-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
Who is credited with developing the theory of prima facie duties, which played a significant role in establishing the four principles of medical ethics?
Your Answer: Hippocrates
Correct Answer: Ross
Explanation:Ross proposed the idea of prima facie duties, which were later modified by Beauchamp and Childress to form the four principles approach to medical ethics. The prima facie duties identified by Ross encompassed fidelity, reparation, gratitude, non-injury, harm-prevention, beneficence, self-improvement, and justice.
Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.
More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
What is the estimated number of words a 30-month-old child typically knows?
Your Answer: 100-200 words
Explanation:Linguistic Development and Risk Factors for Delayed Speech and Language
The development of language skills is an important aspect of a child’s growth. The prelinguistic period, from birth to 12 months, is marked by crying, babbling, and echolalia. From 6 to 12 months, a child responds to their name and can differentiate between angry and friendly tones. By 18 to 24 months, a child can use up to 40-50 words, mainly nouns, and starts to combine words in short phrases. By 36 to 48 months, a child has a vocabulary of 900-1000 words, can use plurals and past tense, and can handle three-word sentences easily.
However, there are risk factors associated with delayed speech and language development. These include a positive family history, male gender, twins, lower maternal education, childhood illness, being born late in the family order, young mother at birth, and low socioeconomic status. of these, a positive family history is considered the most reliable risk factor. It is important to monitor a child’s language development and seek professional help if there are concerns about delayed speech and language.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A client complains of feeling ill after abruptly discontinuing paroxetine. What symptom is most indicative of discontinuation syndrome associated with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors?
Your Answer: Hallucinations
Correct Answer: Shock-like sensations
Explanation:Antidepressants can cause discontinuation symptoms when patients stop taking them, regardless of the type of antidepressant. These symptoms usually occur within 5 days of stopping the medication and can last up to 3 weeks. Symptoms include flu-like symptoms, dizziness, insomnia, vivid dreams, irritability, crying spells, and sensory symptoms. SSRIs and related drugs with short half-lives, such as paroxetine and venlafaxine, are particularly associated with discontinuation symptoms. Tapering antidepressants at the end of treatment is recommended to prevent these symptoms. TCAs and MAOIs are also associated with discontinuation symptoms, with amitriptyline and imipramine being the most common TCAs and all MAOIs being associated with prominent discontinuation symptoms. Patients at highest risk for discontinuation symptoms include those on antidepressants with shorter half-lives, those who have been taking antidepressants for 8 weeks of longer, those using higher doses, younger people, and those who have experienced discontinuation symptoms before. Agomelatine is not associated with any discontinuation syndrome. If a discontinuation reaction occurs, restarting the antidepressant of switching to an alternative with a longer half-life and tapering more slowly may be necessary. Explanation and reassurance are often sufficient for mild symptoms. These guidelines are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition and a study by Tint (2008).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is the best example of a leading question?
Your Answer: Do you plan to take another attempt on your life?
Correct Answer: So, when you took the overdose you didn't want to die, did you?
Explanation:Techniques for Conducting Effective Interviews: Avoiding Leading Questions
One technique to avoid when conducting interviews is the use of leading questions. These are questions that suggest a particular answer of response, and can result in inaccurate of biased information. Instead, interviewers should strive to ask open-ended questions that allow the respondent to provide their own thoughts and opinions. By avoiding leading questions, interviewers can gather more reliable and unbiased information from their subjects. Additionally, interviewers should be mindful of their tone and body language, as these can also influence the responses they receive. Overall, effective interviewing requires careful preparation and a focus on creating a comfortable and open environment for the respondent.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old man with a recent onset of seizures and a family history of epilepsy is referred for an EEG. He is currently taking oral carbamazepine. His EEG reveals mild diffuse instability.
What is the most probable cause for this EEG finding?Your Answer: Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
Correct Answer: Antipsychotic medication
Explanation:EEG waveforms may be slightly disrupted by antipsychotic medication, while sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) is linked to specific periodic sharp wave complexes (PSWC) during the middle and late stages of the illness. Generalized seizures would exhibit more pronounced irregularities, whereas temporal lobe epilepsy (TLE) would display anomalous activity originating from a single temporal lobe.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Description And Measurement
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
Which attachment theorist differentiated between deprivation and privation?
Your Answer: Ainsworth
Correct Answer: Spitz
Explanation:René Spitz’s Study on Anaclitic Depression in Children
René Spitz conducted a study on children who were deprived of their primary caregiver and found that they experienced a type of depression known as anaclitic depression. This type of depression is characterized by a lack of interest in the environment, a decrease in physical activity, and a failure to thrive. Spitz’s study highlights the importance of a primary caregiver in a child’s development and the negative effects of deprivation on their emotional and physical well-being. The study emphasizes the need for children to form secure attachments with their caregivers to promote healthy development.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
How can the immaturity of a defense mechanism be identified?
Your Answer: Projection
Explanation:Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
What assessment would you select to evaluate the functioning of the frontal lobe?
Your Answer: The Wisconsin card sorting test
Explanation:The tests that assess frontal lobe function include the Trail making test, Wisconsin card sorting test, Controlled oral word association, Verbal fluency, Tower of London (of Hanoi) tests, Rule shift cards test, Cognitive estimates test, Stroop test, Hayling test, Brixton test, Action programme test, Zoo map test, and The modified six elements test. On the other hand, the two point discrimination test evaluates somatosensory function, which is associated with the parietal lobe.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cognitive Assessment
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 25-year-old female who has a past of opioid addiction has successfully maintained sobriety and is seeking support in controlling her urges.
What would be the most suitable medication intervention for managing her cravings?Your Answer: Acamprosate calcium
Explanation:Pharmacological Treatments for Alcohol Dependence
Acamprosate, when used in conjunction with counselling, has been found to be effective in helping alcohol-dependent patients with strong cravings maintain abstinence. Bupropion hydrochloride, which is primarily used as an antidepressant, has also been shown to be effective in maintaining smoking cessation. Disulfiram, on the other hand, causes an unpleasant systemic reaction when alcohol is consumed due to the buildup of acetaldehyde. Nalmefene has recently been licensed for the reduction of alcohol consumption in alcohol-dependent patients with a high drinking risk level who do not have physical withdrawal symptoms and do not require immediate detoxification. Finally, naltrexone, an opioid-receptor antagonist, may be used in the treatment of alcohol dependence after successful withdrawal.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
Which category of movement disorders do tics fall under?
Your Answer: Hyperkinesia
Explanation:Hyperkinesia is a defining feature of tics.
Movement Disorders: Key Features
Movement disorders refer to a range of conditions that affect voluntary muscle movements. These disorders can be caused by various factors, including neurological conditions, medication side effects, and metabolic imbalances. The following table outlines some of the key features of common movement disorders:
Akinesia: Absence of loss of control of voluntary muscle movements, often seen in severe Parkinson’s disease.
Bradykinesia: Slowness of voluntary movement, a core symptom of Parkinson’s disease.
Akathisia: Subjective feeling of inner restlessness, often caused by antipsychotic medication use.
Athetosis: Continuous stream of slow, flowing, writhing involuntary movements, often seen in cerebral palsy, stroke, and Huntington’s disease.
Chorea: Brief, quasi-purposeful, irregular contractions that appear to flow from one muscle to the next, often seen in Huntington’s disease and Wilson’s disease.
Dystonia: Involuntary sustained of intermittent muscle contractions that cause twisting and repetitive movements, abnormal postures, of both.
Dyskinesia: General term referring to problems with voluntary movements and the presence of involuntary movements, often drug-induced.
Myoclonus: A sequence of repeated, often non-rhythmic, brief shock-like jerks due to sudden involuntary contraction of relaxation of one of more muscles.
Parkinsonism: Syndrome characterized by tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia.
Tic: Sudden, repetitive, non-rhythmic, stereotyped motor movement of vocalization involving discrete muscle groups, often seen in Tourette’s syndrome.
Tremor: Involuntary, rhythmic, alternating movement of one of more body parts, often seen in essential tremor, Parkinson’s disease, and alcohol withdrawal.
Hemiballismus: Repetitive, but constantly varying, large amplitude involuntary movements of the proximal parts of the limbs, often seen in stroke and traumatic brain injury.
Stereotypies: Repetitive, simple movements that can be voluntarily suppressed, often seen in autism and intellectual disability.
It is important to consider the underlying conditions and factors that may contribute to movement disorders in order to properly diagnose and treat these conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
Which statement accurately describes the half-life of a drug?
Your Answer: It is the amount of time that the body would take to absorb half of the drug
Correct Answer: In zero order reactions, elimination is independent of concentration
Explanation:In zero order kinetics, the elimination of a drug occurs at a constant rate regardless of its concentration in the plasma. This results in a linear relationship between the plasma concentration and time from peak concentration. Unlike drugs that follow first order kinetics, drugs that follow zero order kinetics do not have a fixed half-life.
The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A student's parent complains about a teacher who they claim was too honest with their child which caused them to become upset. The student had asked the teacher if they were doing well in the class to which the teacher replied that they were struggling and needed to improve their grades.
In supervision with the principal, the teacher explained that they chose to be honest as they believe honesty is the best policy. They said they base this decision on the fact that if they were to lie, the student would not improve and would continue to struggle. They confirmed that they were aware that the student's response would be to become upset.
Which of the following ethical approaches is most aligned to the teacher's decision making?Your Answer: Virtue based
Correct Answer: Deontological
Explanation:The doctor’s decision is grounded in the moral righteousness of the act, rather than its consequences, and is therefore based on the principles of deontology, specifically the ‘categorical imperative’.
Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.
More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
What substance is classified as a butyrylcholinesterase inhibitor?
Your Answer: Rivastigmine
Explanation:Semorinemab is a potential treatment for dementia that works by targeting the N-terminal region of the tau protein. By binding to tau, it aims to reduce its spread within neurons and slow down the progression of the disease.
Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
Which statement about theories concerning selective attention is accurate?
Your Answer: Deutsch & Deutsch proposed that stimuli are filtered first before being processed for meaning
Correct Answer: Late selection models argue that information is selected after processing for meaning
Explanation:Selective attention involves filtering external stimuli and assigning meaning to things that should get our attention. Three main models have been proposed: Broadbent’s Filter model, Treisman’s Attenuation Theory, and Deutsch and Deutsch’s Late stage model. Broadbent’s model is an early selection model that filters input based on physical characteristics, while Treisman’s model is an intermediate selection model that uses a leaky filter to weaken some stimuli but allow them through. Deutsch and Deutsch’s model is a late selection model that analyzes input for meaning before filtering occurs. Treisman’s model includes a dictionary unit that emphasizes certain words have lower thresholds for getting our attention, such as our own name.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
A patient in their 60s taking an antipsychotic is found to have a QTc of 490ms. What would be the most appropriate alternative to their current antipsychotic medication?
Your Answer: Aripiprazole
Explanation:Amantadine and QTc Prolongation
Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
What brain region has been identified as a target for deep brain stimulation (DBS) in individuals with treatment-resistant depression?
Your Answer: Nucleus accumbens
Explanation:Deep brain stimulation (DBS) for treatment resistant depression targets specific brain regions based on their known involvement in pleasure, reward, and mood regulation. The nucleus accumbens is targeted due to its role in pleasure and reward processing. The inferior thalamic peduncle is targeted based on PET studies showing hyperactivity in depression. The lateral habenula is chosen due to observed hypermetabolism in depressed patients. The subgenual cingulate gyrus is targeted due to its hyperactivity in depression. The ventral capsule/ventral striatum is chosen based on its association with improved mood and reduced depressive symptoms following ablation treatments for OCD and depression.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
Which neuroimaging technique measures the amount of oxygenated hemoglobin in the blood?
Your Answer: Single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) scanning
Correct Answer: Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
Explanation:Functional Imaging Techniques
Functional imaging techniques are used to study brain activity by detecting changes in blood flow and oxygenation levels. One such technique is functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI), which measures the concentration of oxygenated haemoglobin in the blood. When neural activity increases in a specific area of the brain, blood flow to that area increases, leading to a higher concentration of haemoglobin.
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is another technique that uses magnetic fields to create images of the brain’s structure. Magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS) is a related technique that can detect several odd-numbered nuclei.
To obtain a more accurate anatomical location for functional information, single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) and positron emission tomography (PET) are used. SPECT and PET both provide information about brain activity by detecting the emission of particles. However, SPECT emits a single particle, while PET emits two particles. These techniques are useful for studying brain function in both healthy individuals and those with neurological disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 18
Correct
-
A client is referred to your clinic by their physician due to a recent decline in their mood. The client reports difficulty swallowing pills and shares that during their last visit with a psychiatrist, they were given an antidepressant in the form of a patch. Can you identify which antidepressant was previously prescribed to this client?
Your Answer: Selegiline
Explanation:Alternative Routes of Administration for Antidepressants
While most antidepressants are taken orally, there are a few alternative routes of administration available. However, it is important to note that these non-oral preparations should only be used when absolutely necessary, as they may not have a UK licence.
One effective alternative route is sublingual administration of fluoxetine liquid. Buccal administration of selegiline is also available. Crushed amitriptyline has been shown to be effective when administered via this route.
Intravenous administration is another option, with several antidepressants available in IV preparations, including citalopram, escitalopram, mirtazapine, amitriptyline, clomipramine, and allopregnanolone (which is licensed in the US for postpartum depression). Ketamine has also been shown to be effective when administered intravenously.
Intramuscular administration of flupentixol has been shown to have a mood elevating effect, but amitriptyline was discontinued as an IM preparation due to the high volumes required.
Transdermal administration of selegiline is available, and suppositories containing amitriptyline, clomipramine, imipramine, and trazodone have been manufactured by pharmacies, although there is no clear data on their effectiveness. Sertraline tablets and doxepin capsules have also been given rectally.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
What is an example of a drug that acts as an antagonist for NMDA receptors?
Your Answer: Neostigmine
Correct Answer: Memantine
Explanation:Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.
Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.
Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
What is the scale used to determine the presence of psychiatric disorders in a population?
Your Answer: YMRS
Correct Answer: GHQ
Explanation:The college is evaluating your comprehension of the term ‘caseness’ through this question. The GHQ is an established instrument used to detect individuals who meet the criteria for ‘caseness’.
Defining ‘Caseness’ in Psychological Rating Scales
When utilizing a psychological rating scale for screening purposes, it is crucial to establish a clear definition of ‘caseness.’ This refers to the threshold at which a respondent of participant is identified as a case, typically represented by a numerical cutoff value. Without a defined caseness, the results of the screening may be ambiguous of inconsistent. Therefore, it is essential to establish a clear operational definition of caseness to ensure accurate and reliable screening outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
You are requested to conduct a liaison psychiatry evaluation on a 78-year-old woman admitted to a medical ward with a COPD flare-up and suspected depression.
What are some characteristics of depression in the elderly?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypochondriacal symptoms may be more frequently reported than sadness of low mood
Explanation:There is a lower likelihood of elderly patients reporting feelings of sadness compared to younger patients with depression, and they may instead present with physical complaints. Depression rates in the elderly are often linked to physical health issues rather than just aging. There is no evidence to suggest that elderly depressed patients have a higher risk of developing dementia. The prognosis for depression in the elderly is similar to that of younger patients, and venlafaxine is safe to use in this population.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about attachment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Separation anxiety tends to occur after stranger anxiety
Explanation:The critical period for development of attachment and social skills is between 6 and 36 months of age. During this time, infants and toddlers are particularly sensitive to their caregivers’ responses and interactions, which can shape their emotional and social development. This period is crucial for establishing secure attachments and developing social skills that will influence their relationships throughout their lives.
Attachment Theory and Harlow’s Monkeys
Attachment theory, developed by John Bowlby, suggests that children have an innate tendency to form relationships with people around them to increase their chance of survival. This attachment is different from bonding, which concerns the mother’s feelings for her infant. Children typically single out a primary caregiver, referred to as the principle attachment figure, from about 1-3 months. The quality of a person’s early attachments is associated with their adult behavior, with poor attachments leading to withdrawn individuals who struggle to form relationships and good attachments leading to socially competent adults who can form healthy relationships.
Bowlby’s attachment model has four stages: preattachment, attachment in the making, clear-cut attachment, and formation of reciprocal attachment. The time from 6 months to 36 months is known as the critical period, during which a child is most vulnerable to interruptions in its attachment. Attachments are divided into secure and insecure types, with insecure types further divided into avoidant and ambivalent types.
Harlow’s experiment with young rhesus monkeys demonstrated the importance of the need for closeness over food. The experiment involved giving the monkeys a choice between two different mothers, one made of soft terry cloth but provided no food and the other made of wire but provided food from an attached baby bottle. The baby monkeys spent significantly more time with their cloth mother than with their wire mother, showing the importance of attachment and closeness in early development.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
What is the term used by Freud to describe the process through which people release their aggressive impulses?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Catharsis
Explanation:Theories of aggression can be categorized into three main perspectives: psychodynamic, sociological/drive, and cognitive and learning. Psychodynamic theory, proposed by Freud, suggests that aggression arises from a primary instinct called thanatos, which aims for destruction and death. Sociobiological/drive theory, proposed by Lorenz, suggests that aggression is instinctual and necessary for survival, and that stronger genes are selected through aggression. Cognitive and learning theory, proposed by Berkowitz, Rotter, Bandura, and Anderson, suggests that aggression can be learned through observational learning and is influenced by environmental factors. Bandura’s work introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, which suggests that behavior is influenced by both the environment and the individual’s behavior. Rotter’s social learning theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and their environment, while Anderson and Bushman’s general aggression model considers the role of social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
What is a known complication associated with the use of valproate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pancreatitis
Explanation:The use of valproate can lead to pancreatitis, which is a known and potentially fatal complication.
Valproate: Forms, Doses, and Adverse Effects
Valproate comes in three forms: semi-sodium valproate, valproic acid, and sodium valproate. Semi-sodium valproate is a mix of sodium valproate and valproic acid and is licensed for acute mania associated with bipolar disorder. Valproic acid is also licensed for acute mania, but this is not consistent with the Maudsley Guidelines. Sodium valproate is licensed for epilepsy. It is important to note that doses of sodium valproate and semi-sodium valproate are not the same, with a slightly higher dose required for sodium valproate.
Valproate is associated with many adverse effects, including nausea, tremor, liver injury, vomiting/diarrhea, gingival hyperplasia, memory impairment/confusional state, somnolence, weight gain, anaemia/thrombocytopenia, alopecia (with curly regrowth), severe liver damage, and pancreatitis. Increased liver enzymes are common, particularly at the beginning of therapy, and tend to be transient. Vomiting and diarrhea tend to occur at the start of treatment and remit after a few days. Severe liver damage is most likely to occur in the first six months of therapy, with the maximum risk being between two and twelve weeks. The risk also declines with advancing age.
Valproate is a teratogen and should not be initiated in women of childbearing potential. Approximately 10% of children exposed to valproate monotherapy during pregnancy suffer from congenital malformations, with the risk being dose-dependent. The most common malformations are neural tube defects, facial dysmorphism, cleft lip and palate, craniostenosis, cardiac, renal and urogenital defects, and limb defects. There is also a dose-dependent relationship between valproate and developmental delay, with approximately 30-40% of children exposed in utero experiencing delay in their early development, such as talking and walking later, lower intellectual abilities, poor language skills, and memory problems. There is also a thought to be a 3-fold increase of autism in children exposed in utero.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
What is another term for a set of alleles on a chromosome that typically passes down together as a unit in a family tree?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haplotype
Explanation:Recombination Fraction: A Measure of Distance Between Loci
When two loci are located on different chromosomes, they segregate independently during meiosis. However, if they are on the same chromosome, they tend to segregate together, unless crossing over occurs. Crossing over is a process in meiosis where two homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material, resulting in the shuffling of alleles. The likelihood of crossing over between two loci on a chromosome decreases as their distance from each other increases.
Hence, blocks of alleles on a chromosome tend to be transmitted together through generations, forming a haplotype. The recombination fraction is a measure of the distance between two loci on a chromosome. The closer the loci are, the lower the recombination fraction, and the more likely they are to be transmitted together. Conversely, the further apart the loci are, the higher the recombination fraction, and the more likely they are to be separated by crossing over. The recombination fraction can range from 0% if the loci are very close to 50% if they are on different chromosomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
What is the duration of time it takes for half of the olanzapine to be eliminated from the body?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 30 hours
Explanation:Given that olanzapine is a once daily medication, it is reasonable to estimate its half-life to fall within the range of 20-30 hours. As it happens, the actual half-life of olanzapine is 30 hours.
Antipsychotic Half-life and Time to Steady State
Antipsychotic medications are commonly used to treat various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. Understanding the half-life and time to steady state of these medications is important for determining dosing and monitoring their effectiveness.
Aripiprazole has a half-life of 75 hours and takes approximately 2 weeks to reach steady state. Olanzapine has a half-life of 30 hours and takes about 1 week to reach steady state. Risperidone has a half-life of 20 hours when taken orally and takes 2-3 days to reach steady state. Clozapine and Amisulpride both have a half-life of 12 hours and take 2-3 days to reach steady state. Ziprasidone has a shorter half-life of 7 hours and takes 2-3 days to reach steady state. Quetiapine has the shortest half-life of 6 hours and also takes 2-3 days to reach steady state.
Knowing the half-life and time to steady state of antipsychotic medications can help healthcare providers determine the appropriate dosing and frequency of administration. It can also aid in monitoring the effectiveness of the medication and adjusting the treatment plan as needed.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
The rate of elimination of a drug that exhibits first order kinetics is characterized by what property?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is proportional to its concentration with a linear relationship
Explanation:Many people confuse zero and first order kinetics, but it’s important to remember that zero order is non-linear while first order is linear. The linearity of first order kinetics refers to proportionality. The graphs used to illustrate this concept can be misleading, so it’s crucial to have a clear understanding of the difference between the two.
The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
Which individual delved into the field of medical sociology regarding the concept of 'the sick role'?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parson's
Explanation:The Sick Role and Illness Behavior
Mechanic and Volkart (1961) introduced the term illness behavior to describe how individuals perceive, evaluate, and respond to symptoms of physical dysfunction. Meanwhile, Talcott Parsons (1951) introduced the concept of the sick role as a temporary form of deviant behavior that is medically sanctioned.
According to Parsons, a sick person experiences conflicting desires to recover from the illness and to enjoy the secondary gains of attention and exemption from normal duties. The sick role is characterized by several rules, including the exemption of the sick person from their normal social roles, which is legitimized by society through the physician. The severity of the illness determines the strength of the exemption.
Additionally, sick persons are not held responsible for their illnesses, as they are beyond personal control. However, they have a duty to try to get well, as sickness is considered undesirable by society. Seeking competent technical help and cooperating with caregivers are also expected of sick persons.
In summary, the sick role and illness behavior are important concepts in understanding how individuals respond to physical dysfunction and how society legitimizes and responds to illness.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
What is evaluated in the 'Hayling test'?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sentence completion
Explanation:Assessing Executive Function with the Hayling and Brixton Tests
The Hayling and Brixton tests are two assessments designed to evaluate executive function. The Hayling Sentence Completion Test consists of two sets of 15 sentences, with the last word missing. In the first section, participants complete the sentences, providing a measure of response initiation speed. The second part, the Hayling, requires participants to complete a sentence with a nonsense ending word, suppressing a sensible one. This provides measures of response suppression ability and thinking time. Performance on such tests has been linked to frontal lobe dysfunction and dysexecutive symptoms in everyday life.
The Brixton Test is a rule detection and rule following task. Impairments on such tasks are commonly demonstrated in individuals with dysexecutive problems. Overall, these tests provide valuable insights into executive function and can help identify areas of weakness that may require intervention.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
Which class of antidepressants share a molecular structure similar to carbamazepine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tricyclics
Explanation:Carbamazepine mechanism of action involves decreasing the metabolism of dopamine and noradrenaline, which is similar to tricyclic antidepressants due to their comparable molecular structure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 31
Incorrect
-
Which receptor functions as an ionotropic receptor?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5HT-3
Explanation:Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 32
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old man experiences intense anxiety when approaching bridges of overpasses. He attributes this to an episode several years ago when he witnessed a car accident on a bridge. Since then, he has had repetitive, intense imagery of himself of others falling off the bridge and into the water below. He is distressed by these thoughts and tries to avoid bridges of overpasses whenever possible. He recognizes the thoughts as his own but fears they represent a desire to harm himself of others, which he does not want to do at any other time. What is the best way to describe his anxiety?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obsessive thought
Explanation:A woman is experiencing an obsessive thought that manifests as persistent imagery, which she cannot control. She tries to suppress the thought, indicating the development of compulsive behavior. She may also experience autoscopic hallucinations, where she sees a hallucinatory double of herself. Compulsions are repetitive behaviors that she uses to alleviate anxiety caused by obsessive experiences, which can be either motor of cognitive. Additionally, she may experience ruminative cognitions, which are repetitive thoughts that do not lead to any conclusion. In some cases, she may also experience thought insertion, where she attributes the source of the image to an external force.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
-
-
Question 33
Incorrect
-
An older adult on haloperidol for a psychotic disorder has an extended QTc interval on a routine ECG. What antipsychotic medication is thought to have the least impact on the QTc interval and could be a viable substitute?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aripiprazole
Explanation:Amantadine and QTc Prolongation
Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 34
Incorrect
-
What stage of sleep do most adults spend the majority of their time in during the night?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stage 2
Explanation:– Dement and Kleitman (1957) classified sleep into five stages.
– Normal adults spend the majority of their sleep in Stage 2 (55%).
– Non-REM sleep is divided into four stages: Stage 1 (5%), Stage 2 (55%), Stage 3 (5%), and Stage 4 (10%).
– REM sleep is Stage 5 and normal adults spend 25% of their sleep in this stage. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 35
Incorrect
-
A physician declines to administer clozapine to a middle-aged man with treatment-resistant schizophrenia due to his previous history of developing neutropenia when he was first prescribed the medication. Which ethical principle is being upheld in this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non-maleficence
Explanation:Healthcare Ethics and Conflicting Principles
British physician Thomas Percival is credited with developing the first modern code of healthcare ethics, which prioritizes the principle of non-maleficence. This principle dictates that a clinician’s primary obligation is to avoid causing harm to the patient, even if it means overriding the patient’s autonomy. This idea has been echoed in classical medical writings and is a fundamental rule in common morality.
In the given scenario, the clinician chooses not to prescribe clozapine, which is likely to cause neutropenia, in order to avoid causing harm to the patient. This decision is in line with the principle of non-maleficence.
However, the principle of autonomy recognizes an individual’s right to self-determination, which can sometimes conflict with the principles of beneficence and non-maleficence. The principle of beneficence requires clinicians to act in the patient’s best interest and prevent harm.
Teleology is an ethical theory that evaluates actions based on their final outcome of causality.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
-
-
Question 36
Incorrect
-
When activated, which type of receptor increases the permeability of a plasma membrane to chloride ions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: GABA-A
Explanation:GABA-A is the sole ionotropic receptor among the options provided. Its function involves the selective conduction of chloride ions across the cell membrane upon activation by GABA, leading to hyperpolarization of the neuron.
Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 37
Incorrect
-
In what society is the fear of 'losing face' and the desire to avoid it associated with a significant number of suicides?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: South Asian
Explanation:Mediterranean countries typically have lower suicide rates compared to South Asian cultures, where the public loss of credibility, of losing face, is often catastrophize and can lead to a higher incidence of suicide, as seen in Sri Lanka.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Stigma And Culture
-
-
Question 38
Incorrect
-
If a woman taking lithium is found to have an elevated TSH and normal T4 during a routine check-up, what would be the most suitable next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue lithium and recheck bloods in one month
Explanation:Lithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 39
Incorrect
-
What is a crucial component of the brain's 'reward pathway'?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nucleus accumbens
Explanation:Brain Regions and Functions
The brain is a complex organ with various regions that perform different functions. One of the key regions involved in the reward system is the nucleus accumbens (NA). This region receives input from the ventral tegmental area, which uses dopamine as a neurotransmitter. The NA is responsible for processing reward-related information and is often referred to as the pleasure center of the brain.
The limbic cortex, on the other hand, is not part of the reward circuit. It is involved in emotion, memory, and motivation.
Another important gland in the brain is the pituitary gland. This endocrine gland secretes nine hormones that are involved in maintaining homeostasis in the body.
The substantia nigra is part of the basal ganglia and is involved in movement, learning, and addiction. Although it has a role in reward-seeking, it is not considered to be part of the classic reward pathway.
Finally, the tegmentum is a region of the brainstem that contains several cranial nerve nuclei. It is involved in various functions such as movement, sensation, and autonomic control.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
-
-
Question 40
Incorrect
-
What neuroimaging result is the strongest indicator of new variant CJD?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased signal in the pulvinar nucleus of thalamus bilaterally
Explanation:Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease: Differences between vCJD and CJD
Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD) is a prion disease that includes scrapie, BSE, and Kuru. However, there are important differences between sporadic (also known as classic) CJD and variant CJD. The table below summarizes these differences.
vCJD:
– Longer duration from onset of symptoms to death (a year of more)
– Presents with psychiatric and behavioral symptoms before neurological symptoms
– MRI shows pulvinar sign
– EEG shows generalized slowing
– Originates from infected meat products
– Affects younger people (age 25-30)CJD:
– Shorter duration from onset of symptoms to death (a few months)
– Presents with neurological symptoms
– MRI shows bilateral anterior basal ganglia high signal
– EEG shows biphasic and triphasic waves 1-2 per second
– Originates from genetic mutation (bad luck)
– Affects older people (age 55-65)Overall, understanding the differences between vCJD and CJD is important for diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 41
Incorrect
-
Which of the following diagnostic characteristics is most strongly linked to schizophrenia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Running commentary' hallucinations
Explanation:Somatisation is a clinical feature that can be present in a variety of disorders and is not exclusive to schizophrenia. Delusions of guilt and grandeur are more commonly associated with affective psychosis, while running commentary is a classic symptom of schizophrenia and is given diagnostic significance in ICD-10.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
-
-
Question 42
Incorrect
-
What is the term used to describe the occurrence where natural fluctuations in repeated data can appear as actual change due to the tendency of unusually high of low measurements to be followed by measurements that are closer to the average?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Regression to the mean
Explanation:Regression to the mean is a statistical occurrence where the natural fluctuations in repeated data can appear as actual changes. This happens because measurements that are exceptionally high of low are typically followed by measurements that are closer to the average.
Understanding the Placebo Effect
In general, a placebo is an inert substance that has no pharmacological activity but looks, smells, and tastes like the active drug it is compared to. The placebo effect is the observable improvement seen when a patient takes a placebo, which results from patient-related factors such as expectations rather than the placebo itself. Negative effects due to patient-related factors are termed the nocebo effect.
Active placebos are treatments with chemical activity that mimic the side effects of the drug being tested in a clinical trial. They are used to prevent unblinding of the drug versus the placebo control group. Placebos need not always be pharmacological and can be procedural, such as sham electroconvulsive therapy.
The placebo effect is influenced by factors such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the branding of the compound. The placebo response is greater in mild illness, and the response rate is increasing over time. Placebo response is usually short-lived, and repeated use can lead to a diminished effect, known as placebo sag.
It is difficult to separate placebo effects from spontaneous remission, and patients who enter clinical trials generally do so when acutely unwell, making it challenging to show treatment effects. Breaking the blind may influence the outcome, and the expectancy effect may explain why active placebos are more effective than inert placebos. Overall, understanding the placebo effect is crucial in clinical trials and personalized medicine.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 43
Incorrect
-
In what category of antipsychotics does risperidone fall under?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Benzisoxazole
Explanation:Antipsychotics can be classified in various ways, including by chemical structure and generation. The two main generations are typical (first generation) and atypical (second generation) antipsychotics. Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic and belongs to the benzisoxazole class. It works as an antagonist for dopamine D2, 5-HT 2a, histamine-1 receptor, and alpha 1-adrenoceptor. Other antipsychotics belong to different structural categories, such as butyrophenones (e.g. haloperidol), dibenzodiazapines (e.g. clozapine), dibenzothiazapines (e.g. quetiapine), Thienobenzodiazepine (e.g. olanzapine), phenothiazines (e.g. chlorpromazine, trifluoperazine, thioridazine), thioxanthenes (e.g. flupentixol), diphenylbutylpiperidine (e.g. pimozide), substituted benzamides (e.g. sulpiride), and arylpiperidylindole (quinolone) (e.g. aripiprazole).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 44
Incorrect
-
Which statement about multiple sclerosis is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is more common in males
Explanation:The statement MS is more common in females is actually correct.
Multiple Sclerosis: An Overview
Multiple sclerosis is a neurological disorder that is classified into three categories: primary progressive, relapsing-remitting, and secondary progressive. Primary progressive multiple sclerosis affects 5-10% of patients and is characterized by a steady progression with no remissions. Relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis affects 20-30% of patients and presents with a relapsing-remitting course but does not lead to serious disability. Secondary progressive multiple sclerosis affects 60% of patients and initially presents with a relapsing-remitting course but is then followed by a phase of progressive deterioration.
The disorder typically begins between the ages of 20 and 40 and is characterized by multiple demyelinating lesions that have a preference for the optic nerves, cerebellum, brainstem, and spinal cord. Patients with multiple sclerosis present with a variety of neurological signs that reflect the presence and distribution of plaques. Ocular features of multiple sclerosis include optic neuritis, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and ocular motor cranial neuropathy.
Multiple sclerosis is more common in women than in men and is seen with increasing frequency as the distance from the equator increases. It is believed to be caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors, with monozygotic concordance at 25%. Overall, multiple sclerosis is a predominantly white matter disease that can have a significant impact on a patient’s quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 45
Incorrect
-
What is the suggested way in which St John's Wort works?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: SNRI and MAOI
Explanation:Antidepressants: Mechanism of Action
Antidepressants are a class of drugs used to treat depression and other mood disorders. The mechanism of action of antidepressants varies depending on the specific drug. Here are some examples:
Mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant (NaSSa). It works by blocking certain receptors in the brain, including 5HT-1, 5HT-2, 5HT-3, and H1 receptors. It also acts as a presynaptic alpha 2 antagonist, which stimulates the release of noradrenaline and serotonin.
Venlafaxine and duloxetine are both serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs). They work by blocking the reuptake of these neurotransmitters, which increases their availability in the brain.
Reboxetine is a noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (NRI). It works by blocking the reuptake of noradrenaline, which increases its availability in the brain.
Bupropion is a noradrenaline and dopamine reuptake inhibitor (NDRI). It works by blocking the reuptake of these neurotransmitters, which increases their availability in the brain.
Trazodone is a weak serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SRI) and 5HT agonist. It works by increasing the availability of serotonin in the brain.
St John’s Wort is a natural supplement that has been used to treat depression. It has a weak monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) effect and a weak SNRI effect.
In summary, antidepressants work by increasing the availability of certain neurotransmitters in the brain, such as serotonin, noradrenaline, and dopamine. The specific mechanism of action varies depending on the drug.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 46
Incorrect
-
What is the probable diagnosis for an adult physicist who avoids teaching and publishing, is known for walking barefoot and dressing casually, and prefers solitude over socializing with colleagues and students?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schizoid personality disorder
Explanation:Schizoid personality disorder is a personality disorder that is only recognized in the ICD-10. It is characterized by a lack of enjoyment in activities, emotional detachment, difficulty expressing emotions, indifference to praise of criticism, little interest in sexual experiences, a preference for solitary activities, excessive introspection, a lack of close relationships, and insensitivity to social norms. When diagnosing this disorder, it is important to differentiate it from an autistic spectrum disorder. One way to do this is to look for a lack of reliance on routines and rituals, as well as a lack of desire for friendship of relationships. While individuals with an autistic spectrum disorder may struggle with relationships, they typically desire them and experience feelings of loneliness.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
-
-
Question 47
Incorrect
-
What is the most prevalent type of attachment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Secure
Explanation:Attachment (Ainsworth)
Psychologist Mary Ainsworth developed the ‘Strange Situation procedure’ to study and categorize attachment in children aged 12 to 18 months. The procedure involves seven steps, including two separations and two reunions, and takes place in one room. The child’s attachment is classified into one of three styles: secure, anxious-resistant, and anxious-avoidant. A fourth category, disorganized, is sometimes observed. Ainsworth suggested that the child’s attachment style is determined by the primary caregiver’s behavior.
Mary Main later developed the Adult Attachment Interview and identified four categories of attachment in adults that correspond to those observed in the strange situation. The distribution of adult attachment styles correlates with those of the strange situation, with 70% of children and adults having secure attachment. Attachment styles also seem to be passed on to subsequent generations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
-
-
Question 48
Incorrect
-
Who is credited with introducing the idea of the 'sick role'?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parsons
Explanation:The Sick Role and Illness Behavior
Mechanic and Volkart (1961) introduced the term illness behavior to describe how individuals perceive, evaluate, and respond to symptoms of physical dysfunction. Meanwhile, Talcott Parsons (1951) introduced the concept of the sick role as a temporary form of deviant behavior that is medically sanctioned.
According to Parsons, a sick person experiences conflicting desires to recover from the illness and to enjoy the secondary gains of attention and exemption from normal duties. The sick role is characterized by several rules, including the exemption of the sick person from their normal social roles, which is legitimized by society through the physician. The severity of the illness determines the strength of the exemption.
Additionally, sick persons are not held responsible for their illnesses, as they are beyond personal control. However, they have a duty to try to get well, as sickness is considered undesirable by society. Seeking competent technical help and cooperating with caregivers are also expected of sick persons.
In summary, the sick role and illness behavior are important concepts in understanding how individuals respond to physical dysfunction and how society legitimizes and responds to illness.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
-
-
Question 49
Incorrect
-
What are the two purine bases?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adenine and guanine
Explanation:Nucleotides: The Building Blocks of DNA and RNA
Nucleotides are the fundamental units of DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) and RNA (ribonucleic acid). Each nucleotide consists of three components: a sugar molecule (deoxyribose in DNA and ribose in RNA), a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base. The nitrogenous bases can be classified into two categories: purines and pyrimidines. The purine bases include adenine and guanine, while the pyrimidine bases are cytosine, thymine (in DNA), and uracil (in RNA).
The arrangement of nucleotides in DNA and RNA determines the genetic information that is passed from one generation to the next. The sequence of nitrogenous bases in DNA forms the genetic code that determines the traits of an organism. RNA, on the other hand, plays a crucial role in protein synthesis by carrying the genetic information from DNA to the ribosomes, where proteins are synthesized.
Understanding the structure and function of nucleotides is essential for understanding the molecular basis of life. The discovery of the structure of DNA and the role of nucleotides in genetic information has revolutionized the field of biology and has led to many breakthroughs in medicine, biotechnology, and genetics.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 50
Incorrect
-
Which receptors are believed to be hypersensitive and responsible for causing tardive dyskinesia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: D2
Explanation:The development of tardive dyskinesia is thought to be caused by an increased sensitivity of postsynaptic D2 receptors in the nigrostriatal pathway. Therefore, clozapine is recommended as a treatment option since it has minimal binding affinity for D2 receptors.
Tardive Dyskinesia: Symptoms, Causes, Risk Factors, and Management
Tardive dyskinesia (TD) is a condition that affects the face, limbs, and trunk of individuals who have been on neuroleptics for months to years. The movements fluctuate over time, increase with emotional arousal, decrease with relaxation, and disappear with sleep. The cause of TD remains theoretical, but the postsynaptic dopamine (D2) receptor supersensitivity hypothesis is the most persistent. Other hypotheses include the presynaptic dopaminergic/noradrenergic hyperactivity hypothesis, the cholinergic interneuron burnout hypothesis, the excitatory/oxidative stress hypothesis, and the synaptic plasticity hypothesis. Risk factors for TD include advancing age, female sex, ethnicity, longer illness duration, intellectual disability and brain damage, negative symptoms in schizophrenia, mood disorders, diabetes, smoking, alcohol and substance misuse, FGA vs SGA treatment, higher antipsychotic dose, anticholinergic co-treatment, and akathisia.
Management options for TD include stopping any anticholinergic, reducing antipsychotic dose, changing to an antipsychotic with lower propensity for TD, and using tetrabenazine, vitamin E, of amantadine as add-on options. Clozapine is the antipsychotic most likely to be associated with resolution of symptoms. Vesicular monoamine transporter type 2 (VMAT2) inhibitors are agents that cause a depletion of neuroactive peptides such as dopamine in nerve terminals and are used to treat chorea due to neurodegenerative diseases of dyskinesias due to neuroleptic medications (tardive dyskinesia).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 51
Incorrect
-
Mandatory sterilization of people with cognitive impairments during the Nazi regime is an instance of what kind of genetic alteration of a society?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Negative eugenics
Explanation:Understanding Eugenics, Dysgenics, and Epigenetics
‘Eugenics’ was first coined by Francis Galton in 1883 and is based on Mendelian inheritance. Negative eugenics involves reducing the reproduction of individuals with undesirable traits, which was widely practiced in Nazi Germany. On the other hand, positive eugenics promotes the increased reproduction of those with desirable traits.
Dysgenics, on the other hand, refers to the idea that the IQ of a population is decreasing as individuals with higher intelligence have fewer children. This concept is a cause for concern in the modern world.
Epigenetics is a term used to describe changes in gene activity that are not linked to changes in DNA. These changes are influenced by other factors and can have a significant impact on an individual’s health and well-being.
Understanding these concepts is crucial in the field of genetics and can help us make informed decisions about the future of our society.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- History Of Psychiatry
-
-
Question 52
Incorrect
-
What is the origin of agoraphobia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Escape conditioning is involved
Explanation:Beck identified two cognitive distortions, catastrophization and selective abstraction, which play a role in the development of depression. These distortions involve magnifying negative events and selectively focusing on negative aspects, respectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Aetiology
-
-
Question 53
Incorrect
-
What is an example of a common antipsychotic medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sulpiride
Explanation:Antipsychotics can be classified in different ways, with the most common being typical (first generation) and atypical (second generation) types. Typical antipsychotics block dopamine (D2) receptors and have varying degrees of M1, Alpha-1, and H1 receptor blockade. Atypical antipsychotics have a lower propensity for extrapyramidal side-effects and are attributed to the combination of relatively lower D2 antagonism with 5HT2A antagonism. They are also classified by structure, with examples including phenothiazines, butyrophenones, thioxanthenes, diphenylbutylpiperidine, dibenzodiazepines, benzoxazoles, thienobenzodiazepine, substituted benzamides, and arylpiperidylindole (quinolone). Studies have found little evidence to support the superiority of atypicals over typicals in terms of efficacy, discontinuation rates, of adherence, with the main difference being the side-effect profile. The Royal College also favors classification by structure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 54
Incorrect
-
Which depression assessment tool contains more physiological aspects compared to the others?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hamilton depression rating scale
Explanation:The Hamilton depression rating scale is focused on biological aspects and is administered by an observer, making it suitable for assessing patients with cognitive impairment. The Beck depression inventory emphasizes cognitive items. The Montgomery-Asberg depression rating scale is highly responsive to changes. The visual analogue scale is a straightforward tool where patients indicate their mood state on a line. The Zung self rating scale is a self-administered assessment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
-
-
Question 55
Incorrect
-
What is a characteristic physical trait of individuals with bulimia nervosa?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bilateral parotid gland swelling
Explanation:Bulimia nervosa is a condition characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors such as vomiting, laxative use, of excessive exercise. One of the hallmark physical symptoms of bulimia nervosa is bilateral swelling of the parotid glands, which are located on either side of the face near the ears. This swelling is caused by repeated vomiting and can be a visible sign of the disorder. Other symptoms of bulimia nervosa may include dental problems, gastrointestinal issues, and electrolyte imbalances. The International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision (ICD-10) classifies bulimia nervosa as F50.2.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- History And Mental State
-
-
Question 56
Incorrect
-
What is the term used to describe the decrease in anxiety that occurs during flooding therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Habituation
Explanation:Flooding as a Treatment for Phobias
Flooding is a treatment method for phobias that involves directly confronting the fear and remaining in the situation until the anxiety subsides. This process is called habituation and is different from systematic desensitization. However, flooding can be challenging for patients as it produces high levels of anxiety, which can cause them to leave the situation before the fear response is extinguished. As a result, desensitization is generally preferred over flooding as a treatment method for phobias.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
-
-
Question 57
Incorrect
-
What is the most frequent reason for polyuria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus
Explanation:Psychogenic polydipsia is a condition where there is excessive consumption of fluids leading to polyuria, and it is commonly seen in psychiatric conditions such as schizophrenia and developmental disorders. The exact mechanism is unknown, but it is thought to be due to a defect in thirst and a dysfunction in AVP regulation. Patients with psychogenic polydipsia rarely complain of thirst but instead provide delusional explanations for their excessive drinking of state that drinking reduces their anxiety and makes them feel better. If fluid intake exceeds the capacity for excretion, then the resultant hyponatremia may produce signs of water intoxication. It is best managed by fluid restriction. Differential diagnosis should be done to rule out other causes of polyuria and polydipsia. Investigations such as fluid balance charts, urine dipstick, serum U&E and calcium, and urine and plasma osmolality should be arranged. Primary polydipsia can be subclassified into psychogenic and dipsogenic types.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 58
Incorrect
-
What is the definition of the term 'prolixity'?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A less severe form of flight of ideas
Explanation:Prolixity is a minor form of flight of ideas that can occur during hypomania. It is characterized by a decrease in clang and verbal associations, and a more focused direction of thought. The speed of thought is also not as rapid as in other forms of flight of ideas.
Formal Thought Disorders
In formal thought disorders, changes in the speed, coherence, and cogency of thought can be observed from a patient’s speech. These disorders can also be self-reported and may be accompanied by enhanced use of nonverbal language. One possible indication is a lack of an adequate connection between two consecutive thoughts, which is called ‘asyndesis’.
There are several types of formal thought disorders, including inhibited thinking, retarded thinking, circumstantial thinking, restricted thinking, perseverative thinking, rumination, pressured thinking, flight of ideas, tangential thinking, thought blocking, disruption of thought, incoherence/derailment, and neologisms.
Inhibited thinking is about the subjective experience of the patient, who may feel that their thinking process is slowed down of blocked by an inner wall of resistance. Retarded thinking, on the other hand, is about the observed quality of thought as inferred through speech, where the flow of thought processes is slowed down and sluggish.
Circumstantial thinking refers to an inability to separate the essential from the unessential during a conversation without rendering the conversation incoherent. Restricted thinking involves a limited range of thought content, fixation on one particular topic of a small number of topics only, and a stereotyped pattern of thinking.
Perseverative thinking is characterized by the persistent repetition of previously used words, phrases, of details to the point where they become meaningless in the context of the current stage of the interview. Rumination is the endless mental preoccupation with, of excessive concern over, mostly unpleasant thoughts.
Pressured thinking, also known as crowding of thought, is when the patient feels helplessly exposed to the pressures of floods of different ideas of thoughts. Flight of ideas involves an increasing multitude of thoughts and ideas which are no longer firmly guided by clear goal-directed thinking.
Tangential thinking occurs when the patient appears to understand the contents of the questions addressed to them but provides answers which are completely out of context. Thought blocking of disruption of thought refers to sudden disruption of an otherwise normal flow of thought of speech for no obvious reason.
Incoherence of derailment is when the interviewer is unable to establish sensible connections between the patient’s thinking and verbal output, which is sometimes also called derailment. Neologisms involve the formation of new words of usage of words which disregard normal conventions and are generally not easily understandable.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 59
Incorrect
-
What is the most accurate estimation of the heritability of schizophrenia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 55%
Explanation:Heritability: Understanding the Concept
Heritability is a concept that is often misunderstood. It is not a measure of the extent to which genes cause a condition in an individual. Rather, it is the proportion of phenotypic variance attributable to genetic variance. In other words, it tells us how much of the variation in a condition seen in a population is due to genetic factors. Heritability is calculated using statistical techniques and can range from 0.0 to 1.0. For human behavior, most estimates of heritability fall in the moderate range of .30 to .60.
The quantity (1.0 – heritability) gives the environment ability of the trait. This is the proportion of phenotypic variance attributable to environmental variance. The following table provides estimates of heritability for major conditions:
Condition Heritability estimate (approx)
ADHD 85%
Autism 70%
Schizophrenia 55%
Bipolar 55%
Anorexia 35%
Alcohol dependence 35%
Major depression 30%
OCD 25%It is important to note that heritability tells us nothing about individuals. It is a population-level measure that helps us understand the relative contributions of genetic and environmental factors to a particular condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 60
Incorrect
-
Whose studies on attachment with primates showed that comfort and affection were prioritized over nourishment and sustenance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Harlow
Explanation:Harry Harlow conducted controversial experiments with rhesus macaque monkeys and surrogate ‘mothers’ made of inanimate objects, revealing that the infants preferred comfort and warmth over food.
Mary Ainsworth created the Strange Situation classification to categorize infants’ attachment behaviors.
John Bowlby coined the term ‘attachment’ to describe a child’s bond with their mother.
Konrad Lorenz studied imprinting in geese that were hatched in incubators.
Mary Main played a role in the development of the Adult Attachment Interview, which evaluates an individual’s early attachment experiences. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
-
-
Question 61
Incorrect
-
What cognitive ability is assessed by Raven's Progressive Matrices?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intelligence
Explanation:Intelligence Test: Raven’s Progressive Matrices
The Raven’s Progressive Matrices (RPM) test is designed to measure general intelligence without the use of verbal language. The test consists of a series of items where the participant is required to identify the missing pattern in a sequence. The difficulty level of the items increases progressively, which demands greater cognitive capacity to encode and analyze the patterns.
There are three versions of the RPM test, each designed for different age groups and abilities. The Coloured Progressive Matrices is intended for younger children and special groups, while the Stanford Progressive Matrices is suitable for individuals aged 6 to 80 years old with average intelligence. The Advanced Progressive Matrices is designed for above-average adolescents and adults.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
-
-
Question 62
Incorrect
-
Which process breaks down dopamine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: COMT and both forms of MAO
Explanation:COMT and both types of MAO are responsible for the metabolism of dopamine.
Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 63
Incorrect
-
What is the effect of being heterozygous for the APOE4 allele on the risk of Alzheimer's compared to those who do not have the allele?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increases it by a factor of 3
Explanation:Genetics plays a role in the development of Alzheimer’s disease, with different genes being associated with early onset and late onset cases. Early onset Alzheimer’s, which is rare, is linked to three genes: amyloid precursor protein (APP), presenilin one (PSEN-1), and presenilin two (PSEN-2). The APP gene, located on chromosome 21, produces a protein that is a precursor to amyloid. The presenilins are enzymes that cleave APP to produce amyloid beta fragments, and alterations in the ratios of these fragments can lead to plaque formation. Late onset Alzheimer’s is associated with the apolipoprotein E (APOE) gene on chromosome 19, with the E4 variant increasing the risk of developing the disease. People with Down’s syndrome are also at high risk of developing Alzheimer’s due to inheriting an extra copy of the APP gene.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 64
Incorrect
-
What behavior is the patient displaying when she consistently answers every question during an MMSE with the phrase Keep calm and carry on?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Verbal stereotypy
Explanation:Verbal Stereotypy, Logoclonia, Neologism, Perseveration – Understanding Repetitive Language Behaviors
Repetitive language behaviors can manifest in various forms, including verbal stereotypy, logoclonia, neologism, and perseveration. Verbal stereotypy involves the use of the same word of phrase regardless of the situation. Logoclonia is the repetition of the last syllable of a word. Neologism refers to the creation of a new word of the use of a known word with a different meaning. Perseveration is the repetition of the same response to different stimuli, which continues beyond the point of relevance. It is different from verbal stereotypy because the response is meaningful but inappropriate. Understanding these different forms of repetitive language behaviors can help in identifying and addressing them appropriately.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- History And Mental State
-
-
Question 65
Incorrect
-
What is the most appropriate term to describe the sequence of events that occurred when a man experienced chest pain at work, was taken to the hospital, received blood tests and an ECG, was prescribed medication, and signed off work for a month by a doctor?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sick role
Explanation:There is no indication of feigning symptoms for personal benefit.
The Sick Role and Illness Behavior
Mechanic and Volkart (1961) introduced the term illness behavior to describe how individuals perceive, evaluate, and respond to symptoms of physical dysfunction. Meanwhile, Talcott Parsons (1951) introduced the concept of the sick role as a temporary form of deviant behavior that is medically sanctioned.
According to Parsons, a sick person experiences conflicting desires to recover from the illness and to enjoy the secondary gains of attention and exemption from normal duties. The sick role is characterized by several rules, including the exemption of the sick person from their normal social roles, which is legitimized by society through the physician. The severity of the illness determines the strength of the exemption.
Additionally, sick persons are not held responsible for their illnesses, as they are beyond personal control. However, they have a duty to try to get well, as sickness is considered undesirable by society. Seeking competent technical help and cooperating with caregivers are also expected of sick persons.
In summary, the sick role and illness behavior are important concepts in understanding how individuals respond to physical dysfunction and how society legitimizes and responds to illness.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
-
-
Question 66
Incorrect
-
What is the accurate statement regarding the pharmacokinetics of medications used in geriatric patients with mental health conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In first order kinetics, the rate of elimination is proportional to drug concentration
Explanation:Elimination kinetics refers to the process by which drugs are removed from the body. In first order kinetics, the rate of elimination is directly proportional to the plasma concentration of the drug. This is because clearance mechanisms, such as enzymes, are typically not saturated and drug clearance is observed to be a linear function of the drug’s concentration. A constant fraction of drug is eliminated per unit time.
The half-life of a drug is the time it takes for the plasma concentration to decrease by half. The rate of elimination is influenced by factors such as renal and hepatic function, as well as drug interactions.
Drug distribution is influenced by factors such as plasma protein binding, tissue perfusion, permeability of tissue membranes, and active transport out of tissues. The volume of distribution is a measure of the extent to which a drug is distributed throughout the body. It is calculated as the quantity of drug administered divided by the plasma concentration.
Drugs that are highly bound to plasma proteins can displace each other, leading to an increase in the free plasma concentration. This can result in increased drug effects of toxicity.
In some cases, a loading dose may be necessary to achieve therapeutic levels of a drug more quickly. This is particularly true for drugs with a long half-life, as it can take a longer time for the plasma levels of these drugs to reach a steady state. An initial loading dose can help to shorten the time to reach steady state levels.
Overall, understanding elimination kinetics is important for optimizing drug dosing and minimizing the risk of adverse effects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 67
Incorrect
-
What is the estimated number of alcohol units consumed by a 40-year-old man who drinks a 10-glass (70 cl) bottle of 37.5% ABV vodka every day, on a weekly basis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 190
Explanation:To calculate the units of alcohol in a drink, multiply the volume in litres by the percentage alcohol by volume (ABV). For example, a 70 cl (0.7 L) bottle of vodka with a 37.5% ABV contains 26 units. Consuming a bottle of this vodka every day for a week would result in approximately 190 units of alcohol (26 units x 7 days).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Description And Measurement
-
-
Question 68
Incorrect
-
In 1973, after a bank siege in Stockholm, the Swedish psychiatrist and criminologist Nils Bejerot coined the term 'Stockholm syndrome'. What psychological phenomenon does this term refer to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Traumatic bonding
Explanation:Defense Mechanisms
One of the classical defense mechanisms is projective identification. Another phenomenon is cognitive dissonance, which occurs when a belief conflicts with behavior of another belief. Double orientation is when a person holds two contradictory positions, such as someone with a delusional belief. Olfactory flashbacks can happen with any type of trauma. In some cases, victims may display empathy and sympathy towards their captors, known as Stockholm Syndrome. Research suggests that this occurs in about 25% of cases, and some captives may even defend their assailants’ actions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- History Of Psychiatry
-
-
Question 69
Incorrect
-
The correct order of the psychosexual stages described by Freud are:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital
Explanation:Developmental Stages
There are four main developmental models that are important to understand: Freud’s theory of psychosexual development, Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development, Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, and Kohlberg’s theory of moral development.
Freud’s theory of psychosexual development includes five stages: oral, anal, phallic, latency, and genital. These stages occur from birth to adulthood and are characterized by different areas of focus and pleasure.
Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development includes eight stages, each with a specific crisis to be resolved. These stages occur from infancy to old age and are focused on developing a sense of self and relationships with others.
Piaget’s theory of cognitive development includes four stages: sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational. These stages occur from birth to adulthood and are focused on the development of cognitive abilities such as perception, memory, and problem-solving.
Kohlberg’s theory of moral development includes three stages: preconventional, conventional, and postconventional. These stages occur from childhood to adulthood and are focused on the development of moral reasoning and decision-making.
Understanding these developmental models can help individuals better understand themselves and others, as well as provide insight into how to support healthy development at each stage.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
-
-
Question 70
Incorrect
-
What is the typical range for a 'normal' IQ score?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 70-130
Explanation:An IQ within the range of 70-130 is considered normal, which corresponds to two standard deviations above of below the average IQ of 100. This means that about 95% of the population falls within this range.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 71
Incorrect
-
Which neo-Freudian theorist believed that the primary motivator in personality is the pursuit of superiority?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alfred Adler
Explanation:Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
-
-
Question 72
Incorrect
-
What is a personality disorder category in ICD-10?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anankastic personality disorder
Explanation:ICD-10’s Anankastic personality disorder is the same as DSM V obsessive-compulsive personality disorder, while inadequate and passive aggressive personality disorders are not recognized in either classification system. Additionally, DSM V includes narcissistic personality disorder as a distinct category of personality disorder.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 73
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is a DNA stop codon?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: TAG
Explanation:Mutations are changes in the DNA of a cell. There are different types of mutations, including missense mutations, nonsense mutations, point mutations, frameshift mutations, and silent mutations. Missense mutations alter the codon, resulting in a different amino acid in the protein product. Nonsense mutations change a codon that specifies an amino acid to a stop codon, which prematurely stops the translation process. Point mutations involve a single change in one base of the gene sequence. Frameshift mutations occur when a number of nucleotides are inserted of deleted, causing a shift in the sequence and a different translation than the original. Silent mutations code for the same amino acid. Stop codons are nucleotide triplets that signal the end of the translation process. There are three types of stop codons: TAA, TAG, and TGA. When these codons undergo DNA transcription, they change to UAA, UAG, and UGA, which are the stop codons found in RNA molecules.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 74
Incorrect
-
What is the definition of point prevalence for a medical condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Number of existing cases in a specified population during a given time period
Explanation:The prevalence of a disease during a specific time period is the proportion of the population affected. Point prevalence refers to the number of current cases at a specific point in time, while lifetime prevalence refers to the proportion of the population that has ever had the disease. Incidence refers to the rate of new cases over a period of time in a specific population. The total disease burden in a population is represented by the crude rate of people with the disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
-
-
Question 75
Incorrect
-
During what time frame is social smiling typically observed in child development?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6-8 weeks
Explanation:The Emergence of Social Smiling in Infants
Wormann (2014) discusses the emergence of social smiling in infants, which is usually interpreted as the first positive expression directed towards a cause. This occurs when an infant with an initially expressionless face examines the face of another person, and their face and eyes light up while the corners of their mouth pull upward. The age of the first appearance of the social smile varies across cultures, ranging from the fifth to seventh week. Additionally, there are differences in its duration and frequency between the second and seventh month of life. Understanding these milestones is important for a basic understanding of normal child development.
Child Development Milestones:
4 weeks Responds to noise (either by crying, of quieting), follows an object moved in front of eyes
6 weeks Begins social smiling*
3 months Holds head steady on sitting
6 months Rolls from stomach to back, starts babbling
7 months Transfers objects from hand to hand, looks for dropped object
9 months Sits unsupported, begins to crawl
12 months Cruising (walking by holding furniture)
18 months Walks without assistance, speaks about 10-20 words
2 years Runs, climbs up and down stairs alone, makes 2-3 word sentences
3 years Dresses self except for buttons and laces, counts to 10, feeds themself well
4 years Hops on one foot, copies a cross
5 years Copies a triangle, skips -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
-
-
Question 76
Incorrect
-
You are asked to assess a 75 year old woman on a geriatric ward who presents with sudden dizziness and vomiting. During your examination, you notice that the right side of her face seems to have lost sensation, and her left arm and leg also appear to have lost sensation to pain and temperature. What is your suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior inferior cerebellar artery occlusion
Explanation:Posterior inferior cerebellar artery occlusion/infarct, also known as Wallenberg’s syndrome of lateral medullary syndrome, can cause a sudden onset of dizziness and vomiting. It can also result in ipsilateral facial sensory loss, specifically for pain and temperature, and contralateral sensory loss for pain and temperature of the limbs and trunk. Nystagmus to the side of the lesion, ipsilateral limb ataxia, dysphagia, and dysarthria are also common symptoms. Additionally, this condition can cause ipsilateral pharyngeal and laryngeal paralysis.
Brain Blood Supply and Consequences of Occlusion
The brain receives blood supply from the internal carotid and vertebral arteries, which form the circle of Willis. The circle of Willis acts as a shunt system in case of vessel damage. The three main vessels arising from the circle are the anterior cerebral artery (ACA), middle cerebral artery (MCA), and posterior cerebral artery (PCA). Occlusion of these vessels can result in various neurological deficits. ACA occlusion may cause hemiparesis of the contralateral foot and leg, sensory loss, and frontal signs. MCA occlusion is the most common and can lead to hemiparesis, dysphasia/aphasia, neglect, and visual field defects. PCA occlusion may cause alexia, loss of sensation, hemianopia, prosopagnosia, and cranial nerve defects. It is important to recognize these consequences to provide appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 77
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is an example of a closed question?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Do you mind seeing all my patients today?
Explanation:Interview Techniques: Open and Closed Questions
When conducting an interview, it is important to use the appropriate types of questions. Open questions are designed to encourage a detailed response and can help to open up the conversation. In contrast, closed questions typically result in a yes of no answer and are useful for clarifying specific details. By using a combination of open and closed questions, interviewers can gather more information and gain a better understanding of the interviewee’s perspective. It is important to use these techniques effectively to ensure a successful interview.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 78
Incorrect
-
Classical conditioning is associated with the term?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stimulus
Explanation:Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov
Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.
Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
-
-
Question 79
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about valproate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The risk of congenital malformations is dose dependent
Explanation:Valproate can pass through the placenta, increasing the likelihood of birth defects. The extent of risk during pregnancy is not fully understood, but it is believed to be influenced by the dosage. Children who were exposed to valproate in the womb may have a lower IQ, with those aged 6 showing an average decrease of 7-10 points compared to those exposed to other antiepileptic medications.
Valproate: Forms, Doses, and Adverse Effects
Valproate comes in three forms: semi-sodium valproate, valproic acid, and sodium valproate. Semi-sodium valproate is a mix of sodium valproate and valproic acid and is licensed for acute mania associated with bipolar disorder. Valproic acid is also licensed for acute mania, but this is not consistent with the Maudsley Guidelines. Sodium valproate is licensed for epilepsy. It is important to note that doses of sodium valproate and semi-sodium valproate are not the same, with a slightly higher dose required for sodium valproate.
Valproate is associated with many adverse effects, including nausea, tremor, liver injury, vomiting/diarrhea, gingival hyperplasia, memory impairment/confusional state, somnolence, weight gain, anaemia/thrombocytopenia, alopecia (with curly regrowth), severe liver damage, and pancreatitis. Increased liver enzymes are common, particularly at the beginning of therapy, and tend to be transient. Vomiting and diarrhea tend to occur at the start of treatment and remit after a few days. Severe liver damage is most likely to occur in the first six months of therapy, with the maximum risk being between two and twelve weeks. The risk also declines with advancing age.
Valproate is a teratogen and should not be initiated in women of childbearing potential. Approximately 10% of children exposed to valproate monotherapy during pregnancy suffer from congenital malformations, with the risk being dose-dependent. The most common malformations are neural tube defects, facial dysmorphism, cleft lip and palate, craniostenosis, cardiac, renal and urogenital defects, and limb defects. There is also a dose-dependent relationship between valproate and developmental delay, with approximately 30-40% of children exposed in utero experiencing delay in their early development, such as talking and walking later, lower intellectual abilities, poor language skills, and memory problems. There is also a thought to be a 3-fold increase of autism in children exposed in utero.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 80
Incorrect
-
Under which category of antipsychotics does Quetiapine fall?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dibenzothiazepine
Explanation:Antipsychotics can be classified in different ways, with the most common being typical (first generation) and atypical (second generation) types. Typical antipsychotics block dopamine (D2) receptors and have varying degrees of M1, Alpha-1, and H1 receptor blockade. Atypical antipsychotics have a lower propensity for extrapyramidal side-effects and are attributed to the combination of relatively lower D2 antagonism with 5HT2A antagonism. They are also classified by structure, with examples including phenothiazines, butyrophenones, thioxanthenes, diphenylbutylpiperidine, dibenzodiazepines, benzoxazoles, thienobenzodiazepine, substituted benzamides, and arylpiperidylindole (quinolone). Studies have found little evidence to support the superiority of atypicals over typicals in terms of efficacy, discontinuation rates, of adherence, with the main difference being the side-effect profile. The Royal College also favors classification by structure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 81
Incorrect
-
What is the purpose of the 'time out' strategy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reducing unwanted behaviour
Explanation:Managing Violent Behavior: Time Out vs Punishment vs Positive Reinforcement
When dealing with violent behavior, non-coercive methods such as time out are preferred. The goal is to help the patient calm down and learn to handle their anger of frustration in a non-violent manner. Time out involves the patient voluntarily removing themselves from the aggressive situation to a less stimulating environment. This technique is different from punishment, which is an aversive stimulus used to suppress an undesired response. Punishment reduces the likelihood of the response occurring again. Generalizing a learned behavior of stimulus generation is another method used to explain higher learning. This is related to classical conditioning and is not related to the time out technique. Positive reinforcement, such as praise, can be used to increase of learn new behaviors. For example, children may complete homework to earn a reward from a parent of teacher, of employees may finish projects to receive praise of promotions. Time out is not used to increase unwanted behavior of reduce desirable behavior.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Psychological Treatments
-
-
Question 82
Incorrect
-
What is the definition of verbigeration?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meaningless, repetition of words of phrases
Explanation:It is important to differentiate between verbigeration and vorbeirden. Verbigeration involves the senseless repetition of words of phrases, while vorbeirden occurs when a patient comprehends a question but provides an obviously incorrect answer. This phenomenon is commonly observed in Ganser’s syndrome, a type of dissociative psychosis that often affects incarcerated individuals awaiting trial.
– Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
– Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
– These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
– Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 83
Incorrect
-
What is the entity that carries out phagocytosis in the central nervous system?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Microglia
Explanation:Glial Cells: The Support System of the Central Nervous System
The central nervous system is composed of two basic cell types: neurons and glial cells. Glial cells, also known as support cells, play a crucial role in maintaining the health and function of neurons. There are several types of glial cells, including macroglia (astrocytes and oligodendrocytes), ependymal cells, and microglia.
Astrocytes are the most abundant type of glial cell and have numerous functions, such as providing structural support, repairing nervous tissue, nourishing neurons, contributing to the blood-brain barrier, and regulating neurotransmission and blood flow. There are two main types of astrocytes: protoplasmic and fibrous.
Oligodendrocytes are responsible for the formation of myelin sheaths, which insulate and protect axons, allowing for faster and more efficient transmission of nerve impulses.
Ependymal cells line the ventricular system and are involved in the circulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and fluid homeostasis in the brain. Specialized ependymal cells called choroid plexus cells produce CSF.
Microglia are the immune cells of the CNS and play a crucial role in protecting the brain from infection and injury. They also contribute to the maintenance of neuronal health and function.
In summary, glial cells are essential for the proper functioning of the central nervous system. They provide structural support, nourishment, insulation, and immune defense to neurons, ensuring the health and well-being of the brain and spinal cord.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 84
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about the cerebral cortex?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The neocortex contains pyramidal cells
Explanation:The cortex is composed of neurons, with the majority being pyramidal neurons that are excitatory and contain glutamate. Grey matter is where neural cell bodies are located, while white matter mainly consists of myelinated axon tracts. The color contrast between the two is due to the white appearance of myelin.
The Cerebral Cortex and Neocortex
The cerebral cortex is the outermost layer of the cerebral hemispheres and is composed of three parts: the archicortex, paleocortex, and neocortex. The neocortex accounts for 90% of the cortex and is involved in higher functions such as thought and language. It is divided into 6-7 layers, with two main cell types: pyramidal cells and nonpyramidal cells. The surface of the neocortex is divided into separate areas, each given a number by Brodmann (e.g. Brodmann’s area 17 is the primary visual cortex). The surface is folded to increase surface area, with grooves called sulci and ridges called gyri. The neocortex is responsible for higher cognitive functions and is essential for human consciousness.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 85
Incorrect
-
Who is the neurologist that created a map of the cortex surface with specific areas?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Korbinian Brodmann
Explanation:The Cerebral Cortex and Neocortex
The cerebral cortex is the outermost layer of the cerebral hemispheres and is composed of three parts: the archicortex, paleocortex, and neocortex. The neocortex accounts for 90% of the cortex and is involved in higher functions such as thought and language. It is divided into 6-7 layers, with two main cell types: pyramidal cells and nonpyramidal cells. The surface of the neocortex is divided into separate areas, each given a number by Brodmann (e.g. Brodmann’s area 17 is the primary visual cortex). The surface is folded to increase surface area, with grooves called sulci and ridges called gyri. The neocortex is responsible for higher cognitive functions and is essential for human consciousness.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 86
Incorrect
-
What intervention is most effective in improving disrupted sleep-wake patterns in individuals with major depressive disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Agomelatine
Explanation:Antidepressants typically interfere with the natural pattern of sleep, especially by reducing REM sleep. However, Agomelatine has been found to enhance disrupted sleep-wake cycles in individuals with major depressive disorder.
Agomelatine: A New Drug for Depression Treatment
Agomelatine is a recently developed medication that is used to treat depression. Its mechanism of action involves acting as an agonist at melatonin M1 and M2 receptors, while also acting as an antagonist at 5HT2C receptors. The effects of melatonin appear to promote sleep, while the 5HT2C antagonism leads to the release of dopamine and norepinephrine in the frontal cortex. Interestingly, serotonin levels do not appear to be affected by this medication.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 87
Incorrect
-
Which condition is most likely to exhibit a hyperkinetic gait?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sydenham chorea
Explanation:Gait disorders can be caused by a variety of conditions, including neurological, muscular, and structural abnormalities. One common gait disorder is hemiplegic gait, which is characterized by unilateral weakness on the affected side, with the arm flexed, adducted, and internally rotated, and the leg on the same side in extension with plantar flexion of the foot and toes. When walking, the patient may hold their arm to one side and drag their affected leg in a semicircle (circumduction) due to weakness of leg flexors and extended foot. Hemiplegic gait is often seen in patients who have suffered a stroke.
Other gait disorders include ataxic gait, spastic gait, and steppage gait, each with their own unique characteristics and associated conditions. Accurate diagnosis and treatment of gait disorders is important for improving mobility and quality of life for affected individuals.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 88
Incorrect
-
A teenager presents to A&E in distress. She claims that she has been transformed into a wolf by a witch doctor. What type of delusion does this represent?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lycanthropic
Explanation:Types of Delusions
Delusions come in many different forms. It is important to familiarize oneself with these types as they may be tested in an exam. Some of the most common types of delusions include:
– Folie a deux: a shared delusion between two or more people
– Grandiose: belief that one has special powers, beliefs, of purpose
– Hypochondriacal: belief that something is physically wrong with the patient
– Ekbom’s syndrome: belief that one has been infested with insects
– Othello syndrome: belief that a sexual partner is cheating on them
– Capgras delusion: belief that a person close to them has been replaced by a double
– Fregoli delusion: patient identifies a familiar person (usually suspected to be a persecutor) in other people they meet
– Syndrome of subjective doubles: belief that doubles of him/her exist
– Lycanthropy: belief that one has been transformed into an animal
– De Clérambault’s syndrome: false belief that a person is in love with them
– Cotard’s syndrome/nihilistic delusions: belief that they are dead of do not exist
– Referential: belief that others/TV/radio are speaking directly to of about the patient
– Delusional perception: belief that a normal percept (product of perception) has a special meaning
– Pseudocyesis: a condition whereby a woman believes herself to be pregnant when she is not. Objective signs accompany the belief such as abdominal enlargement, menstrual disturbance, apparent foetal movements, nausea, breast changes, and labour pains.Remembering these types of delusions can be helpful in understanding and diagnosing patients with delusional disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 89
Incorrect
-
Which receptor antagonism is most likely to result in Priapism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha 1
Explanation:Priapism is a rare condition where the penis remains erect for more than four hours without any stimulation, and it can occur as a side effect of antipsychotic and antidepressant medications.
Receptors and Side-Effects
Histamine H1 Blockade:
– Weight gain
– SedationAlpha 1 Blockade:
– Orthostatic hypotension
– Sedation
– Sexual dysfunction
– PriapismMuscarinic Central M1 Blockade:
– Agitation
– Delirium
– Memory impairment
– Confusion
– SeizuresMuscarinic Peripheral M1 Blockade:
– Dry mouth
– Ataxia
– Blurred vision
– Narrow angle glaucoma
– Constipation
– Urinary retention
– TachycardiaEach receptor has specific effects on the body, but they can also have side-effects. Histamine H1 blockade can cause weight gain and sedation. Alpha 1 blockade can lead to orthostatic hypotension, sedation, sexual dysfunction, and priapism. Muscarinic central M1 blockade can cause agitation, delirium, memory impairment, confusion, and seizures. Muscarinic peripheral M1 blockade can result in dry mouth, ataxia, blurred vision, narrow angle glaucoma, constipation, urinary retention, and tachycardia. It is important to be aware of these potential side-effects when using medications that affect these receptors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 90
Incorrect
-
As a teenager, you find yourself feeling an intense connection to one of your classmates. You feel an overwhelming urge to assist them in any way possible.
What psychodynamic mechanism is most likely at play here?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Countertransference
Explanation:The term countertransference has two distinct interpretations. The first refers to any emotion that the therapist experiences in response to the patient. The second interpretation pertains to the emotions that the therapist experiences in response to the patient’s transference onto them. In the first interpretation, the patient may trigger the therapist’s transference, such as reminding them of their mother. In the second interpretation, the therapist’s reaction is a result of the patient perceiving them as their mother.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dynamic Psychopathology
-
-
Question 91
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about the genetics of Huntington's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is caused by an abnormal number of CAG repeats
Explanation:Huntington’s Disease: Genetics and Pathology
Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance. It is caused by a mutation in the Huntington gene, which is located on chromosome 4. The mutation involves an abnormal expansion of a trinucleotide repeat sequence (CAG), which leads to the production of a toxic protein that damages brain cells.
The severity of the disease and the age of onset are related to the number of CAG repeats. Normally, the CAG sequence is repeated less than 27 times, but in Huntington’s disease, it is repeated many more times. The disease shows anticipation, meaning that it tends to worsen with each successive generation.
The symptoms of Huntington’s disease typically begin in the third of fourth decade of life, but in rare cases, they can appear in childhood of adolescence. The most common symptoms include involuntary movements (chorea), cognitive decline, and psychiatric disturbances.
The pathological hallmark of Huntington’s disease is the gross bilateral atrophy of the head of the caudate and putamen, which are regions of the brain involved in movement control. The EEG of patients with Huntington’s disease shows a flattened trace, indicating a loss of brain activity.
Macroscopic pathological findings include frontal atrophy, marked atrophy of the caudate and putamen, and enlarged ventricles. Microscopic findings include neuronal loss and gliosis in the cortex, neuronal loss in the striatum, and the presence of inclusion bodies in the neurons of the cortex and striatum.
In conclusion, Huntington’s disease is a devastating genetic disorder that affects the brain and causes a range of motor, cognitive, and psychiatric symptoms. The disease is caused by a mutation in the Huntington gene, which leads to the production of a toxic protein that damages brain cells. The pathological changes in the brain include atrophy of the caudate and putamen, neuronal loss, and the presence of inclusion bodies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 92
Incorrect
-
You receive a call from a fellow physician who is worried she might be experiencing panic disorder. What symptom is most indicative of this diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Episodic anxiety
Explanation:Panic disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by sudden and intense episodes of anxiety that often occur without warning. Physical symptoms such as palpitations and dizziness are common during these episodes. Fear of collapsing of dying is a common psychological symptom associated with this disorder. Free-floating anxiety is a feature of generalized anxiety disorder, while situational anxiety is more characteristic of specific phobic anxiety. The International Classification of Diseases (ICD-10) classifies panic disorder as F41.0, also known as episodic paroxysmal anxiety.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
-
-
Question 93
Incorrect
-
What neuropathological evidence would provide the strongest support for a diagnosis of chronic traumatic encephalopathy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tau accumulations, predominantly around small intracortical blood vessels
Explanation:Dementia Pugilistica: A Neurodegenerative Condition Resulting from Neurotrauma
Dementia pugilistica, also known as chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE), is a neurodegenerative condition that results from neurotrauma. It is commonly seen in boxers and NFL players, but can also occur in anyone with neurotrauma. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as gait ataxia, slurred speech, impaired hearing, tremors, disequilibrium, neurobehavioral disturbances, and progressive cognitive decline.
Most cases of dementia pugilistica present with early onset cognitive deficits, and behavioral signs exhibited by patients include aggression, suspiciousness, paranoia, childishness, hypersexuality, depression, and restlessness. The progression of the condition leads to more prominent behavioral symptoms such as difficulty with impulse control, irritability, inappropriateness, and explosive outbursts of aggression.
Neuropathological abnormalities have been identified in CTE, with the most unique feature being the abnormal accumulation of tau in neurons and glia in an irregular, focal, perivascular distribution and at the depths of cortical sulci. Abnormalities of the septum pellucidum, such as cavum and fenestration, are also a common feature.
While the condition has become increasingly rare due to the progressive improvement in sports safety, it is important to recognize the potential long-term consequences of repeated head injuries and take steps to prevent them.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 94
Incorrect
-
What type of memory failure is typically associated with the inability to remember where one has placed their car keys?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Absent-mindedness
Explanation:The reason behind absent-mindedness is typically due to insufficient activation of the left inferior prefrontal and parahippocampal regions during the initial encoding process, resulting in shallow processing.
Memory: Encoding, Storage, Retrieval, and Failure
Memory is a complex process that involves encoding, storage, and retrieval of information. Encoding refers to how information is placed into memory, and it can be improved by organizing data using techniques such as chunking and mnemonics. Storage refers to keeping information in memory, which can be short-term of long-term. Retrieval refers to getting information back from memory when needed, and it can be affected by primacy and recency effects.
However, memory is not infallible, and there are seven ways in which it tends to fail. Transience refers to the decreasing accessibility of memory over time, while absent-mindedness is characterized by lapses of attention and forgetting to do things. Blocking is the temporary inaccessibility of stored information, while suggestibility involves the incorporation of misinformation into memory due to leading questions of deception.
Bias refers to retrospective distortions produced by current knowledge and beliefs, while persistence involves unwanted recollections that people cannot forget, such as the intrusive memories of post-traumatic stress disorder. Finally, misattribution refers to the attribution of memories to incorrect sources of believing that one has seen of heard something that they have not, such as in the case of deja vu of cryptomnesia.
Overall, memory is a complex and active process that can be affected by various factors, leading to failures in encoding, storage, retrieval, and attribution.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
-
-
Question 95
Incorrect
-
A woman with schizophrenia, successfully treated with olanzapine, is seen in the outpatient clinic. She has put on a significant amount of weight since starting medication and now has a BMI of 40. She has consistently failed to lose weight through diet and exercise. Augmentation with which of the following would be an appropriate intervention to help reduce her weight?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aripiprazole
Explanation:Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause weight gain, but some more than others. The reason for this is not due to a direct metabolic effect, but rather an increase in appetite and a decrease in activity levels. The risk of weight gain appears to be linked to clinical response. There are several suggested mechanisms for this, including antagonism of certain receptors and hormones that stimulate appetite. The risk of weight gain varies among different antipsychotics, with clozapine and olanzapine having the highest risk. Management strategies for antipsychotic-induced weight gain include calorie restriction, low glycemic index diet, exercise, and switching to an alternative antipsychotic. Aripiprazole, ziprasidone, and lurasidone are recommended as alternative options. Other options include aripiprazole augmentation, metformin, orlistat, liraglutide, and topiramate.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 96
Incorrect
-
Can you identify a condition that falls under the category of tauopathy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pick's disease
Explanation:Tau and Tauopathies
Tau proteins are essential for maintaining the stability of microtubules in neurons. Microtubules provide structural support to the cell and facilitate the transport of molecules within the cell. Tau proteins are predominantly found in the axons of neurons and are absent in dendrites. The gene that codes for tau protein is located on chromosome 17.
When tau proteins become hyperphosphorylated, they clump together, forming neurofibrillary tangles. This process leads to the disintegration of cells, which is a hallmark of several neurodegenerative disorders collectively known as tauopathies.
The major tauopathies include Alzheimer’s disease, Pick’s disease (frontotemporal dementia), progressive supranuclear palsy, and corticobasal degeneration. These disorders are characterized by the accumulation of tau protein in the brain, leading to the degeneration of neurons and cognitive decline. Understanding the role of tau proteins in these disorders is crucial for developing effective treatments for these devastating diseases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 97
Incorrect
-
A client in their 60s reports experiencing a tremor that fluctuates significantly. Upon observation, you observe that the tremor subsides when the client is distracted. What type of tremor do you suspect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psychogenic tremor
Explanation:Types of Tremor
Essential Tremor
Otherwise known as benign essential tremor, this is the most common type of tremor. It is not associated with any underlying pathology. It usually begins in the 40’s, affects mainly the hands, and is slowly progressive. It tends to worsen with heightened emotion. It usually presents with unilateral upper limb involvement then progresses to both limbs.
Parkinsonian Tremor
This tremor is associated with Parkinson’s disease. It is classically described as ‘pill rolling’ due to the characteristic appearance of the fingers.
Cerebellar Tremor
Otherwise known as an intention tremor. This is a slow, coarse tremor which gets worse with purposeful movement. This is seen in lithium toxicity (note that the tremor seen as a side effect of long term lithium is fine and classed as physiological).
Psychogenic Tremor
Also known as a hysterical tremor. This type of tremor tends to appear and disappear suddenly and is hard to characterise due to its changeable nature. It tends to improve with distraction.
Physiologic Tremor
This is a very-low-amplitude fine tremor that is barely visible to the naked eye. It is present in every normal person while maintaining a posture of movement. It becomes enhanced and visible in many conditions such as anxiety, hyperthyroidism, alcohol withdrawal, and as drug induced side effects.
It is useful to have a basic idea about the frequencies of different types of tremor.
Type of Tremor Frequency
Intention 2-3Hz
Parkinsonian 5Hz
Essential 7Hz
Physiological 10Hz
Psychogenic variable
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 98
Incorrect
-
You are requested to evaluate a 35-year-old woman who is currently in isolation in a psychiatric intensive care unit.
She has a diagnosis of bipolar affective disorder and has been restarted on 15 mg of aripiprazole and 1000 mg of lithium carbonate since being admitted ten days ago. She has been compliant with her medication regimen.
The nursing staff has informed you that she has been progressively deteriorating and the risks of her manic presentation are becoming challenging to manage. She has not slept for two days, is continuously restless, and has already received 1 mg of lorazepam IM without any improvement.
What would be the next appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ECT
Explanation:When a patient’s mania becomes intractable and is accompanied by severe depression and catatonia, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) may be necessary. Despite being treated with a combination of mood stabilizers, antipsychotic medication, and a short-acting benzodiazepine, this patient has not responded to treatment and has deteriorated to the point of requiring seclusion. This suggests that the mania is treatment-resistant and requires ECT.
Under section 58a of the Mental Health Act, there are safeguards in place to ensure that the patient’s capacity and consent are assessed before administering ECT. However, in cases where immediate action is necessary to prevent death of serious deterioration in mental health, ECT can be given without the patient’s consent under Section 62. In this case, the patient will receive ECT while awaiting a SOAD.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- History And Mental State
-
-
Question 99
Incorrect
-
What are some common symptoms that are typically observed in the initial phases of Alzheimer's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hippocampal atrophy
Explanation:The medial temporal lobe, comprising the hippocampus and parahippocampal gyrus, exhibits the earliest neuropathological alterations.
Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by both macroscopic and microscopic changes in the brain. Macroscopic changes include cortical atrophy, ventricular dilation, and depigmentation of the locus coeruleus. Microscopic changes include the presence of senile plaques, neurofibrillary tangles, gliosis, degeneration of the nucleus of Meynert, and Hirano bodies. Senile plaques are extracellular deposits of beta amyloid in the gray matter of the brain, while neurofibrillary tangles are intracellular inclusion bodies that consist primarily of hyperphosphorylated tau. Gliosis is marked by increases in activated microglia and reactive astrocytes near the sites of amyloid plaques. The nucleus of Meynert degenerates in Alzheimer’s, resulting in a decrease in acetylcholine in the brain. Hirano bodies are actin-rich, eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions which have a highly characteristic crystalloid fine structure and are regarded as a nonspecific manifestation of neuronal degeneration. These changes in the brain contribute to the cognitive decline and memory loss seen in Alzheimer’s disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 100
Incorrect
-
Which movement disorder is most likely to exhibit rhythmic movements?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tremor
Explanation:Movement Disorders: Key Features
Movement disorders refer to a range of conditions that affect voluntary muscle movements. These disorders can be caused by various factors, including neurological conditions, medication side effects, and metabolic imbalances. The following table outlines some of the key features of common movement disorders:
Akinesia: Absence of loss of control of voluntary muscle movements, often seen in severe Parkinson’s disease.
Bradykinesia: Slowness of voluntary movement, a core symptom of Parkinson’s disease.
Akathisia: Subjective feeling of inner restlessness, often caused by antipsychotic medication use.
Athetosis: Continuous stream of slow, flowing, writhing involuntary movements, often seen in cerebral palsy, stroke, and Huntington’s disease.
Chorea: Brief, quasi-purposeful, irregular contractions that appear to flow from one muscle to the next, often seen in Huntington’s disease and Wilson’s disease.
Dystonia: Involuntary sustained of intermittent muscle contractions that cause twisting and repetitive movements, abnormal postures, of both.
Dyskinesia: General term referring to problems with voluntary movements and the presence of involuntary movements, often drug-induced.
Myoclonus: A sequence of repeated, often non-rhythmic, brief shock-like jerks due to sudden involuntary contraction of relaxation of one of more muscles.
Parkinsonism: Syndrome characterized by tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia.
Tic: Sudden, repetitive, non-rhythmic, stereotyped motor movement of vocalization involving discrete muscle groups, often seen in Tourette’s syndrome.
Tremor: Involuntary, rhythmic, alternating movement of one of more body parts, often seen in essential tremor, Parkinson’s disease, and alcohol withdrawal.
Hemiballismus: Repetitive, but constantly varying, large amplitude involuntary movements of the proximal parts of the limbs, often seen in stroke and traumatic brain injury.
Stereotypies: Repetitive, simple movements that can be voluntarily suppressed, often seen in autism and intellectual disability.
It is important to consider the underlying conditions and factors that may contribute to movement disorders in order to properly diagnose and treat these conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)