-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old woman has presented herself for review at an antenatal clinic upon discovering her pregnancy.
Your Answer: Labetalol
Correct Answer: Warfarin
Explanation:Understanding Warfarin: Mechanism of Action, Indications, Monitoring, Factors, and Side-Effects
Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that has been widely used for many years to manage venous thromboembolism and reduce stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, it has been largely replaced by direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) due to their ease of use and lack of need for monitoring. Warfarin works by inhibiting epoxide reductase, which prevents the reduction of vitamin K to its active hydroquinone form. This, in turn, affects the carboxylation of clotting factor II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C.
Warfarin is indicated for patients with mechanical heart valves, with the target INR depending on the valve type and location. Mitral valves generally require a higher INR than aortic valves. It is also used as a second-line treatment after DOACs for venous thromboembolism and atrial fibrillation, with target INRs of 2.5 and 3.5 for recurrent cases. Patients taking warfarin are monitored using the INR, which may take several days to achieve a stable level. Loading regimes and computer software are often used to adjust the dose.
Factors that may potentiate warfarin include liver disease, P450 enzyme inhibitors, cranberry juice, drugs that displace warfarin from plasma albumin, and NSAIDs that inhibit platelet function. Warfarin may cause side-effects such as haemorrhage, teratogenic effects, skin necrosis, temporary procoagulant state, thrombosis, and purple toes.
In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, indications, monitoring, factors, and side-effects of warfarin is crucial for its safe and effective use in patients. While it has been largely replaced by DOACs, warfarin remains an important treatment option for certain patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old man has a cannula inserted into his cephalic vein. What is the structure through which the cephalic vein passes?
Your Answer: Tendon of biceps
Correct Answer: Clavipectoral fascia
Explanation:Preserving the cephalic vein is important for creating an arteriovenous fistula in patients with end stage renal failure, as it is a preferred vessel for this purpose. The vein travels through the calvipectoral fascia, but does not pass through the pectoralis major muscle, before ending in the axillary vein.
The Cephalic Vein: Path and Connections
The cephalic vein is a major blood vessel that runs along the lateral side of the arm. It begins at the dorsal venous arch, which drains blood from the hand and wrist, and travels up the arm, crossing the anatomical snuffbox. At the antecubital fossa, the cephalic vein is connected to the basilic vein by the median cubital vein. This connection is commonly used for blood draws and IV insertions.
After passing through the antecubital fossa, the cephalic vein continues up the arm and pierces the deep fascia of the deltopectoral groove to join the axillary vein. This junction is located near the shoulder and marks the end of the cephalic vein’s path.
Overall, the cephalic vein plays an important role in the circulation of blood in the upper limb. Its connections to other major veins in the arm make it a valuable site for medical procedures, while its path through the deltopectoral groove allows it to contribute to the larger network of veins that drain blood from the upper body.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 75-year-old man is scheduled for an arterial bypass surgery to treat foot ulceration and claudication. The distal arterial anastomosis will be formed using the anterior tibial artery. Which of the following structures is not in close proximity to it?
Your Answer: Tibialis posterior
Explanation:The anterior tibial artery is closely associated with the tibialis anterior muscle as it serves as one of the main arteries in the anterior compartment.
The anterior tibial artery starts opposite the lower border of the popliteus muscle and ends in front of the ankle, where it continues as the dorsalis pedis artery. As it descends, it runs along the interosseous membrane, the distal part of the tibia, and the front of the ankle joint. The artery passes between the tendons of the extensor digitorum and extensor hallucis longus muscles as it approaches the ankle. The deep peroneal nerve is closely related to the artery, lying anterior to the middle third of the vessel and lateral to it in the lower third.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
During ward round, you have been presented with an ECG of a 50-year-old female who was admitted with blackouts and a heart rate of 43bpm. On the ECG you note that the QRS complex is narrow but is missing after every other P wave. What is this condition called?
Your Answer: Left bundle branch block
Correct Answer: 2:1 heart block
Explanation:The patient has a bradycardia with a narrow QRS complex, ruling out bundle branch blocks. It is not a first-degree heart block or a Wenckebach heart block. The correct diagnosis is a 2:1 heart block with 2 P waves to each QRS complex.
Understanding Heart Blocks: Types and Features
Heart blocks are a type of cardiac conduction disorder that can lead to serious complications such as syncope and heart failure. There are three types of heart blocks: first degree, second degree, and third degree (complete) heart block.
First degree heart block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval of more than 0.2 seconds. Second degree heart block can be further divided into two types: type 1 (Mobitz I, Wenckebach) and type 2 (Mobitz II). Type 1 is characterized by a progressive prolongation of the PR interval until a dropped beat occurs, while type 2 has a constant PR interval but the P wave is often not followed by a QRS complex.
Third degree (complete) heart block is the most severe type of heart block, where there is no association between the P waves and QRS complexes. This can lead to a regular bradycardia with a heart rate of 30-50 bpm, wide pulse pressure, and cannon waves in the neck JVP. Additionally, variable intensity of S1 can be observed.
It is important to recognize the features of heart blocks and differentiate between the types in order to provide appropriate management and prevent complications. Regular monitoring and follow-up with a healthcare provider is recommended for individuals with heart blocks.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A woman with suspected heart failure has a transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE) to investigate the function of her heart. The goal is to measure her ejection fraction, however, to do this first her stroke volume must be measured.
What is the formula for stroke volume?Your Answer: End diastolic volume - end systolic volume
Explanation:Cardiovascular physiology involves the study of the functions and processes of the heart and blood vessels. One important measure of heart function is the left ventricular ejection fraction, which is calculated by dividing the stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle with each heartbeat) by the end diastolic LV volume (the amount of blood in the left ventricle at the end of diastole) and multiplying by 100%. Another key measure is cardiac output, which is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute and is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by heart rate.
Pulse pressure is another important measure of cardiovascular function, which is the difference between systolic pressure (the highest pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) and diastolic pressure (the lowest pressure in the arteries between heartbeats). Factors that can increase pulse pressure include a less compliant aorta (which can occur with age) and increased stroke volume.
Finally, systemic vascular resistance is a measure of the resistance to blood flow in the systemic circulation and is calculated by dividing mean arterial pressure (the average pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) by cardiac output. Understanding these measures of cardiovascular function is important for diagnosing and treating cardiovascular diseases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 39-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations and is diagnosed with monomorphic ventricular tachycardia. What electrolyte is responsible for maintaining the resting potential of ventricular myocytes?
Your Answer: Potassium
Explanation:The resting potential of cardiac myocytes is maintained by potassium, while depolarization is initiated by a sudden influx of sodium ions and repolarization is caused by the outflow of potassium. The extended duration of a cardiac action potential, in contrast to skeletal muscle, is due to a gradual influx of calcium.
Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity
The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.
Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old patient with well-controlled Parkinson's disease presents following several syncopal episodes. Each episode is preceded by a change in posture, typically when the patient gets out of bed in the morning. The patient feels dizzy and nauseous and falls. He recovers within seconds after the event. The neurologist states these symptoms are likely a side-effect of the patient's levodopa, and prescribes a medication to treat the condition.
What medication would be the most appropriate for managing the symptoms of this patient?Your Answer: Atenolol
Correct Answer: Fludrocortisone
Explanation:Orthostatic hypotension can be treated with midodrine or fludrocortisone. Fludrocortisone is a synthetic mineralocorticoid that can replace low levels of aldosterone and is often used as an alternative to midodrine, which can cause side-effects such as hypertension and BPH in some patients. Atenolol is a beta-blocker used to treat angina and hypertension, while losartan is an angiotensin-II-receptor antagonist used to manage hypertension. Adenosine is a medication used to treat supraventricular tachycardias.
Understanding Orthostatic Hypotension
Orthostatic hypotension is a condition that is more commonly observed in older individuals and those who have neurodegenerative diseases such as Parkinson’s, diabetes, or hypertension. Additionally, certain medications such as alpha-blockers used for benign prostatic hyperplasia can also cause this condition. The primary feature of orthostatic hypotension is a sudden drop in blood pressure, usually more than 20/10 mm Hg, within three minutes of standing. This can lead to presyncope or syncope, which is a feeling of lightheadedness or fainting.
Fortunately, there are treatment options available for orthostatic hypotension. Midodrine and fludrocortisone are two medications that can be used to manage this condition. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case. By understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for orthostatic hypotension, individuals can take steps to manage this condition and improve their quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 55-year-old man undergoes a regular health examination, including observation, ECG, and routine blood tests. The ECG reveals an extended corrected QT interval. Which abnormality detected in his blood test could explain the ECG results?
Your Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Long QT syndrome can be caused by hypokalaemia, among other electrolyte imbalances.
Electrolyte imbalances such as hypocalcaemia and hypomagnesaemia can also result in long QT syndrome.
However, hyperkalaemia, hypercalcaemia, and hypermagnesaemia are not linked to long QT syndrome.
Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes a delay in the ventricles’ repolarization. This delay can lead to ventricular tachycardia/torsade de pointes, which can cause sudden death or collapse. The most common types of LQTS are LQT1 and LQT2, which are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.
There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other conditions. Congenital factors include Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome. Drugs that can cause a prolonged QT interval include amiodarone, sotalol, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Other factors that can cause a prolonged QT interval include electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.
LQTS may be detected on a routine ECG or through family screening. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress, exercise, or auditory stimuli. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest and can lead to sudden cardiac death.
Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers are often used, and implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary in high-risk cases. It is important to note that sotalol may exacerbate LQTS.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A patient in his late 60s presents with dyspnoea, orthopnoea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, fatigue, cyanosis. A diagnosis of acute heart failure is made. He is started on diuretics, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers but shows minimal improvement with medications.
What should be considered if he continues to fail to improve?Your Answer: High-flow oxygen
Correct Answer: Continuous positive airway pressure
Explanation:If a patient with acute heart failure does not show improvement with appropriate medication, CPAP should be considered as a viable treatment option.
Heart failure requires acute management, with recommended treatments including IV loop diuretics such as furosemide or bumetanide. Oxygen may also be given in accordance with British Thoracic Society guidelines to maintain oxygen saturations between 94-98%. Vasodilators such as nitrates should not be routinely given to all patients, but may be considered for those with concomitant myocardial ischaemia, severe hypertension, or regurgitant aortic or mitral valve disease. However, hypotension is a major side-effect and contraindication.
For patients with respiratory failure, CPAP may be used. In cases of hypotension or cardiogenic shock, treatment can be challenging as loop diuretics and nitrates may exacerbate hypotension. Inotropic agents like dobutamine may be considered for patients with severe left ventricular dysfunction and potentially reversible cardiogenic shock. Vasopressor agents like norepinephrine are typically only used if there is insufficient response to inotropes and evidence of end-organ hypoperfusion. Mechanical circulatory assistance such as intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation or ventricular assist devices may also be used.
While opiates were previously used routinely to reduce dyspnoea/distress in patients, NICE now advises against routine use due to studies suggesting increased morbidity in patients given opiates. Regular medication for heart failure such as beta-blockers and ACE-inhibitors should be continued, with beta-blockers only stopped if the patient has a heart rate less than 50 beats per minute, second or third degree atrioventricular block, or shock.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 75-year-old diabetic man comes in with a heart attack and undergoes a coronary angiogram. What coronary artery/arteries provide blood supply to the anterior septum of the heart?
Your Answer: Left Anterior Descending
Explanation:The heart receives blood supply from the coronary arteries, which originate from the left side of the heart at the root of the aorta as it exits the left ventricle.
The left coronary artery (LCA) provides blood to the left atrium and ventricle, as well as the interventricular septum. The circumflex artery, a branch of the LCA, supplies the lateral aspect of the left heart by following the coronary sulcus to the left. The left anterior descending artery (LAD), another major branch of the LCA, supplies the anteroseptal part of the heart by following the anterior interventricular sulcus around the pulmonary trunk.
The right coronary artery (RCA) follows the coronary sulcus and supplies blood to the right atrium, portions of both ventricles, and the inferior aspect of the heart. The marginal arteries, which arise from the RCA, provide blood to the superficial portions of the right ventricle. The posterior descending artery, which branches off the RCA on the posterior surface of the heart, runs along the posterior portion of the interventricular sulcus toward the apex of the heart and supplies the interventricular septum and portions of both ventricles.
The following table displays the relationship between ECG changes and the affected coronary artery territories. Anteroseptal changes in V1-V4 indicate involvement of the left anterior descending artery, while inferior changes in II, III, and aVF suggest the right coronary artery is affected. Anterolateral changes in V4-6, I, and aVL may indicate involvement of either the left anterior descending or left circumflex artery, while lateral changes in I, aVL, and possibly V5-6 suggest the left circumflex artery is affected. Posterior changes in V1-3 may indicate a posterior infarction, which is typically caused by the left circumflex artery but can also be caused by the right coronary artery. Reciprocal changes of STEMI are often seen as horizontal ST depression, tall R waves, upright T waves, and a dominant R wave in V2. Posterior infarction is confirmed by ST elevation and Q waves in posterior leads (V7-9), usually caused by the left circumflex artery but also possibly the right coronary artery. It is important to note that a new LBBB may indicate acute coronary syndrome.
Diagram showing the correlation between ECG changes and coronary territories in acute coronary syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
You are a doctor working in the intensive care unit. A 35-year-old man has been admitted to the ward due to suddenly vomiting large volumes of fresh blood. His blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg and his heart rate is 150bpm. He needs urgent intravenous fluids. Several attempts at intravenous cannulation have been made but to no avail. The on-call anaesthetist suggests performing a great saphenous vein cutdown.
Where should the anaesthetist make the incision?Your Answer: Posterior to the medial malleolus
Correct Answer: Anterior to the medial malleolus
Explanation:The long saphenous vein is often used for venous cutdown and passes in front of the medial malleolus. Venous cutdown involves surgically exposing a vein for cannulation.
On the other hand, the short saphenous vein is situated in front of the lateral malleolus and runs up the back of the thigh to drain into the popliteal vein at the popliteal fossa.
The long saphenous vein originates from the point where the first dorsal digital vein, which drains the big toe, joins the dorsal venous arch of the foot. It then passes in front of the medial malleolus, ascends the medial aspect of the thigh, and drains into the femoral vein by passing through the saphenous opening.
The femoral vein becomes the external iliac vein at the inferior margin of the inguinal ligament. It receives blood from the great saphenous and popliteal veins, and a deep vein thrombosis that blocks this vein can be life-threatening.
During a vascular examination of the lower limb, the dorsalis pedis artery is often palpated. It runs alongside the extensor digitorum longus.
Lastly, the posterior tibial vein is located at the back of the medial malleolus, together with other structures, within the tarsal tunnel.
The Anatomy of Saphenous Veins
The human body has two saphenous veins: the long saphenous vein and the short saphenous vein. The long saphenous vein is often used for bypass surgery or removed as a treatment for varicose veins. It originates at the first digit where the dorsal vein merges with the dorsal venous arch of the foot and runs up the medial side of the leg. At the knee, it runs over the posterior border of the medial epicondyle of the femur bone before passing laterally to lie on the anterior surface of the thigh. It then enters an opening in the fascia lata called the saphenous opening and joins with the femoral vein in the region of the femoral triangle at the saphenofemoral junction. The long saphenous vein has several tributaries, including the medial marginal, superficial epigastric, superficial iliac circumflex, and superficial external pudendal veins.
On the other hand, the short saphenous vein originates at the fifth digit where the dorsal vein merges with the dorsal venous arch of the foot, which attaches to the great saphenous vein. It passes around the lateral aspect of the foot and runs along the posterior aspect of the leg with the sural nerve. It then passes between the heads of the gastrocnemius muscle and drains into the popliteal vein, approximately at or above the level of the knee joint.
Understanding the anatomy of saphenous veins is crucial for medical professionals who perform surgeries or treatments involving these veins.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old man presents with biliary colic and an abdominal aortic aneurysm measuring 4.8 cm is discovered. Which of the following statements regarding this condition is false?
Your Answer: The majority are located inferior to the renal arteries
Correct Answer: The wall will be composed of dense fibrous tissue only
Explanation:These aneurysms are genuine and consist of all three layers of the arterial wall.
Understanding Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms
Abdominal aortic aneurysms occur when the elastic proteins in the extracellular matrix fail, causing the arterial wall to dilate. This is typically caused by degenerative disease and can be identified by a diameter of 3 cm or greater. The development of aneurysms is complex and involves the loss of the intima and elastic fibers from the media, which is associated with increased proteolytic activity and lymphocytic infiltration.
Smoking and hypertension are major risk factors for the development of aneurysms, while rare causes include syphilis and connective tissue diseases such as Ehlers Danlos type 1 and Marfan’s syndrome. It is important to understand the underlying causes and risk factors for abdominal aortic aneurysms in order to prevent and treat this potentially life-threatening condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old man is shot in the postero-inferior aspect of his thigh. What structure is located at the most lateral aspect of the popliteal fossa?
Your Answer: Small saphenous vein
Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Explanation:The structures found in the popliteal fossa, listed from medial to lateral, include the popliteal artery, popliteal vein, tibial nerve, and common peroneal nerve. The sural nerve, which is a branch of the tibial nerve, typically originates at the lower part of the popliteal fossa, but its location may vary.
Anatomy of the Popliteal Fossa
The popliteal fossa is a diamond-shaped space located at the back of the knee joint. It is bound by various muscles and ligaments, including the biceps femoris, semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and gastrocnemius. The floor of the popliteal fossa is formed by the popliteal surface of the femur, posterior ligament of the knee joint, and popliteus muscle, while the roof is made up of superficial and deep fascia.
The popliteal fossa contains several important structures, including the popliteal artery and vein, small saphenous vein, common peroneal nerve, tibial nerve, posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh, genicular branch of the obturator nerve, and lymph nodes. These structures are crucial for the proper functioning of the lower leg and foot.
Understanding the anatomy of the popliteal fossa is important for healthcare professionals, as it can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting the knee joint and surrounding structures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with central crushing chest pain and undergoes a coronary angiogram. Arterial blockage can result from atherosclerosis, which can cause changes in the endothelium. What is an anticipated change in the endothelium?
Your Answer: Fatty infiltration by high density lipoproteins (HDLs)
Correct Answer: Reduced nitric oxide bioavailability
Explanation:Fatty infiltration in the subendothelial space is associated with LDL particles, but the endothelium undergoes changes that include reduced nitric oxide bioavailability, proliferation, and pro-inflammatory and pro-oxidant effects.
Understanding Atherosclerosis and its Complications
Atherosclerosis is a complex process that occurs over several years. It begins with endothelial dysfunction triggered by factors such as smoking, hypertension, and hyperglycemia. This leads to changes in the endothelium, including inflammation, oxidation, proliferation, and reduced nitric oxide bioavailability. As a result, low-density lipoprotein (LDL) particles infiltrate the subendothelial space, and monocytes migrate from the blood and differentiate into macrophages. These macrophages that phagocytose oxidized LDL, slowly turning into large ‘foam cells’. Smooth muscle proliferation and migration from the tunica media into the intima result in the formation of a fibrous capsule covering the fatty plaque.
Once a plaque has formed, it can cause several complications. For example, it can form a physical blockage in the lumen of the coronary artery, leading to reduced blood flow and oxygen to the myocardium, resulting in angina. Alternatively, the plaque may rupture, potentially causing a complete occlusion of the coronary artery and resulting in a myocardial infarction. It is essential to understand the process of atherosclerosis and its complications to prevent and manage cardiovascular diseases effectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
Which of these statements relating to the external carotid is false?
Your Answer: Its first branch is the superior thyroid artery
Correct Answer: It ends by bifurcating into the superficial temporal and ascending pharyngeal artery
Explanation:The external carotid artery ends by splitting into two branches – the superficial temporal and maxillary branches. It has a total of eight branches, with three located on its anterior surface – the thyroid, lingual, and facial arteries. The pharyngeal artery is a medial branch, while the posterior auricular and occipital arteries are located on the posterior surface.
Anatomy of the External Carotid Artery
The external carotid artery begins on the side of the pharynx and runs in front of the internal carotid artery, behind the posterior belly of digastric and stylohyoid muscles. It is covered by sternocleidomastoid muscle and passed by hypoglossal nerves, lingual and facial veins. The artery then enters the parotid gland and divides into its terminal branches within the gland.
To locate the external carotid artery, an imaginary line can be drawn from the bifurcation of the common carotid artery behind the angle of the jaw to a point in front of the tragus of the ear.
The external carotid artery has six branches, with three in front, two behind, and one deep. The three branches in front are the superior thyroid, lingual, and facial arteries. The two branches behind are the occipital and posterior auricular arteries. The deep branch is the ascending pharyngeal artery. The external carotid artery terminates by dividing into the superficial temporal and maxillary arteries within the parotid gland.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
A 70-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea and increasing orthopnoea. The physician suspects heart failure and orders a chest X-ray. What signs on the chest X-ray would indicate heart failure?
Your Answer: Upper zone vessel enlargement
Explanation:Diagnosis of Chronic Heart Failure
Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the diagnosis and management of chronic heart failure. According to the new guidelines, all patients should undergo an N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT‑proBNP) blood test as the first-line investigation, regardless of whether they have previously had a myocardial infarction or not.
Interpreting the NT-proBNP test is crucial in determining the severity of the condition. If the levels are high, specialist assessment, including transthoracic echocardiography, should be arranged within two weeks. If the levels are raised, specialist assessment, including echocardiogram, should be arranged within six weeks.
BNP is a hormone produced mainly by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Very high levels of BNP are associated with a poor prognosis. The table above shows the different levels of BNP and NTproBNP and their corresponding interpretations.
It is important to note that certain factors can alter the BNP level. For instance, left ventricular hypertrophy, ischaemia, tachycardia, and right ventricular overload can increase BNP levels, while diuretics, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, and aldosterone antagonists can decrease BNP levels. Therefore, it is crucial to consider these factors when interpreting the NT-proBNP test.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old man is admitted to the acute medical ward after experiencing a myocardial infarction. During examination, it is discovered that his heart rate is 40 beats per minute. The consultant explains that this is due to damage to the conduction pathways between the sinoatrial and atrioventricular (AV) node, resulting in the AV node pacing his ventricles exclusively.
In most patients, what is the blood supply to the AV node?Your Answer: Left anterior descending artery
Correct Answer: Right coronary artery
Explanation:The AV node is typically supplied by the right coronary artery in right-dominant hearts, while in left-dominant hearts it is supplied by the left circumflex artery. The left circumflex artery also supplies the left atrium and some of the left ventricle, while the right marginal artery supplies the right ventricle, the posterior descending artery supplies the posterior third of the interventricular septum, and the left anterior descending artery supplies the left ventricle.
The walls of each cardiac chamber are made up of the epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium. The heart and roots of the great vessels are related anteriorly to the sternum and the left ribs. The coronary sinus receives blood from the cardiac veins, and the aortic sinus gives rise to the right and left coronary arteries. The left ventricle has a thicker wall and more numerous trabeculae carnae than the right ventricle. The heart is innervated by autonomic nerve fibers from the cardiac plexus, and the parasympathetic supply comes from the vagus nerves. The heart has four valves: the mitral, aortic, pulmonary, and tricuspid valves.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old male with hypertension visits his GP complaining of a persistent dry cough. He reports that this started two weeks ago after he was prescribed ramipril. What alternative medication class might the GP consider switching him to?
Your Answer: Calcium channel blockers
Correct Answer: Angiotensin receptor blockers
Explanation:A dry cough is a common and bothersome side effect of ACE inhibitors like ramipril. However, angiotensin receptor blockers work by blocking angiotensin II receptors and have similar adverse effects to ACE inhibitors, but without the cough. According to guidelines, ACE inhibitors are the first line of treatment for white patients under 55 years old. If they are ineffective, angiotensin receptor blockers should be used instead. Beta-blockers, diuretics, calcium channel blockers, and alpha blockers are reserved for later use.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
Oliver is an 80-year-old man with known left-sided heart failure. He has a left ventricular ejection fraction of 31%. He has recently been admitted to the cardiology ward as the doctors are concerned his condition is worsening. He is short of breath on exertion and has peripheral oedema.
Upon reviewing his ECG, you note a right bundle branch block (RBBB) indicative of right ventricular hypertrophy. You also observe that this was present on an ECG of his on an emergency department admission last month.
What is the most likely cause of the RBBB in Oliver?Your Answer: Myocardial infarction
Correct Answer: Cor pulmonale
Explanation:A frequent underlying cause of RBBB that persists over time is right ventricular hypertrophy, which may result from the spread of left-sided heart failure to the right side of the heart. Oliver’s shortness of breath is likely due to an accumulation of fluid in the lungs, which can increase pulmonary perfusion pressure and lead to right ventricular strain and hypertrophy. This type of right heart failure that arises from left heart failure is known as cor-pulmonale. While a pulmonary embolism or rheumatic heart disease can also cause right ventricular strain, they are less probable in this case. Myocardial infarction typically presents with chest pain, which is not mentioned in the question stem regarding Oliver’s symptoms.
Right bundle branch block is a frequently observed abnormality on ECGs. It can be differentiated from left bundle branch block by remembering the phrase WiLLiaM MaRRoW. In RBBB, there is a ‘M’ in V1 and a ‘W’ in V6, while in LBBB, there is a ‘W’ in V1 and a ‘M’ in V6.
There are several potential causes of RBBB, including normal variation which becomes more common with age, right ventricular hypertrophy, chronically increased right ventricular pressure (such as in cor pulmonale), pulmonary embolism, myocardial infarction, atrial septal defect (ostium secundum), and cardiomyopathy or myocarditis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 44-year-old male presents to the hospital with a headache and blurry vision that started two hours ago. He appears drowsy but is oriented to time, place, and person. He has no history of similar episodes and cannot recall the last time he saw a doctor. He denies any chest pain or shortness of breath. His respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute, heart rate is 91 beats per minute, and blood pressure is 185/118 mmHg. A random blood glucose level is 6.1 mmol/l. The physician decides to initiate treatment with hydralazine, the only available drug at the time. How does this medication work in this patient?
Your Answer: It elevates the levels of cyclic GMP by causing a release of nitric oxide which then produce a relaxation of the smooth muscle
Correct Answer: It elevates the levels of cyclic GMP leading to a relaxation of the smooth muscle to a greater extent in the arterioles than the veins
Explanation:Hydralazine is a medication commonly used in the acute setting to lower blood pressure. It works by increasing the levels of cyclic GMP, which leads to smooth muscle relaxation. This effect is more pronounced in the arterioles than the veins. The increased levels of cyclic GMP activate protein kinase G, which phosphorylates and activates myosin light chain phosphatase. This prevents the smooth muscle from contracting, resulting in vasodilation. This mechanism of action is different from calcium channel blockers such as amlodipine, which work by blocking calcium channels. Nitroprusside is another medication that increases cyclic GMP levels, but it is not mentioned as an option in this scenario.
Hydralazine: An Antihypertensive with Limited Use
Hydralazine is an antihypertensive medication that is not commonly used nowadays. It is still prescribed for severe hypertension and hypertension in pregnancy. The drug works by increasing cGMP, which leads to smooth muscle relaxation. However, there are certain contraindications to its use, such as systemic lupus erythematosus and ischaemic heart disease/cerebrovascular disease.
Despite its potential benefits, hydralazine can cause adverse effects such as tachycardia, palpitations, flushing, fluid retention, headache, and drug-induced lupus. Therefore, it is not the first choice for treating hypertension in most cases. Overall, hydralazine is an older medication that has limited use due to its potential side effects and newer, more effective antihypertensive options available.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 21
Correct
-
You perform venepuncture on the basilic vein in the cubital fossa.
At which point does this vein pass deep under muscle?Your Answer: Midway up the humerus
Explanation:When the basilic vein is located halfway up the humerus, it travels beneath muscle. At the cubital fossa, the basilic vein connects with the median cubital vein, which in turn interacts with the cephalic vein. Contrary to popular belief, the basilic vein does not pass through the medial epicondyle. Meanwhile, the cephalic vein can be found in the deltopectoral groove.
The Basilic Vein: A Major Pathway of Venous Drainage for the Arm and Hand
The basilic vein is one of the two main pathways of venous drainage for the arm and hand, alongside the cephalic vein. It begins on the medial side of the dorsal venous network of the hand and travels up the forearm and arm. Most of its course is superficial, but it passes deep under the muscles midway up the humerus. Near the region anterior to the cubital fossa, the basilic vein joins the cephalic vein.
At the lower border of the teres major muscle, the anterior and posterior circumflex humeral veins feed into the basilic vein. It is often joined by the medial brachial vein before draining into the axillary vein. The basilic vein is continuous with the palmar venous arch distally and the axillary vein proximally. Understanding the path and function of the basilic vein is important for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating conditions related to venous drainage in the arm and hand.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
Which of the following clotting factors is unaffected by warfarin?
Your Answer: Factor VII
Correct Answer: Factor XII
Explanation:Understanding Warfarin: Mechanism of Action, Indications, Monitoring, Factors, and Side-Effects
Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that has been widely used for many years to manage venous thromboembolism and reduce stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, it has been largely replaced by direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) due to their ease of use and lack of need for monitoring. Warfarin works by inhibiting epoxide reductase, which prevents the reduction of vitamin K to its active hydroquinone form. This, in turn, affects the carboxylation of clotting factor II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C.
Warfarin is indicated for patients with mechanical heart valves, with the target INR depending on the valve type and location. Mitral valves generally require a higher INR than aortic valves. It is also used as a second-line treatment after DOACs for venous thromboembolism and atrial fibrillation, with target INRs of 2.5 and 3.5 for recurrent cases. Patients taking warfarin are monitored using the INR, which may take several days to achieve a stable level. Loading regimes and computer software are often used to adjust the dose.
Factors that may potentiate warfarin include liver disease, P450 enzyme inhibitors, cranberry juice, drugs that displace warfarin from plasma albumin, and NSAIDs that inhibit platelet function. Warfarin may cause side-effects such as haemorrhage, teratogenic effects, skin necrosis, temporary procoagulant state, thrombosis, and purple toes.
In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, indications, monitoring, factors, and side-effects of warfarin is crucial for its safe and effective use in patients. While it has been largely replaced by DOACs, warfarin remains an important treatment option for certain patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
A 50-year-old male is brought to the trauma unit following a car accident, with an estimated blood loss of 1200ml. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 125 beats per minute, blood pressure of 125/100 mmHg, and he feels cold to the touch.
Which component of his cardiovascular system has played the biggest role in maintaining his blood pressure stability?Your Answer: Arterioles
Explanation:The highest resistance in the cardiovascular system is found in the arterioles, which means they contribute the most to the total peripheral resistance. In cases of compensated hypovolaemic shock, such as in this relatively young patient, the body compensates by increasing heart rate and causing peripheral vasoconstriction to maintain blood pressure.
Arteriole vasoconstriction in hypovolaemic shock patients leads to an increase in total peripheral resistance, which in turn increases mean arterial blood pressure. This has a greater effect on diastolic blood pressure, resulting in a narrowing of pulse pressure and clinical symptoms such as cold peripheries and delayed capillary refill time.
Capillaries are microscopic channels that provide blood supply to the tissues and are the primary site for gas and nutrient exchange. Venules, on the other hand, are small veins with diameters ranging from 8-100 micrometers and join multiple capillaries exiting from a capillary bed.
The heart has four chambers and generates pressures of 0-25 mmHg on the right side and 0-120 mmHg on the left. The cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume, typically 5-6L per minute. The cardiac impulse is generated in the sino atrial node and conveyed to the ventricles via the atrioventricular node. Parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers project to the heart via the vagus and release acetylcholine and noradrenaline, respectively. The cardiac cycle includes mid diastole, late diastole, early systole, late systole, and early diastole. Preload is the end diastolic volume and afterload is the aortic pressure. Laplace’s law explains the rise in ventricular pressure during the ejection phase and why a dilated diseased heart will have impaired systolic function. Starling’s law states that an increase in end-diastolic volume will produce a larger stroke volume up to a point beyond which stroke volume will fall. Baroreceptor reflexes and atrial stretch receptors are involved in regulating cardiac output.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 49-year-old male has sustained a facial burn at work. During the morning ward round, it is observed in the surgeon's notes that the facial artery has good arterial blood supply, leading to hope for satisfactory healing. What is the name of the major artery that the facial artery branches off from?
Your Answer: Internal carotid artery
Correct Answer: External carotid artery
Explanation:The facial artery is the primary source of blood supply to the face, originating from the external carotid artery after the lingual artery. It follows a winding path and terminates as the angular artery at the inner corner of the eye.
The internal carotid artery provides blood to the front and middle parts of the brain, while the vertebral artery, a branch of the subclavian artery, supplies the spinal cord, cerebellum, and back part of the brain. The brachiocephalic artery supplies the right side of the head and arm, giving rise to the subclavian and common carotid arteries on the right side.
Anatomy of the External Carotid Artery
The external carotid artery begins on the side of the pharynx and runs in front of the internal carotid artery, behind the posterior belly of digastric and stylohyoid muscles. It is covered by sternocleidomastoid muscle and passed by hypoglossal nerves, lingual and facial veins. The artery then enters the parotid gland and divides into its terminal branches within the gland.
To locate the external carotid artery, an imaginary line can be drawn from the bifurcation of the common carotid artery behind the angle of the jaw to a point in front of the tragus of the ear.
The external carotid artery has six branches, with three in front, two behind, and one deep. The three branches in front are the superior thyroid, lingual, and facial arteries. The two branches behind are the occipital and posterior auricular arteries. The deep branch is the ascending pharyngeal artery. The external carotid artery terminates by dividing into the superficial temporal and maxillary arteries within the parotid gland.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 25
Correct
-
A 40-year-old man is stabbed in the abdomen and the inferior vena cava is injured. What is the typical number of functional valves found in this vessel?
Your Answer: 0
Explanation:Anatomy of the Inferior Vena Cava
The inferior vena cava (IVC) originates from the fifth lumbar vertebrae and is formed by the merging of the left and right common iliac veins. It passes to the right of the midline and receives drainage from paired segmental lumbar veins throughout its length. The right gonadal vein empties directly into the cava, while the left gonadal vein usually empties into the left renal vein. The renal veins and hepatic veins are the next major veins that drain into the IVC. The IVC pierces the central tendon of the diaphragm at the level of T8 and empties into the right atrium of the heart.
The IVC is related anteriorly to the small bowel, the first and third parts of the duodenum, the head of the pancreas, the liver and bile duct, the right common iliac artery, and the right gonadal artery. Posteriorly, it is related to the right renal artery, the right psoas muscle, the right sympathetic chain, and the coeliac ganglion.
The IVC is divided into different levels based on the veins that drain into it. At the level of T8, it receives drainage from the hepatic vein and inferior phrenic vein before piercing the diaphragm. At the level of L1, it receives drainage from the suprarenal veins and renal vein. At the level of L2, it receives drainage from the gonadal vein, and at the level of L1-5, it receives drainage from the lumbar veins. Finally, at the level of L5, the common iliac vein merges to form the IVC.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
A 67-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of crushing chest pain, sweating, and palpitations. Upon examination, an ECG reveals ST elevation in leads V1-V4, indicating a myocardial infarction. Which coronary artery is most likely blocked?
Your Answer: Anterior descending artery
Explanation:Anteroseptal myocardial infarction is typically caused by blockage of the left anterior descending artery. This is supported by the patient’s symptoms and ST segment elevation in leads V1-V4, which correspond to the territory supplied by this artery. Other potential occlusions, such as the left circumflex artery, left marginal artery, posterior descending artery, or right coronary artery, would cause different changes in specific leads.
The following table displays the relationship between ECG changes and the affected coronary artery territories. Anteroseptal changes in V1-V4 indicate involvement of the left anterior descending artery, while inferior changes in II, III, and aVF suggest the right coronary artery is affected. Anterolateral changes in V4-6, I, and aVL may indicate involvement of either the left anterior descending or left circumflex artery, while lateral changes in I, aVL, and possibly V5-6 suggest the left circumflex artery is affected. Posterior changes in V1-3 may indicate a posterior infarction, which is typically caused by the left circumflex artery but can also be caused by the right coronary artery. Reciprocal changes of STEMI are often seen as horizontal ST depression, tall R waves, upright T waves, and a dominant R wave in V2. Posterior infarction is confirmed by ST elevation and Q waves in posterior leads (V7-9), usually caused by the left circumflex artery but also possibly the right coronary artery. It is important to note that a new LBBB may indicate acute coronary syndrome.
Diagram showing the correlation between ECG changes and coronary territories in acute coronary syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 27
Correct
-
A 67-year-old man is scheduled for surgery to treat transitional cell carcinoma of the left kidney. During the procedure, the surgeon needs to locate and dissect the left renal artery. Can you identify the vertebral level where the origin of this artery can be found?
Your Answer: L1
Explanation:The L1 level is where the left renal artery is located.
Located just below the superior mesenteric artery at L1, the left renal artery arises from the abdominal aorta. It is positioned slightly lower than the right renal artery.
At the T10 vertebral level, the vagal trunk accompanies the oesophagus as it passes through the diaphragm.
The T12 vertebral level marks the point where the aorta passes through the diaphragm, along with the thoracic duct and azygous veins. Additionally, this is where the coeliac trunk branches out.
The aorta is a major blood vessel that carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body. At different levels along the aorta, there are branches that supply blood to specific organs and regions. These branches include the coeliac trunk at the level of T12, which supplies blood to the stomach, liver, and spleen. The left renal artery, at the level of L1, supplies blood to the left kidney. The testicular or ovarian arteries, at the level of L2, supply blood to the reproductive organs. The inferior mesenteric artery, at the level of L3, supplies blood to the lower part of the large intestine. Finally, at the level of L4, the abdominal aorta bifurcates, or splits into two branches, which supply blood to the legs and pelvis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old patient has been discharged from the hospital after experiencing a myocardial infarction. What is the most suitable combination of medication for the patient to be discharged with?
Your Answer: Aspirin, calcium channel-blocker, ACE inhibitor and statin
Correct Answer: Aspirin, beta blocker, ACE inhibitor and statin
Explanation:Medications for Secondary Prevention of Myocardial Infarction
According to the NICE guidelines on myocardial infarction (MI), patients who have suffered from a heart attack should be discharged with specific medications for secondary prevention. These medications include aspirin, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and statins. The purpose of these medications is to prevent further cardiac events and improve the patient’s overall cardiovascular health.
Aspirin is a blood thinner that helps to prevent blood clots from forming in the arteries, which can lead to another heart attack. ACE inhibitors help to lower blood pressure and reduce the workload on the heart, which can help to prevent further damage to the heart muscle. Beta-blockers also help to lower blood pressure and reduce the workload on the heart, as well as slow down the heart rate. Statins are cholesterol-lowering medications that help to reduce the risk of plaque buildup in the arteries, which can lead to a heart attack.
These medications are prescribed for tertiary prevention, which means they are used in conjunction with cardiac rehabilitation to help prevent future cardiac events. Cardiac rehabilitation typically involves exercise, education, and counseling to help patients make lifestyle changes that can improve their cardiovascular health.
In summary, patients who have suffered from a heart attack should be discharged with aspirin, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and statins for secondary prevention. These medications, along with cardiac rehabilitation, can help to prevent future cardiac events and improve the patient’s overall cardiovascular health.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 79-year-old man is admitted to the hospital after experiencing severe dizziness, vertigo, slurred speech, and nausea with vomiting. The diagnosis reveals a basilar artery stroke. Which blood vessels combine to form the affected artery?
Your Answer: Anterior inferior cerebellar arteries
Correct Answer: Vertebral arteries
Explanation:The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.
The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.
The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old male with urinary incontinence visits the urogynaecology clinic and is diagnosed with overactive bladder incontinence. He is prescribed a medication that works by blocking the parasympathetic pathway. What other drugs have a similar mechanism of action to the one he was prescribed?
Your Answer: Adenosine
Correct Answer: Atropine
Explanation:Atropine is classified as an antimuscarinic drug that works by inhibiting the M1 to M5 muscarinic receptors. While oxybutynin is commonly prescribed for urinary incontinence due to its ability to block the M3 muscarinic receptors, atropine is more frequently used in anesthesia to reduce salivation before intubation.
Alfuzosin, on the other hand, is an alpha blocker that is primarily used to treat benign prostate hyperplasia.
Meropenem is an antibiotic that is reserved for infections caused by bacteria that are resistant to most beta-lactams. However, it is typically used as a last resort due to its potential adverse effects.
Mirabegron is another medication used to treat urinary incontinence, but it works by activating the β3 adrenergic receptors.
Understanding Atropine and Its Uses
Atropine is a medication that works against the muscarinic acetylcholine receptor. It is commonly used to treat symptomatic bradycardia and organophosphate poisoning. In cases of bradycardia with adverse signs, IV atropine is the first-line treatment. However, it is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or pulseless electrical activity (PEA) during advanced life support.
Atropine has several physiological effects, including tachycardia and mydriasis. However, it is important to note that it may trigger acute angle-closure glaucoma in susceptible patients. Therefore, it is crucial to use atropine with caution and under the guidance of a healthcare professional. Understanding the uses and effects of atropine can help individuals make informed decisions about their healthcare.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)