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  • Question 1 - A 56-year-old man is suspected of having bone disease.
    The following results are obtained:
    Plasma
    Investigation...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man is suspected of having bone disease.
      The following results are obtained:
      Plasma
      Investigation Result Normal range
      Corrected Ca2+ 1.85 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      Albumin 42 g/l 35–55 g/l
      PO43− 0.7 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
      Alkaline phosphatase 180 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Which of the following diagnoses is consistent with these results?

      Your Answer: Osteoporosis

      Correct Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      Bone Disorders: Osteomalacia, Osteoporosis, Paget’s Disease, Myeloma, and Bone Metastases

      Osteomalacia is a condition where there is insufficient mineralization of bone, resulting in softening of the bone. This is caused by a decrease in plasma PO43− and Ca2+ levels, and an increase in alkaline phosphatase due to increased bone turnover. It can be caused by various factors such as vitamin D deficiency, renal failure, medications, tumors, or liver disease.

      Osteoporosis, on the other hand, is associated with normal plasma PO43−, Ca2+, and alkaline phosphatase levels. Paget’s disease is caused by increased bone turnover, resulting in elevated alkaline phosphatase levels, but normal plasma PO43− and Ca2+ levels.

      Myeloma and bone metastases both cause raised plasma Ca2+ levels, but the distinguishing feature is the alkaline phosphatase level. Myeloma has normal alkaline phosphatase levels, while bone metastases have elevated levels.

      It is important to note that in interpreting calcium levels, only the total calcium concentration is given, not corrected calcium. Alterations in serum protein concentration directly affect the total blood calcium concentration, even if the ionized calcium concentration remains normal. An algorithm to correct for protein changes is to adjust the total serum calcium upward by 0.8 times the deficit in serum albumin or by 0.5 times the deficit in serum immunoglobulins. However, in this question, the serum albumin value is within normal limits, hence no correction for total calcium is required.

      Overall, understanding the differences between these bone disorders and their associated laboratory findings is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      46
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old man with coeliac disease arrives at the Emergency Department with sudden-onset...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with coeliac disease arrives at the Emergency Department with sudden-onset left leg pain after a minor injury. He is experiencing difficulty walking. An X-ray of the pelvis reveals a fracture in the neck of the left femur. Routine blood tests are conducted.
      What are the expected results of the blood panel?

      Your Answer: Elevated PTH with hypocalcaemia and hypophosphataemia

      Explanation:

      There are several different blood result patterns that can indicate different conditions. In cases where there is elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH) along with low calcium and phosphate levels, the likely diagnosis is osteomalacia. This can occur in patients with coeliac disease who have malabsorption of vitamin D. In cases where there is decreased PTH along with low calcium and high phosphate levels, the likely diagnosis is hypoparathyroidism. However, this is not the diagnosis in the current case. When there is elevated PTH along with high calcium and low phosphate levels, the likely diagnosis is primary hyperparathyroidism, which can also lead to osteomalacia in patients with coeliac disease. Metabolic alkalosis with low potassium and calcium levels can indicate Bartter syndrome, a group of kidney disorders. Finally, normal calcium and phosphate levels with elevated alkaline phosphatase can indicate Paget’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      36.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 70-year-old man with metastatic prostate cancer presents with bony leg pain, constipation...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man with metastatic prostate cancer presents with bony leg pain, constipation for 4 days, abdominal pain, thirst and disorientation. On examination, he is cachectic and dehydrated. He is apyrexial and haemodynamically stable. He has a past medical history of hypertension and is an ex-smoker. He has no known drug allergies. His calcium is 3.1 mmol/l and he has normal renal function.
      What is the most suitable initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Intravenous (iv) 0.9% normal saline

      Explanation:

      Management of Hypercalcaemia in Cancer Patients

      Hypercalcaemia is a medical emergency commonly seen in cancer patients. It presents with symptoms such as lethargy, anorexia, nausea, constipation, dehydration, polyuria, polydipsia, renal stones, confusion, and generalised aches. Other causes of hypercalcaemia include primary and tertiary hyperparathyroidism, sarcoidosis, myeloma, and vitamin D excess. The management of hypercalcaemia involves intravenous (iv) normal saline and bisphosphonates. Local protocols should be referenced for specific guidelines.

      Steroids such as dexamethasone are not recommended for patients who do not have cord compression. Furosemide may be used alongside iv fluids if the patient is at risk of fluid overload, such as in heart failure. Bisphosphonates, such as iv pamidronate, act over 48 hours by preventing bone resorption and inhibiting osteoclasts. Urgent chemotherapy is not recommended for hypercalcaemia as it does not address the underlying cause of the symptoms.

      In conclusion, hypercalcaemia in cancer patients requires prompt management with iv normal saline and bisphosphonates. Other treatment options should be considered based on the patient’s individual needs and local protocols.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 67-year-old woman was admitted 3 days ago with small bowel obstruction. A...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman was admitted 3 days ago with small bowel obstruction. A nasogastric (NG) tube was inserted, and she began 2 litres of intravenous (IV) fluids daily. She reports feeling short of breath and, on examination has widespread fine crackles on auscultation of her chest and pitting sacral oedema. Her notes show that she weighs 48 kg. You're-calculate her daily fluid intake.
      What is her required daily fluid intake?

      Your Answer: 1000–1500 ml

      Explanation:

      Calculating Maintenance Fluids for a Patient in Fluid Overload

      When a patient is in fluid overload and experiencing pulmonary edema, it is important to carefully calculate their maintenance fluid requirements to avoid worsening their condition. The recommended calculation is 25-30 ml/kg/day. For a patient weighing 48 kg, this equates to a fluid requirement of 1200-1440 ml per day.

      If the patient is currently receiving 2 liters of fluid per day, it is likely that this was necessary initially to replace fluid loss. However, once this has been achieved, it is important to step down to normal maintenance levels to avoid exacerbating the fluid overload. Giving 1500-2000 ml or more would only worsen the patient’s condition.

      Therefore, it is important to carefully monitor a patient’s fluid intake and adjust as necessary to maintain a safe balance and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old woman comes to her primary care physician complaining of ongoing lower...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to her primary care physician complaining of ongoing lower back pain. She has a medical history of type I diabetes mellitus since the age of 17 and hypertension. Upon examination, her total serum calcium level is found to be 3.5 (2.2–2.6 mmol/l), and her serum parathyroid hormone (PTH) level is significantly low. What is the most probable reason for these results?

      Your Answer: Malignancy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypercalcaemia: Causes and Mnemonics

      Hypercalcaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. It can be caused by various factors, including malignancy, primary hyperparathyroidism, primary hypoparathyroidism, and respiratory alkalosis. High serum calcium levels in the presence of low PTH levels suggest malignancy, while primary hyperparathyroidism is associated with high levels of both PTH and calcium. On the other hand, primary hypoparathyroidism is characterized by low levels of both PTH and calcium. Respiratory alkalosis can cause a high PTH level in the setting of normal or low serum calcium levels.

      To remember the clinical features of primary hyperparathyroidism/hypercalcaemia, the mnemonic bones, stones, groans, moans can be used. Bones refer to bone pain, stones refer to kidney stones, groans refer to abdominal pain, and moans refer to emotional upset such as depression and anxiety.

      Understanding the causes and mnemonics of hypercalcaemia can aid in the diagnosis and management of this condition. Further research is needed to fully understand the pathogenesis and treatment of hypercalcaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      30.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A geriatric patient presents to the Emergency Department with a fast, irregular pulse,...

    Correct

    • A geriatric patient presents to the Emergency Department with a fast, irregular pulse, chest pain, weakness and palpitations. Upon arrival, investigations were carried out, including the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      PaO2 90 mmHg 75–100 mmHg
      pH 7.35 7.35–7.45
      PaCO2 27 mmHg 35–45 mmHg
      Sodium (Na+) 125 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 6.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      HCO3− 15 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
      Chloride (Cl−) 107 mmol/l 98–106 mmol/l
      Normal anion gap 10–18 mmol/l
      With which of the following are the results consistent?

      Your Answer: Addisonian crisis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Hyperkalaemia and Metabolic Acidosis with Normal Anion Gap

      An Addisonian crisis is a severe form of adrenal insufficiency that can cause hyperkalaemia and metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap. This condition may be due to previously undiagnosed Addison’s disease, sudden adrenal function impairment, or an intercurrent problem in someone with Addison’s. Excessive thiazide treatment, on the other hand, can result in hypokalaemia instead of hyperkalaemia.

      Diabetic ketoacidosis is another condition that presents with hyperkalaemia and metabolic acidosis, but the anion gap is increased due to ketone bodies. Burns can also cause hyperkalaemia due to rhabdomyolysis, with an associated raised anion gap metabolic acidosis. Meanwhile, diarrhoea can cause hypokalaemia, hyponatraemia, loss of bicarbonate, and metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      76.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 70-year-old man has been experiencing increasing pain in his left hip for...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man has been experiencing increasing pain in his left hip for the past six months, resulting in severe limitations in movement. Upon examination, there is significant restriction in flexion and external rotation of the left hip. An X-ray of the hip reveals significant joint deformity with loss of joint space and extensive new bone growth. The possibility of Paget's disease is being considered. What is the most likely elevated factor in this case?

      Your Answer: Alkaline phosphatase

      Explanation:

      Laboratory Markers in Paget’s Disease: Understanding Their Significance

      Paget’s disease is a condition characterized by abnormal bone remodeling, leading to bone deformities and fractures. Laboratory markers can provide valuable information about the disease activity and response to treatment. Here are some key markers and their significance in Paget’s disease:

      Alkaline phosphatase: This enzyme is produced by osteoblasts and is a marker of bone formation. Elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase are commonly seen in patients with Paget’s disease. Treatment with bisphosphonates can lead to a decrease in alkaline phosphatase levels, indicating a reduction in disease activity.

      Calcium: Calcium levels are typically normal in patients with Paget’s disease and do not provide any useful information about disease activity.

      Magnesium: Low levels of magnesium are associated with highly active Paget’s disease, likely due to increased uptake by bone. However, elevated levels of magnesium are not a feature of the disease.

      Phosphate: Phosphate accumulation is not a feature of Paget’s disease. Low-phosphate diet and phosphate binders are important in the management of patients with chronic kidney disease.

      Vitamin D: Elevated levels of vitamin D are not involved in the pathogenesis of Paget’s disease. However, in other conditions such as sarcoidosis, increased production of vitamin D can lead to hypercalcemia.

      Understanding the significance of these laboratory markers can aid in the diagnosis and management of Paget’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 72-year-old man presents in a severely unwell state. He is unrousable and,...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents in a severely unwell state. He is unrousable and, on examination, has a blood pressure of 85/40 mmHg with a tachycardia of 110 bpm. His respiratory rate is 35 breaths per minute. There is a past medical history of type II diabetes. A neighbour who attends with the ambulance tells you that the man’s wife died two months earlier. You arrange some investigations.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Hameolgobin 122 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 10.3 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 205 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Chloride 102 mmol/l 98-106 mmol/l
      Bicarbonate 14 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
      Creatinine 190 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Glucose 5.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      Lactate 7 mmol/l 0.5–2.2 mmol/l
      pH 7.19 7.35–7.45
      pO2 10.1 kPa (on oxygen) 10.5–13.5 kPa
      pCO2 3.9 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lactic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Blood Gas Results: Differentiating Acid-Base Disorders

      When interpreting blood gas results, it is important to understand the different acid-base disorders that can occur. One such disorder is lactic acidosis, which is characterized by a raised anion gap and raised serum lactate. Possible causes include ingestion of certain substances or medication overdose, such as metformin in patients with type II diabetes. Accurate fluid management and intensive care unit support are crucial in managing these patients.

      Respiratory alkalosis, on the other hand, would show a low pH with a raised level of CO2. Metabolic alkalosis is indicated by a pH above 7.45, while an acidosis is indicated by a pH below 7.35. In cases of diabetic ketoacidosis, blood glucose levels are typically elevated along with excess ketones, leading to an acidosis. However, in the case of excess lactate production, as seen in lactic acidosis, blood glucose levels may be within normal limits.

      Hyperosmolar non-ketotic coma, which is characterized by extremely high blood glucose levels, is not indicated in this particular blood gas result. Understanding the different acid-base disorders and their corresponding blood gas results is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 51-year-old man is admitted with an ischaemic left leg which is unviable...

    Correct

    • A 51-year-old man is admitted with an ischaemic left leg which is unviable and requires amputation. He becomes increasingly unwell while awaiting surgery, including experiencing episodes of difficulty breathing. An arterial blood gas (ABG) was taken.
      pH 7.23, pO2 12.4, PCO2 ?, HCO3− ?, lactate 10.3 mmol/l.
      What are the most likely PCO2 and HCO3−?

      Your Answer: PCO2 2.5 + HCO3− 17.5

      Explanation:

      Interpreting ABG Results: Understanding Metabolic Acidosis

      Metabolic acidosis is a common condition that can be identified through arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis. When interpreting ABG results, two key factors should be considered: the anion gap and the degree of respiratory compensation.

      An abnormal anion gap (>12 mmol/l) suggests an exogenous source of acid, such as lactate, which can be caused by conditions like ischemia or drug overdose. The anion gap can be calculated using the formula (Na+ + K+) − (HCO3− + Cl−).

      Respiratory compensation occurs quickly in response to metabolic acidosis, with the body attempting to get rid of CO2 through hyperventilation. However, complete compensation is rare and usually only partial.

      When analyzing ABG results, it is important to note the levels of PCO2 and HCO3−. In cases of metabolic acidosis, HCO3− will be below normal limits, while PCO2 may be low due to respiratory compensation. A combination of PCO2 2.5 + HCO3− 17.5, for example, indicates profound metabolic acidosis with an exogenous source of acid (lactate) and respiratory compensation.

      It is also important to note that a normal HCO3− level does not fit with metabolic acidosis. In cases where HCO3− is above normal limits, it suggests metabolic alkalosis instead.

      Understanding ABG results is crucial for diagnosing and treating metabolic acidosis, as well as other respiratory and metabolic conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 21-year-old with long-standing type 1 diabetes mellitus is brought unconscious to the...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old with long-standing type 1 diabetes mellitus is brought unconscious to the Emergency Department. Investigations reveal:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 160 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 6.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 50 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Glucose 60 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      PO2 15 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
      pH 7.1 7.35–7.45
      pCO2 1.3 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
      Chloride (Cl−) 90 mmol/l 98-106 mmol/l
      Bicarbonate 4.0 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
      What is the anion gap?

      Your Answer: 72

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Anion Gap

      The anion gap is a calculation used to determine the cause of metabolic acidosis when a clinical cause is not immediately obvious. It is calculated by subtracting the sum of the two major anions (HCO3− + Cl−) from the sum of the two major cations (Na+ + K+). In healthy individuals, the anion gap is typically 10-18 mmol/l and reflects the anionic nature of most proteins in plasma at physiological pH, with phosphate and other anions also making a small contribution.

      An increased anion gap indicates an acidosis in which anions other than chloride are increased, such as in cases of lactate, ketones, or salicylate. On the other hand, a normal anion gap in the presence of acidosis suggests a loss of bicarbonate, such as in renal tubular acidosis.

      Understanding the anion gap can be a useful tool in diagnosing and treating metabolic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 47-year-old woman is brought into the Emergency Department after collapsing in a...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman is brought into the Emergency Department after collapsing in a shopping mall. Her identity is unknown and she is unable to provide any medical history. The patient undergoes assessment and blood tests are taken, including an arterial blood gas (ABG). The ABG results reveal a metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap.
      What condition could potentially present with this ABG result in a 47-year-old woman?

      Your Answer: Proximal renal tubular acidosis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Metabolic Acidosis and their Anion Gap

      Metabolic acidosis is classified based on the anion gap, which determines the presence of an unmeasured acid in the circulation. Proximal renal tubular acidosis is caused by the loss of bicarbonate in the kidneys, which is replaced by chloride, maintaining the anion gap but causing acidosis. High anion gap acidosis can be caused by lactic acidosis, ketoacidosis, rhabdomyolysis, and ingestion of certain compounds. Normal anion gap acidosis can be caused by gastrointestinal loss of bicarbonate, hyperventilation, and hypoaldosteronism. Lactic acidosis occurs due to excess production of lactic acid in anaerobic metabolism, while rhabdomyolysis releases intracellular anions causing acidosis. Diabetic ketoacidosis is caused by ketones, and salicylate overdose causes a mixed picture of metabolic acidosis and respiratory alkalosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 28-year-old woman is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome secondary to focal segmental glomerulosclerosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome secondary to focal segmental glomerulosclerosis after presenting with pedal oedema. She is being treated with furosemide 40 mg and prednisolone 60 mg. Her potassium level is 3.0 mEq/l (3.5–5.1).
      Which of the following medications will not increase potassium levels?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Correct Answer: Corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Medications that can cause hyperkalaemia

      Hyperkalaemia, or high levels of potassium in the blood, can be caused by certain medications. Here are some medications that can lead to hyperkalaemia:

      1. Corticosteroids: Oral or IV steroids with glucocorticoid properties, such as prednisone and hydrocortisone, can be used to treat chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and increase renal potassium excretion.

      2. Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs): Use of ARBs can be associated with hyperkalaemia, particularly in patients with chronic renal insufficiency. It is important to monitor serum potassium levels shortly after initiating therapy.

      3. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors: Use of ACE inhibitors can also be associated with hyperkalaemia, particularly in patients with chronic renal insufficiency. ACE inhibitors can cause potassium retention by suppressing angiotensin II, which leads to a decrease in aldosterone levels.

      4. Spironolactone: Hyperkalaemia is an established adverse effect of both spironolactone and eplerenone. Potassium levels should be monitored regularly in patients taking spironolactone.

      5. Digoxin: Hyperkalaemia is the most common electrolyte abnormality in acute digoxin toxicity. Chronic toxicity does not cause hyperkalaemia. Digoxin blocks the sodium-potassium ATPase pump.

      It is important to be aware of these medications and their potential to cause hyperkalaemia, and to monitor serum potassium levels in patients taking them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - An 89-year-old patient presents to the Cardiology clinic. She has been seen previously...

    Incorrect

    • An 89-year-old patient presents to the Cardiology clinic. She has been seen previously for worsening congestive heart failure symptoms, but today she reports that her mobility and breathlessness have greatly improved, thanks to a new medication she has been prescribed. Routine blood tests report the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 122 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 4.7 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 187 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 137 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 2.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 115 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      What is the cause of her biochemical abnormality?

      Your Answer: Antagonism of aldosterone

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of the Na+K+2Cl− symporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms and Side-Effects of Different Diuretics

      Loop diuretics like furosemide and bumetanide inhibit the Na+K+2Cl− symporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, leading to hyponatraemia, hypochloraemia and hypokalaemia. Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, antagonizes aldosterone, causing natriuresis, diuresis and potassium conservation, but also hyperkalaemia. Acetazolamide inhibits carbonic anhydrase, leading to the excretion of sodium, chloride and bicarbonate, and is mainly used in acute open angle closure glaucoma. Thiazide diuretics like bendroflumethiazide inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+/Cl− cotransporter in the late distal convoluted tubules, causing hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia and other side-effects. ACE inhibitors like ramipril and enalapril block the production of angiotensin II, causing vasodilation and hyperkalaemia, and are used in hypertension, symptomatic heart failure and secondary prophylaxis following a myocardial infarction. Common side-effects of these diuretics include hyperkalaemia, hypokalaemia, hyperuricaemia, hyperglycaemia, gout, postural hypotension, and altered liver function tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      54.9
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  • Question 14 - A 32-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of muscle weakness and...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of muscle weakness and twitching throughout her body. During the consultation, she also mentions experiencing occasional palpitations, which she had attributed to anxiety and a lack of appetite. The patient has a medical history of Crohn's disease and chronic diarrhea. What is the most probable abnormality that will be detected in her blood test results?

      Your Answer: Low magnesium

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Abnormal Lab Results in a Patient with Crohn’s Disease

      In patients with Crohn’s disease, abnormal lab results can provide valuable information about their condition. In this case, the patient presents with symptoms such as muscle weakness, twitching, irritability, and palpitations. The following lab results were obtained: low magnesium, low haemoglobin, low vitamin D, raised bilirubin, and raised creatinine.

      Low magnesium levels are common in patients with malabsorption or chronic diarrhoea, which is seen in this patient. Although unlikely to be the cause of palpitations, it is important to check magnesium levels in the workup of palpitations. Low haemoglobin levels may occur in patients with Crohn’s disease, but it would not cause the collection of symptoms described here. Low vitamin D is likely to present with generalised muscle and/or bone aches and pains and fatigue, but not muscle twitching. Raised bilirubin levels would be likely to present with jaundice, a change in the colour of urine and/or stool, abdominal pain or nausea. Patients with renal impairment may be asymptomatic or can present with fatigue, nausea, itching, leg swelling, and shortness of breath, but not weakness or twitching. Given the history of Crohn’s disease and chronic diarrhoea, an abnormality linked to malabsorption is more likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      20.9
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  • Question 15 - A 68-year-old man with extensive peripheral vascular disease has sudden-onset severe abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with extensive peripheral vascular disease has sudden-onset severe abdominal pain with cramping and bloody stools. An arterial blood gas shows a pH of 6.9.
      Which one of the following would you most likely find in this patient?

      Your Answer: pCO2: decreased; HCO3−: decreased; urine pH: increased

      Correct Answer: pCO2: decreased; HCO3−: decreased; urine pH: decreased

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Acid-Base Disorders: Understanding the Relationship between pCO2, HCO3−, and Urine pH

      When analyzing acid-base disorders, it is important to understand the relationship between pCO2, HCO3−, and urine pH. Here are some examples:

      1. Metabolic acidosis: pCO2 decreased, HCO3− decreased, urine pH decreased. This is due to excess H+ ions, which causes HCO3− to decrease and respiratory compensation to increase. The kidneys also work to excrete excess acid, lowering the pH of the urine.

      2. Respiratory acidosis: pCO2 increased, HCO3− increased, urine pH decreased. A pH of 6.9 suggests acidosis, so CO2 would be reduced and HCO3− would be increased to try and normalize the pH. The urinary pH would be decreased.

      3. Metabolic alkalosis: pCO2 increased, HCO3− increased, urine pH increased. HCO3− is increased as they are metabolically alkalotic, CO2 increased to try and offset the alkalosis, and the urinary pH increased as the kidneys try to excrete the excess HCO3−.

      4. Renal metabolic acidosis: pCO2 decreased, HCO3− decreased, urine pH increased. In this case, the urine pH will be increased as the metabolic acidosis is due to renal dysfunction, and the kidneys are excreting the excess acid.

      5. Mixed acidosis/alkalosis: pCO2 decreased, HCO3− increased, urine pH decreased. This is not seen in any straightforward acid-base disorder but could be seen in states of mixed acidosis/alkalosis.

      Understanding these relationships can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat acid-base disorders effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You are a surgical house officer (F1) attending to a patient on the...

    Correct

    • You are a surgical house officer (F1) attending to a patient on the surgical ward. The nurses mention to you that the patient is having intermittent episodes of pyrexia, without other complaints. The patient is now on their second day following a subtotal thyroidectomy. On assessing the patient, you note that the patient is well in himself and, apart from pyrexia, has no other complaints.
      Examination is unremarkable and vital signs are normal, and specifically the neck has no swelling or discharge. A bedside ECG does not reveal any abnormalities. Blood tests are noted as follows:
      Investigations Results Normal Values
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 111 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.9 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelet (Plt) 415 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 6.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea (Ur) 4.5 mmol/l 2.6–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 35 mmol/l 50–120 mmol/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 7 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      Liver function tests (LFTs) sample haemolysed
      Which of the following interventions would you do first if the patient was 70 years old?

      Your Answer: Take a repeat blood sample to check the potassium level

      Explanation:

      Managing Hyperkalaemia: Prioritizing Interventions

      Hyperkalaemia is a potentially life-threatening condition that requires urgent management. In the scenario where a blood sample shows raised potassium levels, the first intervention should be to repeat the blood sample to confirm the hyperkalaemia. Clinical features associated with hyperkalaemia are non-specific, and an ECG should be performed to investigate any changes associated with hyperkalaemia. Treatment involves stabilizing the myocardium with calcium gluconate, pushing potassium intracellularly with insulin and glucose or nebulized salbutamol, and administering calcium resonium to promote excretion of potassium from the body. In this scenario, administering calcium gluconate should be considered only if there is evidence of hyperkalaemic changes on the ECG or in the presence of moderate to severe hyperkalaemia. Establishing an iv line is essential, and a septic screen should be performed if the patient has post-operative intermittent pyrexia. However, the priority is to confirm the hyperkalaemia and treat it and the underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      36.7
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  • Question 17 - An 82-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of increasing weakness all over her...

    Correct

    • An 82-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of increasing weakness all over her body. She had recently been hospitalized for a severe chest infection and heart failure. The GP notes that she is taking bendroflumethiazide, furosemide, aspirin, and atorvastatin. The GP conducts a physical examination, which reveals nothing significant, but orders some routine blood tests. The results show a hemoglobin level of 93 g/l, MCV of 84 fl, WCC of 5.9 × 109/l, and platelets of 108 × 109/l. Her U&Es show a sodium level of 129 mmol/l, potassium level of 2.1 mmol/l, urea level of 12.2 mmol/l, and creatinine level of 146 μmol/l. Her blood glucose level is 9.6 mmol/l, and her CK level is 112 iu/l. Which of these blood results is likely causing her weakness?

      Your Answer: K+ 2.1 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      Hypokalaemia and Non-Specific Symptoms in Elderly Patients

      Elderly patients who have suffered from a serious illness may take several months to recover and may experience multiple symptoms during this period. However, non-specific symptoms should not be dismissed as part of their overall condition. Hypokalaemia, especially in the presence of heart failure, may present insidiously and non-specifically as muscle weakness.

      To treat hypokalaemia, supplemental potassium should be given initially, followed by potassium-retaining medications such as angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs) or spironolactone if necessary. Other factors that may contribute to muscle weakness, such as depression, should also be addressed.

      A normocytic anaemia may cause fatigue but is less likely to cause global muscle weakness. Thrombocytopenia and hyponatraemia may also cause fatigue but are less likely to cause global muscle weakness. Mild renal impairment may cause fatigue but is also less likely to cause global muscle weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 18 - A 72-year-old man visits the Emergency Department with severe sharp pain in the...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man visits the Emergency Department with severe sharp pain in the left groin and chronic lower back pain after falling in his garden. He is unable to walk. He has a body mass index (BMI) of 28 kg/m2. His pulse is 80 bpm and regular, blood pressure (BP) 140/80 mm Hg. Fracture of the left neck of the femur is identified on X-ray and treated.
      Routine laboratory results are below:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Serum calcium concentration 2.1 mmol/l 2.15 – 2.6 mmol/l
      Serum phosphate concentration 0.8 mmol/l 0.8 – 1.4 mmol/l
      Parathyroid hormone level 60 pg/ml 11 – 54 pg/ml
      Urea 5 mmol/l 2.5 – 7.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine 80 μmol/l 60 – 110 μmol/l
      What is the next most appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer: Serum 25-hydroxy vitamin D (25(OH)D) levels

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Vitamin D Deficiency, Hyperparathyroidism, and Multiple Myeloma

      Vitamin D deficiency, hyperparathyroidism, and multiple myeloma are conditions that can affect calcium and phosphate levels in the body. To diagnose these conditions, various tests are used.

      Serum 25-hydroxy vitamin D (25(OH)D) levels are the best test to determine vitamin D status. Levels lower than 25 nmol/l indicate positive vitamin D deficiency. Treatment should commence if serum 25(OH)D levels are in the range of 25–50 nmol/l.

      Serum protein electrophoresis is used in the diagnosis of multiple myeloma. In multiple myeloma, there are osteolytic bone lesions leading to hypercalcemia.

      Ultrasonogram (USG) neck is used to assess parathyroid adenoma, which is associated with hyperparathyroidism. In hyperparathyroidism, serum PTH levels are very high with increased calcium and decreased phosphate levels.

      Urine Bence Jones Protein is positive in multiple myeloma. In multiple myeloma, there are osteolytic bone lesions leading to hypercalcemia, with impaired renal function.

      24-hour urinary calcium is elevated in hyperparathyroidism, type I renal tubular acidosis, vitamin D intoxication, and Bartter syndrome. However, it has no role in the diagnosis of vitamin D deficiency.

      Overall, these diagnostic tests can help healthcare professionals identify and treat these conditions, leading to improved patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old woman presented with abdominal swelling, pain and constipation for 5 days....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presented with abdominal swelling, pain and constipation for 5 days. She also complained of generalised aches and pains and feelings of thirst. She had recently been diagnosed with metastatic breast cancer which had recurred. She has a past medical history of irritable bowel syndrome and hypothyroidism. Her regular medications include paracetamol and thyroxine. Her general practitioner (GP) had started her on codeine yesterday. On examination, she appeared dehydrated and had a soft, but mildly distended, abdomen. Thyroid function tested 2 weeks ago was normal.
      What is the most likely cause of her presentation?

      Your Answer: Hypercalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Hypercalcaemia is a medical emergency that can occur in patients with cancer, especially those with metastatic cancer and osteolytic lesions. Breast, lung, and multiple myeloma are the most common cancers that cause hypercalcaemia. Symptoms include lethargy, anorexia, nausea, constipation, dehydration, polyuria, polydipsia, renal stones, confusion, and generalised aches. Treatment involves intravenous fluid resuscitation and bisphosphonates. Codeine can cause constipation, but if it lasts for more than five days, it may not be the cause. Hypothyroidism and irritable bowel syndrome can also lead to constipation, but the patient’s thyroid function test is normal, and there are no other symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome. Malignant bowel obstruction causes absolute constipation, a distended abdomen, and vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 20 - A 67-year-old woman comes to the General Practice complaining of lethargy and fatigue....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman comes to the General Practice complaining of lethargy and fatigue. She had undergone abdominal surgery for ulcerative colitis and was discharged from the hospital recently. She is waiting for the reversal of a stoma and has been experiencing profuse diarrhoea and high output from the stoma. Her routine blood tests are normal, except for a significantly low magnesium level. What is the best course of action to correct her magnesium levels?

      Your Answer: Oral magnesium glycerophosphate

      Correct Answer: Intravenous (IV) magnesium sulfate

      Explanation:

      Management of Magnesium Deficiency in a Patient with High Stoma Output and Diarrhoea

      Magnesium deficiency is a common problem in patients with high stoma output and diarrhoea. The most appropriate management for correcting magnesium levels in such patients is intravenous (IV) magnesium sulfate. While an intramuscular injection is also an option, it can be painful. Once magnesium levels are corrected, it is important to involve the Colorectal Team to discuss management of the stoma and prevent further recurrence.

      While loperamide can improve diarrhoea and stoma output, it is not the best answer for correcting magnesium levels. Oral magnesium aspartate and oral magnesium sulfate are not well absorbed and can worsen diarrhoea. Oral magnesium glycerophosphate can prevent recurrence of magnesium deficiency after correction via IV or intramuscular routes, but IV correction is preferred in symptomatic patients with significantly low magnesium levels and increased losses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 21 - An 80-year-old woman, who has been homebound for several years due to difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman, who has been homebound for several years due to difficulty with mobility, presents with worsening bone pain. She appears unsteady on her feet but has no other specific complaints. Laboratory tests are conducted.
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 118 g/dl 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 240 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Calcium 2.01 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      Phosphate 9.8 mmol/l 15–50 mmol/l
      Alkaline phosphatase 450 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paget’s

      Correct Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Bone Disorders: Causes and Symptoms

      Osteomalacia and rickets are caused by a deficiency in vitamin D, resulting in decreased levels of serum calcium and phosphate and bone matrix hypomineralisation. This condition is often characterised by difficulty mobilising and general fragility. Osteitis fibrosa cystica, on the other hand, is caused by hyperparathyroidism, resulting in raised serum calcium, low phosphate, and elevated ALP. Patients with osteitis fibrosa cystica may also experience kidney stones, nausea, or constipation. Osteopetrosis involves impaired bone remodelling due to failure of osteoclasts to resorb bone, resulting in increased bone mass and skeletal fragility. In contrast, osteoporosis is characterised by reduced bone mass, while Paget’s disease involves pathological increased bone turnover. Understanding the causes and symptoms of these different bone disorders is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 22 - A 62-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) for his routine diabetes...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) for his routine diabetes assessment. He was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes one month ago. He also has a history of hypertension, obesity and hyperlipidaemia and smoking. He was recently commenced on metformin, ramipril, atorvastatin and aspirin. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is normal. The following laboratory results are obtained:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 136 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 5.6 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Glucose 8 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      Urea 5 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 78 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      What is the most appropriate management for this patient’s hyperkalaemia?

      Your Answer: Stop ramipril and recheck in one week

      Explanation:

      Managing Mild Hyperkalaemia in Primary Care

      Mild hyperkalaemia, with potassium levels between 5.5-5.9 mmol/l, can be managed in primary care with a review of medication and diet, as well as regular monitoring of serum potassium levels. In cases where the hyperkalaemia is likely secondary to ACE inhibitor therapy, it is recommended to discontinue the medication and recheck potassium levels in one week. Renal function should also be monitored before and after starting ACE inhibitor/ARB treatment.

      In contrast, metformin does not usually cause hyperkalaemia and should not be discontinued unless there are other underlying causes of elevated lactate levels. Hospital admission and administration of IV insulin and dextrose or bicarbonate are not necessary for mild hyperkalaemia with normal renal function and a normal ECG.

      Adding a loop diuretic is also not recommended as the treatment for mild hyperkalaemia is to stop the offending agent and recheck potassium levels. It is important to manage mild hyperkalaemia appropriately to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 23 - An 87-year-old man is admitted with fever, nausea and diarrhoea for four days....

    Correct

    • An 87-year-old man is admitted with fever, nausea and diarrhoea for four days. Stool culture grows Escherichia coli. His laboratory results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 136 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/
      Magnesium 0.2 mmol/l 0.75 –1.00 mmol/l
      Urea 11 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 78 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      Which of the following should be used to manage his hypomagnesaemia?

      Your Answer: Intravenous (IV) magnesium sulfate

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Hypomagnesaemia

      Hypomagnesaemia, or low magnesium levels in the blood, can cause a range of symptoms including tremors, tetany, cramps, seizures, ataxia, and muscle weakness. Treatment options depend on the severity of the condition.

      For severe hypomagnesaemia with magnesium concentrations of less than 0.4, intravenous magnesium sulfate is recommended. This can be administered over 3-12 hours in a solution of 0.9% sodium chloride or 5% glucose.

      For mild or moderate hypomagnesaemia with magnesium concentrations above 0.4, oral magnesium replacement with aspartate or glycerophosphate can be used. Oral treatment is limited by the onset of diarrhea, and the amount given should be about twice the estimated deficit in patients with intact renal function.

      It is important to recheck magnesium concentration in 24 hours after treatment. Concurrent hypokalaemia or hypocalcaemia should also be addressed, as these electrolyte disturbances are difficult to correct until magnesium has been repleted.

      Intramuscular magnesium is effective but slower to increase serum magnesium concentration and can be painful. Therefore, it is important to choose the appropriate treatment option based on the severity of hypomagnesaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 24 - A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency room unconscious with a long history...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency room unconscious with a long history of polyuria and polydipsia. Investigations reveal elevated levels of sodium, potassium, urea, and glucose. What is the osmolality?

      Your Answer: 430

      Correct Answer: 442

      Explanation:

      Understanding Plasma Osmolality and its Clinical Significance

      Plasma osmolality is a measure of the concentration of solutes in the blood and is an important indicator of a patient’s clinical state. To calculate plasma osmolality, the equation 2 [Na+ + K+] + [urea] + [glucose] is used. The normal osmolality of extracellular fluid is 280-290 mOsm/kg.

      A high plasma osmolality may indicate conditions such as hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state, caused by undiagnosed diabetes, or high blood ethanol, methanol, or ethylene glycol. On the other hand, low plasma osmolality may be caused by excess fluid intake, hyponatremia, SIADH, or paraneoplastic syndromes.

      It is important to identify the cause of abnormal plasma osmolality as it can help guide appropriate treatment. For example, hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state requires urgent fluid resuscitation and insulin, while hyponatremia may require fluid restriction or medication to correct.

      Overall, understanding plasma osmolality and its clinical significance can aid in the diagnosis and management of various medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department in a state of distress....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department in a state of distress. She is experiencing left carpopedal spasm and tingling around her lips and tongue, along with hyperventilation. Upon further investigation, it is discovered that she has recently received some upsetting news. Her blood work reveals the following results:
      pH 7.45
      PaO2 11.1 kPa
      PaCO2 3.0 kPa
      What is the probable reason for her carpopedal spasm?

      Your Answer: A reduction in free ionised calcium

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hyperventilation-Induced Hypocalcaemia

      Hyperventilation can lead to respiratory alkalosis, which in turn can cause a reduction in free ionised calcium levels. This occurs because both hydrogen ions and calcium bind to albumin in the blood, and by reducing the number of hydrogen ions, more binding sites become available for calcium ions, resulting in a drop in free ionised calcium. This can lead to symptoms of hypocalcaemia, such as carpopedal spasm. Management involves rebreathing expired air or using small doses of benzodiazepines in extreme cases. It is important to note that measured calcium levels may be normal despite the presence of hypocalcaemia.

      While hyperventilation-induced hypocalcaemia is a possible explanation for these symptoms, it is important to rule out other potential causes. High oxygen levels and low carbon dioxide levels may not directly cause these symptoms, but they are related to the hyperventilation that leads to respiratory alkalosis. Additionally, while certain psychiatric disorders may make hyperventilation more likely, the presence of low carbon dioxide levels and the patient’s signs and symptoms suggest that this is not a functional disorder. Understanding the underlying mechanisms of hyperventilation-induced hypocalcaemia can aid in proper diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 26 - A 33-year-old known insulin-dependent diabetic presents to the Emergency Department, feeling generally unwell...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old known insulin-dependent diabetic presents to the Emergency Department, feeling generally unwell and complaining of diarrhoea and vomiting. Their observations are within the normal range, and on examination they look pale and dehydrated.
      A venous blood gas is performed which shows the following: pH 7.13, HCO3− 14, base excess −8.0. The result of the urea and electrolytes blood test are as follows: Na+ 140, K+ 4.0, Cl− 97, urea 4.5, creatinine 67.
      What is the patient’s anion gap?

      Your Answer: 33

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Anion Gap in Metabolic Acidosis

      Metabolic acidosis is a condition where there is an excess of acid in the body. The anion gap is a useful tool for clinicians to determine the possible causes of metabolic acidosis. It represents the unmeasured anions in the plasma and is calculated using the formula: Anion gap = (sodium + potassium) − (chloride + bicarbonate). The normal range for the anion gap is 10–18 mmol/l, and values above 18 indicate a raised anion gap metabolic acidosis. This information helps narrow down the cause of the acidosis, which may not be obvious on initial assessment. A raised anion gap metabolic acidosis is due to a pathology where there are exogenous anions being produced that are not measured by routine blood tests, such as diabetic ketoacidosis, lactic acidosis, or antifreeze ingestion. Understanding the anion gap is crucial in diagnosing and treating metabolic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      17.9
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  • Question 27 - A 78-year-old man is referred to rheumatology outpatients with increasing pain in the...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man is referred to rheumatology outpatients with increasing pain in the left leg. On examination, the left leg is slightly larger than the right and appears slightly deformed. An X-ray demonstrates cortical expansion and coarsening of trabeculae in keeping with Paget’s disease of bone.
      What is likely to be found on serum biochemistry?

      Your Answer: Raised ALP, normal calcium, normal phosphate

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Blood Test Results for Paget’s Disease and Other Conditions

      Paget’s disease of bone is a chronic disorder that affects bone turnover and can lead to bone pain and deformity. When interpreting blood test results, a raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP) level is a key indicator of Paget’s disease, while normal levels of calcium and phosphate are typical. However, if calcium is raised along with ALP, other conditions such as parathyroid disease or cancer may be the cause. If ALP and calcium are both raised, osteitis fibrosa cystica may be the culprit, while raised levels of all three (ALP, calcium, and phosphate) may indicate vitamin D intoxication or Milk alkali syndrome. Treatment for Paget’s disease typically involves analgesia, with bisphosphonates as a secondary option if needed. It’s important to seek specialist input for proper diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 28 - A 58-year-old woman has developed hypotension and tachycardia, 3 hours after a laparoscopic...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman has developed hypotension and tachycardia, 3 hours after a laparoscopic partial gastrectomy for a distal gastric tumor. Her blood gas analysis shows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      pH 7.28 7.35–7.45
      pCO2 7.1 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
      pO2 8.0 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
      Bicarbonate 29 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
      Base excess 5 mmol/l –2.0 to +2.0 mmol/l
      What is the most probable diagnosis based on these findings?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary embolus

      Correct Answer: Hypoventilation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Arterial Blood Gas Results: Causes of Respiratory Failure

      Arterial blood gas (ABG) results can provide valuable information about a patient’s respiratory status. In the case of type II respiratory failure with respiratory acidosis and hypoxaemia, hypoventilation is the likely cause. This can occur during surgery due to medications and post-operative pain, leading to insufficient ventilation and retention of carbon dioxide.

      Other conditions that can affect ABG results include pulmonary embolus, which causes hypoxaemia and respiratory alkalosis due to increased elimination of CO2. Pulmonary oedema, on the other hand, triggers hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis to compensate for impaired gas exchange. If left untreated, it can progress to type I respiratory failure with acidaemia and hypoxaemia.

      CO2 absorption from pneumoperitoneum during laparoscopic surgery can cause a transient respiratory acidosis, but it would not explain the type II respiratory failure seen in the above scenario. Lung atelectasis, which refers to incomplete lung expansion, can lead to hypoxaemia but drives a hyperventilation response and respiratory alkalosis with type I respiratory failure.

      Understanding the different causes of respiratory failure and their corresponding ABG results can aid in proper diagnosis and management of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 29 - An 85-year-old woman presents in the Emergency Department with a 3-week history of...

    Correct

    • An 85-year-old woman presents in the Emergency Department with a 3-week history of increasing confusion and falls. Routine investigations reveal:
      FBC: Hb 123 g/l, MCV 86 fl, WCC 7.9 × 109/l, platelets 478 × 109/l
      U&Es: Na+ 109 mmol/l, K+ 4.9 mmol/l, urea 5.2 mmol/l, creatinine 76 μmol/l
      Which of the following would clinically exclude a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?

      Your Answer: Gross peripheral oedema and ascites

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Exclusion Criteria for SIADH: Causes of Hyponatremia in the Elderly

      Hyponatremia is a common incidental finding in the unwell elderly, and its causes can be understood by knowing the exclusion criteria for SIADH. SIADH secretion should not be diagnosed in the presence of hypovolemia, hypotension, Addison’s disease, signs of fluid overload (such as effusions, ascites, and peripheral edema), hypothyroidism, or drugs that cause hyponatremia. Once these are excluded or corrected, the diagnosis is confirmed by sending paired serum and urinary specimens for sodium and osmolality measurements. SIADH is confirmed when one has hyponatremia and a low measured serum osmolality, with measurable urinary sodium and a relatively concentrated urinary osmolality. Causes are found in the chest and in the head, so all patients with unexplained hyponatremia should have a chest X-ray and, if this is normal, a computed tomography brain scan.

      Understanding the Exclusion Criteria for SIADH: Causes of Hyponatremia in the Elderly

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      22.2
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  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old man is brought to your Emergency Department after falling off a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is brought to your Emergency Department after falling off a ladder while working on his roof. He has been evaluated at the scene and transported for further evaluation and treatment of a severe head injury.
      Upon arrival, an arterial blood gas is obtained: pH 7.2, PaCO2 8.0 kPa, PaO2 8.0 kPa, HCO3− 24 mmol/l, base excess −0.5 mmol/l.
      What is the abnormality indicated by this blood gas?

      Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis

      Correct Answer: Respiratory acidosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Arterial Blood Gases: Interpreting Respiratory Acidosis

      Arterial blood gases can be complex to interpret, but a stepwise approach can simplify the process. The first step is to determine whether the pH is low (acidaemia) or high (alkalaemia). Next, identify whether the acid-base derangement is due to the metabolic component (HCO3-, base excess) or the respiratory component (CO2).

      In the case of respiratory acidosis, the pH is low and the carbon dioxide is higher than the normal range. The bicarbonate and base excess are within normal limits, indicating a respiratory rather than metabolic cause. Normal ranges for arterial blood gases include pH (7.35-7.45), PaCO2 (4.6-6.0 kPa), PaO2 (10.5-13.5 kPa), HCO3- (24-30 mmol/l), and base excess (-2 to +2 mmol/l).

      Other acid-base derangements include metabolic acidosis, metabolic alkalosis, and respiratory alkalosis. A normal blood gas falls within the normal range for all components. Understanding arterial blood gases is crucial for diagnosing and managing respiratory and metabolic disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      20.2
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