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  • Question 1 - A 21-year-old female medical student, who is an insulin-dependent diabetic, went on a...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old female medical student, who is an insulin-dependent diabetic, went on a weekend trip to visit some friends at another university. She forgot to pack her insulin.
      When she returned, she went to visit her General Practitioner (GP).
      What would analysis of her blood results most likely reveal?

      Your Answer: Unchanged HbA1c

      Explanation:

      Effects of Insulin Absence in Insulin-Dependent Diabetes Patients

      Insulin-dependent diabetes patients rely on insulin to regulate their blood glucose levels. Without insulin, several physiological changes occur in the body. The HbA1c levels, which reflect the average blood glucose levels over several weeks, would not change significantly over a few days without insulin. However, missing insulin doses for a weekend can put the patient at risk of developing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), a life-threatening condition. In the absence of insulin, the body cannot utilise glucose, leading to hyperglycaemia and the generation of ketones as an alternative energy source. The raised glucagon levels in response to the absence of insulin would raise glucose levels in the bloodstream, but target organs would still not be able to utilise this resource. Triglyceride hydrolysis and increased release from adipose tissue would give raised fatty acid levels, which are utilised to synthesise ketones. Overall, the absence of insulin in insulin-dependent diabetes patients can have significant effects on their metabolic processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      41.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 75-year-old woman visits your GP clinic with a complaint of ankle swelling....

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman visits your GP clinic with a complaint of ankle swelling. The swelling persists throughout the day but worsens in the evenings, causing significant discomfort. The patient reports that the swelling started last month and has no other symptoms. She has no history of cardiovascular disease, diabetes mellitus, or hyperlipidaemia and has never smoked. The patient was prescribed amlodipine 5mg once daily for stage 2 hypertension last month. On examination, her blood pressure is 135/90 mmHg, heart sounds are normal, jugular venous pulse is non-elevated, and respiratory examination is normal. Bilateral peripheral oedema is observed in the lower limbs without other abnormalities. What is the most effective treatment for the patient's ankle oedema?

      Your Answer: Prescribe furosemide

      Correct Answer: Swap amlodipine to indapamide

      Explanation:

      Peripheral oedema is a common adverse effect of calcium blockers, and the symptoms strongly suggest this is the case for the patient. To address the patient’s concerns about the oedema, it would be appropriate to switch from amlodipine to a second-line antihypertensive diuretic agent, such as indapamide. This approach helps to avoid polypharmacy and any additional side effects or complications from adding another medication. If the oedema persists despite the medication change, further investigations would be necessary to determine the underlying cause.

      While lifestyle modifications may provide some relief for the patient, the oedema is affecting her quality of life both day and night, making this solution impractical. However, it would still be advisable to recommend lifestyle changes in addition to switching from amlodipine to indapamide.

      Understanding Calcium Channel Blockers

      Calcium channel blockers are medications primarily used to manage cardiovascular diseases. These blockers target voltage-gated calcium channels present in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle cells. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these three areas, making it crucial to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is an example of a calcium channel blocker used to manage angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. However, it is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Verapamil may also cause side effects such as heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is another calcium channel blocker used to manage angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Diltiazem may cause side effects such as hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      On the other hand, dihydropyridines such as nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are calcium channel blockers used to manage hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. These blockers affect the peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, resulting in no worsening of heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter-acting dihydropyridines such as nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia and side effects such as flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      In summary, understanding the different types of calcium channel blockers and their effects on the body is crucial in managing cardiovascular diseases. It is also important to note the potential side effects and cautions when prescribing these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      49.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old man comes to the dermatology clinic with several small fleshy nodules...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man comes to the dermatology clinic with several small fleshy nodules around and under his finger and toe nails. Upon further inquiry, it is revealed that the patient has a history of seizures that are hard to manage.
      What is the probable underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Neurofibromatosis I

      Correct Answer: Tuberous sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Genetic Tumor Disorders and Their Skin Manifestations

      There are several genetic disorders that predispose individuals to the formation of tumors, including those in the nervous system. These disorders can also have distinct skin manifestations that aid in their diagnosis.

      Tuberous Sclerosis: This rare multisystem genetic disease is caused by abnormalities on chromosome 9 and leads to the formation of benign tumors (hamartomas) in various organs, including the brain, eyes, skin, kidney, and heart. Skin problems associated with tuberous sclerosis include periungual fibromas, adenoma sebaceum, ‘ash leaf’ hypomelanotic macules, café-au-lait patches, subcutaneous nodules, and shagreen patches. Neurological symptoms such as seizures, developmental delay, behavioral problems, and learning difficulties can also occur.

      Neurofibromatosis I: This inherited condition causes tumors (neurofibromas) to grow within the nervous system and is characterized by café-au-lait spots on the skin.

      Von Hippel-Lindau Disease: This inherited tumor disorder is caused by a mutation in a tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 3 and is commonly associated with angiomatosis, hemangioblastomas, and pheochromocytomas.

      Neurofibromatosis II: This disorder presents with bilateral hearing loss due to the development of bilateral acoustic neuromas.

      Sturge-Weber Syndrome: This congenital disorder is identified by a port-wine stain on the forehead, scalp, or around the eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain and distention. They have not had a bowel movement in 4 days and have not passed gas in 1 day. During the examination, hyperactive bowel sounds are heard, and a digital rectal exam reveals an empty rectum. An urgent CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with contrast reveals a suspicious large localized lesion in the descending colon, causing bowel obstruction and severely dilated bowel loops.

      What is the most appropriate initial surgical option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Loop colostomy

      Explanation:

      The preferred surgical procedure for obstructing cancers in the distal colon is a loop colostomy. This involves creating a stoma with two openings, one connected to the functioning part of the bowel and the other leading into the distal colon to dysfunction and decompress it. The stoma can be reversed at a later time. However, other procedures such as AP resection, ileocolic anastomosis, and ileostomy are not appropriate for this patient’s descending colon mass.

      Abdominal stomas are created during various abdominal procedures to bring the lumen or contents of organs onto the skin. Typically, this involves the bowel, but other organs may also be diverted if necessary. The type and method of construction of the stoma will depend on the contents of the bowel. Small bowel stomas should be spouted to prevent irritant contents from coming into contact with the skin, while colonic stomas do not require spouting. Proper siting of the stoma is crucial to reduce the risk of leakage and subsequent maceration of the surrounding skin. The type and location of the stoma will vary depending on the purpose, such as defunctioning the colon or providing feeding access. Overall, abdominal stomas are a necessary medical intervention that requires careful consideration and planning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      165.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the resistance mechanism of Mycobacterium tuberculosis to rifampicin? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the resistance mechanism of Mycobacterium tuberculosis to rifampicin?

      Your Answer: Alteration in cell wall permeability

      Correct Answer: Alteration of the DNA dependent RNA transcriptase

      Explanation:

      Rifampicin and its Mechanism of Action

      Rifampicin is an antibiotic that works by stopping the growth of bacteria. It achieves this by inhibiting the process of protein synthesis. The drug targets the rpoB gene, which is responsible for the production of RNA transcriptase in bacteria. Mutations in this gene can cause changes in the structure of RNA transcriptase, making it difficult for rifampicin to bind to it. As a result, the antibiotic becomes less effective in stopping the growth of bacteria. This mechanism of action is crucial in how rifampicin works and how it can be used to treat bacterial infections. By targeting the rpoB gene, rifampicin can effectively inhibit the growth of bacteria and prevent the spread of infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      33.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of hearing loss in one...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of hearing loss in one ear that has persisted for the last 3 months. Upon examination, Weber's test indicates localization to the opposite side, and a CT scan of his head reveals a thickened calvarium with areas of sclerosis and radiolucency. His blood work shows an increased alkaline phosphatase level, normal serum calcium, and normal PTH levels. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paget's disease with skull involvement

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for an old man experiencing bone pain and raised ALP is Paget’s disease, as it often presents with skull vault expansion and sensorineural hearing loss. While multiple myeloma may also cause bone pain, it typically results in multiple areas of radiolucency and raised calcium levels. Although osteopetrosis can cause similar symptoms, it is a rare inherited disorder that usually presents in children or young adults, making it an unlikely diagnosis for an older patient without prior symptoms.

      Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone

      Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. Predisposing factors include increasing age, male sex, northern latitude, and family history.

      Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. The stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Classical, untreated features include bowing of the tibia and bossing of the skull. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, which show raised ALP, and x-rays, which reveal osteolysis in early disease and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later.

      Treatment is indicated for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are the preferred treatment. Calcitonin is less commonly used now. Complications of Paget’s disease include deafness, bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years), fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.

      Overall, understanding Paget’s disease of the bone is important for early diagnosis and management of symptoms and complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      67.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 17-year-old girl is brought from a school party following an episode of...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old girl is brought from a school party following an episode of loss of consciousness. She was noted to have jerking of the limbs, frothing at the mouth and was incontinent of urine in the episode. Examination is non-contributory. Blood investigations and CT scan of the brain are normal. She mentions a similar case when on holiday about a year before this episode for which she did not receive treatment.
      What is an appropriate step in this patient's management?

      Your Answer: Involve an epilepsy nurse specialist

      Explanation:

      Managing Epilepsy: Key Steps and Considerations

      Epilepsy is a complex condition that requires careful management to ensure optimal outcomes for patients. Here are some key steps and considerations that healthcare professionals should keep in mind when treating patients with epilepsy:

      1. Involve an epilepsy nurse specialist: Epilepsy nurse specialists can serve as valuable intermediaries between patients and healthcare providers, helping to ensure effective communication and treatment compliance.

      2. Advise patients to avoid driving and other high-risk activities: Patients with epilepsy should be advised to avoid driving until they have been seizure-free for a certain amount of time (according to local laws). They should also be cautioned against engaging in other high-risk activities, such as operating heavy machinery or swimming unaccompanied.

      3. Refer for diagnostic testing: Patients who have experienced one or more seizures should be referred for diagnostic testing, including blood investigations, EEG, and MRI. These tests can help to identify the underlying cause of seizures and guide treatment decisions.

      4. Consider drug treatment: Drug treatment is often necessary for patients with epilepsy, but the choice of medication should be carefully considered based on the patient’s seizure type and individual needs. Sodium valproate and lamotrigine are often used for generalised tonic-clonic seizures, while carbamazepine is first-line for partial seizures.

      5. Monitor for side effects: All medications used to treat epilepsy have potential side effects, so patients should be carefully monitored for any adverse reactions. Women of childbearing age should avoid sodium valproate due to the risk of neural tube defects.

      6. Consider MRI if EEG shows abnormality: MRI is indicated for patients with new-onset epilepsy or failure of first-line medication, unless there is a clear diagnosis of idiopathic generalised epilepsy. In acute situations, a CT scan may be necessary.

      By following these key steps and considerations, healthcare professionals can help to ensure that patients with epilepsy receive the best possible care and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department with a 6-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department with a 6-day history of fever and irritability, with red eyes and reduced eating for the last 24 hours. On examination, she was noted to have dry and cracked lips, mild conjunctivitis and cervical lymphadenopathy.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most important investigation?

      Your Answer: Throat swab

      Correct Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Kawasaki Disease: Diagnosis, Treatment, and Monitoring

      Kawasaki disease is a febrile vasculitis affecting small to medium-sized arteries in children under the age of 5 years. Diagnosis is based on clinical presentation, including fever lasting for >5 days and at least four or five of the following: bilateral conjunctivitis, changes in the lips and oral mucosal cavities, lymphadenopathy, polymorphous rash, and changes in the extremities. Atypical cases may present with fewer symptoms. An echocardiogram is essential on admission to assess cardiac function and for the presence of aneurysms. Treatment involves inpatient care, intravenous immunoglobulins (IVIG), antipyretics, and monitoring of cardiovascular function. Corticosteroids may be used as an adjunct to IVIG. Aspirin is indicated for Kawasaki disease. Serial echocardiography is advised to monitor for any changes/worsening. If recognised early and treated appropriately, the prognosis is very good. If not, it carries a high morbidity as it is associated with the formation of arterial aneurysms and development of congestive heart disease. Other tests, such as ESR, throat swab, ASOT, and chest X-ray, may be performed but are not critical for the care and management of the patient.

      Understanding Kawasaki Disease: Diagnosis, Treatment, and Monitoring

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      51.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the diagnostic indicator of coronary steal phenomenon? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the diagnostic indicator of coronary steal phenomenon?

      Your Answer: Increased blood flow to the affected area

      Correct Answer: Dipyridamole

      Explanation:

      Dipyridamole and its Effect on Myocardial Blood Flow

      Dipyridamole has been found to decrease the flow of blood to specific regions of the heart, which could potentially lead to the occurrence of coronary steal phenomenon. This phenomenon happens when blood flow is diverted from healthy areas of the heart to areas that are already compromised due to reduced blood flow.

      The reduction in regional myocardial blood flow caused by dipyridamole may be due to its ability to dilate blood vessels, which can lead to a decrease in blood pressure and flow. This effect can be beneficial in certain medical conditions, such as preventing blood clots, but it can also have negative consequences in patients with pre-existing heart disease.

      It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of using dipyridamole in patients with heart disease, as it may exacerbate existing issues. Close monitoring of patients receiving this medication is necessary to ensure that any adverse effects are promptly identified and addressed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old woman is diagnosed with hypertension during her first prenatal visit at...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is diagnosed with hypertension during her first prenatal visit at 12 weeks with a blood pressure reading of 150/100 mmHg. Her urine test reveals +++ protein. What is the best course of action to manage her hypertension?

      Your Answer: Administer intravenous labetalol with target blood pressure < 145/90 mmHg

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      35.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (0/2) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Surgery (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (0/1) 0%
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