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Question 1
Incorrect
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A patient aged 50 presents to the ENT clinic with facial pain. The patient reports experiencing frequent attacks of pain around the left eye and left cheek, with up to 15-20 attacks per day. The attacks are short, lasting 3-4 minutes but can last up to 15 minutes, and can be triggered by neck movements. The patient also experiences watering of the left eye during the attacks. There are no associated symptoms of vomiting, aversion to light or sound, or limb weakness. Both ear, nose, and throat and neurological examinations are normal, and the patient is normotensive. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cluster headache
Correct Answer: Paroxysmal hemicrania
Explanation:Distinguishing Paroxysmal Hemicrania from Other Headache Syndromes
Paroxysmal hemicrania is a type of headache syndrome that is characterized by intense pain on one side of the face lasting for 2-25 minutes. Unlike other headache syndromes, the pain never occurs on the opposite side of the face. Autonomic symptoms such as rhinorrhea, ptosis, watering of the eye, and eyelid edema are often present. Neck movements or pressure on the neck can trigger the attacks, and the headache responds well to indomethacin. It is important to distinguish paroxysmal hemicrania from other headache syndromes such as migraine, trigeminal neuralgia, cluster headache, and frontal lobe glioblastoma. Migraine typically presents with intermittent attacks accompanied by photophobia, phonophobia, or nausea. Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by shorter electric shock-like pains in response to specific stimuli. Cluster headache consists of fewer but longer attacks per day, occurring at a consistent time, and with minimal response to indomethacin. Frontal lobe glioblastoma is not consistent with the history of paroxysmal hemicrania.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Some elderly individuals currently receiving medical care have collected data on the prevalence of diabetes. They sampled 500 people. The data collected are shown in the table.
True positive (has the disease) True negative (does not have the disease)
Screen positive 200 50
Screen negative 20 230
Which of the following is the best description for the calculation of positive predictive value?Your Answer: The proportion of people who have the disease in the group will test positive for the disease
Correct Answer: The proportion of people who test positive for the disease in the group who have the disease
Explanation:Understanding Diagnostic Test Metrics: Definitions and Interpretations
Diagnostic tests are used to determine the presence or absence of a disease or condition in an individual. However, the accuracy of a diagnostic test is not always perfect. To evaluate the performance of a diagnostic test, several metrics are used. Here are some definitions and interpretations of commonly used diagnostic test metrics:
Positive Predictive Value (PPV): The proportion of people who test positive for the disease in the group who have the disease. PPV can be calculated using a table with the outcome of A/(A + B).
Specificity: The proportion of people disease-free in the group who test negative for the disease. Specificity can be calculated using a table with the outcome of B/(B + D).
Sensitivity: The proportion of people who have the disease in the group who test positive for the disease. Sensitivity can be calculated using a table with the outcome of A/(A + C).
False-Positive Rate: The proportion of people disease-free in the group who test positive for the disease. False-positive rate can be calculated using a table with the outcome of B/(A + B).
False-Negative (Omission) Rate: The proportion of people who have the disease in the group who test negative for the disease. Omission rate can be calculated using a table with the outcome of C/(C + D).
Understanding these metrics is crucial in evaluating the performance of a diagnostic test and making informed decisions about patient care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents to his GP with a sense of sadness and emptiness. He lost his job 8 months ago and has been struggling to focus on his daily activities ever since. 'I'm just not the same person I used to be,' he tells the doctor. He has no interest in finding a new job and spends most of his time at home. He denies any thoughts of suicide. His sleep is disturbed and he wakes up feeling tired. He also reports a decreased interest in sex with his partner. His medical history is significant only for a bilateral hand tremor that worsens with movement. He is a non-smoker and only drinks socially. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Adjustment disorder
Correct Answer: Major depressive disorder
Explanation:Distinguishing Major Depressive Disorder from Other Conditions
Major depressive disorder is a psychiatric condition characterized by symptoms such as anhedonia, sadness, lack of concentration, sleep impairment, social withdrawal, and hopelessness. It is often triggered by a significant stressor, such as job loss. While severe depression can also be a component of adjustment disorder, the duration of symptoms beyond 6 months following a stressor suggests a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. Anhedonia, a significant lack of interest in once pleasurable activities, is a symptom rather than a diagnosis by itself and is often present in major depressive disorder. Drug abuse can be a cause or effect of depression, but in this case, the patient’s recent stressor makes drug-related depression less likely. The patient’s hand tremor, worsened by movement, is more likely related to essential tremor than Parkinson’s disease, which typically presents with a resting hand tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia. Accurately distinguishing major depressive disorder from other conditions is crucial for effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What type of complement deficiency is linked to the onset of systemic lupus erythematosus?
Your Answer: C2
Correct Answer: C4
Explanation:During active systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), complement levels are typically reduced and can be utilized to track disease flares. Studies have demonstrated that decreased levels of C4a and C4b are linked to a higher likelihood of developing SLE.
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).
Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old patient with hypertension arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of central chest pain that feels heavy. The pain does not radiate, and there are no other risk factors for atherosclerosis. Upon examination, the patient's vital signs are normal, including pulse, temperature, and oxygen saturation. The patient appears sweaty, but cardiovascular and respiratory exams are unremarkable. The patient experiences tenderness over the sternum at the site of the chest pain, and the resting electrocardiogram (ECG) is normal.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Discharge the patient if serial resting ECGs are normal
Correct Answer: Arrange a 12-h troponin T assay before deciding whether or not to discharge the patient
Explanation:Management of Chest Pain in a Patient with Risk Factors for Cardiac Disease
Chest pain is a common presenting complaint in primary care and emergency departments. However, it is important to consider the possibility of an acute coronary syndrome in patients with risk factors for cardiac disease. Here are some management strategies for a patient with chest pain and risk factors for cardiac disease:
Arrange a 12-h troponin T assay before deciding whether or not to discharge the patient. A normal troponin assay would make a diagnosis of acute coronary syndrome unlikely, but further investigation may be required to determine if the patient has underlying coronary artery disease.
Do not discharge the patient with a diagnosis of costochondritis based solely on chest wall tenderness. This should only be used in low-risk patients with tenderness that accurately reproduces the pain they have been feeling on minimal palpation.
Do not discharge the patient if serial resting ECGs are normal. A normal ECG does not rule out an acute cardiac event.
Admit the patient to the Coronary Care Unit for monitoring and further assessment only if the 12-h troponin comes back elevated.
Do not discharge the patient and arrange an outpatient exercise tolerance test until further investigation has been done to rule out an acute cardiac event.
In summary, it is important to consider the possibility of an acute coronary syndrome in patients with chest pain and risk factors for cardiac disease. Further investigation, such as a 12-h troponin assay, may be required before deciding on appropriate management strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits his doctor seeking assistance in quitting smoking. He has been smoking 20 cigarettes daily for the past six years and has a history of epilepsy. Which smoking cessation aid is most likely to result in adverse effects for this individual?
Your Answer: Varenicline
Correct Answer: Bupropion
Explanation:Options for Smoking Cessation in Patients with Seizure History
Patients with a predisposition or past history of seizures should avoid bupropion due to an increased risk of seizures. The Medicines and Health products Regulatory Authority (MHRA) warns against prescribing bupropion to patients who experience seizures. However, behavioural therapy is encouraged for all patients who wish to quit smoking. E-cigarettes can be a safer alternative and may eventually help patients quit entirely, but they are not currently funded by the NHS. Nicotine replacement therapy in the form of patches or gum can also be used. Varenicline is cautioned but not contraindicated for use in patients with seizures, so it should only be used if the benefits outweigh the risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 7
Incorrect
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You are a Foundation Year 2 (FY2) doctor on your general surgical rotation, and the consultant has asked you to scrub in to help assist. He informs you that it will be a fantastic learning opportunity and will ask you questions throughout. He goes to commence the operation and the questions begin.
When making a midline abdominal incision, what would be the correct order of layers through the abdominal wall?Your Answer: Skin, Scarpa’s fascia, Camper’s fascia, linea alba, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, peritoneum
Correct Answer: Skin, Camper’s fascia, Scarpa’s fascia, linea alba, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, peritoneum
Explanation:Different Types of Abdominal Incisions and Their Layers
Abdominal incisions are commonly used in surgical procedures. There are different types of abdominal incisions, each with its own set of layers. Here are some of the most common types of abdominal incisions and their layers:
1. Midline Incision: This incision is made in the middle of the abdomen and involves the following layers: skin, Camper’s fascia, Scarpa’s fascia, linea alba, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum. This incision is versatile and can be used for most abdominal procedures.
2. Transverse Incision: This incision is made horizontally across the abdomen and involves the following layers: skin, fascia, anterior rectus sheath, rectus muscle, transversus abdominis, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum.
3. Paramedian Incision above the Arcuate Line: This incision is made to the side of the midline above the arcuate line and involves the following layers: skin, Camper’s fascia, Scarpa’s fascia, anterior rectus sheath, posterior rectus sheath, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum.
4. Paramedian Incision below the Arcuate Line: This incision is made to the side of the midline below the arcuate line and involves the following layers: skin, Camper’s fascia, Scarpa’s fascia, anterior rectus sheath, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum.
Knowing the different types of abdominal incisions and their layers can help surgeons choose the best approach for a particular procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old man presented to the hospital with complaints of hoarseness and unexplained weight loss. Upon laryngoscopy, it was found that he had paralysis of the right vocal cord. A chest radiograph was ordered to further investigate the lesion. Which radiographic view would be most appropriate for this patient?
Your Answer: Aortic arch
Correct Answer: Lung apex
Explanation:The Impact of Lesions on the Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve: A Guide by An AI Language Model
The recurrent laryngeal nerve is a crucial nerve that innervates the vocal folds. Lesions along its course can cause dysfunction and lead to various symptoms. Here is a guide on how lesions in different regions of the body can impact the recurrent laryngeal nerve.
Lung Apex:
A lesion in the apex of the lung, known as a Pancoast tumor, can affect the right recurrent laryngeal nerve, which loops under the right subclavian artery at the apex of the right lung. This can cause dysfunction of the right vocal fold and may suggest malignancy, especially if accompanied by weight loss.Aortic Arch:
The right recurrent laryngeal nerve branches off the vagus nerve at the right subclavian artery, and the left at the aortic arch. Therefore, lesions at the aortic arch can affect both the left and right recurrent laryngeal nerves.Basal Region of the Lung:
Lesions at the base of the lungs would not affect the recurrent laryngeal nerve, as it branches from the vagus nerve at the level of the aortic arch and returns upwards.Hilar Region of the Right Lung:
Lesions in the hilar region of the right lung would not affect the recurrent laryngeal nerve, as it branches off the vagus nerve at the right subclavian artery and the left at the aortic arch.Retrocardiac:
Lesions in the retrocardiac region would be unlikely to impact the recurrent laryngeal nerve unless they are very large, as the nerve branches off the vagus nerve at the right subclavian artery. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You plan to conduct a research on patients who have had minor lumps and bumps removed in the past ten years. Your aim is to compare the rates of postoperative infections and determine if there are any variations in the clinical and histological diagnoses based on the level of expertise of the practitioner who performed the procedure.
Which of the following statements accurately describe this study?Your Answer: This is an audit and does not require ethical committee approval
Correct Answer: Approval for the study must be obtained from the local ethics committee
Explanation:Clarification on the Nature of the Study
This study is not an audit as there are no indications of any local or national guidelines to follow, nor is there a specific clinical problem to address. Instead, it is a retrospective research study that requires approval from the local ethical committee. Despite this, the study appears reasonable and can be conducted in the investigator’s practice, even if it has been published elsewhere, as the outcomes may differ. It is also justifiable to use the same methods as another study to validate its findings. In addition, there is no need to obtain consent from the original authors if a similar study has already been published.
Overall, it is important to clarify the nature of the study to ensure that it is conducted appropriately and ethically. The lack of guidelines and specific clinical problem may affect the study’s design and implementation, but it is still possible to conduct a valid research study. The use of similar methods and validation of previous findings can also contribute to the advancement of knowledge in the field.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Miscellaneous
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents with confusion and is found to have evidence of right lower lobe pneumonia on chest x-ray. On examination the respiratory rate is 36 breaths per minute, pulse rate is 90 per minute and the blood pressure is 106/48 mmHg. Initial bloods show a urea of 12 mmol/l.
What is the patient's CURB 65 score?Your Answer: 3
Correct Answer: 5
Explanation:Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that requires prompt assessment and management. In the primary care setting, the CRB65 criteria are used to stratify patients based on their risk of mortality. Patients with a score of 0 are considered low risk and may be treated at home, while those with a score of 3 or 4 are high risk and require urgent admission to hospital. The use of a point-of-care CRP test can help guide antibiotic therapy. In the secondary care setting, the CURB 65 criteria are used, which includes an additional criterion of urea > 7 mmol/L. Chest x-rays and blood and sputum cultures are recommended for intermediate or high-risk patients. Treatment for low-severity community acquired pneumonia typically involves a 5-day course of amoxicillin, while moderate and high-severity cases may require dual antibiotic therapy for 7-10 days. Discharge criteria and advice post-discharge are also provided, including information on expected symptom resolution timeframes and the need for a repeat chest x-ray at 6 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 11
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman complains of lower abdominal pain during her 8th week of pregnancy. A transvaginal ultrasound reveals the presence of a simple ovarian cyst alongside an 8-week intrauterine pregnancy. What is the best course of action for managing the cyst?
Your Answer: Reassure patient that this is normal and leave the cyst alone
Explanation:During the initial stages of pregnancy, ovarian cysts are typically physiological and referred to as corpus luteum. These cysts typically disappear during the second trimester. It is crucial to provide reassurance in such situations as expecting mothers are likely to experience high levels of anxiety. It is important to avoid anxiety during pregnancy to prevent any negative consequences for both the mother and the developing fetus.
Understanding the Different Types of Ovarian Cysts
Ovarian cysts are a common occurrence in women, and they can be classified into different types. The most common type of ovarian cyst is the physiological cyst, which includes follicular cysts and corpus luteum cysts. Follicular cysts occur when the dominant follicle fails to rupture or when a non-dominant follicle fails to undergo atresia. These cysts usually regress after a few menstrual cycles. Corpus luteum cysts, on the other hand, occur when the corpus luteum fails to break down and disappear after the menstrual cycle. These cysts may fill with blood or fluid and are more likely to cause intraperitoneal bleeding than follicular cysts.
Another type of ovarian cyst is the benign germ cell tumour, which includes dermoid cysts. Dermoid cysts are also known as mature cystic teratomas and are usually lined with epithelial tissue. They may contain skin appendages, hair, and teeth. Dermoid cysts are the most common benign ovarian tumour in women under the age of 30, and they are usually asymptomatic. However, torsion is more likely to occur with dermoid cysts than with other ovarian tumours.
Lastly, there are benign epithelial tumours, which arise from the ovarian surface epithelium. The most common benign epithelial tumour is the serous cystadenoma, which bears a resemblance to the most common type of ovarian cancer (serous carcinoma). Serous cystadenomas are bilateral in around 20% of cases. The second most common benign epithelial tumour is the mucinous cystadenoma, which is typically large and may become massive. If it ruptures, it may cause pseudomyxoma peritonei.
In conclusion, understanding the different types of ovarian cysts is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. Complex ovarian cysts should be biopsied to exclude malignancy, while benign cysts may require monitoring or surgical removal depending on their size and symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding heparin is accurate?
Your Answer: Vitamin K should be used if an overdose is given accidently
Correct Answer: LMWH has a longer duration of action than unfractionated, standard heparin
Explanation:Understanding Heparin and its Adverse Effects
Heparin is a type of anticoagulant that comes in two forms: unfractionated or standard heparin, and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). Both types work by activating antithrombin III, but unfractionated heparin inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, XIa, and XIIa, while LMWH only increases the action of antithrombin III on factor Xa. However, heparin can cause adverse effects such as bleeding, thrombocytopenia, osteoporosis, and hyperkalemia.
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a condition where antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin, leading to platelet activation and a prothrombotic state. HIT usually develops after 5-10 days of treatment and is characterized by a greater than 50% reduction in platelets, thrombosis, and skin allergy. To address the need for ongoing anticoagulation, direct thrombin inhibitors like argatroban and danaparoid can be used.
Standard heparin is administered intravenously and has a short duration of action, while LMWH is administered subcutaneously and has a longer duration of action. Standard heparin is useful in situations where there is a high risk of bleeding as anticoagulation can be terminated rapidly, while LMWH is now standard in the management of venous thromboembolism treatment and prophylaxis and acute coronary syndromes. Monitoring for standard heparin is done through activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), while LMWH does not require routine monitoring. Heparin overdose may be reversed by protamine sulfate, although this only partially reverses the effect of LMWH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A patient with uncontrolled asthma is initiated on montelukast. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
Your Answer: Phosphodiesterase type-4 inhibitor
Correct Answer: Leukotriene receptor antagonist
Explanation:The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist instead of a LABA. NICE does not follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. The steps range from newly-diagnosed asthma to SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options, including increasing ICS to high-dose, a trial of an additional drug, or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is a form of combined ICS and LABA treatment that is only available for ICS and LABA combinations in which the LABA has a fast-acting component. It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance. The definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have also changed, with <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a high dose for adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 14
Correct
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A 54-year-old female with a history of rheumatoid arthritis visited her GP complaining of redness in her right eye. She mentioned experiencing mild discomfort and irritation with occasional watering of the eye. However, she denied any dryness or significant pain. The examination of her pupils revealed no abnormalities, and she did not experience any discomfort when exposed to light. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Episcleritis
Explanation:Rheumatoid Arthritis and Its Effects on the Eyes
Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects various parts of the body, including the eyes. In fact, ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis are quite common, with approximately 25% of patients experiencing eye problems. These eye problems can range from mild to severe and can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life.
The most common ocular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis is keratoconjunctivitis sicca, also known as dry eye syndrome. This condition occurs when the eyes do not produce enough tears, leading to discomfort, redness, and irritation. Other ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis include episcleritis, scleritis, corneal ulceration, and keratitis. Episcleritis and scleritis both cause redness in the eyes, with scleritis also causing pain. Corneal ulceration and keratitis both affect the cornea, with corneal ulceration being a more severe condition that can lead to vision loss.
In addition to these conditions, patients with rheumatoid arthritis may also experience iatrogenic ocular manifestations. These are side effects of medications used to treat the disease. For example, steroid use can lead to cataracts, while the use of chloroquine can cause retinopathy.
Overall, it is important for patients with rheumatoid arthritis to be aware of the potential ocular manifestations of the disease and to seek prompt medical attention if they experience any eye-related symptoms. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent vision loss and improve overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 75-year-old woman is admitted to a medical ward and the medical team is concerned about her mental health in addition to her urgent medical needs. The patient is refusing treatment and insisting on leaving. The team suspects that she may be mentally incapacitated and unable to make an informed decision. Under which section of the Mental Health Act (MHA) can they legally detain her in England and Wales?
Your Answer: Section 5 (2)
Explanation:Section 5 (2) of the MHA allows a doctor to detain a patient for up to 72 hours for assessment. This can be used for both informal patients in mental health hospitals and general hospitals. During this time, the patient is assessed by an approved mental health professional and a doctor with Section 12 approval. The patient can refuse treatment, but it can be given in their best interests or in an emergency. Section 2 and 3 can only be used if they are the least restrictive method for treatment and allow for detention for up to 28 days and 6 months, respectively. Section 135 allows police to remove a person from their home for assessment, while Section 136 allows for the removal of an apparently mentally disordered person from a public place to a place of safety for assessment. Since the patient in this scenario is already in hospital, neither Section 135 nor Section 136 would apply.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 10-week-old baby is admitted to the Paediatric Ward by her General Practitioner (GP). She was born at term via normal vaginal delivery after an uncomplicated pregnancy. Her birthweight was 2900 g. Her 20-week anomaly scan was unremarkable. Her parents inform you that a heart murmur was noted at her 8-week check, for which she is awaiting routine outpatient assessment. Her parents report that, over the last week, she has had episodes of going blue during feeds and friends have remarked that she looks ‘off colour’. She had a similar episode while with her GP, and oxygen saturation was recorded at 88% peripherally. As a result, the GP called 999 and transferred her to hospital. She is growing along the 25th centile. On examination, she is alert with normal vital signs. Heart sounds reveal a loud systolic murmur at the lower left sternal edge; she had palpable femoral pulses bilaterally and very slight cyanosis. Her chest is clear, without recession or signs of distress. Her liver is not enlarged.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Explanation:Tetralogy of Fallot is a common congenital heart disease that affects around 3-6 out of every 10,000 births. It is characterized by four heart abnormalities that can cause symptoms such as cyanosis, difficulty with feeding, failure to thrive, and Tet spells. Diagnosis is typically made through echocardiography, and surgical correction is usually performed within the first two years of life.
Cyanotic heart disease can be divided into two groups: those that present in the first week of life and those that present after the first week. Examples of conditions that present in the first week include total pulmonary atresia, tricuspid atresia, and transposition of the great arteries. Examples of conditions that can present after the first week include tetralogy of Fallot, total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage, and tricuspid regurgitation with right-to-left shunt via atrial septal defect.
Transposition of the great arteries is a cyanotic congenital heart condition where the aorta arises from the right ventricle and the pulmonary arteries from the left ventricle. It typically presents with central cyanosis within the first day or two of life and is managed with intravenous prostaglandin E1 and balloon atrial septostomy.
Total pulmonary atresia is a congenital heart abnormality where the pulmonary valve fails to develop, resulting in disrupted blood flow from the right ventricle to the pulmonary trunk. It can occur with or without a ventricular septal defect and is associated with tetralogy of Fallot.
Ventricular septal defect is a congenital heart defect located in the interventricular septum that allows mixing of blood between the two sides of the heart. Symptoms depend on the size of the defect and can range from asymptomatic to signs of heart failure.
Patent ductus arteriosus is the failure of closure of the fetal connection between the descending aorta and pulmonary artery. It is not a cyanotic congenital heart defect and can be treated with intravenous indomethacin, cardiac catheterization, or ligation. Symptoms may include decreased exercise tolerance, pulmonary congestion, a cardiac murmur, or heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Correct
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A 10-year-old child is brought to the general practitioner by his mother. He complains of loss of sensation over the dorsal aspect of his right forearm and hand for the last few days. His mother also states that he cannot extend his fingers and wrist after she pulled her son’s right hand gently while crossing a street 4 days ago. He had pain in his right elbow at that time but did not see a doctor immediately. On examination, there is loss of sensation and muscle weakness over the extensor surface of his right forearm and hand.
Which of the following nerves is most likely to be injured in this patient?Your Answer: Radial nerve
Explanation:Common Nerve Injuries and their Effects on Movement and Sensation
Radial nerve: Nursemaid’s elbow is a common injury in children that can cause damage to the deep branch of the radial nerve. This can result in wrist drop due to paralysis of the extensors of the forearm and hand.
Long thoracic nerve: The long thoracic nerve supplies the serratus anterior muscle, which is used in all reaching and pushing movements. Injury to this nerve causes winging of the scapula.
Musculocutaneous nerve: Injury to the musculocutaneous nerve causes a loss of elbow flexion, weakness in supination, and sensation loss on the lateral aspect of the forearm.
Axillary nerve: The axillary nerve supplies the deltoid muscle and teres minor. Injury to this nerve presents with flattening of the deltoid muscle after injury, loss of lateral rotation, abduction of the affected shoulder due to deltoid muscle weakness, and loss of sensation over the lateral aspect of the arm.
Middle subscapular nerve: The middle subscapular nerve supplies the latissimus dorsi, which adducts and extends the humerus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 18
Correct
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Which of the options listed does not have a decreasing effect on bronchial secretions?
Your Answer: Alcohol
Explanation:Anticholinergic Properties of Atropine, Phenothiazines, and Imipramine
Atropine, phenothiazines, and imipramine are medications that possess anticholinergic properties. This means that they can reduce the production of bronchial secretions. Essentially, these drugs work by blocking the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that stimulates the production of mucous in the respiratory tract. By inhibiting this process, these medications can help alleviate symptoms of respiratory conditions such as asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and bronchitis. It is important to note that while these drugs can be effective in reducing bronchial secretions, they may also have other side effects such as dry mouth, blurred vision, and constipation. Therefore, it is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 52-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents to the Emergency Department with an acute exacerbation. He is experiencing severe shortness of breath and his oxygen saturation levels are at 74% on room air. The medical team initiates treatment with 15 litres of high-flow oxygen and later transitions him to controlled oxygen supplementation via a 28% venturi mask. What is the optimal target range for his oxygen saturation levels?
Your Answer: 88–92%
Explanation:Understanding Oxygen Saturation Targets for Patients with COPD
Patients with COPD have specific oxygen saturation targets that differ from those without respiratory problems. The correct range for a COPD patient is 88-92%, as they rely on low oxygen concentrations to drive their respiratory effort. Giving them too much oxygen can potentially remove their drive to breathe and worsen their respiratory situation. In contrast, unwell individuals who are not at risk of type 2 respiratory failure have a target of 94-98%. A saturation target of 80% is too low and can cause hypoxia and damage to end organs. Saturations of 90-94% may indicate a need for oxygen therapy, but it may still be too high for a patient with COPD. It is vital to obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) in hypoxia to check if the patient is a chronic CO2 retainer. Understanding these targets is crucial in managing patients with COPD and ensuring their respiratory effort is not compromised.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with symptoms including poor sleep. He reports an itching and crawling sensation affecting his legs with an overwhelming urge to move them. His wife reports that he tosses and turns all night, often pacing the room, and constantly rubs his legs. Things only improve with the break of dawn. He seems tired all day as a consequence of the disturbed sleep at night. The only past medical history of note is diverticular disease, from which he has been troubled by periodic iron deficiency anaemia. Neurological examination is unremarkable.
Bloods:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 101 g/l (microcytic) 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 285 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 124 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Fasting glucose 5.8 mmol/l < 7 mmol/l
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?Your Answer: Primary restless legs syndrome
Correct Answer: Secondary restless legs syndrome
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Restless Legs Syndrome
Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a neurological disorder characterized by an irresistible urge to move the legs, often accompanied by unpleasant sensations. Here, we discuss the differential diagnosis for RLS in a patient with iron deficiency anaemia.
Secondary Restless Legs Syndrome:
In this case, the patient’s RLS is secondary to iron deficiency anaemia. Iron deficiency can cause RLS, and correcting the anaemia with iron supplementation may improve symptoms. Other causes of secondary RLS include peripheral neuropathy.Primary Restless Legs Syndrome:
Primary RLS is a central nervous system disorder without known underlying cause. However, since this patient has a known precipitant for his RLS, it is more likely to be secondary.Alcohol Related Neuropathy:
Alcohol-related neuropathy typically causes pain and motor loss, which is not seen in this patient.Nocturnal Cramps:
Nocturnal cramps are unlikely to cause problems for the whole night and are typically short-lived.Diabetic Neuropathy:
Diabetic neuropathy can cause burning or stinging sensations, but this patient’s fasting glucose level makes a diagnosis of diabetic neuropathy unlikely.In conclusion, RLS can have various causes, and a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying etiology. Treatment options include medications such as sedatives, anti-epileptic agents, and dopaminergic agents, as well as addressing any underlying conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 21
Correct
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Which blood test is the most sensitive for diagnosing acute pancreatitis?
Your Answer: Lipase
Explanation:If the clinical presentation does not match the amylase level, it is important to consider that the serum amylase can fluctuate rapidly and produce an inaccurate negative result. In such cases, it is recommended to conduct a serum lipase test or a CT scan.
Understanding Acute Pancreatitis
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by alcohol or gallstones. It occurs when the pancreatic enzymes start to digest the pancreatic tissue, leading to necrosis. The main symptom of acute pancreatitis is severe epigastric pain that may radiate through to the back. Vomiting is also common, and examination may reveal epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. In rare cases, periumbilical discolouration (Cullen’s sign) and flank discolouration (Grey-Turner’s sign) may be present.
To diagnose acute pancreatitis, doctors typically measure the levels of serum amylase and lipase in the blood. While amylase is raised in 75% of patients, it does not correlate with disease severity. Lipase, on the other hand, is more sensitive and specific than amylase and has a longer half-life. Imaging tests, such as ultrasound and contrast-enhanced CT, may also be used to assess the aetiology of the condition.
Scoring systems, such as the Ranson score, Glasgow score, and APACHE II, are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that may require intensive care management. Factors that indicate severe pancreatitis include age over 55 years, hypocalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hypoxia, neutrophilia, and elevated LDH and AST. It is important to note that the actual amylase level is not of prognostic value.
In summary, acute pancreatitis is a condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort. It is typically caused by alcohol or gallstones and can be diagnosed through blood tests and imaging. Scoring systems are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that require intensive care management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old male presents with lower back pain and painful feet that feel like walking on pebbles. He has been generally healthy, but he recently returned from a trip to Corfu where he had a diarrheal illness. He admits to infrequently taking ecstasy but takes no other medication. On examination, he has limited movement and pain in the sacroiliac joints and soreness in the soles of his feet upon deep palpation. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Drug-induced arthropathy
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:After a diarrhoeal illness, the patient may be at risk of developing reactive arthritis, which is a possible diagnosis for both sacroiliitis and plantar fasciitis. However, it is less likely to be related to inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) if there is only one acute episode of diarrhoea.
Sacroiliitis is a condition that affects the sacroiliac joint, which is located at the base of the spine where it connects to the pelvis. It causes inflammation and pain in the lower back, buttocks, and legs. Plantar fasciitis, on the other hand, is a condition that affects the plantar fascia, a thick band of tissue that runs along the bottom of the foot. It causes pain and stiffness in the heel and arch of the foot.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her flatmates who claim that she has vomited up blood. Apparently she had consumed far too much alcohol over the course of the night, had vomited on multiple occasions, and then began to dry-retch. After a period of retching, she vomited a minimal amount of bright red blood. On examination, she is intoxicated and has marked epigastric tenderness; her blood pressure is 135/75 mmHg, with a heart rate of 70 bpm, regular.
Investigations:
Investigation
Result
Normal value
Haemoglobin 145 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.4 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 301 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 3.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 75 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for her?Your Answer: Arrange urgent upper gastrointestinal endoscopy tonight
Correct Answer: Discharge in the morning if stable
Explanation:Management of Mallory-Weiss Tear: A Case Study
A Mallory-Weiss tear is a longitudinal mucosal laceration at the gastro-oesophageal junction or cardia caused by repeated retching. In a stable patient with a Hb of 145 g/l, significant blood loss is unlikely. Observation overnight is recommended, and if stable, the patient can be discharged the following morning. Further endoscopic investigation is not necessary in this case. Intravenous pantoprazole is not indicated for a Mallory-Weiss tear, and antacid treatment is unnecessary as the tear will heal spontaneously. Urgent endoscopic investigation is not required if the patient remains clinically stable and improves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 24
Correct
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Please rewrite the question while maintaining the paragraph structure.
Your Answer: Left homonymous scotoma – right occipital cortex
Explanation:Understanding Visual Field Defects and their Corresponding Brain Lesions
Visual field defects can occur due to various brain lesions. The location of the lesion determines the type of visual field defect. Here are some examples:
– Left homonymous scotoma – right occipital cortex: If the tip of the occipital cortex is affected, it can cause a contralateral scotoma, affecting the central vision. However, if the whole occipital lobe is affected, it will cause a homonymous hemianopia.
– Bitemporal hemianopia – optic chiasm: Bitemporal hemianopia occurs with a lesion of the optic chiasm, not the occipital cortex.
– Right superior homonymous quadrantanopia – left temporal cortex: Superior quadrantanopia occurs with temporal lesions, not parietal lesions.
– Left inferior homonymous quadrantanopia – right parietal cortex: Inferior quadrantanopia occurs with parietal lesions, not temporal lesions.
– Right monocular anopia – right optic nerve injury: Monocular anopia occurs with damage to the optic nerve on that same side, rather than damage to the occipital cortex.Understanding the relationship between visual field defects and their corresponding brain lesions can aid in diagnosis and treatment of neurological conditions affecting vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old nun is seen in the Rheumatology Clinic every year for her long-standing seropositive arthritis affecting her hands, knees, and hips. Her arthritis is linked to another chronic condition she also experiences.
Your Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis
Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) arthritis
Explanation:Seropositive and Seronegative Arthritis: Types and Characteristics
Seropositive arthritis is characterized by the presence of rheumatoid factor, an antibody targeted against the Fc portion of immunoglobulins. While rheumatoid factor can be present in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), seropositive SLE generally indicates more severe disease progression. On the other hand, reactive arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, and enteropathic arthritis are all seronegative arthritis, meaning that rheumatoid factor is classically not present.
Reactive arthritis is usually precipitated by a gastrointestinal or genitourinary infection occurring before the onset of arthritic symptoms. The classic triad of reactive arthritis is conjunctivitis, asymmetric oligoarthritis, and urethritis. The condition may be self-limiting, but in some patients, it may become chronic or recur frequently.
Psoriatic arthritis is classically found in patients with psoriasis, but in around 1 in 6 people, it may present many years before psoriatic skin symptoms. Ankylosing spondylitis, on the other hand, is a chronic disorder of an inflammatory nature characterized by sacroiliac joint involvement and linked to the HLA-B27 antigen. Enteropathic arthritis is associated with inflammatory bowel disease and can affect any joint, but it most commonly affects the spine and lower limb joints. Approximately 1 in 5 people with inflammatory bowel disease will develop the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 30-year-old man presents to the A&E with a painful shoulder injury he sustained while playing basketball. Upon examination, you discover an anterior dislocation of his right shoulder. What pre- and post-relocation test must you perform?
Your Answer: Examine axillary nerve function in the affected arm
Explanation:Assessing Vascular and Nerve Injury in Anterior Shoulder Dislocation: Important Tests to Consider
When examining a patient with anterior shoulder dislocation, it is crucial to assess for vascular and nerve injury in the affected arm. One way to test nerve function is by assessing sensation in the regimental patch area over the deltoid muscle. An X-ray before and after relocation is necessary to check for fractures and confirm successful reduction. If there is vascular injury, it will be evident from the examination of the limb, and urgent referral to surgeons is required. Checking the brachial pulse is acceptable to assess for vascular injury, and examining axillary nerve function before and after relocation is mandatory. Ultrasound of the affected limb may be helpful in identifying soft tissue injuries, but it is not as crucial as the other tests mentioned. Overall, a thorough assessment of vascular and nerve function is essential in managing anterior shoulder dislocation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male with a history of agoraphobia for the past 3 months presents for a telemedicine consultation to discuss his current issues. He reports feeling unable to leave his home due to a fear of contamination and illness. He explains that he feels the outside world is too dirty and that he will become sick and die if he leaves his house. He also reports washing his hands six times with soap and water after touching anything, which has resulted in his hands becoming dry, cracked, and erythematosus. He has lost his job as a result of missing deadlines and not being able to complete his work due to his compulsive hand washing behavior. Despite his awareness of the negative impact of his behavior, he feels unable to stop himself from washing his hands exactly six times every time.
During the telemedicine consultation, his mental state examination is unremarkable. However, upon requesting to see his hands over the video conversation, it is noted that they appear dry, cracked, and erythematosus.
What is the most appropriate management strategy for this patient?Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)
Correct Answer: SSRI and CBT (including ERP)
Explanation:Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by the presence of obsessions and/or compulsions that can cause significant functional impairment and distress. Risk factors include family history, age, pregnancy/postnatal period, and history of abuse, bullying, or neglect. Treatment options include low-intensity psychological treatments, SSRIs, and more intensive CBT (including ERP). Severe cases should be referred to the secondary care mental health team for assessment and may require combined treatment with an SSRI and CBT or clomipramine as an alternative. ERP involves exposing the patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. Treatment with SSRIs should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman has been diagnosed with ovarian cancer. She has had a positive CA125 blood test, ultrasound scan and CT abdomen and pelvis. She is found to have stage 2 ovarian cancer. What is the primary treatment?
Your Answer: Chemotherapy
Correct Answer: Surgical excision of the tumour
Explanation:Surgical removal of the tumour is the primary treatment for ovarian cancers in stages 2-4, often accompanied by chemotherapy as well, according to NICE CG122.
Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.
Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.
Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 35-year-old man fell off his motorbike and sustained a fracture to his left tibia, which was treated with an intramedullary nail. He developed severe pain that was unresponsive to morphine during the night after his surgery. The pain worsened and was accompanied by a tingling sensation and a sensation of tightness in his leg. On examination, his left leg was swollen and tense, and he experienced pain when his toes were passively flexed. What is the best course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Arrange immediate fasciotomy
Explanation:Compartment Syndrome: A Surgical Emergency
Compartment syndrome is a serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. It occurs when the pressure within a muscle compartment increases, leading to ischaemic injury. The classical symptoms of compartment syndrome include increasing pain, paraesthesiae, and other signs of ischaemia. If left untreated, compartment syndrome can lead to the loss of the affected limb.
The diagnosis of compartment syndrome is usually a clinical one. However, if any doubt exists, compartment pressures can be measured. If the pressure is greater than 30 mmHg, immediate decompression by fasciotomy is necessary.
Treatment should not be delayed if compartment syndrome is suspected. Delaying treatment may lead to the loss of the limb. Opioid analgesia may be prescribed to help with the patient’s pain, but it will not treat the underlying problem.
If a patient presents with classical symptoms of acute ischaemia of the leg, they should be assessed for the six Ps: pain, pallor, pulseless, paraesthesiae, paralysis, and perishingly cold. If these symptoms are present, immediate fasciotomy is necessary.
After treatment, the patient should be monitored for pain levels over the next 24 hours. Raising the limb and monitoring it in 2 hours can also be helpful. However, the most important thing is to recognize the signs of compartment syndrome and seek immediate medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 30
Correct
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A 3-day-old neonate born at term is presenting with tachypnoea, grunting, and cyanosis. The baby is unable to feed and has an oxygen saturation of 70% on room air. On auscultation, a loud S2 and systolic murmur are heard, which is loudest at the left sternal border. The doctors suspect transposition of the great arteries and have started the baby on intravenous fluids, antibiotics, and scheduled surgery. What additional medication should be given in the meantime?
Your Answer: Prostaglandin E1
Explanation:To maintain a patent ductus arteriosus in cyanotic congenital heart diseases, prostaglandin E1 should be administered. It is helpful to recall the 5 T’s for cyanotic CHD, which include Tetralogy of Fallot, Transposition of Great Vessels (TGA), Tricuspid Atresia, Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Return, and Truncus Arteriosus. Based on the timing of onset and heart murmur, the patient in this case likely has TGA with a concurrent VSD. TGA typically presents shortly after birth. Prostaglandin E1 is given in ductal dependent cyanotic heart diseases to prevent closure of the patent ductus arteriosus until surgical correction can be performed. This allows for mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood to ensure adequate systemic circulation. Antibiotics should also be administered as prophylaxis for bacterial endocarditis. It is important to note that nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as indomethacin and ibuprofen will actually close the ductus arteriosus and should not be used in this situation.
Cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin, is a common occurrence in newborns. Peripheral cyanosis, which affects the hands and feet, is often seen in the first 24 hours of life and can be caused by crying or illness. Central cyanosis, on the other hand, is a more serious condition that occurs when the concentration of reduced hemoglobin in the blood exceeds 5g/dl. To differentiate between cardiac and non-cardiac causes of central cyanosis, doctors may use the nitrogen washout test, which involves giving the infant 100% oxygen for ten minutes and then measuring arterial blood gases. A pO2 of less than 15 kPa indicates cyanotic congenital heart disease, which can be caused by conditions such as tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries, and tricuspid atresia.
If cyanotic congenital heart disease is suspected, initial management involves supportive care and the use of prostaglandin E1, such as alprostadil, to maintain a patent ductus arteriosus in ductal-dependent congenital heart defects. This can serve as a temporary measure until a definitive diagnosis is made and surgical correction is performed.
Acrocyanosis, a type of peripheral cyanosis, is a benign condition that is often seen in healthy newborns. It is characterized by bluish discoloration around the mouth and extremities, such as the hands and feet, and is caused by vasomotor changes that result in peripheral vasoconstriction and increased tissue oxygen extraction. Unlike other causes of peripheral cyanosis that may indicate significant pathology, such as septic shock, acrocyanosis occurs immediately after birth in healthy infants and typically resolves within 24 to 48 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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