed of acinar and ductal cells. Its secretory products are essential for the stability of spermatozoa. Lastly, the seminal vesicles have a convoluted lining of secretory epithelial cells that produce the majority of the volume of seminal fluid, including fructose, which serves as the energy source for spermatozoa. the functions of these cells and organs is crucial in comprehending the male reproductive system’s overall function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Histology
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 152 - After a recent renal transplant, Sarah is required to take mycophenolate mofetil alongside...

    Incorrect

    • After a recent renal transplant, Sarah is required to take mycophenolate mofetil alongside some other medications to prevent transplant rejection. Her doctor explains that mycophenolate mofetil is an immunosuppressant that may increase her risk of infection. For this reason, Sarah must seek advice from a doctor if she ever develops a fever or sore throat.

      What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX)

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of inosine-5'-monophosphate dehydrogenase (IMPDH)

      Explanation:

      Mycophenolate Mofetil: How it Works as an Immunosuppressant

      Mycophenolate mofetil is a medication that is often prescribed to prevent the rejection of organ transplants. It works by inhibiting the activity of inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase, an enzyme that is necessary for the synthesis of purines. Since T and B cells rely heavily on this pathway for their proliferation, mycophenolate mofetil can effectively reduce the activity of these immune cells.

      In simpler terms, mycophenolate mofetil works by blocking a key enzyme that immune cells need to grow and multiply. By doing so, it can help prevent the body from attacking and rejecting a transplanted organ. This medication is often used in combination with other immunosuppressants to achieve the best possible outcomes for transplant patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      23.7
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  • Question 153 - Which one of the following is not a typical feature of central chemoreceptors...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not a typical feature of central chemoreceptors in the regulation of respiration?

      Your Answer: They are relatively insensitive to hypoxia

      Correct Answer: They are stimulated primarily by venous hypercapnia

      Explanation:

      Arterial carbon dioxide stimulates them, but it takes longer to reach equilibrium compared to the carotid peripheral chemoreceptors. They are not as responsive to acidity because of the blood-brain barrier.

      The Control of Ventilation in the Human Body

      The control of ventilation in the human body is a complex process that involves various components working together to regulate the respiratory rate and depth of respiration. The respiratory centres, chemoreceptors, lung receptors, and muscles all play a role in this process. The automatic, involuntary control of respiration occurs from the medulla, which is responsible for controlling the respiratory rate and depth of respiration.

      The respiratory centres consist of the medullary respiratory centre, apneustic centre, and pneumotaxic centre. The medullary respiratory centre has two groups of neurons, the ventral group, which controls forced voluntary expiration, and the dorsal group, which controls inspiration. The apneustic centre, located in the lower pons, stimulates inspiration and activates and prolongs inhalation. The pneumotaxic centre, located in the upper pons, inhibits inspiration at a certain point and fine-tunes the respiratory rate.

      Ventilatory variables, such as the levels of pCO2, are the most important factors in ventilation control, while levels of O2 are less important. Peripheral chemoreceptors, located in the bifurcation of carotid arteries and arch of the aorta, respond to changes in reduced pO2, increased H+, and increased pCO2 in arterial blood. Central chemoreceptors, located in the medulla, respond to increased H+ in brain interstitial fluid to increase ventilation. It is important to note that the central receptors are not influenced by O2 levels.

      Lung receptors also play a role in the control of ventilation. Stretch receptors respond to lung stretching, causing a reduced respiratory rate, while irritant receptors respond to smoke, causing bronchospasm. J (juxtacapillary) receptors are also involved in the control of ventilation. Overall, the control of ventilation is a complex process that involves various components working together to regulate the respiratory rate and depth of respiration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      27
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  • Question 154 - In the Gell and Coombs classification of hypersensitivity reactions, what type of reaction...

    Incorrect

    • In the Gell and Coombs classification of hypersensitivity reactions, what type of reaction is idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura an example of?

      Your Answer: Type III reaction

      Correct Answer: Type II reaction

      Explanation:

      Type II hypersensitivity reaction, also known as immune thrombocytopenia (ITP), is a condition where the immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys platelets in the blood. This can lead to a decrease in the number of platelets, which are important for blood clotting, and can result in excessive bleeding or bruising.

      Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions

      Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is commonly seen in atopic conditions such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II hypersensitivity occurs when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface, leading to autoimmune conditions such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, and Goodpasture’s syndrome. Type III hypersensitivity occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes, leading to conditions such as serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated and includes conditions such as tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, and allergic contact dermatitis.

      In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is seen in conditions such as Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the classification of hypersensitivity reactions is important in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      23.4
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  • Question 155 - Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions, commonly known as delayed hypersensitivity reaction, is...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions, commonly known as delayed hypersensitivity reaction, is caused by Th1 T cells attracting and activating macrophages without the involvement of antibodies?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Correct Answer: A circular rash in the antecubital fossa after giving a blood sample

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest that they may be experiencing an allergic reaction to Elastoplast, known as contact dermatitis. This type of reaction falls under the category of delayed hypersensitivity reactions, specifically type 4 according to the Gell and Coombs classification.

      It is important to note that Goodpasture’s syndrome, which is a type 2 reaction, involves the binding of IgG or IgM to cells. On the other hand, post-streptococcus glomerulonephritis and rheumatoid arthritis are examples of type 3 reactions that are mediated by immune complexes.

      Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions

      Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is commonly seen in atopic conditions such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II hypersensitivity occurs when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface, leading to autoimmune conditions such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, and Goodpasture’s syndrome. Type III hypersensitivity occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes, leading to conditions such as serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated and includes conditions such as tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, and allergic contact dermatitis.

      In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is seen in conditions such as Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the classification of hypersensitivity reactions is important in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 156 - A woman is expecting a baby with Down's syndrome. At the routine 22-week...

    Correct

    • A woman is expecting a baby with Down's syndrome. At the routine 22-week scan, a congenital anomaly was detected. The doctor explained to her and her partner that the defect resolves spontaneously in approximately 50% of cases but can present with a pansystolic murmur after birth. What is the probable congenital defect being described?

      Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ventricular Septal Defect

      Ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a common congenital heart disease that affects many individuals. It is caused by a hole in the wall that separates the two lower chambers of the heart. In some cases, VSDs may close on their own, but in other cases, they require specialized management.

      There are various causes of VSDs, including chromosomal disorders such as Down’s syndrome, Edward’s syndrome, Patau syndrome, and cri-du-chat syndrome. Congenital infections and post-myocardial infarction can also lead to VSDs. The condition can be detected during routine scans in utero or may present post-natally with symptoms such as failure to thrive, heart failure, hepatomegaly, tachypnea, tachycardia, pallor, and a pansystolic murmur.

      Management of VSDs depends on the size and symptoms of the defect. Small VSDs that are asymptomatic may require monitoring, while moderate to large VSDs may result in heart failure and require nutritional support, medication for heart failure, and surgical closure of the defect.

      Complications of VSDs include aortic regurgitation, infective endocarditis, Eisenmenger’s complex, right heart failure, and pulmonary hypertension. Eisenmenger’s complex is a severe complication that results in cyanosis and clubbing and is an indication for a heart-lung transplant. Women with pulmonary hypertension are advised against pregnancy as it carries a high risk of mortality.

      In conclusion, VSD is a common congenital heart disease that requires specialized management. Early detection and appropriate treatment can prevent severe complications and improve outcomes for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 157 - What is the hormone that controls the levels of calcium in the blood?...

    Correct

    • What is the hormone that controls the levels of calcium in the blood?

      Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Parathyroid Hormone in Regulating Blood Calcium Levels

      Calcium plays a crucial role in various bodily functions, including bone support, blood clotting, muscle contraction, nervous transmission, and hormone production. However, excessively high or low levels of calcium in the blood and interstitial fluid can lead to serious health issues such as arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. This is where parathyroid hormone comes in.

      Parathyroid hormone is responsible for regulating blood calcium levels. It works directly on the bone, stimulating bone production or resorption depending on the concentration and duration of exposure. It also acts on the kidney, increasing the loss of phosphate in the urine, decreasing the loss of calcium in the urine, and promoting the activity of the enzyme 1-alpha hydroxylase, which activates vitamin D. Additionally, parathyroid hormone indirectly affects the gut through the action of activated vitamin D.

      Overall, the regulation of blood calcium levels is crucial for maintaining optimal bodily functions. Parathyroid hormone plays a vital role in this process by directly and indirectly affecting various organs and systems in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 158 - A 65-year-old patient visits a rheumatology clinic to discuss her rheumatoid arthritis treatment....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient visits a rheumatology clinic to discuss her rheumatoid arthritis treatment. She is currently taking paracetamol and NSAIDs for pain relief on a regular basis. The consultant suggests that she may benefit from ciclosporin to improve her symptom control.

      Before starting this medication, what are the important counselling points that the patient should be aware of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Risk of nephrotoxicity

      Explanation:

      Nephrotoxicity is a potential side effect of Ciclosporin.

      Ciclosporin is an immunosuppressant that works by blocking certain T cell immune responses and suppressing the release of IL-2. However, it is important to note that this drug can be harmful to the kidneys. In the first few weeks of treatment, patients may experience an increase in serum urea and creatinine levels, which are typically dose-dependent. These effects can be reversed by reducing the dosage.

      Patients should be informed about the possible adverse effects of Ciclosporin, including benign gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, tremors, headaches, paraesthesia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, muscle cramps, hypertension, electrolyte imbalances (such as hyperkalemia, hypomagnesemia, and hyperuricemia), and the risk of nephrotoxicity.

      Understanding Ciclosporin: An Immunosuppressant Drug

      Ciclosporin is a medication that is used as an immunosuppressant. It works by reducing the clonal proliferation of T cells by decreasing the release of IL-2. The drug binds to cyclophilin, forming a complex that inhibits calcineurin, a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors in T cells.

      Despite its effectiveness, Ciclosporin has several adverse effects. It can cause nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, fluid retention, hypertension, hyperkalaemia, hypertrichosis, gingival hyperplasia, tremors, impaired glucose tolerance, hyperlipidaemia, and increased susceptibility to severe infection. However, it is interesting to note that Ciclosporin is virtually non-myelotoxic, which means it does not affect the bone marrow.

      Ciclosporin is used to treat various conditions such as following organ transplantation, rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, ulcerative colitis, and pure red cell aplasia. It has a direct effect on keratinocytes and modulates T cell function, making it an effective treatment for psoriasis.

      In conclusion, Ciclosporin is a potent immunosuppressant drug that can effectively treat various conditions. However, it is essential to monitor patients for adverse effects and adjust the dosage accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 159 - A 79-year-old man comes to your clinic with a protruding lump in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man comes to your clinic with a protruding lump in his upper arm that he noticed while gardening last week. He experienced a dull ache in the front of his shoulder at the time, but he is now pain-free and has full use of his arm. During the examination, you observe an asymmetry in the patient's arms, with a circular mass on the lower portion of his left arm. When you ask him to flex his biceps muscles, you notice that the affected arm displays the 'popeye sign.' Based on the patient's history and physical examination, it appears that he has a rupture of the long head of biceps brachii tendon. What is the origin of the long head of biceps brachii tendon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supraglenoid tubercle of the scapula

      Explanation:

      The long head of biceps tendon runs from the supraglenoid tubercle of the scapula. A ruptured tendon of the long head of biceps brachii is more common in older individuals and may present with the ‘Popeye’ sign. Management is dependent on the patient, with surgical repair for younger patients or those with co-existing rotator cuff tears, and a conservative approach for most patients.

      The shoulder joint is a shallow synovial ball and socket joint that is inherently unstable but capable of a wide range of movement. Stability is provided by the muscles of the rotator cuff. The glenoid labrum is a fibrocartilaginous rim attached to the free edge of the glenoid cavity. The fibrous capsule attaches to the scapula, humerus, and tendons of various muscles. Movements of the shoulder joint are controlled by different muscles. The joint is closely related to important anatomical structures such as the brachial plexus, axillary artery and vein, and various nerves and vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      0
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  • Question 160 - A 3-week-old male is brought to the paediatrician with concerns of inadequate feeding...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-week-old male is brought to the paediatrician with concerns of inadequate feeding and weight gain. During cardiac examination, a continuous 'machine-like' murmur is detected. An echocardiogram confirms the presence of a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA).

      What is the name of the structure that would remain if the PDA had closed at birth?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ligamentum arteriosum

      Explanation:

      The ligamentum arteriosum is what remains of the ductus arteriosus after it typically closes at birth. If the ductus arteriosus remains open, known as a patent ductus arteriosus, it can cause infants to fail to thrive. The ventricles of the heart come from the bulbus cordis and primitive ventricle. The coronary sinus is formed by a group of cardiac veins merging together. The ligamentum venosum is the leftover of the ductus venosum. The fossa ovalis is created when the foramen ovale closes.

      During cardiovascular embryology, the heart undergoes significant development and differentiation. At around 14 days gestation, the heart consists of primitive structures such as the truncus arteriosus, bulbus cordis, primitive atria, and primitive ventricle. These structures give rise to various parts of the heart, including the ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk, right ventricle, left and right atria, and majority of the left ventricle. The division of the truncus arteriosus is triggered by neural crest cell migration from the pharyngeal arches, and any issues with this migration can lead to congenital heart defects such as transposition of the great arteries or tetralogy of Fallot. Other structures derived from the primitive heart include the coronary sinus, superior vena cava, fossa ovalis, and various ligaments such as the ligamentum arteriosum and ligamentum venosum. The allantois gives rise to the urachus, while the umbilical artery becomes the medial umbilical ligaments and the umbilical vein becomes the ligamentum teres hepatis inside the falciform ligament. Overall, cardiovascular embryology is a complex process that involves the differentiation and development of various structures that ultimately form the mature heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 161 - A 50-year-old UK born patient with end-stage kidney failure arrives at the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old UK born patient with end-stage kidney failure arrives at the emergency department complaining of sharp chest pain that subsides when sitting forward. The patient has not undergone dialysis yet. Upon conducting an ECG, it is observed that there is a widespread 'saddle-shaped' ST elevation and PR depression, leading to a diagnosis of pericarditis. What could be the probable cause of this pericarditis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Uraemia

      Explanation:

      There is no indication of trauma in patients with advanced renal failure prior to dialysis initiation.

      ECG results do not indicate a recent heart attack.

      The patient’s age decreases the likelihood of malignancy.

      Acute Pericarditis: Causes, Features, Investigations, and Management

      Acute pericarditis is a possible diagnosis for patients presenting with chest pain. The condition is characterized by chest pain, which may be pleuritic and relieved by sitting forwards. Other symptoms include non-productive cough, dyspnoea, and flu-like symptoms. Tachypnoea and tachycardia may also be present, along with a pericardial rub.

      The causes of acute pericarditis include viral infections, tuberculosis, uraemia, trauma, post-myocardial infarction, Dressler’s syndrome, connective tissue disease, hypothyroidism, and malignancy.

      Investigations for acute pericarditis include ECG changes, which are often global/widespread, as opposed to the ‘territories’ seen in ischaemic events. The ECG may show ‘saddle-shaped’ ST elevation and PR depression, which is the most specific ECG marker for pericarditis. All patients with suspected acute pericarditis should have transthoracic echocardiography.

      Management of acute pericarditis involves treating the underlying cause. A combination of NSAIDs and colchicine is now generally used as first-line treatment for patients with acute idiopathic or viral pericarditis.

      In summary, acute pericarditis is a possible diagnosis for patients presenting with chest pain. The condition is characterized by chest pain, which may be pleuritic and relieved by sitting forwards, along with other symptoms. The causes of acute pericarditis are varied, and investigations include ECG changes and transthoracic echocardiography. Management involves treating the underlying cause and using a combination of NSAIDs and colchicine as first-line treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 162 - Which one of the following statements are not typically true in hypokalaemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements are not typically true in hypokalaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It often accompanies acidosis

      Explanation:

      Potassium depletion can occur through the gastrointestinal tract or the kidneys. Chronic vomiting is less likely to cause potassium loss than diarrhea because gastric secretions contain less potassium than lower GI secretions. However, if vomiting leads to metabolic alkalosis, renal potassium wasting may occur as the body excretes potassium instead of hydrogen ions. Conversely, potassium depletion can result in acidic urine.

      Hypokalemia is often associated with metabolic alkalosis due to two factors. Firstly, common causes of metabolic alkalosis, such as vomiting and diuretics, directly cause loss of H+ and K+ (via aldosterone), leading to hypokalemia. Secondly, hypokalemia can cause metabolic alkalosis through three mechanisms. Firstly, it causes a transcellular shift where K+ leaves and H+ enters cells, raising extracellular pH. Secondly, it causes an intracellular acidosis in the proximal tubules, promoting ammonium production and excretion. Thirdly, in the presence of hypokalemia, hydrogen secretion in the proximal and distal tubules increases, leading to further reabsorption of HCO3-. Overall, this results in an increase in net acid excretion.

      Understanding Hypokalaemia and its Causes

      Hypokalaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. Potassium and hydrogen ions are competitors, and as potassium levels decrease, more hydrogen ions enter the cells. Hypokalaemia can occur with either alkalosis or acidosis. In cases of alkalosis, hypokalaemia may be caused by vomiting, thiazide and loop diuretics, Cushing’s syndrome, or Conn’s syndrome. On the other hand, hypokalaemia with acidosis may be caused by diarrhoea, renal tubular acidosis, acetazolamide, or partially treated diabetic ketoacidosis.

      It is important to note that magnesium deficiency may also cause hypokalaemia. In such cases, normalizing potassium levels may be difficult until the magnesium deficiency has been corrected. Understanding the causes of hypokalaemia can help in its diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
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  • Question 163 - Regarding the correlation coefficient, which of the following is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the correlation coefficient, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It can assume any value between -1 and 1

      Explanation:

      Understanding Correlation and Linear Regression

      Correlation and linear regression are two statistical methods used to analyze the relationship between variables. While they are related, they are not interchangeable. Correlation is used to determine if there is a relationship between two variables, while regression is used to predict the value of one variable based on the value of another variable.

      The degree of correlation is measured by the correlation coefficient, which can range from -1 to +1. A coefficient of 1 indicates a strong positive correlation, while a coefficient of -1 indicates a strong negative correlation. A coefficient of 0 indicates no correlation between the variables. However, correlation coefficients do not provide information on how much the variable will change or the cause and effect relationship between the variables.

      Linear regression, on the other hand, can be used to predict how much one variable will change when another variable is changed. A regression equation can be formed to calculate the value of the dependent variable based on the value of the independent variable. The equation takes the form of y = a + bx, where y is the dependent variable, a is the intercept value, b is the slope of the line or regression coefficient, and x is the independent variable.

      In summary, correlation and linear regression are both useful tools for analyzing the relationship between variables. Correlation determines if there is a relationship, while regression predicts the value of one variable based on the value of another variable. Understanding these concepts can help in making informed decisions and drawing accurate conclusions from data analysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 164 - A 35-year-old missionary presents to the clinic with a history of fever, chills,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old missionary presents to the clinic with a history of fever, chills, and headache after working in clinics for 3 months in Nigeria and the Democratic Republic of Congo. Previous records indicate that 70% of patients who attend the clinic with these symptoms and a travel history to Sub-Saharan Africa have malaria.

      The malaria rapid test available has a sensitivity of 92% and specificity of 98%.

      What is the method to calculate the likelihood ratio for a positive malaria rapid test result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sensitivity / (1 - specificity)

      Explanation:

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 165 - A 30-year-old male visits the ophthalmology outpatient department with symptoms of redness, photophobia,...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male visits the ophthalmology outpatient department with symptoms of redness, photophobia, and lacrimation. His pupils constrict in response to light.

      What is the neurotransmitter responsible for this pupillary response?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acetylcholine

      Explanation:

      The primary neurotransmitter used by the parasympathetic nervous system is acetylcholine (ACh). This pathway is responsible for activities such as lacrimation and pupil constriction, which are also mediated by ACh.

      On the other hand, the sympathetic pathway uses epinephrine as its neurotransmitter, which is involved in pupil dilation. Norepinephrine is also a neurotransmitter of the sympathetic pathway.

      In the brain, gamma-aminobutyric acid acts as an inhibitory neurotransmitter.

      Understanding the Autonomic Nervous System

      The autonomic nervous system is responsible for regulating involuntary functions in the body, such as heart rate, digestion, and sexual arousal. It is composed of two main components, the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems, as well as a sensory division. The sympathetic division arises from the T1-L2/3 region of the spinal cord and synapses onto postganglionic neurons at paravertebral or prevertebral ganglia. The parasympathetic division arises from cranial nerves and the sacral spinal cord and synapses with postganglionic neurons at parasympathetic ganglia. The sensory division includes baroreceptors and chemoreceptors that monitor blood levels of oxygen, carbon dioxide, and glucose, as well as arterial pressure and the contents of the stomach and intestines.

      The autonomic nervous system releases neurotransmitters such as noradrenaline and acetylcholine to achieve necessary functions and regulate homeostasis. The sympathetic nervous system causes fight or flight responses, while the parasympathetic nervous system causes rest and digest responses. Autonomic dysfunction refers to the abnormal functioning of any part of the autonomic nervous system, which can present in many forms and affect any of the autonomic systems. To assess a patient for autonomic dysfunction, a detailed history should be taken, and the patient should undergo a full neurological examination and further testing if necessary. Understanding the autonomic nervous system is crucial in diagnosing and treating autonomic dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 166 - A 67-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a fall and...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a fall and head injury he sustained while walking home. He has a history of multiple similar admissions related to alcohol excess. During his hospital stay, his blood sugar levels remain consistently high and he appears disheveled. There is no significant past medical history.

      What could be the probable reason for the patient's elevated blood glucose levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Destruction of islets of Langerhans cells

      Explanation:

      Chronic pancreatitis can cause diabetes as it destroys the islet of Langerhans cells in the pancreas. This patient has a history of recurrent admissions due to alcohol-related falls, indicating excessive alcohol intake, which is the most common risk factor for chronic pancreatitis. A high sugar diet alone should not consistently elevated blood sugar levels if normal insulin control mechanisms are functioning properly. Gastrointestinal bleeding and the stress response to injury would not immediately raise blood sugar levels. In this case, the patient’s alcohol intake suggests chronic pancreatitis as the cause of elevated blood sugar levels rather than type 2 diabetes mellitus.

      Understanding Chronic Pancreatitis

      Chronic pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation that can affect both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas. While alcohol excess is the leading cause of this condition, up to 20% of cases are unexplained. Other causes include genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and haemochromatosis, as well as ductal obstruction due to tumors, stones, and structural abnormalities.

      Symptoms of chronic pancreatitis include pain that worsens 15 to 30 minutes after a meal, steatorrhoea, and diabetes mellitus. Abdominal x-rays and CT scans are used to detect pancreatic calcification, which is present in around 30% of cases. Functional tests such as faecal elastase may also be used to assess exocrine function if imaging is inconclusive.

      Management of chronic pancreatitis involves pancreatic enzyme supplements, analgesia, and antioxidants. While there is limited evidence to support the use of antioxidants, one study suggests that they may be beneficial in early stages of the disease. Overall, understanding the causes and symptoms of chronic pancreatitis is crucial for effective management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 167 - A 35-year-old patient with consistent PR bleeding is diagnosed with Crohn's disease. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient with consistent PR bleeding is diagnosed with Crohn's disease. What is the primary medication used to induce remission of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      To induce remission of Crohn’s disease, glucocorticoids (whether oral, topical or intravenous) are typically the first line of treatment. 5-ASA drugs are considered a second option for inducing remission of IBD. Azathioprine is more commonly used for maintaining remission. Steroids are specifically used to induce remission of Crohn’s disease. Infliximab is particularly effective for treating refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s.

      Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines for managing this condition. Patients are advised to quit smoking, as it can worsen Crohn’s disease. While some studies suggest that NSAIDs and the combined oral contraceptive pill may increase the risk of relapse, the evidence is not conclusive.

      To induce remission, glucocorticoids are typically used, but budesonide may be an alternative for some patients. Enteral feeding with an elemental diet may also be used, especially in young children or when there are concerns about steroid side effects. Second-line options include 5-ASA drugs, such as mesalazine, and add-on medications like azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Infliximab is useful for refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s, and metronidazole is often used for isolated peri-anal disease.

      Maintaining remission involves stopping smoking and using azathioprine or mercaptopurine as first-line options. Methotrexate is a second-line option. Surgery is eventually required for around 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease, depending on the location and severity of the disease. Complications of Crohn’s disease include small bowel cancer, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis. Before offering azathioprine or mercaptopurine, it is important to assess thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 168 - A 65-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of shortness of breath and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of shortness of breath and swelling in his lower limbs. To aid in diagnosis, the doctor orders a B-type natriuretic peptide test. What triggers the production of B-type natriuretic peptide in heart failure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased ventricular filling pressure

      Explanation:

      When the ventricles are under strain, they release B-type natriuretic peptide. Normally, increased ventricular filling pressures would result in a larger diastolic volume and cardiac output through the Frank-Starling mechanism. However, in heart failure, this mechanism is overwhelmed and the ventricles are stretched too much for a strong contraction.

      To treat heart failure, ACE inhibitors are used to decrease the amount of BNP produced. A decrease in stroke volume is a sign of heart failure. The body compensates for heart failure by increasing activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.

      B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a hormone that is primarily produced by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Although heart failure is the most common cause of elevated BNP levels, any condition that causes left ventricular dysfunction, such as myocardial ischemia or valvular disease, may also raise levels. In patients with chronic kidney disease, reduced excretion may also lead to elevated BNP levels. Conversely, treatment with ACE inhibitors, angiotensin-2 receptor blockers, and diuretics can lower BNP levels.

      BNP has several effects, including vasodilation, diuresis, natriuresis, and suppression of both sympathetic tone and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Clinically, BNP is useful in diagnosing patients with acute dyspnea. A low concentration of BNP (<100 pg/mL) makes a diagnosis of heart failure unlikely, but elevated levels should prompt further investigation to confirm the diagnosis. Currently, NICE recommends BNP as a helpful test to rule out a diagnosis of heart failure. In patients with chronic heart failure, initial evidence suggests that BNP is an extremely useful marker of prognosis and can guide treatment. However, BNP is not currently recommended for population screening for cardiac dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 169 - A newborn is found to have ambiguous genitalia. Further examinations indicate the absence...

    Incorrect

    • A newborn is found to have ambiguous genitalia. Further examinations indicate the absence of epididymis, seminal vesicles, and ductus deferens. What is the typical embryonic structure that develops into these organs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mesonephric duct

      Explanation:

      The male reproductive structures are derived from the mesonephric (Wolffian) duct, while it regresses in females. The allantois regresses and forms the urachus. The pharyngeal arches give rise to the structures of the head and neck. The internal female reproductive structures are derived from the paramesonephric duct. The kidney is formed from the ureteric bud.

      Urogenital Embryology: Development of Kidneys and Genitals

      During embryonic development, the urogenital system undergoes a series of changes that lead to the formation of the kidneys and genitals. The kidneys develop from the pronephros, which is rudimentary and non-functional, to the mesonephros, which functions as interim kidneys, and finally to the metanephros, which starts to function around the 9th to 10th week. The metanephros gives rise to the ureteric bud and the metanephrogenic blastema. The ureteric bud develops into the ureter, renal pelvis, collecting ducts, and calyces, while the metanephrogenic blastema gives rise to the glomerulus and renal tubules up to and including the distal convoluted tubule.

      In males, the mesonephric duct (Wolffian duct) gives rise to the seminal vesicles, epididymis, ejaculatory duct, and ductus deferens. The paramesonephric duct (Mullerian duct) degenerates by default. In females, the paramesonephric duct gives rise to the fallopian tube, uterus, and upper third of the vagina. The urogenital sinus gives rise to the bulbourethral glands in males and Bartholin glands and Skene glands in females. The genital tubercle develops into the glans penis and clitoris, while the urogenital folds give rise to the ventral shaft of the penis and labia minora. The labioscrotal swelling develops into the scrotum in males and labia majora in females.

      In summary, the development of the urogenital system is a complex process that involves the differentiation of various structures from different embryonic tissues. Understanding the embryology of the kidneys and genitals is important for diagnosing and treating congenital abnormalities and disorders of the urogenital system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 170 - A 56-year-old man from Somalia is admitted to the nephrology ward due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man from Somalia is admitted to the nephrology ward due to acute-on-chronic kidney disease. He also has a known antithrombin III deficiency related to his chronic kidney disease. As part of his treatment, he is prescribed antithrombotic prophylaxis.

      What is the specific factor inhibited by antithrombin III?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factors II, IX and X

      Explanation:

      Understanding Antithrombin III Deficiency

      Antithrombin III deficiency is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 3,000 people. It is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. This condition occurs when the body does not produce enough antithrombin III, a protein that helps to prevent blood clots by inhibiting certain clotting factors. Some patients with this deficiency have a shortage of normal antithrombin III, while others produce abnormal antithrombin III.

      People with antithrombin III deficiency are at an increased risk of developing recurrent venous thromboses, which are blood clots that form in the veins. While arterial thromboses can also occur, they are less common. To manage this condition, patients may need to take warfarin for the rest of their lives to prevent thromboembolic events. During pregnancy, heparin may be used instead. Antithrombin III concentrates may also be used during surgery or childbirth.

      It is important to note that patients with antithrombin III deficiency have a degree of resistance to heparin, so anti-Xa levels should be monitored carefully to ensure adequate anticoagulation. Compared to other inherited thrombophilias, antithrombin III deficiency is less common but has a higher relative risk of venous thromboembolism. Understanding this condition and its management is crucial for those affected and their healthcare providers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 171 - A 32-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain and diarrhoea that has been ongoing for 2 days. He mentions that he recently came to the UK from Vietnam to visit his family and has been here for 4 days.

      Upon examination, there is no guarding or rebound tenderness, but an urticarial rash is visible on his abdomen. A slight wheeze is audible, and he has a fever. The patient also shows papulovesicular lesions on the soles of his feet.

      Which helminths are most likely responsible for causing this man's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Strongyloides stercoralis

      Explanation:

      Strongyloides stercoralis is a type of intestinal nematode that can cause Strongyloidiasis. Symptoms of this condition include abdominal pain and diarrhea, as well as the appearance of papulovesicular lesions on the soles of the feet and an urticarial rash. This parasitic infection is commonly found in tropical and subtropical regions around the world.

      Pinworm, also known as Enterobius vermicularis, typically causes perianal itching that is particularly bothersome at night.

      Onchocerca volvulus is known to cause blindness and hyperpigmentation of the skin.

      Trichinella spiralis can lead to myositis, periorbital edema, and fever after consuming raw pork.

      Helminths are a group of parasitic worms that can infect humans and cause various diseases. Nematodes, also known as roundworms, are one type of helminth. Strongyloides stercoralis is a type of roundworm that enters the body through the skin and can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and skin lesions. Treatment for this infection typically involves the use of ivermectin or benzimidazoles. Enterobius vermicularis, also known as pinworm, is another type of roundworm that can cause perianal itching and other symptoms. Diagnosis is made by examining sticky tape applied to the perianal area. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Hookworms, such as Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus, are another type of roundworm that can cause gastrointestinal infections and anemia. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles. Loa loa is a type of roundworm that is transmitted by deer fly and mango fly and can cause red, itchy swellings called Calabar swellings. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Trichinella spiralis is a type of roundworm that can develop after eating raw pork and can cause fever, periorbital edema, and myositis. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Onchocerca volvulus is a type of roundworm that causes river blindness and is spread by female blackflies. Treatment involves the use of ivermectin. Wuchereria bancrofti is another type of roundworm that is transmitted by female mosquitoes and can cause blockage of lymphatics and elephantiasis. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Toxocara canis, also known as dog roundworm, is transmitted through ingestion of infective eggs and can cause visceral larva migrans and retinal granulomas. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Ascaris lumbricoides, also known as giant roundworm, can cause intestinal obstruction and occasionally migrate to the lung. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Cestodes, also known as tapeworms, are another type of helminth. Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that is transmitted through ingestion of eggs in dog feces and can cause liver cysts and anaphylaxis if the cyst ruptures

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 172 - What is the body's mechanism for handling excess nitrogen? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the body's mechanism for handling excess nitrogen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is metabolised via the urea cycle

      Explanation:

      The Urea Cycle: Processing Excess Nitrogen

      Excess nitrogen in the form of ammonia or ammonium is converted into urea through the urea cycle. This process occurs mainly in the liver and allows for the excretion of excess nitrogen in the urine.

      The urea cycle begins in the mitochondria, where ammonia combines with carbon dioxide and ATP to form carbamoyl phosphate. This compound then combines with ornithine to form citrulline. The process continues in the cytoplasm of the cell, where a series of reactions eventually leads to the production of urea.

      Overall, the urea cycle is an important process for maintaining nitrogen balance in the body. By converting excess nitrogen into urea, the body can safely excrete it and prevent harmful buildup.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 173 - A 50-year-old male is referred by his GP for an endoscopy due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male is referred by his GP for an endoscopy due to recurrent indigestion. During the procedure, a small duodenal ulcer is discovered and Helicobacter pylori is found to be present. What is the recommended treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Omeprazole, metronidazole and clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Helicobacter pylori and Peptic Ulceration

      The bacterium Helicobacter pylori, which is classified as a gram-negative curved rod, has been linked to the development of peptic ulceration by inhibiting the healing process. In fact, up to 90% of patients with duodenal ulceration and 70% of cases of peptic ulceration may be infected with Helicobacter. To treat this infection, therapy should focus on acid suppression and eradication of the bacterium. Triple therapy, which involves a proton pump inhibitor like omeprazole along with two antibiotics (amoxicillin/clarithromycin plus metronidazole), has been found to be the most effective treatment. This therapy should be administered for one week, with proton pump therapy continuing thereafter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 174 - A 45-year-old woman had an attempted central line placement in her internal jugular...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman had an attempted central line placement in her internal jugular vein, but the doctor accidentally damaged her carotid artery, requiring surgical exploration. During the procedure, a nerve was found between the carotid artery and internal jugular vein. What is the most likely identity of this nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vagus

      Explanation:

      The carotid sheath contains the vagus nerve, while the hypoglossal nerve passes through it but is not situated inside it.

      The common carotid artery is a major blood vessel that supplies the head and neck with oxygenated blood. It has two branches, the left and right common carotid arteries, which arise from different locations. The left common carotid artery originates from the arch of the aorta, while the right common carotid artery arises from the brachiocephalic trunk. Both arteries terminate at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage by dividing into the internal and external carotid arteries.

      The left common carotid artery runs superolaterally to the sternoclavicular joint and is in contact with various structures in the thorax, including the trachea, left recurrent laryngeal nerve, and left margin of the esophagus. In the neck, it passes deep to the sternocleidomastoid muscle and enters the carotid sheath with the vagus nerve and internal jugular vein. The right common carotid artery has a similar path to the cervical portion of the left common carotid artery, but with fewer closely related structures.

      Overall, the common carotid artery is an important blood vessel with complex anatomical relationships in both the thorax and neck. Understanding its path and relations is crucial for medical professionals to diagnose and treat various conditions related to this artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 175 - A 79-year-old woman is admitted with confusion and started on an IV infusion...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old woman is admitted with confusion and started on an IV infusion after blood tests are taken. Her admission blood results indicate dehydration and elevated potassium levels, with a subsequent increase to 5.9. Which intravenous therapy is likely causing her hyperkalaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hartmann’s

      Explanation:

      Fluid Therapy Guidelines for Junior Doctors

      Fluid therapy is a common task for junior doctors, and it is important to follow guidelines to ensure patients receive the appropriate amount of fluids. The 2013 NICE guidelines recommend 25-30 ml/kg/day of water, 1 mmol/kg/day of potassium, sodium, and chloride, and 50-100 g/day of glucose for maintenance fluids. For the first 24 hours, NICE recommends using sodium chloride 0.18% in 4% glucose with 27 mmol/l potassium. However, the amount of fluid required may vary depending on the patient’s medical history. For example, a post-op patient with significant fluid loss will require more fluid, while a patient with heart failure should receive less fluid to avoid pulmonary edema.

      It is important to consider the electrolyte concentrations of plasma and the most commonly used fluids when prescribing intravenous fluids. 0.9% saline can lead to hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis if large volumes are used. Hartmann’s solution contains potassium and should not be used in patients with hyperkalemia. By following these guidelines and considering individual patient needs, junior doctors can ensure safe and effective fluid therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
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  • Question 176 - A teenage girl is hospitalized for a gynaecological infection and is given a...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage girl is hospitalized for a gynaecological infection and is given a prescription for a cephalosporin antibiotic. Can you explain the mechanism of action for this class of antibiotics and its related categories?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bacterial cell wall synthesis inhibition

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of action of beta-lactam antibiotics involves the inhibition of cell wall synthesis. Cephalosporins, along with penicillins and carbapenems, belong to this class of antibiotics. By preventing the production of peptido-glycan cell walls in bacteria, these antibiotics cause the death of the bacterial cells.

      The mechanism of action of antibiotics can be categorized into inhibiting cell wall formation, protein synthesis, DNA synthesis, and RNA synthesis. Beta-lactams such as penicillins and cephalosporins inhibit cell wall formation by blocking cross-linking of peptidoglycan cell walls. Antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis include aminoglycosides, chloramphenicol, macrolides, tetracyclines, and fusidic acid. Quinolones, metronidazole, sulphonamides, and trimethoprim inhibit DNA synthesis, while rifampicin inhibits RNA synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 177 - A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent cough and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent cough and increased production of sputum over the past year. She also reports feeling fatigued and experiencing shortness of breath. The patient mentions having had four chest infections in the last 12 months, all of which were treated with antibiotics. She has no medical or family history and has never smoked.

      The healthcare provider suspects that bronchiectasis may be the underlying cause of her symptoms and orders appropriate tests, including a sputum sample.

      What is the most likely organism to be identified?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Bronchiectasis patients may have various bacteria present in their respiratory system, with Haemophilus influenzae and Pseudomonas aeruginosa being the most common. Staphylococcus aureus has also been found but not as frequently. Respiratory syncytial virus has not been detected in acute exacerbations of bronchiectasis. It is crucial to identify the specific bacteria causing exacerbations as antibiotic sensitivity patterns differ, and sputum culture results can impact the effectiveness of treatment. These findings are outlined in the British Thoracic Society’s guideline for non-CF bronchiectasis and a study by Metaxas et al. on the role of atypical bacteria and respiratory syncytial virus in bronchiectasis exacerbations.

      Bronchiectasis is a condition where the airways become permanently dilated due to chronic inflammation or infection. Before treatment, it is important to identify any underlying causes that can be addressed, such as immune deficiencies. Management of bronchiectasis includes physical training, such as inspiratory muscle training, which has been shown to be effective for patients without cystic fibrosis. Postural drainage, antibiotics for exacerbations, and long-term rotating antibiotics for severe cases are also recommended. Bronchodilators may be used in selected cases, and immunizations are important to prevent infections. Surgery may be considered for localized disease. The most common organisms isolated from patients with bronchiectasis include Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella spp., and Streptococcus pneumoniae.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 178 - A 12-year-old girl is experiencing intense pain around her belly button that is...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl is experiencing intense pain around her belly button that is spreading to her right iliac fossa. She has a fever and is vomiting on and off. The medical team has decided to perform a laparoscopic removal of her appendix. Can you identify the most frequent location of the appendix in the pelvis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retrocaecal

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Appendix

      The appendix is a tube that is approximately 10 cm long and can be found in different positions in the body depending on the individual. It is most commonly located behind the caecum, which is retrocaecal, in about 65% of people. However, it can also be found in the pelvic area in around 30% of individuals. Other variations include being located below the caecum, which is subcaecal, or in front of the terminal ileum, which is pre-ileal. Additionally, it can be found behind the ileum, which is post-ileal. The position of the appendix can vary greatly from person to person, and it is important for medical professionals to be aware of these variations when diagnosing and treating conditions related to the appendix.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 179 - Which one of the following is not a major function of the spleen...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not a major function of the spleen in adults?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Storage red blood cells

      Explanation:

      The primary function of the spleen is the removal of old or damaged red blood cells from circulation, which helps to maintain the health of the red cell mass. The other functions of the spleen are also important, but this is the main function.

      The Anatomy and Function of the Spleen

      The spleen is an organ located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen. Its size can vary depending on the amount of blood it contains, but the typical adult spleen is 12.5cm long and 7.5cm wide, with a weight of 150g. The spleen is almost entirely covered by peritoneum and is separated from the 9th, 10th, and 11th ribs by both diaphragm and pleural cavity. Its shape is influenced by the state of the colon and stomach, with gastric distension causing it to resemble an orange segment and colonic distension causing it to become more tetrahedral.

      The spleen has two folds of peritoneum that connect it to the posterior abdominal wall and stomach: the lienorenal ligament and gastrosplenic ligament. The lienorenal ligament contains the splenic vessels, while the short gastric and left gastroepiploic branches of the splenic artery pass through the layers of the gastrosplenic ligament. The spleen is in contact with the phrenicocolic ligament laterally.

      The spleen has two main functions: filtration and immunity. It filters abnormal blood cells and foreign bodies such as bacteria, and produces properdin and tuftsin, which help target fungi and bacteria for phagocytosis. The spleen also stores 40% of platelets, reutilizes iron, and stores monocytes. Disorders of the spleen include massive splenomegaly, myelofibrosis, chronic myeloid leukemia, visceral leishmaniasis, malaria, Gaucher’s syndrome, portal hypertension, lymphoproliferative disease, haemolytic anaemia, infection, infective endocarditis, sickle-cell, thalassaemia, and rheumatoid arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 180 - What does the first heart sound indicate in terms of cardiac activity? ...

    Incorrect

    • What does the first heart sound indicate in terms of cardiac activity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Closing of the mitral/tricuspid valves

      Explanation:

      Valvular Sounds and the Cardiac Cycle

      Valvular sounds are the audible representation of the closure of the heart valves. The first heart sound occurs during systole, when the pressure in the ventricles increases and the mitral and tricuspid valves close, forcing blood through the aorta or pulmonary artery. As the ventricles empty and their pressure drops, the aortic or pulmonary valves close, creating the second heart sound. During diastole, the ventricles relax and their pressure decreases even further. When this pressure falls below that of the atria, the mitral and tricuspid valves open once again.

      the cardiac cycle and the sounds associated with it is crucial in diagnosing and treating heart conditions. By listening to the timing and quality of the valvular sounds, healthcare professionals can identify abnormalities in the heart’s function and structure. Additionally, monitoring changes in these sounds over time can help track the progression of certain conditions and guide treatment decisions.

      In summary, the valvular sounds of the heart represent the opening and closing of the heart valves during the cardiac cycle. These sounds are important indicators of heart health and can provide valuable information for healthcare professionals in diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 181 - Which of the following statements regarding chronic inflammation is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding chronic inflammation is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fibrosis is a macroscopic feature

      Explanation:

      The macroscopic features of this condition typically involve ulcers, fibrosis, and a granulomatous process. It is more commonly a primary occurrence rather than a consequence of acute inflammation.

      Chronic inflammation can occur as a result of acute inflammation or as a primary process. There are three main processes that can lead to chronic inflammation: persisting infection with certain organisms, prolonged exposure to non-biodegradable substances, and autoimmune conditions involving antibodies formed against host antigens. Acute inflammation involves changes to existing vascular structure and increased permeability of endothelial cells, as well as infiltration of neutrophils. In contrast, chronic inflammation is characterized by angiogenesis and the predominance of macrophages, plasma cells, and lymphocytes. The process may resolve with suppuration, complete resolution, abscess formation, or progression to chronic inflammation. Healing by fibrosis is the main result of chronic inflammation. Granulomas, which consist of a microscopic aggregation of macrophages, are pathognomonic of chronic inflammation and can be found in conditions such as colonic Crohn’s disease. Growth factors released by activated macrophages, such as interferon and fibroblast growth factor, may have systemic features resulting in systemic symptoms and signs in individuals with long-standing chronic inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 182 - Which of the following anatomical structures is located in the spiral groove of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following anatomical structures is located in the spiral groove of the humerus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      Fractures involving the shaft can compromise the radial nerve, which is located in this groove.

      The humerus is a long bone that runs from the shoulder blade to the elbow joint. It is mostly covered by muscle but can be felt throughout its length. The head of the humerus is a smooth, rounded surface that connects to the body of the bone through the anatomical neck. The surgical neck, located below the head and tubercles, is the most common site of fracture. The greater and lesser tubercles are prominences on the upper end of the bone, with the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons inserted into the greater tubercle. The intertubercular groove runs between the two tubercles and holds the biceps tendon. The posterior surface of the body has a spiral groove for the radial nerve and brachial vessels. The lower end of the humerus is wide and flattened, with the trochlea, coronoid fossa, and olecranon fossa located on the distal edge. The medial epicondyle is prominent and has a sulcus for the ulnar nerve and collateral vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 183 - A 49-year-old woman arrives at the day surgery unit for a bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy....

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman arrives at the day surgery unit for a bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy. The surgeon provides her with an explanation of the procedure.

      What ligaments must the surgeon open to reach the fallopian tubes and ovaries?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Broad ligament

      Explanation:

      Within the broad ligament of the uterus, one can locate the ovaries and the fallopian tubes.

      Pelvic Ligaments and their Connections

      Pelvic ligaments are structures that connect various organs within the female reproductive system to the pelvic wall. These ligaments play a crucial role in maintaining the position and stability of these organs. There are several types of pelvic ligaments, each with its own unique function and connection.

      The broad ligament connects the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries to the pelvic wall, specifically the ovaries. The round ligament connects the uterine fundus to the labia majora, but does not connect to any other structures. The cardinal ligament connects the cervix to the lateral pelvic wall and is responsible for supporting the uterine vessels. The suspensory ligament of the ovaries connects the ovaries to the lateral pelvic wall and supports the ovarian vessels. The ovarian ligament connects the ovaries to the uterus, but does not connect to any other structures. Finally, the uterosacral ligament connects the cervix and posterior vaginal dome to the sacrum, but does not connect to any other structures.

      Overall, pelvic ligaments are essential for maintaining the proper position and function of the female reproductive organs. Understanding the connections between these ligaments and the structures they support is crucial for diagnosing and treating any issues that may arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 184 - A 50-year-old patient presents for a routine checkup. During a neurological assessment, it...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient presents for a routine checkup. During a neurological assessment, it is discovered that the patient has sensory loss in their middle finger. Which specific dermatome is responsible for this sensory loss?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C7

      Explanation:

      The middle finger is where the C7 dermatome is located.

      Understanding Dermatomes: Major Landmarks and Mnemonics

      Dermatomes are areas of skin that are innervated by a single spinal nerve. Understanding dermatomes is important in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The major dermatome landmarks are listed in the table above, along with helpful mnemonics to aid in memorization.

      Starting at the top of the body, the C2 dermatome covers the posterior half of the skull, resembling a cap. Moving down to C3, it covers the area of a high turtleneck shirt, while C4 covers the area of a low-collar shirt. The C5 dermatome runs along the ventral axial line of the upper limb, while C6 covers the thumb and index finger. To remember this, make a 6 with your left hand by touching the tip of your thumb and index finger together.

      Moving down to the middle finger and palm of the hand, the C7 dermatome is located here, while the C8 dermatome covers the ring and little finger. The T4 dermatome is located at the nipples, while T5 covers the inframammary fold. The T6 dermatome is located at the xiphoid process, and T10 covers the umbilicus. To remember this, think of BellybuT-TEN.

      The L1 dermatome covers the inguinal ligament, while L4 covers the knee caps. To remember this, think of being Down on aLL fours with the number 4 representing the knee caps. The L5 dermatome covers the big toe and dorsum of the foot (except the lateral aspect), while the S1 dermatome covers the lateral foot and small toe. To remember this, think of S1 as the smallest one. Finally, the S2 and S3 dermatomes cover the genitalia.

      Understanding dermatomes and their landmarks can aid in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The mnemonics provided can help in memorizing these important landmarks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 185 - A 52-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of severe crushing chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of severe crushing chest pain that spreads to his left arm and jaw. He also feels nauseous. Upon conducting an ECG, you observe ST-segment elevation in several chest leads and diagnose him with ST-elevation MI. From which vessel do the coronary vessels arise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ascending aorta

      Explanation:

      The left and right coronary arteries originate from the left and right aortic sinuses, respectively. The left aortic sinus is located on the left side of the ascending aorta, while the right aortic sinus is situated at the back.

      The coronary sinus is a venous vessel formed by the confluence of four coronary veins. It receives venous blood from the great, middle, small, and posterior cardiac veins and empties into the right atrium.

      The descending aorta is a continuation of the aortic arch and runs through the chest and abdomen before dividing into the left and right common iliac arteries. It has several branches along its path.

      The pulmonary veins transport oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium and do not have any branches.

      The pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs. It splits into the left and right pulmonary arteries, which travel to the left and right lungs, respectively.

      The patient in the previous question has exhibited symptoms indicative of acute coronary syndrome, and the ECG results confirm an ST-elevation myocardial infarction.

      The walls of each cardiac chamber are made up of the epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium. The heart and roots of the great vessels are related anteriorly to the sternum and the left ribs. The coronary sinus receives blood from the cardiac veins, and the aortic sinus gives rise to the right and left coronary arteries. The left ventricle has a thicker wall and more numerous trabeculae carnae than the right ventricle. The heart is innervated by autonomic nerve fibers from the cardiac plexus, and the parasympathetic supply comes from the vagus nerves. The heart has four valves: the mitral, aortic, pulmonary, and tricuspid valves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 186 - A 32-year-old patient complains of vaginal discharge and symptoms suggestive of a thrush...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old patient complains of vaginal discharge and symptoms suggestive of a thrush infection. You decide to prescribe fluconazole.

      What is the mode of action of this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits ergosterol production

      Explanation:

      Azoles prevent the production of ergosterol by inhibiting 14 alpha-demethylase.

      Terbinafine hinders the function of squalene epoxidase.

      Nystatin and amphotericin B attach to ergosterol.

      Griseofulvin interacts with microtubules.

      Caspofungin obstructs the synthesis of beta-glucan, a crucial component of the fungal cell wall.

      Antifungal agents are drugs used to treat fungal infections. There are several types of antifungal agents, each with a unique mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Azoles work by inhibiting 14α-demethylase, an enzyme that produces ergosterol, a component of fungal cell membranes. However, they can also inhibit the P450 system in the liver, leading to potential liver toxicity. Amphotericin B binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it can also cause nephrotoxicity and flu-like symptoms. Terbinafine inhibits squalene epoxidase, while griseofulvin interacts with microtubules to disrupt mitotic spindle. However, griseofulvin can induce the P450 system and is teratogenic. Flucytosine is converted by cytosine deaminase to 5-fluorouracil, which inhibits thymidylate synthase and disrupts fungal protein synthesis, but it can cause vomiting. Caspofungin inhibits the synthesis of beta-glucan, a major fungal cell wall component, and can cause flushing. Nystatin binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it is very toxic and can only be used topically, such as for oral thrush.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 187 - A 54-year-old male on the gastroenterology ward has been experiencing recurrent episodes of...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old male on the gastroenterology ward has been experiencing recurrent episodes of diarrhoea following the completion of antibiotics for severe community-acquired pneumonia.

      There is no significant medical history to report.

      The patient has a known allergy to metronidazole.

      The consultant has requested that you initiate treatment with vancomycin and discuss potential side effects with the patient.

      What adverse effect should be highlighted during this discussion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Risk of nephrotoxicity

      Explanation:

      Vancomycin can cause nephrotoxicity as an adverse effect, along with Redman’s syndrome and blood dyscrasias such as thrombocytopenia and neutropenia. Erythromycin is often linked to gastrointestinal upset, while flucloxacillin and amoxicillin are associated with cholestasis. Tendonitis is a known adverse effect of ciprofloxacin, and patients with mononucleosis may experience a rash when taking amoxicillin.

      Vancomycin is an antibiotic that is effective in treating infections caused by Gram-positive bacteria, especially those that are resistant to methicillin, such as Staphylococcus aureus. Its mechanism of action involves inhibiting the formation of the bacterial cell wall by binding to D-Ala-D-Ala moieties, which prevents the polymerization of peptidoglycans. However, bacteria can develop resistance to vancomycin by altering the terminal amino acid residues of the NAM/NAG-peptide subunits, which are the sites where the antibiotic binds.

      Despite its effectiveness, vancomycin can cause adverse effects such as nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, and thrombophlebitis. Rapid infusion of vancomycin can also lead to a condition called red man syndrome, which is characterized by flushing and itching of the skin. Therefore, it is important to use vancomycin only when necessary and under the guidance of a healthcare professional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 188 - In response to cigarette smoke, does the respiratory epithelium undergo metaplasia and if...

    Incorrect

    • In response to cigarette smoke, does the respiratory epithelium undergo metaplasia and if so, what type of epithelial cell does it form?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stratified squamous

      Explanation:

      Epithelial Tissue and its Metaplasia

      Epithelial tissue is a type of tissue that lines the surfaces of organs and structures in the body. Respiratory epithelium, which is made up of pseudostratified, ciliated columnar cells, can undergo a process called metaplasia. This is when the tissue transforms into a different type of tissue. In the case of respiratory epithelium, it can transform into stratified squamous epithelium. This transformation occurs when the cilia on the columnar cells are lost, and the cells become squamous in shape.

      This transformation can be problematic, as the squamous cells can become dysplastic and lead to the development of squamous cell carcinoma in the lungs. Small cell carcinoma is another type of cancer that affects epithelial tissue, but its exact origin is not clear.

      Different types of epithelial tissue can be found in various parts of the body. Simple columnar epithelium, for example, is commonly found in the stomach. Simple cuboidal epithelium lines the reproductive organs, such as the ovaries and testes. Small cell epithelium lines the large and small intestines, while transitional epithelium can be found in the bladder.

      the different types of epithelial tissue and their potential for metaplasia can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various diseases and conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 189 - A 44-year-old man has been diagnosed with type II diabetes mellitus but cannot...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old man has been diagnosed with type II diabetes mellitus but cannot tolerate metformin therapy. What is the mechanism of action of alogliptin, which has been prescribed as an alternative?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduce the peripheral breakdown of incretins

      Explanation:

      Gliptins (DPP-4 inhibitors) work by inhibiting the enzyme DPP-4, which reduces the breakdown of incretin hormones such as GLP-1. This leads to a glucose-dependent increase in insulin secretion and a reduction in glucagon secretion, ultimately regulating glucose homeostasis. However, gliptins do not increase the production of GLP-1, directly stimulate the release of insulin from pancreatic beta cells, inhibit the SGLT2 receptor, or reduce insulin resistance.

      Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 190 - A 65-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fever and productive cough...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fever and productive cough for the past two days. She spends most of her time at home watching TV and rarely goes outside. She has no recent travel history. The patient has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease but has not been compliant with medication and follow-up appointments. Upon physical examination, crackles are heard on the left lower lobe, and her sputum is described as 'red-currant jelly.'

      What is the probable causative organism in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Klebsiella pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      The patient’s history of severe gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) suggests that she may have aspiration pneumonia, particularly as she had not received appropriate treatment for it. Aspiration of gastric contents is likely to occur in the right lung due to the steep angle of the right bronchus. Klebsiella pneumoniae is a common cause of aspiration pneumonia and is known to produce ‘red-currant jelly’ sputum.

      Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a cause of atypical pneumonia, which typically presents with a non-productive cough and clear lung sounds on auscultation. It is more common in younger individuals.

      Burkholderia pseudomallei is the causative organism for melioidosis, a condition that is transmitted through exposure to contaminated water or soil, and is more commonly found in Southeast Asia. However, given the patient’s sedentary lifestyle and lack of travel history, it is unlikely to be the cause of her symptoms.

      Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of pneumonia, but it typically produces yellowish-green sputum rather than the red-currant jelly sputum seen in Klebsiella pneumoniae infections. It also presents with fever, productive cough, and crackles on auscultation.

      Understanding Klebsiella Pneumoniae

      Klebsiella pneumoniae is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in the gut flora of humans. However, it can also cause various infections such as pneumonia and urinary tract infections. It is more prevalent in individuals who have alcoholism or diabetes. Aspiration is a common cause of pneumonia caused by Klebsiella pneumoniae. One of the distinct features of this type of pneumonia is the production of red-currant jelly sputum. It usually affects the upper lobes of the lungs.

      The prognosis for Klebsiella pneumoniae infections is not good. It often leads to the formation of lung abscesses and empyema, which can be fatal. The mortality rate for this type of infection is between 30-50%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 191 - A 16-year-old girl complains of pain in her right iliac fossa and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl complains of pain in her right iliac fossa and is diagnosed with acute appendicitis. You bring her to the operating room for a laparoscopic appendectomy. While performing the procedure, you are distracted by the scrub nurse and accidentally tear the appendicular artery, causing significant bleeding. Which vessel is likely to be the primary source of the hemorrhage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ileo-colic artery

      Explanation:

      The ileocolic artery gives rise to the appendicular artery.

      Appendix Anatomy and Location

      The appendix is a small, finger-like projection located at the base of the caecum. It can be up to 10cm long and is mainly composed of lymphoid tissue, which can sometimes lead to confusion with mesenteric adenitis. The caecal taenia coli converge at the base of the appendix, forming a longitudinal muscle cover over it. This convergence can aid in identifying the appendix during surgery, especially if it is retrocaecal and difficult to locate. The arterial supply to the appendix comes from the appendicular artery, which is a branch of the ileocolic artery. It is important to note that the appendix is intra-peritoneal.

      McBurney’s Point and Appendix Positions

      McBurney’s point is a landmark used to locate the appendix during physical examination. It is located one-third of the way along a line drawn from the Anterior Superior Iliac Spine to the Umbilicus. The appendix can be found in six different positions, with the retrocaecal position being the most common at 74%. Other positions include pelvic, postileal, subcaecal, paracaecal, and preileal. It is important to be aware of these positions as they can affect the presentation of symptoms and the difficulty of locating the appendix during surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 192 - A 45-year-old woman comes to the doctor complaining of a headache and fever...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman comes to the doctor complaining of a headache and fever that has lasted for 3 days. She mentions that she recently returned from a backpacking trip to Indonesia where she was exposed to insect bites while hiking. She did not receive any travel immunisation or prophylaxis and is only taking paracetamol from a nearby pharmacy. Her blood pressure and pulse are normal, but her temperature is 38ºC. During the examination, a maculopapular rash is found on her trunk with some areas unaffected. There is no tenderness or organomegaly in her abdomen, and her lungs sound clear. The Giemsa stain of her thick and thin blood films did not show any parasites, but the dengue NS1 antigen test was positive.

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this 45-year-old woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous fluid administration and analgesia

      Explanation:

      The patient’s travel history and positive dengue NS1 antigen test confirm that she has dengue fever, a viral infection transmitted by mosquitoes. Symptoms include fever, headache, and a maculopapular rash. Treatment is entirely symptomatic, with fluid resuscitation and analgesia. Malaria is unlikely given the short incubation period and negative blood film results. Antivirals are not currently available for dengue. As the patient does not display warning signs or hemodynamic instability, blood transfusion is not necessary. Analgesia alone is insufficient, and fluid replacement is required to manage symptoms.

      Understanding Dengue Fever

      Dengue fever is a viral infection that can lead to viral haemorrhagic fever, which includes diseases like yellow fever, Lassa fever, and Ebola. The dengue virus is an RNA virus that belongs to the Flavivirus genus and is transmitted by the Aedes aegypti mosquito. The incubation period for dengue fever is seven days.

      Patients with dengue fever can be classified into three categories: those without warning signs, those with warning signs, and those with severe dengue (dengue haemorrhagic fever). Symptoms of dengue fever include fever, headache (often retro-orbital), myalgia, bone pain, arthralgia (also known as ‘break-bone fever’), pleuritic pain, facial flushing, maculopapular rash, and haemorrhagic manifestations such as a positive tourniquet test, petechiae, purpura/ecchymosis, and epistaxis. Warning signs include abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, persistent vomiting, and clinical fluid accumulation (ascites, pleural effusion). Severe dengue (dengue haemorrhagic fever) is a form of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) that results in thrombocytopenia and spontaneous bleeding. Around 20-30% of these patients go on to develop dengue shock syndrome (DSS).

      Typically, blood tests are used to diagnose dengue fever, which may show leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, and raised aminotransferases. Diagnostic tests such as serology, nucleic acid amplification tests for viral RNA, and NS1 antigen tests may also be used. Treatment for dengue fever is entirely symptomatic, including fluid resuscitation and blood transfusions. Currently, there are no antivirals available for the treatment of dengue fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 193 - A 58-year-old man presents with left-sided hemiparesis and a CT scan reveals a...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man presents with left-sided hemiparesis and a CT scan reveals a right-sided stroke. Blood tests indicate high LDL cholesterol levels. To prevent secondary cerebrovascular disease, you initiate atorvastatin therapy. What is the mechanism of action of this lipid-lowering treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor

      Explanation:

      HMG-CoA reductase is the enzyme that limits the rate of cholesterol synthesis, and statins are commonly used to inhibit its activity.

      Rate-Determining Enzymes in Metabolic Processes

      Metabolic processes involve a series of chemical reactions that occur in living organisms to maintain life. Enzymes play a crucial role in these processes by catalyzing the reactions. However, not all enzymes have the same impact on the rate of the reaction. Some enzymes are rate-determining, meaning that they control the overall rate of the process. The table above lists the rate-determining enzymes involved in common metabolic processes.

      For example, in the TCA cycle, isocitrate dehydrogenase is the rate-determining enzyme. In glycolysis, phosphofructokinase-1 controls the rate of the process. In gluconeogenesis, fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase is the rate-determining enzyme. Similarly, glycogen synthase controls the rate of glycogenesis, while glycogen phosphorylase controls the rate of glycogenolysis.

      Other metabolic processes, such as lipogenesis, lipolysis, cholesterol synthesis, and ketogenesis, also have rate-determining enzymes. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase controls the rate of lipogenesis, while carnitine-palmitoyl transferase I controls the rate of lipolysis. HMG-CoA reductase is the rate-determining enzyme in cholesterol synthesis, while HMG-CoA synthase controls the rate of ketogenesis.

      The urea cycle, de novo pyrimidine synthesis, and de novo purine synthesis also have rate-determining enzymes. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I controls the rate of the urea cycle, while carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II controls the rate of de novo pyrimidine synthesis. Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase is the rate-determining enzyme in de novo purine synthesis.

      Understanding the rate-determining enzymes in metabolic processes is crucial for developing treatments for metabolic disorders and diseases. By targeting these enzymes, researchers can potentially regulate the rate of the process and improve the health outcomes of individuals with these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 194 - A 55-year-old man is scheduled to undergo a splenectomy to treat his refractory...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is scheduled to undergo a splenectomy to treat his refractory haemolytic anaemia, which is believed to be caused by a Type 2 hypersensitivity response. What is the primary mechanism involved in this process?

      A) Deposition of immune complexes
      B) Cell-mediated immune response
      C) IgE-mediated response
      D) Formation of autoantibodies against cell surface antigens
      E) None of the above

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Formation of autoantibodies against cell surface antigens

      Explanation:

      Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions, such as haemolytic anaemia, involve the production of antibodies against cell surface antigens.

      Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions

      Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is commonly seen in atopic conditions such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II hypersensitivity occurs when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface, leading to autoimmune conditions such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, and Goodpasture’s syndrome. Type III hypersensitivity occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes, leading to conditions such as serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated and includes conditions such as tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, and allergic contact dermatitis.

      In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is seen in conditions such as Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the classification of hypersensitivity reactions is important in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 195 - A 9-month old baby is brought to the GP with developmental delay, failure...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month old baby is brought to the GP with developmental delay, failure to thrive, and poor feeding. The infant shows reluctance to play and cannot sit independently. Physical examination reveals small hands and feet, blond hair, pale skin, and a squint. Additionally, there is poor muscle tone centrally and unilaterally undescended testes. What syndrome is indicated by these clinical findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prader-Willi syndrome

      Explanation:

      The key factors in this scenario are the child’s physical characteristics and developmental delays. The child is not meeting their developmental milestones in gross motor skills and social interaction, and they exhibit physical features that suggest Prader-Willi syndrome, such as hypopigmentation, esotropia, small hands and feet, loss of muscle tone, and undescended testes. Prader-Willi syndrome is also known to cause failure to thrive in the first year or so, followed by hyperphagia and obesity.

      While Klinefelter syndrome can also cause developmental delays, undescended or small testes, and reduced muscle strength, it does not typically present with the same physical features as Prader-Willi syndrome.

      Marfan syndrome is characterized by different physical features, such as long, thin fingers and cardiovascular and respiratory issues, and does not typically cause the same symptoms as Prader-Willi syndrome.

      DiGeorge syndrome can cause developmental delays, feeding difficulties, and hypotonia, but it also typically presents with facial abnormalities, hearing issues, and cardiac problems, which are not mentioned in this scenario.

      Russell-Silver syndrome can cause developmental delays, poor muscle tone, feeding difficulties, and growth issues, but it also typically presents with distinct facial and skeletal abnormalities that are not mentioned in this scenario. Therefore, based on the information provided, Prader-Willi syndrome is the most likely diagnosis.

      Understanding Prader-Willi Syndrome

      Prader-Willi syndrome is a genetic disorder that is caused by the absence of the active Prader-Willi gene on chromosome 15. This disorder is an example of genetic imprinting, where the phenotype depends on whether the deletion occurs on a gene inherited from the mother or father. If the gene is deleted from the father, it results in Prader-Willi syndrome, while if it is deleted from the mother, it results in Angelman syndrome.

      There are two main causes of Prader-Willi syndrome. The first is a microdeletion of paternal 15q11-13, which accounts for 70% of cases. The second is maternal uniparental disomy of chromosome 15. This means that both copies of chromosome 15 are inherited from the mother, and there is no active Prader-Willi gene from the father.

      The features of Prader-Willi syndrome include hypotonia during infancy, dysmorphic features, short stature, hypogonadism and infertility, learning difficulties, childhood obesity, and behavioral problems in adolescence. These symptoms can vary in severity and may require lifelong management.

      In conclusion, Prader-Willi syndrome is a complex genetic disorder that affects multiple aspects of an individual’s health and development. Understanding the causes and features of this syndrome is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 196 - A 67-year-old man visits the respiratory clinic for spirometry testing to investigate possible...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man visits the respiratory clinic for spirometry testing to investigate possible COPD. The clinician observes that his breathing appears to be shallow even at rest.

      What specific lung volume would accurately describe the clinician's observation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tidal volume (TV)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology

      In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.

      Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.

      Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.

      Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.

      Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.

      Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 197 - A 25-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department with a head injury after...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department with a head injury after a night of heavy drinking. All his vital signs are normal, and his pupils react to light equally. A CT scan of his head shows no abnormalities. He reports feeling thirsty and experiencing excessive urination.

      What is causing his polyuria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of posterior pituitary gland

      Explanation:

      Excessive alcohol consumption can result in the suppression of ADH in the posterior pituitary gland, which can lead to polyuria.

      Normally, dehydration causes an increase in plasma osmolality, which triggers the release of vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone) from the posterior pituitary gland. This hormone increases the insertion of aquaporin 2 channels in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting duct in the kidney, which in turn increases water reabsorption. This leads to a decrease in plasma osmolality and a reduction in the volume of urine produced, i.e., antidiuretic.

      However, alcohol inhibits this mechanism, resulting in polyuria and dehydration. Polyuria can then cause thirst, i.e., polydipsia.

      It is important to note that the sugars in alcohol do not typically cause osmotic diuresis unless there is an underlying condition such as diabetes and hyperglycemia.

      Polyuria, or excessive urination, can be caused by a variety of factors. A recent review in the BMJ categorizes these causes by their frequency of occurrence. The most common causes of polyuria include the use of diuretics, caffeine, and alcohol, as well as diabetes mellitus, lithium, and heart failure. Less common causes include hypercalcaemia and hyperthyroidism, while rare causes include chronic renal failure, primary polydipsia, and hypokalaemia. The least common cause of polyuria is diabetes insipidus, which occurs in less than 1 in 10,000 cases. It is important to note that while these frequencies may not align with exam questions, understanding the potential causes of polyuria can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
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  • Question 198 - An academic clinician is developing a new monoclonal antibody against the epidermal growth...

    Incorrect

    • An academic clinician is developing a new monoclonal antibody against the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) protein for use in pediatric leukemia. As part of the process, she humanises the antibody, which has originally been produced by murine plasma cells.

      What is the purpose of this step of the monoclonal antibody production process?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decrease immunogenicity

      Explanation:

      Humanisation is a process that aims to reduce the immunogenicity of monoclonal antibodies derived from non-human sources. These antibodies, often produced in animals like mice, can be immunogenic to humans due to differences in protein structures. Humanisation involves modifying the constant and variable regions of the antibody to reflect the structure of human antibodies while maintaining antigenic specificity. This process ultimately decreases the immunogenicity of the antibody. It is important to note that humanisation does not improve antigenic specificity, increase bioavailability, or promote endogenous antibody production.

      Monoclonal antibodies are becoming increasingly important in the field of medicine. They are created using a technique called somatic cell hybridization, which involves fusing myeloma cells with spleen cells from an immunized mouse to produce a hybridoma. This hybridoma acts as a factory for producing monoclonal antibodies.

      However, a major limitation of this technique is that mouse antibodies can be immunogenic, leading to the formation of human anti-mouse antibodies. To overcome this problem, a process called humanizing is used. This involves combining the variable region from the mouse body with the constant region from a human antibody.

      There are several clinical examples of monoclonal antibodies, including infliximab for rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s, rituximab for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and rheumatoid arthritis, and cetuximab for metastatic colorectal cancer and head and neck cancer. Monoclonal antibodies are also used for medical imaging when combined with a radioisotope, identifying cell surface markers in biopsied tissue, and diagnosing viral infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 199 - A man in his early fifties comes in with a painful rash caused...

    Incorrect

    • A man in his early fifties comes in with a painful rash caused by herpes on the external auditory meatus. He also has facial palsy on the same side, along with deafness, tinnitus, and vertigo. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramsay Hunt syndrome

      Explanation:

      Ramsay Hunt syndrome is characterized by a combination of Bell’s palsy facial paralysis, along with symptoms such as a herpetic rash, deafness, tinnitus, and vertigo. It is important to note that the rash may not always be visible, despite being present.

      While Bell’s palsy may present with facial paralysis, it does not typically involve the presence of herpetic rashes.

      Understanding Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

      Ramsay Hunt syndrome, also known as herpes zoster oticus, is a condition that occurs when the varicella zoster virus reactivates in the geniculate ganglion of the seventh cranial nerve. The first symptom of this syndrome is often auricular pain, followed by facial nerve palsy and a vesicular rash around the ear. Other symptoms may include vertigo and tinnitus.

      To manage Ramsay Hunt syndrome, doctors typically prescribe oral acyclovir and corticosteroids. These medications can help reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 200 - What role does clavulanic acid play in co-amoxiclav? ...

    Incorrect

    • What role does clavulanic acid play in co-amoxiclav?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics and their Mechanisms of Action

      Amoxicillin is an antibiotic that belongs to the penicillin family. It has some resistance against penicillinase enzymes, but it is susceptible to beta-lactamase enzymes, which is a common bacterial resistance mechanism. To increase its resistance to breakdown and broaden its spectrum of activity, clavulanic acid is given in combination with amoxicillin, particularly against Gram-negative organisms. Compared to penicillin V, amoxicillin has better oral bioavailability. However, it has relatively poor bone penetration, which requires long courses of IV antibiotics for bone infections. Some oral antibiotics, such as linezolid and clindamycin, have slightly better bone penetration.

      DNA gyrase, also known as topoisomerase II, is an enzyme that helps to hold DNA in place during replication. Fluoroquinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, target DNA gyrase as their mechanism of action. There are several antibiotics that target cell wall synthesis, including penicillins, cephalosporins, and carbapenems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory System (3/7) 43%
Haematology And Oncology (3/9) 33%
Cardiovascular System (8/14) 57%
Neurological System (2/19) 11%
Musculoskeletal System And Skin (4/10) 40%
Gastrointestinal System (3/18) 17%
General Principles (15/37) 41%
Reproductive System (3/5) 60%
Clinical Sciences (4/9) 44%
Renal System (6/13) 46%
Histology (1/2) 50%
Endocrine System (6/6) 100%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Ethics And Law (0/1) 0%
Basic Sciences (1/3) 33%
Paediatrics (2/2) 100%
Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Passmed