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  • Question 1 - A 48-year-old patient attends the diabetic clinic with an HbA1c of 58mmol/mol. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old patient attends the diabetic clinic with an HbA1c of 58mmol/mol. Despite his efforts to lose weight, his blood sugar levels remain high. You adjust his metformin dosage and schedule a follow-up appointment in 4 months. During the consultation, he confides in you about his difficulty in achieving and maintaining an erection, which has caused strain in his relationship. To address this issue, you prescribe a course of sildenafil. How does sildenafil improve erectile function?

      Your Answer: Increased penile blood flow due to vasodilation through a decrease in cGMP

      Correct Answer: Increased penile blood due to vasodilation through an increase in cGMP

      Explanation:

      PDE 5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, promote vasodilation by elevating the levels of cGMP. Sildenafil works by inhibiting the cGMP-specific phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE5) enzyme, which is responsible for breaking down cGMP in the corpus cavernosum surrounding the penis. Sexual stimulation triggers the release of nitric oxide (NO) from nerve terminals and endothelial cells, leading to the synthesis of cGMP in smooth muscle cells. This results in the relaxation of penile arteries and corpus cavernosal smooth muscle, leading to increased blood flow and penile erection. By enhancing the amount of cGMP, sildenafil improves erectile function. This is achieved by reducing intracellular calcium concentration, which causes smooth muscle relaxation. The other options are incorrect because vasoconstriction, corpus cavernosal smooth muscle contraction, and increased intracellular calcium concentration would worsen erectile dysfunction.

      Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.

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  • Question 2 - At the end of a tiring night shift, you are feeling drained and...

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    • At the end of a tiring night shift, you are feeling drained and eager to hit the sack. However, the doctor on call who is supposed to take over from you calls to inform you that he is running late due to traffic. You have a few crucial matters to pass on. How should you proceed?

      Your Answer: Wait until the oncall doctor arrives, then hand over

      Explanation:

      According to GMC Good medical practice, it is necessary for healthcare providers to ensure the safe transfer of patients between different providers. This involves sharing all relevant information with colleagues involved in the patient’s care, both within and outside the team. It also involves checking that a named clinician or team has taken over responsibility when your role in providing care has ended, especially for vulnerable patients or those with impaired capacity. Therefore, the correct answer is number 5, and it is important to avoid sending confidential information via text message or leaving it on a piece of paper that may get lost.

      Maintaining Trust in Medical Practice

      Maintaining trust is a crucial aspect of medical practice, and it is one of the four domains in Good Medical Practice. To maintain trust, medical professionals must show respect for their patients, treating them and their colleagues fairly and without discrimination. Honesty and integrity are also essential in building and maintaining trust.

      Medical professionals must always show respect for their patients, regardless of their background or circumstances. This includes listening to their concerns, providing clear explanations, and involving them in decision-making processes. Treating patients and colleagues fairly and without discrimination is also crucial in maintaining trust. Medical professionals must ensure that they do not discriminate against patients based on their race, gender, religion, or any other factor.

      Finally, honesty and integrity are essential in building and maintaining trust. Medical professionals must act with transparency, providing accurate information and avoiding any conflicts of interest. They must also be honest about their limitations and seek help when necessary.

      In summary, maintaining trust is a critical aspect of medical practice. By showing respect for patients, treating them and colleagues fairly, and acting with honesty and integrity, medical professionals can build and maintain trust with their patients and the wider community.

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  • Question 3 - A 5-month-old female infant was brought to the hospital due to abdominal distension...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-month-old female infant was brought to the hospital due to abdominal distension and diarrhea. Her birth was complicated and required resuscitation. Upon examination, she showed signs of malnourishment, axial hypotonia, and abnormal facial features. Blood tests revealed elevated levels of long-chain fatty acids. What organelle is responsible for the breakdown of long-chain fatty acids?

      Your Answer: Lysosome

      Correct Answer: Peroxisome

      Explanation:

      The breakdown of long chain fatty acids is primarily carried out by peroxisomes. However, this patient is exhibiting symptoms of Zellweger syndrome, a genetic disorder that impairs peroxisome function.

      The rough endoplasmic reticulum plays a crucial role in the translation and folding of newly synthesized proteins. The nucleus is responsible for housing and regulating DNA, as well as facilitating RNA transcription. Meanwhile, proteasomes are responsible for breaking down proteins that have been marked with ubiquitin.

      Functions of Cell Organelles

      The functions of major cell organelles can be summarized in a table. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is responsible for the translation and folding of new proteins, as well as the manufacture of lysosomal enzymes. It is also the site of N-linked glycosylation. Cells such as pancreatic cells, goblet cells, and plasma cells have extensive RER. On the other hand, the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is involved in steroid and lipid synthesis. Cells of the adrenal cortex, hepatocytes, and reproductive organs have extensive SER.

      The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages molecules that are destined for cell secretion. The addition of mannose-6-phosphate to proteins designates transport to lysosome. The mitochondrion is responsible for aerobic respiration and contains mitochondrial genome as circular DNA. The nucleus is involved in DNA maintenance, RNA transcription, and RNA splicing, which removes the non-coding sequences of genes (introns) from pre-mRNA and joins the protein-coding sequences (exons).

      The lysosome is responsible for the breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides. The nucleolus produces ribosomes, while the ribosome translates RNA into proteins. The peroxisome is involved in the catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids, resulting in the formation of hydrogen peroxide. Lastly, the proteasome, along with the lysosome pathway, is involved in the degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin.

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  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old woman has been referred to an endocrinologist due to her symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has been referred to an endocrinologist due to her symptoms of muscle aches, weight gain, menorrhagia, and fatigue. After undergoing a series of blood tests, including an evaluation of thyroid function, she was diagnosed with hypothyroidism and found to have anti-thyroid peroxidase (anti-TPO) antibodies. The endocrinologist informed her that she likely has Hashimoto's thyroiditis and will require long-term replacement of thyroxine with a synthetic analogue of this hormone. What is the mechanism of action of the drug she is expected to be prescribed?

      Your Answer: Activates tyrosine kinase receptors

      Correct Answer: Activates nuclear receptors

      Explanation:

      Levothyroxine activates nuclear receptors within the nucleus to stimulate DNA replication and protein synthesis. It does not act via ligand-gated ion channels or tyrosine kinase inhibitors, as those are transmembrane proteins that respond to extracellular signals. Inhibiting nuclear receptors is also not the mechanism of action for levothyroxine.

      Pharmacodynamics refers to the effects of drugs on the body, as opposed to pharmacokinetics which is concerned with how the body processes drugs. Drugs typically interact with a target, which can be a protein located either inside or outside of cells. There are four main types of cellular targets: ion channels, G-protein coupled receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, and nuclear receptors. The type of target determines the mechanism of action of the drug. For example, drugs that work on ion channels cause the channel to open or close, while drugs that activate tyrosine kinase receptors lead to cell growth and differentiation.

      It is also important to consider whether a drug has a positive or negative impact on the receptor. Agonists activate the receptor, while antagonists block the receptor preventing activation. Antagonists can be competitive or non-competitive, depending on whether they bind at the same site as the agonist or at a different site. The binding affinity of a drug refers to how readily it binds to a specific receptor, while efficacy measures how well an agonist produces a response once it has bound to the receptor. Potency is related to the concentration at which a drug is effective, while the therapeutic index is the ratio of the dose of a drug resulting in an undesired effect compared to that at which it produces the desired effect.

      The relationship between the dose of a drug and the response it produces is rarely linear. Many drugs saturate the available receptors, meaning that further increased doses will not cause any more response. Some drugs do not have a significant impact below a certain dose and are considered sub-therapeutic. Dose-response graphs can be used to illustrate the relationship between dose and response, allowing for easy comparison of different drugs. However, it is important to remember that dose-response varies between individuals.

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  • Question 5 - A 53-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of chest discomfort. He...

    Correct

    • A 53-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of chest discomfort. He has no significant medical history and is generally healthy.

      Upon examination, the patient is found to have tachycardia and an ECG confirms supraventricular tachycardia. The on-call cardiologist is consulted and, after further evaluation, suggests starting flecainide.

      What is the mechanism of action of flecainide?

      Your Answer: Blockage of the Nav1.5 sodium channel

      Explanation:

      Flecainide method of action is the blockage of Nav1.5 sodium channels in the heart. It is classified as a class Ic antiarrhythmic drug, which has the strongest effect on the initiation phase of depolarisation.

      Verapamil and diltiazem, which are class IV antiarrhythmic drugs, block L-type calcium channels, specifically the Cav1.2 unit. Amiodarone, on the other hand, exhibits some calcium-channel blocking effects, among other effects, and blocks the Kv11.1 potassium channel.

      Flecainide does not block the Cav2.3 calcium channel, which refers to R-type calcium channels that are poorly understood and sparsely found in the body.

      Flecainide: A Sodium Channel Blocker for Cardiac Arrhythmias

      Flecainide is a type of antiarrhythmic drug that belongs to the Vaughan Williams class 1c. It works by blocking the Nav1.5 sodium channels, which slows down the conduction of the action potential. This can cause the QRS complex to widen and the PR interval to prolong. Flecainide is commonly used to treat atrial fibrillation and supraventricular tachycardia associated with accessory pathways like Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.

      However, it is important to note that flecainide is contraindicated in certain situations. For instance, it should not be used in patients who have recently experienced a myocardial infarction or have structural heart disease like heart failure. It is also not recommended for those with sinus node dysfunction or second-degree or greater AV block, as well as those with atrial flutter.

      Like any medication, flecainide can cause adverse effects. It may have a negative inotropic effect, which means it can weaken the heart’s contractions. It can also cause bradycardia, proarrhythmic effects, oral paraesthesia, and visual disturbances. Therefore, it is important to use flecainide only under the guidance of a healthcare professional and to report any unusual symptoms immediately.

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  • Question 6 - It is 11:30am and you are halfway through your shift. A 42-year-old male...

    Correct

    • It is 11:30am and you are halfway through your shift. A 42-year-old male patient has been kept NBM for an endoscopy scheduled for later in the day. He expresses his hunger and experiences a drop in blood pressure. You suddenly remember that you forgot to submit the booking form. What steps should you take now?

      Your Answer: Apologise to the lady, explained what happened and book her in for tomorrow

      Explanation:

      According to the GMC, it is essential to be transparent with patients in case of any mishap. In the event of a patient experiencing harm or distress under your care, it is necessary to take corrective measures (if possible), express regret, and provide a comprehensive and timely explanation of the situation, including the potential short-term and long-term consequences.

      Responding to Patient Complaints

      When a patient makes a complaint, it is important for healthcare professionals to respond appropriately and with an open mind. Complaints may come in various forms, such as verbal complaints, informal or formal written complaints addressed to the doctor, complaints addressed to a managing body like a hospital trust or GP practice, or even complaints to the General Medical Council (GMC). However, it is important to note that not all complaints may be warranted or have a basis, and doctors may need to provide a formal reply to give their account of what happened.

      To ensure that patients feel heard and their concerns are addressed, healthcare professionals must respond to complaints in a timely and respectful manner. This may involve acknowledging the complaint, investigating the issue, and providing a clear and concise response. By doing so, healthcare professionals can help to maintain trust and confidence in the healthcare system and improve patient satisfaction.

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  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old woman comes to your clinic with symptoms of depression, weight gain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to your clinic with symptoms of depression, weight gain, and dry skin. You suspect that she might be experiencing hypothyroidism.

      What is the origin of the organ responsible for her symptoms, from an embryological perspective?

      Your Answer: Mesoderm

      Correct Answer: Endoderm

      Explanation:

      The thyroid, parathyroid, and thymus glands are all derived from the endodermal layer of the germ layer. Conversely, the ectoderm gives rise to the nails and lens of the eye, while the neural crest tissue is responsible for the development of the nervous system. Finally, the mesoderm is responsible for the formation of muscle and connective tissues.

      Embryological Layers and Their Derivatives

      Embryonic development involves the formation of three primary germ layers: ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm. Each layer gives rise to specific tissues and organs in the developing embryo. The ectoderm forms the surface ectoderm, which gives rise to the epidermis, mammary glands, and lens of the eye, as well as the neural tube, which gives rise to the central nervous system (CNS) and associated structures such as the posterior pituitary and retina. The neural crest, which arises from the neural tube, gives rise to a variety of structures including autonomic nerves, cranial nerves, facial and skull bones, and adrenal cortex. The mesoderm gives rise to connective tissue, muscle, bones (except facial and skull), and organs such as the kidneys, ureters, gonads, and spleen. The endoderm gives rise to the epithelial lining of the gastrointestinal tract, liver, pancreas, thyroid, parathyroid, and thymus.

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  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old male is admitted with sepsis caused by a urinary tract infection...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male is admitted with sepsis caused by a urinary tract infection from Escherichia coli. Despite taking trimethoprim for six days as prescribed by his doctor, he has not shown any improvement. He assures that he has followed the treatment regimen. What could be the probable reason for this lack of response?

      Your Answer: The strain of the likely causative agent is intrinsically resistant to the antibiotic

      Correct Answer: The strain of the likely causative agent has developed extrinsic (acquired) resistance to the antibiotic

      Explanation:

      Understanding Trimethoprim: Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Use in Pregnancy

      Trimethoprim is an antibiotic that is commonly used to treat urinary tract infections. Its mechanism of action involves interfering with DNA synthesis by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase. This may cause an interaction with methotrexate, which also inhibits dihydrofolate reductase. However, the use of trimethoprim may also lead to adverse effects such as myelosuppression and a transient rise in creatinine. The drug competitively inhibits the tubular secretion of creatinine, resulting in a temporary increase that reverses upon stopping the medication. Additionally, trimethoprim blocks the ENaC channel in the distal nephron, causing a hyperkalaemic distal RTA (type 4). It also inhibits creatinine secretion, which often leads to an increase in creatinine by around 40 points, but not necessarily causing AKI.

      When it comes to the use of trimethoprim in pregnancy, caution is advised. The British National Formulary (BNF) warns of a teratogenic risk in the first trimester due to its folate antagonist properties. Manufacturers advise avoiding the use of trimethoprim during pregnancy. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication, especially during pregnancy, to ensure the safety of both the mother and the developing fetus.

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  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old woman presents to the medical ward with lower abdominal pain, fevers,...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to the medical ward with lower abdominal pain, fevers, and nausea. She has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections and type 2 diabetes. A urine culture is ordered, and pink colonies are observed on MacConkey agar. What is the probable causative organism?

      Your Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Escherichia coli is a lactose-fermenting bacteria that produces pink colonies on MacConkey agar. It is a gram-negative bacillus and a common cause of urinary tract infections. MacConkey’s agar contains lactose, which is utilized by lactose-fermenting bacteria like Escherichia coli to produce acid as a by-product. The acid produced lowers the pH of the agar, resulting in the formation of pink colonies.

      Proteus vulgaris, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Salmonella enterica are all non-lactose fermenting bacteria and would produce clear-coloured colonies on MacConkey agar.

      Culture Requirements for Common Organisms

      Different microorganisms require specific culture conditions to grow and thrive. The table above lists some of the culture requirements for the more common organisms. For instance, Neisseria gonorrhoeae requires Thayer-Martin agar, which is a variant of chocolate agar, and the addition of Vancomycin, Polymyxin, and Nystatin to inhibit Gram-positive, Gram-negative, and fungal growth, respectively. Haemophilus influenzae, on the other hand, grows on chocolate agar with factors V (NAD+) and X (hematin).

      To remember the culture requirements for some of these organisms, some mnemonics can be used. For example, Nice Homes have chocolate can help recall that Neisseria and Haemophilus grow on chocolate agar. If I Tell-U the Corny joke Right, you’ll Laugh can be used to remember that Corynebacterium diphtheriae grows on tellurite agar or Loeffler’s media. Lactating pink monkeys can help recall that lactose fermenting bacteria, such as Escherichia coli, grow on MacConkey agar resulting in pink colonies. Finally, BORDETella pertussis can be used to remember that Bordetella pertussis grows on Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar.

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  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with haematemesis. He has a...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with haematemesis. He has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections and has been taking broad-spectrum antibiotics. The consultant suspects that the prolonged use of these antibiotics may have contributed to his current condition.

      What is the mechanism behind the increased risk of serious bleeds with prolonged use of broad-spectrum antibiotics?

      Your Answer: Elimination of gut flora

      Explanation:

      The prolonged use of broad-spectrum antibiotics can lead to a deficiency in vitamin K. This is because these antibiotics can eliminate the natural gut flora, which is responsible for producing vitamin K that is then absorbed by the body. Cephalosporins like ceftriaxone and cefotaxime are particularly associated with this effect.

      While antibiotics can increase the risk of liver damage, this is not the likely cause of the patient’s symptoms as they have not displayed any other signs of liver failure.

      Antibiotics do not significantly affect the absorption of vitamin K, but other factors such as inadequate consumption or absorption of dietary fats can impact its absorption.

      It is important to note that antibiotics do not inhibit clotting factor Xa or promote fibrinolysis, which are mechanisms used by anticoagulants and thrombolytics respectively.

      Understanding Vitamin K

      Vitamin K is a type of fat-soluble vitamin that plays a crucial role in the carboxylation of clotting factors such as II, VII, IX, and X. This vitamin acts as a cofactor in the process, which is essential for blood clotting. In clinical settings, vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarinisation, a process that inhibits blood clotting. However, it may take up to four hours for the INR to change after administering vitamin K.

      Vitamin K deficiency can occur in conditions that affect fat absorption since it is a fat-soluble vitamin. Additionally, prolonged use of broad-spectrum antibiotics can eliminate gut flora, leading to a deficiency in vitamin K. It is essential to maintain adequate levels of vitamin K to ensure proper blood clotting and prevent bleeding disorders.

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  • Question 11 - A 55-year-old man is scheduled to undergo a splenectomy to treat his refractory...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is scheduled to undergo a splenectomy to treat his refractory haemolytic anaemia, which is believed to be caused by a Type 2 hypersensitivity response. What is the primary mechanism involved in this process?

      A) Deposition of immune complexes
      B) Cell-mediated immune response
      C) IgE-mediated response
      D) Formation of autoantibodies against cell surface antigens
      E) None of the above

      Your Answer: Cell mediated immune response

      Correct Answer: Formation of autoantibodies against cell surface antigens

      Explanation:

      Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions, such as haemolytic anaemia, involve the production of antibodies against cell surface antigens.

      Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions

      Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is commonly seen in atopic conditions such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II hypersensitivity occurs when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface, leading to autoimmune conditions such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, and Goodpasture’s syndrome. Type III hypersensitivity occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes, leading to conditions such as serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated and includes conditions such as tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, and allergic contact dermatitis.

      In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is seen in conditions such as Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the classification of hypersensitivity reactions is important in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.

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  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old man with leukaemia is admitted to the respiratory ward with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with leukaemia is admitted to the respiratory ward with a 4 week history of fever, pleuritic chest pain, and a non-productive cough. A chest X-ray shows nodules and non-specific infiltrates throughout the lungs, findings which are confirmed through a high-resolution CT scan. The physicians suspect invasive pulmonary aspergillosis and commence the patient on amphotericin infusions.

      What is a frequently observed potential side effect of this medication?

      Your Answer: Encephalitis

      Correct Answer: Nephrotoxicity

      Explanation:

      Antifungal agents are drugs used to treat fungal infections. There are several types of antifungal agents, each with a unique mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Azoles work by inhibiting 14α-demethylase, an enzyme that produces ergosterol, a component of fungal cell membranes. However, they can also inhibit the P450 system in the liver, leading to potential liver toxicity. Amphotericin B binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it can also cause nephrotoxicity and flu-like symptoms. Terbinafine inhibits squalene epoxidase, while griseofulvin interacts with microtubules to disrupt mitotic spindle. However, griseofulvin can induce the P450 system and is teratogenic. Flucytosine is converted by cytosine deaminase to 5-fluorouracil, which inhibits thymidylate synthase and disrupts fungal protein synthesis, but it can cause vomiting. Caspofungin inhibits the synthesis of beta-glucan, a major fungal cell wall component, and can cause flushing. Nystatin binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it is very toxic and can only be used topically, such as for oral thrush.

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  • Question 13 - A 9-year-old child is under investigation for short stature. While taking the medical...

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old child is under investigation for short stature. While taking the medical history, you uncover that the child's parents are first cousins who share the same grandmother. What genetic disorders are more likely to occur in the offspring of consanguineous parents?

      Your Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Explanation:

      To answer this question, one must have knowledge of consanguinity, which refers to blood relations. In families where both parents share a common ancestor, such as a grandmother, there is a higher likelihood that they both carry a disease allele that runs in their family lineage. This increases the chances of autosomal recessive conditions occurring.

      X-linked dominant, autosomal dominant, and X-linked recessive conditions are not impacted by consanguinity. However, if a family lineage is associated with a disease recessive allele, it is more likely that two carriers will mate if they are blood relatives. Drawing out a family tree can help illustrate the impact of consanguinity on the likelihood of certain genetic conditions.

      Consanguinity and Inherited Defects

      Consanguinity refers to the practice of marrying within the same family or bloodline. When couples who are related marry, the risk of inherited defects is approximately double that of a non-related couple. This is because the genetic material passed down from both parents is more likely to contain the same harmful mutations. However, when second cousins marry, the risk of inherited defects is reduced to that of a non-related couple. This is because second cousins share a smaller percentage of their genetic material compared to first cousins or closer relatives. It is important for couples who are considering marriage to be aware of the potential risks associated with consanguinity and to seek genetic counseling if necessary. By understanding the risks and taking appropriate measures, couples can make informed decisions about their future together.

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  • Question 14 - A 32-year-old woman is brought to the hospital with symptoms of dizziness, headache,...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman is brought to the hospital with symptoms of dizziness, headache, and mild confusion. Her family members also report experiencing similar symptoms that have been developing slowly over the past few weeks. Upon testing, her arterial blood gas reveals a COHb level of 13% (normal < 0.5%) and a measured SpO2 of 86%, despite the oxygen saturation probe indicating 100%.

      Assuming the diagnosis is correct, what effect would you anticipate on the oxygen dissociation curve?

      Your Answer: Shift to the left and downwards

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is that carbon monoxide poisoning causes a shift to the left and downwards in the oxygen dissociation curve. This is because CO binds to haemoglobin with a much higher affinity than oxygen, leading to a reduced oxygen-binding capacity and increased affinity for subsequent molecules of oxygen. The downward shift reflects this reduced capacity, while the leftward shift reflects the increased affinity for oxygen. A shift to the right and downwards is not correct, as this would reflect a reduced affinity for oxygen, which is not the case with CO poisoning.

      Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs when carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin and myoglobin, leading to tissue hypoxia. Symptoms include headache, nausea, vomiting, vertigo, confusion, and in severe cases, pink skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, and death. Diagnosis is made through measuring carboxyhaemoglobin levels in arterial or venous blood gas. Treatment involves administering 100% high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask for at least six hours, with hyperbaric oxygen therapy considered for more severe cases.

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  • Question 15 - A 26-year-old male patient complains of malaise, weight loss, and lymphadenopathy. After a...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male patient complains of malaise, weight loss, and lymphadenopathy. After a lymph node biopsy, the histology report reveals the presence of granuloma formation and central necrosis. What could be the probable underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Epstein Barr Virus infection

      Correct Answer: Infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      In TB, the presence of necrosis within granulomas is a common histological feature that suggests an infectious cause. On the other hand, Churg Strauss syndrome is a type of vasculitis that typically shows granulomas in its histological presentation, but necrosis is not commonly observed.

      Understanding Tuberculosis: The Pathophysiology and Risk Factors

      Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The pathophysiology of tuberculosis involves the migration of macrophages to regional lymph nodes, forming a Ghon complex. This complex leads to the formation of a granuloma, which is a collection of epithelioid histiocytes with caseous necrosis in the center. The inflammatory response is mediated by a type 4 hypersensitivity reaction. While healthy individuals can contain the disease, immunocompromised individuals are at risk of developing disseminated (miliary) TB.

      Several risk factors increase the likelihood of developing tuberculosis. These include having lived in Asia, Latin America, Eastern Europe, or Africa for years, exposure to an infectious TB case, and being infected with HIV. Immunocompromised individuals, such as diabetics, patients on immunosuppressive therapy, malnourished individuals, or those with haematological malignancies, are also at risk. Additionally, silicosis and apical fibrosis increase the likelihood of developing tuberculosis. Understanding the pathophysiology and risk factors of tuberculosis is crucial in preventing and treating this infectious disease.

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  • Question 16 - A clinical trial is investigating the impact of a new medication Y on...

    Incorrect

    • A clinical trial is investigating the impact of a new medication Y on overall mortality. The mortality rate in the group taking medication Y is 5%, while it is 10% in the control group. What is the number of individuals who need to receive medication Y to prevent one death?

      Your Answer: 12

      Correct Answer: 13

      Explanation:

      To prevent one death, the new drug would need to be administered to 13 individuals.

      Numbers needed to treat (NNT) is a measure that determines how many patients need to receive a particular intervention to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. To calculate NNT, you divide 1 by the absolute risk reduction (ARR) and round up to the nearest whole number. ARR can be calculated by finding the absolute difference between the control event rate (CER) and the experimental event rate (EER). There are two ways to calculate ARR, depending on whether the outcome of the study is desirable or undesirable. If the outcome is undesirable, then ARR equals CER minus EER. If the outcome is desirable, then ARR is equal to EER minus CER. It is important to note that ARR may also be referred to as absolute benefit increase.

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  • Question 17 - A man in his early 40s complains of numbness in his feet. Upon...

    Correct

    • A man in his early 40s complains of numbness in his feet. Upon examination, there is a decrease in sensation and a positive Romberg's test. The source of the problem is determined to be a sexually transmitted infection. What is the probable cause?

      Your Answer: Syphilis

      Explanation:

      Tabes dorsalis, a dysfunction of the dorsal column, is a symptom of syphilis in its tertiary stage. It can be identified through a positive Romberg’s test, where the patient may lose balance and fall backwards when standing with their eyes closed. However, this symptom is not linked to Chlamydia, gonorrhoeae, or trichomoniasis.

      Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. The infection progresses through primary, secondary, and tertiary stages, with an incubation period of 9-90 days. The primary stage is characterized by a painless ulcer at the site of sexual contact, along with local lymphadenopathy. Women may not always exhibit visible symptoms. The secondary stage occurs 6-10 weeks after primary infection and presents with systemic symptoms such as fevers and lymphadenopathy, as well as a rash on the trunk, palms, and soles. Other symptoms may include buccal ulcers and genital warts. Tertiary syphilis can lead to granulomatous lesions of the skin and bones, ascending aortic aneurysms, general paralysis of the insane, tabes dorsalis, and Argyll-Robertson pupil. Congenital syphilis can cause blunted upper incisor teeth, linear scars at the angle of the mouth, keratitis, saber shins, saddle nose, and deafness.

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  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of coryzal symptoms that have been...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of coryzal symptoms that have been present for three days. She reports feeling slightly fatigued, having a sore throat, runny nose, and dry cough. She has been using over-the-counter medications to alleviate her symptoms. Her vital signs are within normal limits except for a temperature of 38.4ºC.

      What cytokine is most likely responsible for her elevated temperature?

      Your Answer: Interleukin-2

      Correct Answer: Interleukin-1

      Explanation:

      Interleukin-1, also known as IL-1, is a cytokine produced by macrophages that plays an important role in acute inflammation and inducing fever during infections. IL-2, produced by T helper 1 cells, stimulates the growth and development of various immune cells to combat infections. IL-4, produced by T helper 2 cells, activates B cells and helps differentiate CD4+ T cells into T helper 2 cells to fight infections. IL-8, also produced by macrophages, is responsible for neutrophil chemotaxis, which is crucial in the acute inflammatory response. IL-10, produced by both macrophages and T helper 2 cells, is an anti-inflammatory cytokine that inhibits cytokine production from T helper 1 cells.

      Overview of Cytokines and Their Functions

      Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in the immune system. Interleukins are a type of cytokine that are produced by various immune cells and have specific functions. IL-1, produced by macrophages, induces acute inflammation and fever. IL-2, produced by Th1 cells, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cell responses. IL-3, produced by activated T helper cells, stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. IL-4, produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, also produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the production of eosinophils. IL-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, stimulates the differentiation of B cells and induces fever. IL-8, produced by macrophages, promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. IL-10, produced by Th2 cells, inhibits Th1 cytokine production and is known as an anti-inflammatory cytokine. IL-12, produced by dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, activates NK cells and stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells.

      In addition to interleukins, there are other cytokines with specific functions. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, produced by macrophages, induces fever and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. Interferon-gamma, produced by Th1 cells, activates macrophages. Understanding the functions of cytokines is important in developing treatments for various immune-related diseases.

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  • Question 19 - A medical resident is reviewing a research study that investigates the association between...

    Incorrect

    • A medical resident is reviewing a research study that investigates the association between historical exposure to ionizing radiation and thyroid cancer in a group of patients over the age of 50.

      In the study, 1008 patients had a history of exposure to ionizing radiation, and 8 of them developed thyroid cancer. On the other hand, 5641 patients did not have any exposure to ionizing radiation, and 6 of them developed thyroid cancer.

      What is the formula that can be used to calculate the odds of developing thyroid cancer in patients over the age of 50 who have been exposed to ionizing radiation?

      Your Answer: (8/1000)/(6/5635)

      Correct Answer: 8/1000

      Explanation:

      The correct way to express odds is as a ratio of the number of people who experience a particular outcome to the number of people who do not experience that outcome. For example, if 8 out of 1000 people exposed to ionizing radiation develop thyroid cancer, the odds of developing thyroid cancer in this group would be 8/1000. It is important to note that odds are not a ratio of the number of people who experience a particular outcome to the total number of people.

      Understanding Odds and Odds Ratio

      When analyzing data, it is important to understand the difference between odds and probability. Odds are a ratio of the number of people who experience a particular outcome to those who do not. On the other hand, probability is the fraction of times an event is expected to occur in many trials. While probability is always between 0 and 1, odds can be any positive number.

      In case-control studies, odds ratios are the usual reported measure. This ratio compares the odds of a particular outcome with experimental treatment to that of a control group. It is important to note that odds ratios approximate to relative risk if the outcome of interest is rare.

      For example, in a trial comparing the use of paracetamol for dysmenorrhoea compared to placebo, the odds of achieving significant pain relief with paracetamol were 2, while the odds of achieving significant pain relief with placebo were 0.5. Therefore, the odds ratio was 4.

      Understanding odds and odds ratio is crucial in interpreting data and making informed decisions. By knowing the difference between odds and probability and how to calculate odds ratios, researchers can accurately analyze and report their findings.

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  • Question 20 - Sophie is a 2-year-old child being cared for in a neonatal intensive care...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 2-year-old child being cared for in a neonatal intensive care unit for multi-system organ failure, she is unlikely to see her fourth birthday.

      Her older brother, Jack, is a 9-year-old child who is healthy and doing well in school, except his PE teacher has noticed that Jack has mild difficulties with balance and coordination.

      Genetic testing identified both Sophie and Jack have the same disease affecting their mitochondria, which they inherited from their mother but not from their father.

      What is the most probable biological reason for why Sophie's condition is significantly more severe than Jack's?

      Your Answer: Genetic mosaicism

      Correct Answer: Mitochondrial heteroplasmy

      Explanation:

      Mitochondrial heteroplasmy is the presence of multiple types of mitochondrial DNA within an individual, which can result in variable expression of mitochondrial disease. It is likely that Tom and Emily’s mother has mitochondrial heteroplasmy, which caused her to produce eggs with mitochondria containing different genomes. If a mitochondrion contains unhealthy DNA, it may be poorly functional and result in symptoms such as poor balance and coordination, as seen in Emily. Tom, on the other hand, likely developed from an egg with a high proportion of unhealthy mitochondria, leading to multi-system organ failure and a short life expectancy.

      The condition cannot be autosomal recessive as Tom would need to inherit the condition from both parents, not just his mother. Genetic mosaicism is also unlikely as the question states that the condition was inherited from their mother. X-linked dominant inheritance is also ruled out as it only requires one affected chromosome to cause disease.

      It is important to note that mitochondrial disease severity can be influenced by various factors, including mitochondrial heteroplasmy, genetic mosaicism, and autosomal recessive mutations.

      Mitochondrial diseases are caused by a small amount of double-stranded DNA present in the mitochondria, which encodes protein components of the respiratory chain and some special types of RNA. These diseases are inherited only via the maternal line, as the sperm contributes no cytoplasm to the zygote. None of the children of an affected male will inherit the disease, while all of the children of an affected female will inherit it. Mitochondrial diseases generally encode rare neurological diseases, and there is poor genotype-phenotype correlation due to heteroplasmy, which means that within a tissue or cell, there can be different mitochondrial populations. Muscle biopsy typically shows red, ragged fibers due to an increased number of mitochondria. Examples of mitochondrial diseases include Leber’s optic atrophy, MELAS syndrome, MERRF syndrome, Kearns-Sayre syndrome, and sensorineural hearing loss.

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  • Question 21 - A 54-year-old woman arrived at the emergency department with a sudden chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman arrived at the emergency department with a sudden chest pain that started an hour ago. She experienced sweating, nausea, and vomiting. An electrocardiogram showed a non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction in the anterior leads, and a blood test revealed elevated levels of troponin. The woman was admitted to the coronary care unit for treatment. After a few days, the interventional cardiologist discussed with the woman the possibility of inserting a stent to prevent future myocardial infarctions. A new type of drug-eluting stent was recently tested in a small group of patients at a hospital. The researchers discovered that the new stent was not more effective than the currently available stents in reducing future myocardial infarctions. What type of error or bias is more likely in this trial?

      Your Answer: Type I error

      Correct Answer: Type II error

      Explanation:

      1: A study is considered to be statistically significant when the probability of obtaining the observed results by chance is very low. This means that the observed results are likely to be due to the intervention or treatment being studied.

      2: A p-value is a measure of the probability that any observed difference is due to chance. A lower p-value indicates a lower probability of chance and a higher likelihood that the observed difference is due to the intervention or treatment being studied.

      3: Lead-time bias occurs when a disease is detected earlier, leading to an apparent increase in survival time. This is not a true increase in survival time, but rather a result of earlier detection.

      4: Type II errors occur when a study’s sample size is too small to detect a difference. To prevent type II errors, a larger sample size should be recruited.

      5: Confounding bias occurs when a variable interacts with both the outcome and predictor variables. If not controlled for, the effect of the predictor variable cannot be accurately determined.

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

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  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old has recently been diagnosed with a sarcoma. Due to their young...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old has recently been diagnosed with a sarcoma. Due to their young age, further genetic investigations were ordered which showed a p53 mutation. Their family history was assessed and they have been diagnosed with Li-Fraumeni syndrome.

      What other condition is this person most susceptible to developing?

      Your Answer: Lymphoma

      Correct Answer: Leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Li-Fraumeni syndrome, which is caused by a mutation in the p53 gene, is a rare autosomal dominant disorder that increases the risk of early-onset breast cancer, sarcoma, and leukaemia. While basal cell carcinomas are not linked to p53 mutations and are instead associated with UV exposure, bladder cancer is more strongly associated with smoking than with p53 mutations. Additionally, while the risk of lymphoma increases with age, individuals with a p53 mutation are more likely to develop leukaemia.

      Understanding p53 and its Role in Cancer

      p53 is a gene that helps suppress tumours and is located on chromosome 17p. It is frequently mutated in breast, colon, and lung cancer. The gene is believed to be essential in regulating the cell cycle, preventing cells from entering the S phase until DNA has been checked and repaired. Additionally, p53 may play a crucial role in apoptosis, the process of programmed cell death.

      Li-Fraumeni syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. It is characterised by the early onset of various cancers, including sarcoma, breast cancer, and leukaemia. The condition is caused by mutations in the p53 gene, which can lead to a loss of its tumour-suppressing function. Understanding the role of p53 in cancer can help researchers develop new treatments and therapies for those affected by the disease.

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  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old woman visits a Genetics clinic to discuss her son's recent diagnosis...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman visits a Genetics clinic to discuss her son's recent diagnosis of Batten disease, which she has learned is partially caused by defects in the cellular Golgi apparatus. What is the typical function of this organelle in a cell?

      Your Answer: Addition of mannose-6-phosphate to proteins for trafficking to lysosomes

      Explanation:

      The Golgi apparatus is responsible for adding mannose-6-phosphate to proteins, which facilitates their trafficking to lysosomes. This is a crucial function of the Golgi, which modifies molecules for secretion or lysosomal breakdown. The peroxisome, not the Golgi, is responsible for catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids. Degradation of ubiquitinylated proteins occurs in the proteasome, not the Golgi. The manufacture of lysosomal enzymes is not a function of the Golgi, as these enzymes are synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum and then transported to the lysosome.

      Functions of Cell Organelles

      The functions of major cell organelles can be summarized in a table. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is responsible for the translation and folding of new proteins, as well as the manufacture of lysosomal enzymes. It is also the site of N-linked glycosylation. Cells such as pancreatic cells, goblet cells, and plasma cells have extensive RER. On the other hand, the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is involved in steroid and lipid synthesis. Cells of the adrenal cortex, hepatocytes, and reproductive organs have extensive SER.

      The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages molecules that are destined for cell secretion. The addition of mannose-6-phosphate to proteins designates transport to lysosome. The mitochondrion is responsible for aerobic respiration and contains mitochondrial genome as circular DNA. The nucleus is involved in DNA maintenance, RNA transcription, and RNA splicing, which removes the non-coding sequences of genes (introns) from pre-mRNA and joins the protein-coding sequences (exons).

      The lysosome is responsible for the breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides. The nucleolus produces ribosomes, while the ribosome translates RNA into proteins. The peroxisome is involved in the catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids, resulting in the formation of hydrogen peroxide. Lastly, the proteasome, along with the lysosome pathway, is involved in the degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin.

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  • Question 24 - A 49-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of low mood, fatigue, constipation, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of low mood, fatigue, constipation, and urinary frequency. The doctor orders a standard blood test to investigate the possible cause. After reviewing the results, the GP diagnosis the woman with primary hyperparathyroidism.

      What blood test results are expected for this patient?

      Your Answer: Low calcium, raised phosphate

      Correct Answer: Raised calcium, low phosphate

      Explanation:

      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is responsible for increasing plasma calcium levels and decreasing plasma phosphate levels. Hyperparathyroidism is a condition where there is an excess of PTH, either due to an overactive parathyroid gland (primary) or a low serum calcium level (secondary). Primary hyperparathyroidism results in raised calcium levels and low phosphate levels, while secondary hyperparathyroidism is typically seen in chronic kidney disease. PTH acts by increasing calcium reabsorption in the kidneys and digestive tract, as well as increasing bone resorption. This helps to prevent the formation of calcium phosphate crystals, which can cause renal stones. Symptoms of hyperparathyroidism include constipation and low mood, which are typical of hypercalcaemia.

      Hormones Controlling Calcium Metabolism

      Calcium metabolism is primarily controlled by two hormones, parathyroid hormone (PTH) and 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (calcitriol). Other hormones such as calcitonin, thyroxine, and growth hormone also play a role. PTH increases plasma calcium levels and decreases plasma phosphate levels. It also increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol. On the other hand, 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels, renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal phosphate reabsorption. It is important to note that osteoclastic activity is increased indirectly by PTH as osteoclasts do not have PTH receptors. Understanding the actions of these hormones is crucial in maintaining proper calcium metabolism in the body.

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  • Question 25 - A 43-year-old man is brought to the emergency department via ambulance after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old man is brought to the emergency department via ambulance after being found collapsed on the street. He is barely responsive and has a heart rate of 120 beats per minute, blood pressure of 80/40 mmHg, oxygen saturations of 92%, and a temperature of 39 ºC. During a full secondary survey, gas gangrene is discovered on his lower limbs. Biopsy results later confirm that the causative organism is Clostridium perfringens. What is the responsible toxin for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Cereulide

      Correct Answer: Alpha toxin

      Explanation:

      Gas gangrene is a severe infection caused by Clostridium perfringens, which produces alpha-toxin, a lecithinase. This toxin causes local haemolysis, leading to areas of hypoperfusion and subsequent hypoxia, creating an anaerobic environment that allows the bacteria to thrive and cause further damage.

      Cereulide, Exfoliatin, and Exotoxin A are incorrect as they are produced by Bacillus cereus, Staphylococcus aureus, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa, respectively, and cause different illnesses or symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhoea, blistering of the skin, and inhibition of protein synthesis.

      Exotoxins vs Endotoxins: Understanding the Differences

      Exotoxins and endotoxins are two types of toxins produced by bacteria. Exotoxins are secreted by bacteria, while endotoxins are only released when the bacterial cell is lysed. Exotoxins are typically produced by Gram-positive bacteria, with some exceptions like Vibrio cholerae and certain strains of E. coli.

      Exotoxins can be classified based on their primary effects, which include pyrogenic toxins, enterotoxins, neurotoxins, tissue invasive toxins, and miscellaneous toxins. Pyrogenic toxins stimulate the release of cytokines, resulting in fever and rash. Enterotoxins act on the gastrointestinal tract, causing either diarrheal or vomiting illness. Neurotoxins act on the nerves or neuromuscular junction, causing paralysis. Tissue invasive toxins cause damage to tissues, while miscellaneous toxins have various effects.

      On the other hand, endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides that are released from Gram-negative bacteria like Neisseria meningitidis. These toxins can cause fever, sepsis, and shock. Unlike exotoxins, endotoxins are not actively secreted by bacteria but are instead released when the bacterial cell is lysed.

      Understanding the differences between exotoxins and endotoxins is important in diagnosing and treating bacterial infections. While exotoxins can be targeted with specific treatments like antitoxins, endotoxins are more difficult to treat and often require supportive care.

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  • Question 26 - A 38-year-old man presents for a routine occupational health evaluation. He consumes 38...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old man presents for a routine occupational health evaluation. He consumes 38 cans of 4% lager per week and has a history of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome 6 months ago. Which vitamin deficiency is most likely in this patient?

      Your Answer: B1

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the Body

      Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It plays a crucial role in the body as one of its phosphate derivatives, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), acts as a coenzyme in various enzymatic reactions. These reactions include the catabolism of sugars and amino acids, such as pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, and branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex.

      Thiamine deficiency can lead to clinical consequences, particularly in highly aerobic tissues like the brain and heart. The brain can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which presents symptoms such as nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Meanwhile, the heart can develop wet beriberi, which causes dilated cardiomyopathy. Other conditions associated with thiamine deficiency include dry beriberi, which leads to peripheral neuropathy, and Korsakoff’s syndrome, which causes amnesia and confabulation.

      The primary causes of thiamine deficiency are alcohol excess and malnutrition. Alcoholics are routinely recommended to take thiamine supplements to prevent deficiency. Overall, thiamine is an essential vitamin that plays a vital role in the body’s metabolic processes.

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  • Question 27 - A 10-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with symptoms of nausea, vomiting,...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with symptoms of nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, and abdominal pain. Her father discovered scattered pills and an unlabelled bottle in her bedroom several hours prior to the onset of symptoms. During the examination, the girl experiences haematemesis and an abdominal x-ray reveals small opacities in the stomach and duodenum. Blood tests are normal, but arterial blood gas analysis shows a high anion gap metabolic acidosis. What is the most likely substance that the girl ingested?

      Your Answer: Vitamin K

      Correct Answer: Iron

      Explanation:

      The symptoms and x-ray findings of this patient strongly suggest acute iron poisoning. When consumed in large quantities, elemental iron can corrode the gastrointestinal mucosa, leading to abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and hematemesis within 30 minutes to 6 hours of ingestion. Iron is also harmful to cellular processes and a potent vasodilator. Patients with severe iron poisoning may experience hypotensive shock and metabolic acidosis with anion-gap due to poor perfusion and lactic acid accumulation.

      While acute acetaminophen overdose can cause nausea and vomiting, many patients do not exhibit symptoms within 24 hours of ingestion. Additionally, acetaminophen is not associated with hematemesis, making it an unlikely diagnosis.

      Acute vitamin A overdose can cause nausea, vomiting, and blurred vision, but it is not linked to hematemesis. Chronic toxicity can lead to increased intracranial pressure (pseudotumor cerebri).

      Excessive amounts of vitamin B2 (riboflavin) are typically not absorbed, making it unlikely to cause toxicity.

      Iron overdose can have serious consequences, including metabolic acidosis, erosion of gastric mucosa leading to gastrointestinal bleeding, shock, hepatotoxicity, and coagulopathy. The management of iron overdose depends on the amount of iron ingested and the presence of symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhea, vomiting, and lethargy. Patients who have ingested less than 40mg/kg of elemental iron and are asymptomatic can be observed at home. However, those who have ingested more than 40mg/kg of elemental iron or are symptomatic require medical assessment with serum iron levels measured 2-4 hours post-ingestion and abdominal x-ray.

      Whole bowel irrigation is the preferred decontamination procedure and is performed on all patients presenting within 4 hours who have ingested more than 60mg/kg of elemental iron or have undissolved tablets on abdominal x-ray. Activated charcoal is not effective in treating iron poisoning. Desferrioxamine is indicated for patients with serum iron levels greater than 90umol/l, those with serum iron levels between 60-90umol/l who are symptomatic or have persistent iron on abdominal x-ray despite whole bowel irrigation, and any patient with shock, coma, or metabolic acidosis. In cases where whole bowel irrigation is not effective or iron is adhered to the gastric wall, endoscopy or surgery may be necessary.

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  • Question 28 - Which of the following is true of correlation in relation to age? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true of correlation in relation to age?

      Your Answer: Negative correlation disproves causation

      Correct Answer: Complete absence of correlation is expressed by a value of 0

      Explanation:

      Understanding Correlation and Linear Regression

      Correlation and linear regression are two statistical methods used to analyze the relationship between variables. While they are related, they are not interchangeable. Correlation is used to determine if there is a relationship between two variables, while regression is used to predict the value of one variable based on the value of another variable.

      The degree of correlation is measured by the correlation coefficient, which can range from -1 to +1. A coefficient of 1 indicates a strong positive correlation, while a coefficient of -1 indicates a strong negative correlation. A coefficient of 0 indicates no correlation between the variables. However, correlation coefficients do not provide information on how much the variable will change or the cause and effect relationship between the variables.

      Linear regression, on the other hand, can be used to predict how much one variable will change when another variable is changed. A regression equation can be formed to calculate the value of the dependent variable based on the value of the independent variable. The equation takes the form of y = a + bx, where y is the dependent variable, a is the intercept value, b is the slope of the line or regression coefficient, and x is the independent variable.

      In summary, correlation and linear regression are both useful tools for analyzing the relationship between variables. Correlation determines if there is a relationship, while regression predicts the value of one variable based on the value of another variable. Understanding these concepts can help in making informed decisions and drawing accurate conclusions from data analysis.

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  • Question 29 - During a routine ophthalmology appointment, a 5-year-old child is diagnosed with a cataract...

    Correct

    • During a routine ophthalmology appointment, a 5-year-old child is diagnosed with a cataract in their left eye. The child's medical history reveals that they have galactokinase deficiency. The parents are concerned about what caused the cataract and how to prevent it from happening again.

      The ophthalmologist explains that the cataract is a result of an excess of a particular chemical produced due to galactokinase deficiency. What could have caused the formation of the cataract in this child?

      Your Answer: Accumulation of galactitol

      Explanation:

      Galactokinase deficiency causes an accumulation of galactitol, which can be deposited in the lenses and lead to the formation of cataracts.

      Reduced metabolism of branched chain amino acids can result in an excess of valine, leucine, and isoleucine in patients with maple syrup urine disease.

      Phenylketonuria is characterized by an excess of phenylalanine.

      Disorders of Galactose Metabolism

      Galactose metabolism is a complex process that involves the breakdown of galactose, a type of sugar found in milk and dairy products. There are two main disorders associated with galactose metabolism: classic galactosemia and galactokinase deficiency. Both of these disorders are inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.

      Classic galactosemia is caused by a deficiency in the enzyme galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase, which leads to the accumulation of galactose-1-phosphate. This disorder is characterized by symptoms such as failure to thrive, infantile cataracts, and hepatomegaly.

      On the other hand, galactokinase deficiency is caused by a deficiency in the enzyme galactokinase, which results in the accumulation of galactitol. This disorder is characterized by infantile cataracts, as galactitol accumulates in the lens. Unlike classic galactosemia, there is no hepatic involvement in galactokinase deficiency.

      In summary, disorders of galactose metabolism can have serious consequences and require careful management. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential for improving outcomes and preventing complications.

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  • Question 30 - A 14-year-old boy visits the GP clinic with his father, complaining of lower...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy visits the GP clinic with his father, complaining of lower abdominal pain. He has a fever and has vomited twice in the last 24 hours. The GP suspects appendicitis and recommends further evaluation at the hospital. However, the patient refuses, becoming emotional and stating that he has an important sports game coming up. Despite the GP's attempts to explain the potential risks of refusing treatment, the patient continues to shake his head and refuses to discuss the matter further. His father becomes agitated, insisting that his son needs to go to the hospital for treatment. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this situation?

      Your Answer: Ask the mother to consent to further treatment - as a parent in this instance, her decision overrides that of her daughter

      Explanation:

      The General Medical Council (GMC) has provided guidance for doctors on the ethical principles surrounding consent to treatment in children in their publication ‘0-18 years: guidance for all doctors’ (2007). According to this guidance, if a child lacks capacity, their parents can provide consent for investigations and treatment that are deemed to be in the child’s best interests.

      In this scenario, the patient is not displaying a sufficient level of maturity to comprehend the risks associated with refusing treatment. As the patient is under 16 years old, it can be assumed that they lack the capacity to make such a decision. Therefore, the responsibility of making a decision in the patient’s best interests falls to their mother.

      The options of allowing the patient to go home or return the following day are not appropriate as appendicitis can become a serious and potentially life-threatening condition if left untreated. Asking the mother to leave would also not be a suitable course of action as her reaction is understandable given the circumstances and it is not in the patient’s best interests.

      References:

      General Medical Council. 0-18 years: guidance for all doctors. London: General Medical Council, 2007. p. 11-13.

      Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children

      When it comes to obtaining consent in children, the General Medical Council has provided guidelines. For children aged 16 and above, they can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to decide. However, for those under 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines their capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.

      In terms of providing contraceptives to patients under 16, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and their physical or mental health is likely to suffer without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.

      Some doctors use the term Fraser competency for contraception and Gillick competency for general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused. For consistency over competence in children, it is crucial to follow these guidelines when obtaining consent.

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  • Question 31 - A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor with concerns about her pregnancy. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor with concerns about her pregnancy. She is currently 16 weeks pregnant and works as a nurse in a hospital. She has been informed that one of her patients has been diagnosed with cytomegalovirus. She is worried about the potential impact on her baby's development.

      What are the effects of cytomegalovirus on foetal development?

      Your Answer: Chorioretinitis, diffuse intracranial calcifications and hydrocephalus

      Correct Answer: Severe anemia and hydrops fetalis

      Explanation:

      Parvovirus B19 infection in pregnant women can lead to severe anaemia and hydrops fetalis in the foetus. The virus suppresses fetal erythropoiesis, causing a halt in red blood cell production for approximately two weeks. Severe anaemia can result in high output heart failure, leading to left-heart failure and pulmonary oedema. This eventually leads to right heart failure and the accumulation of fluid in serous cavities, causing hydrops fetalis.

      Chorioretinitis, diffuse intracranial calcifications, and hydrocephalus, as well as chorioretinitis, sensorineural hearing loss, and a blueberry muffin rash, are incorrect answers. These are classic triads associated with congenital toxoplasmosis and congenital cytomegalovirus, respectively. Granulomatosis infantiseptica is also an incorrect answer, as it is a condition caused by listeria monocytogenes infection. Increased risk of neural tube defects is also an incorrect answer, as it is typically caused by folate deficiency or teratogenic side-effects of certain medications.

      Parvovirus B19: A Virus with Various Clinical Presentations

      Parvovirus B19 is a type of DNA virus that can cause different clinical presentations. One of the most common is erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease or slapped-cheek syndrome. This illness may manifest as a mild feverish condition or a noticeable rash that appears after a few days. The rash is characterized by rose-red cheeks, which is why it is called slapped-cheek syndrome. It may spread to other parts of the body but rarely involves the palms and soles. The rash usually peaks after a week and then fades, but it may recur for some months after exposure to triggers such as warm baths, sunlight, heat, or fever. Most children recover without specific treatment, and school exclusion is unnecessary as the child is no longer infectious once the rash emerges. However, in adults, the virus may cause acute arthritis.

      Aside from erythema infectiosum, parvovirus B19 can also present as asymptomatic, pancytopenia in immunosuppressed patients, or aplastic crises in sickle-cell disease. The virus suppresses erythropoiesis for about a week, so aplastic anemia is rare unless there is a chronic hemolytic anemia. In pregnant women, the virus can cross the placenta and cause severe anemia due to viral suppression of fetal erythropoiesis, which may lead to heart failure secondary to severe anemia and the accumulation of fluid in fetal serous cavities such as ascites, pleural and pericardial effusions. This condition is called hydrops fetalis and is treated with intrauterine blood transfusions.

      It is important to note that parvovirus B19 can affect an unborn baby in the first 20 weeks of pregnancy. If a woman is exposed early in pregnancy, she should seek prompt advice from her antenatal care provider as maternal IgM and IgG will need to be checked. The virus is spread by the respiratory route, and a person is infectious 3 to 5 days before the appearance of the rash. Children are no longer infectious once the rash appears, and there is no specific treatment. Therefore, school exclusion is unnecessary.

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  • Question 32 - A 29-year-old woman, who was seen 2 weeks ago, has returned with difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman, who was seen 2 weeks ago, has returned with difficulty in having a bowel movement. She has never experienced this before and last had a bowel movement 2 days ago. Her symptoms have persisted for the past 10 days, and she has not made any recent changes to her diet. Her blood test results from this morning are normal, and her results from last week are as follows:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 100 g/l
      - Platelets: 250 * 109/l
      - White blood cells (WBC): 5 * 109/l
      - Mean corpuscular volume (MCV): 77 fL
      - Total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) increased

      What is the most probable reason for her condition?

      Your Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia

      Correct Answer: Ferrous fumarate

      Explanation:

      It is likely that the patient was diagnosed with iron deficiency anaemia two weeks ago due to symptoms of tiredness and lethargy. The most common cause of anaemia in a woman of this age is menorrhagia. Treatment for this type of anaemia typically involves iron supplementation with ferrous fumarate, which can cause constipation and black tarry stools as a side effect. It is important to note that constipation is not a symptom of anaemia itself.

      There have been no recent changes to the patient’s diet, so reduced fluid intake is an incorrect answer. However, increasing fluid and fibre intake is a recommended conservative management approach.

      Co-codamol and amitriptyline are known to cause constipation, but they are not indicated for this patient and therefore are not relevant to her current condition.

      Iron Metabolism: Absorption, Distribution, Transport, Storage, and Excretion

      Iron is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in various physiological processes. The absorption of iron occurs mainly in the upper small intestine, particularly the duodenum. Only about 10% of dietary iron is absorbed, and ferrous iron (Fe2+) is much better absorbed than ferric iron (Fe3+). The absorption of iron is regulated according to the body’s need and can be increased by vitamin C and gastric acid. However, it can be decreased by proton pump inhibitors, tetracycline, gastric achlorhydria, and tannin found in tea.

      The total body iron is approximately 4g, with 70% of it being present in hemoglobin, 25% in ferritin and haemosiderin, 4% in myoglobin, and 0.1% in plasma iron. Iron is transported in the plasma as Fe3+ bound to transferrin. It is stored in tissues as ferritin, and the lost iron is excreted via the intestinal tract following desquamation.

      In summary, iron metabolism involves the absorption, distribution, transport, storage, and excretion of iron in the body. Understanding these processes is crucial in maintaining iron homeostasis and preventing iron-related disorders.

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  • Question 33 - A 5-year-old boy has been referred to a haematologist by his GP due...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy has been referred to a haematologist by his GP due to frequent nosebleeds and easy bruising. His parents are concerned and investigations reveal a diagnosis of haemophilia B, which is an X-linked recessive disease. What is the likelihood that the boy's father is also affected by haemophilia B?

      Your Answer: 100%

      Correct Answer: Equal to rest of the population

      Explanation:

      X-linked recessive inheritance affects only males, except in cases of Turner’s syndrome where females are affected due to having only one X chromosome. This type of inheritance is transmitted by carrier females, and male-to-male transmission is not observed. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.

      If a female carrier has children, each male child has a 50% chance of being affected, while each female child has a 50% chance of being a carrier. It is rare for an affected father to have children with a heterozygous female carrier, but in some Afro-Caribbean communities, G6PD deficiency is relatively common, and homozygous females with clinical manifestations of the enzyme defect can be seen.

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  • Question 34 - A baby girl is born at 38 weeks gestation. She is healthy at...

    Incorrect

    • A baby girl is born at 38 weeks gestation. She is healthy at birth with no issues noted and no concerns from the obstetrics team.

      Fifteen days later, the mother notices that the baby's eye is stuck closed with discharge, along with a reddening of the sclera and swelling of the eyelids. The baby is taken to the Pediatrician's office. A diagnosis of ophthalmia neonatorum is suspected and tests are done to confirm this.

      What are the two bacteria that are most likely to be identified by the tests?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis and Escherichia coli

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Explanation:

      The most frequent culprits behind ophthalmia neonatorum are Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae, with the former being more prevalent. Typically, these two organisms manifest at different stages and necessitate distinct antibiotic treatments. Although less frequent, mixed infections can also occur. While the remaining choices may cause ophthalmia neonatorum, they are not as commonly observed.

      Understanding Ophthalmia Neonatorum

      Ophthalmia neonatorum is a term used to describe an infection that affects the eyes of newborn babies. This condition is caused by two main organisms, namely Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It is important to note that suspected cases of ophthalmia neonatorum should be referred for immediate ophthalmology or paediatric assessment.

      To prevent complications, it is crucial to identify and treat ophthalmia neonatorum as soon as possible. This condition can cause severe damage to the eyes and even lead to blindness if left untreated. Therefore, parents and healthcare providers should be vigilant and seek medical attention if they notice any signs of eye infection in newborns. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, the prognosis for ophthalmia neonatorum is generally good.

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  • Question 35 - A 12-year-old girl is admitted with arthralgia. On examination she has purpura of...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old girl is admitted with arthralgia. On examination she has purpura of her lower limbs. Urinalysis reveals haematuria.

      Blood results are as follows:

      Na+ 133 mmol/l
      K+ 3.8 mmol/l
      Urea 10.2 mmol/l
      Creatinine 114 µmol/l

      What is the underlying mechanism causing the renal dysfunction in this case?

      Your Answer: Classical complement pathway

      Explanation:

      The activation of the classical complement pathway is triggered by the presence of antigen-antibody complexes, specifically IgM/IgG. However, in cases of systemic diseases like systemic lupus erythematosus, anti-GBM disease, and ANCA-associated glomerulonephritis, the involvement of autoantibodies in the classical pathway can lead to glomerulonephritis.

      The cell-mediated response involves Th1 lymphocytes, while the humoral (antibody) response involves Th2 lymphocytes. Antigen presenting cells, such as macrophages and dendritic cells, play a crucial role in processing antigenic material and presenting it to lymphocytes.

      Overview of Complement Pathways

      Complement pathways are a group of proteins that play a crucial role in the body’s immune and inflammatory response. These proteins are involved in various processes such as chemotaxis, cell lysis, and opsonisation. There are two main complement pathways: classical and alternative.

      The classical pathway is initiated by antigen-antibody complexes, specifically IgM and IgG. The proteins involved in this pathway include C1qrs, C2, and C4. On the other hand, the alternative pathway is initiated by polysaccharides found in Gram-negative bacteria and IgA. The proteins involved in this pathway are C3, factor B, and properdin.

      Understanding the complement pathways is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various diseases. Dysregulation of these pathways can lead to autoimmune disorders, infections, and other inflammatory conditions. By identifying the specific complement pathway involved in a disease, targeted therapies can be developed to effectively treat the condition.

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  • Question 36 - You are requested by your practice manager to inform patients with persistent pain...

    Correct

    • You are requested by your practice manager to inform patients with persistent pain about a minor study that is examining the effectiveness of a new painkiller. What clinical trial phase is probable for this?

      Your Answer: Phase 2

      Explanation:

      The objective of phase 2 studies is to evaluate the effectiveness of drugs or devices in treating a specific disease. These trials involve testing the treatment on a group of patients with the condition of interest. In recent years, phase 0 trials have been introduced to accelerate drug development by allowing researchers to study how the drug behaves in humans. These trials involve administering microdoses of the drug, which do not produce any therapeutic effects and cannot provide data on safety or efficacy. Phase 1 trials are conducted on a small number of healthy volunteers to determine the appropriate dosage and potential side effects of the drug, as well as its pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics. Phase 3 trials also evaluate treatment efficacy, but on a much larger scale, involving a significant portion of the population.

      Phases of Clinical Trials

      Clinical trials are conducted to determine the safety and efficacy of new treatments or drugs. These trials are commonly classified into four phases. The first phase involves determining the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of the drug, as well as any potential side effects. This phase is conducted on healthy volunteers.

      The second phase assesses the efficacy and dosage of the drug. It involves a small number of patients affected by a particular disease. This phase may be further subdivided into IIa, which assesses optimal dosing, and IIb, which assesses efficacy.

      The third phase involves assessing the effectiveness of the drug. This phase typically involves a larger number of people, often as part of a randomized controlled trial, comparing the new treatment with established treatments.

      The fourth and final phase is postmarketing surveillance. This phase monitors the long-term effectiveness and side effects of the drug after it has been approved and is on the market.

      Overall, the phases of clinical trials are crucial in determining the safety and efficacy of new treatments and drugs. They provide valuable information that can help improve patient outcomes and advance medical research.

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  • Question 37 - As a 2nd-year medical student on placement in a GP surgery in early...

    Correct

    • As a 2nd-year medical student on placement in a GP surgery in early February, you encounter a 79-year-old woman who comes in for a follow-up appointment due to fatigue. During the consultation, the GP reviews her blood tests and discovers a vitamin deficiency. The GP informs the patient that if left untreated, this deficiency can lead to bone softening. Can you explain how this vitamin increases serum calcium levels in the body?

      Your Answer: Raises absorption of calcium in the small intestine

      Explanation:

      The primary way in which vitamin D increases serum calcium levels is by enhancing its absorption through the small intestine.

      Understanding Vitamin D

      Vitamin D is a type of vitamin that is soluble in fat and is essential for the metabolism of calcium and phosphate in the body. It is converted into calcifediol in the liver and then into calcitriol, which is the active form of vitamin D, in the kidneys. Vitamin D can be obtained from two sources: vitamin D2, which is found in plants, and vitamin D3, which is present in dairy products and can also be synthesized by the skin when exposed to sunlight.

      The primary function of vitamin D is to increase the levels of calcium and phosphate in the blood. It achieves this by increasing the absorption of calcium in the gut and the reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys. Vitamin D also stimulates osteoclastic activity, which is essential for bone growth and remodeling. Additionally, it increases the reabsorption of phosphate in the kidneys.

      A deficiency in vitamin D can lead to two conditions: rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults. Rickets is characterized by soft and weak bones, while osteomalacia is a condition where the bones become weak and brittle. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure that the body receives an adequate amount of vitamin D to maintain healthy bones and overall health.

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  • Question 38 - A 4-year-old girl is undergoing assessment for short stature. Her family has no...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is undergoing assessment for short stature. Her family has no history of bone disorders and they are immigrants. The child was breastfed exclusively until 7 months old and has been consuming a diverse diet of meats, fruits, and vegetables. The patient's vital signs are within normal limits. Upon physical examination, the child displays frontal bossing, dental enamel defects, and symmetrical, bead-like swelling of the costochondral junctions.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paget disease

      Correct Answer: Rickets

      Explanation:

      Rickets is caused by a lack of vitamin D

      Vitamin D can be obtained through diet or produced in the skin when exposed to sunlight. A daily intake of 600 IU of vitamin D is recommended.

      Understanding Vitamin D

      Vitamin D is a type of vitamin that is soluble in fat and is essential for the metabolism of calcium and phosphate in the body. It is converted into calcifediol in the liver and then into calcitriol, which is the active form of vitamin D, in the kidneys. Vitamin D can be obtained from two sources: vitamin D2, which is found in plants, and vitamin D3, which is present in dairy products and can also be synthesized by the skin when exposed to sunlight.

      The primary function of vitamin D is to increase the levels of calcium and phosphate in the blood. It achieves this by increasing the absorption of calcium in the gut and the reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys. Vitamin D also stimulates osteoclastic activity, which is essential for bone growth and remodeling. Additionally, it increases the reabsorption of phosphate in the kidneys.

      A deficiency in vitamin D can lead to two conditions: rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults. Rickets is characterized by soft and weak bones, while osteomalacia is a condition where the bones become weak and brittle. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure that the body receives an adequate amount of vitamin D to maintain healthy bones and overall health.

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  • Question 39 - A 72-year-old patient presents with a sudden collapse and an ECG reveals atrial...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old patient presents with a sudden collapse and an ECG reveals atrial fibrillation. His medical history includes type II diabetes mellitus, hypertension, trigeminal neuralgia, and lymphoedema. He has been taking warfarin for a few years, but his INR from today is 1.2. The patient's records show that he was prescribed a new medication by his family doctor 8 days ago. Which of the following drugs is most likely to have been prescribed?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Carbamazepine enhances the activity of the CYP3A4 system, leading to the acceleration of warfarin metabolism and a decrease in its therapeutic efficacy. On the other hand, the other medications are P450 system inhibitors, which may interfere with warfarin breakdown and cause an elevated therapeutic effect.

      The P450 system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body, and drug interactions can occur when certain drugs inhibit or induce the activity of these enzymes. The most common and important enzyme system involved in drug interactions is CYP3A4. Macrolides, antiretrovirals, and calcium channel blockers are substrates for this enzyme, while macrolides, protease inhibitors (including ritonavir), and imidazoles are inhibitors. Carbamazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbitone, rifampicin, and St John’s Wort are inducers of CYP3A4. Other enzyme systems affected by common drugs include CYP2D6, CYP2C9, CYP1A2, and CYP2E1. Tricyclic antidepressants and antipsychotics are substrates for CYP2D6, while SSRIs and ritonavir are inhibitors. Warfarin and sulfonylureas are substrates for CYP2C9, while imidazoles, amiodarone, and sodium valproate are inhibitors. Theophylline is a substrate for CYP1A2, while ciprofloxacin and omeprazole are inhibitors. Chronic alcohol and isoniazid are inducers of CYP2E1. It is important to be aware of these interactions to avoid adverse effects and ensure optimal drug therapy.

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  • Question 40 - A 26-year-old female presents with a fever of 38ºC, a widespread maculopapular rash,...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female presents with a fever of 38ºC, a widespread maculopapular rash, chills and a headache. The signs and symptoms appeared a few hours earlier. The patient was given a single antibiotic dose earlier that day, which completed the required course.

      What is the most probable infection that she is suffering from?

      Your Answer: Syphilis

      Explanation:

      Managing Syphilis

      Syphilis can be managed through the administration of intramuscular benzathine penicillin, which is the first-line treatment. In cases where this is not possible, doxycycline may be used as an alternative. After treatment, it is important to monitor nontreponemal titres (such as rapid plasma reagin or Venereal Disease Research Laboratory) to assess the response. A fourfold decline in titres is often considered an adequate response to treatment.

      It is important to note that the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur following treatment. This is characterized by symptoms such as fever, rash, and tachycardia after the first dose of antibiotic. Unlike anaphylaxis, there is no wheezing or hypotension. This reaction is thought to be due to the release of endotoxins following bacterial death and typically occurs within a few hours of treatment. No treatment is needed for this reaction other than antipyretics if required.

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  • Question 41 - What is true about dependent variables? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is true about dependent variables?

      Your Answer: In studies investigating treatments for diseases, the treatment is the dependent variable

      Correct Answer: They are affected by changes of independent variables

      Explanation:

      Understanding Variables in Research

      Variables are characteristics, numbers, or quantities that can be measured or counted. They are also known as data items and can vary between data units in a population. Examples of variables include age, sex, income, expenses, and grades. In a typical study, there are three main variables: independent, dependent, and controlled.

      The independent variable is the one that the researcher purposely changes during the investigation. The dependent variable is the one that is observed and changes in response to the independent variable. Controlled variables are those that are not changed during the experiment.

      Dependent variables are affected by independent variables but not by controlled variables. For instance, in a weight loss medication study, the dosage of the medication is the independent variable, while the weight of the participants is the dependent variable. The researcher splits the participants into three groups, with each group receiving a different dosage of the medication. After six months, the participants’ weights are measured.

      Understanding variables is crucial in research as it helps researchers to identify the factors that influence the outcome of their studies. By manipulating the independent variable, researchers can observe how it affects the dependent variable. Controlled variables help to ensure that the results are accurate and reliable.

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  • Question 42 - A 67-year-old man visits the Medical Assessment Unit with complaints of abdominal pain....

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man visits the Medical Assessment Unit with complaints of abdominal pain. He reports experiencing generalised, colicky abdominal pain for a few weeks. The patient has a medical history of angina, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. His regular medications include atorvastatin, metformin, ramipril, sitagliptin, and verapamil. During abdominal examination, he displays tenderness in the left lower quadrant. An abdominal X-ray reveals faecal loading. Which medication is most likely responsible for his presentation?

      Your Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Verapamil is known to induce constipation, making it the correct answer. This is a common side effect of calcium channel blockers, including verapamil.

      Ramipril and atorvastatin are not typically linked to changes in bowel movements, whereas sitagliptin and metformin are more commonly associated with diarrhea.

      Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.

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  • Question 43 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the medical unit with fevers, rigors, and night...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the medical unit with fevers, rigors, and night sweats. She has been experiencing increased fatigue and nausea for the past 72 hours before developing fevers.

      Upon examination, she appears lethargic and diaphoretic.

      Initial vital signs are as follows:

      Temperature 39ºC
      Blood pressure 90/60 mmHg
      Heart rate 120 beats per minute
      Respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute
      Oxygen saturations 97% on room air

      The medical team initiates empirical antibiotic therapy and intravenous fluids while performing an infection screen and blood cultures.

      After 48 hours, the patient's condition has improved. The provisional report from the blood cultures indicates the growth of gram-negative bacilli.

      What is the most likely organism causing the patient's infection?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting symptoms of sepsis, but the source of the infection is unknown. Therefore, general measures for managing sepsis are necessary, including taking urine and blood cultures, providing blood pressure support, conducting screening investigations, and administering empirical antibiotic therapy.

      It is important to have some knowledge of bacteria as blood culture results typically take 48 hours to become available and come with a provisional report. In this case, the provisional description fits with Escherichia coli, an aerobic gram-negative rod that is often associated with severe systemic features and corresponds to the patient’s initial presentation of Escherichia coli bacteraemia.

      Other bacteria, such as Clostridium difficile, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Streptococcus, and Staphylococcus species, do not match the description provided. Clostridium difficile is a gram-positive bacillus that causes healthcare-associated infections and colitis, while Pseudomonas aeruginosa is more commonly associated with infections in immunocompromised patients and medical devices. Streptococcus and Staphylococcus species are gram-positive cocci and do not correspond to the description given.

      Classification of Bacteria Made Easy

      Bacteria are classified based on their shape, staining properties, and other characteristics. One way to simplify the classification process is to remember that Gram-positive cocci include staphylococci and streptococci, while Gram-negative cocci include Neisseria meningitidis, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and Moraxella catarrhalis. To categorize all bacteria, only a few Gram-positive rods or bacilli need to be memorized, which can be remembered using the mnemonic ABCD L: Actinomyces, Bacillus anthracis (anthrax), Clostridium, Diphtheria (Corynebacterium diphtheriae), and Listeria monocytogenes.

      The remaining organisms are Gram-negative rods, such as Escherichia coli, Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Salmonella sp., Shigella sp., and Campylobacter jejuni. By keeping these classifications in mind, it becomes easier to identify and differentiate between different types of bacteria.

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  • Question 44 - One of your colleagues in her early thirties has been experiencing fever, multiple...

    Correct

    • One of your colleagues in her early thirties has been experiencing fever, multiple episodes of vomiting, and a sudden onset desquamating rash on her body for a few hours. She had a long shift in the labour theatre and forgot to change her tampon for almost a day. As time passes, her condition deteriorates, and she is transferred to the Emergency Department with an altered sensorium.

      Upon examination, the patient's blood pressure is 70/40 mmHg, pulse rate is 130 beats/min, respiratory rate is 30/minute, and temperature is 40ºC.

      What is the probable organism and toxin responsible for her current state?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus - TSST 1 toxin

      Explanation:

      The TSST-1 superantigen toxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus is the cause of staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome. The patient’s symptoms and medical history suggest a diagnosis of TSS, which is often associated with tampon use. Treatment typically involves obtaining blood and urine cultures and initiating empiric antibiotic therapy.

      Shiga toxin produced by Escherichia coli is not related to TSS. While E. coli can cause mild infections and urinary tract infections, toxin-producing strains are responsible for severe gastrointestinal disease.

      PA toxin produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa is not associated with TSS, although this organism is commonly associated with nosocomial infections and can be multidrug-resistant.

      Pneumolysin produced by Streptococcus pneumoniae is not associated with TSS, as this organism is primarily known to cause pneumonia.

      Understanding Staphylococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome

      Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome is a severe reaction to staphylococcal exotoxins, specifically the TSST-1 superantigen toxin. It gained attention in the 1980s due to cases related to infected tampons. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention have established diagnostic criteria for this syndrome, which includes fever, hypotension, a diffuse erythematous rash, desquamation of the rash (especially on the palms and soles), and involvement of three or more organ systems. These organ systems may include the gastrointestinal system, mucous membranes, kidneys, liver, blood platelets, and the central nervous system.

      The management of staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome involves removing the source of infection, such as a retained tampon, and administering intravenous fluids and antibiotics. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if any of the symptoms of this syndrome are present.

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  • Question 45 - A 29-year-old woman visits her family physician with complaints of vaginal discomfort and...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman visits her family physician with complaints of vaginal discomfort and grayish discharge for the past two days. She is sexually active with her husband and has never been pregnant. The physician confirms the presence of thin, grayish discharge with a fishy odor but finds no inflammation. The patient has no history of multiple sexual partners or illicit drug use, and a pregnancy test is negative. The doctor prescribes clindamycin for treatment and advises that the patient's husband does not need to be treated. What are the correct microscopic and biochemical findings for the pathogenic agent responsible for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Clue cells with a discharge of pH less than 4.5

      Correct Answer: Clue cells with a discharge of pH greater than 4.5

      Explanation:

      The patient displayed symptoms consistent with bacterial vaginosis, which is characterized by a non-inflamed vagina and a thin, white or grayish discharge. In contrast, candida vulvovaginitis presents with an inflamed vagina and a thick, white, cheese-like discharge, while trichomonas vaginitis is associated with an inflamed vagina and a pH greater than 4.5. Bacterial vaginosis is caused by Gardnerella vaginalis and can be treated with metronidazole or clindamycin, without the need for partner treatment. Trichomonas vaginitis, on the other hand, requires partner treatment and is treated with metronidazole.

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.

      Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.

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  • Question 46 - You have been asked to review a 63-year-old man on the medical ward...

    Correct

    • You have been asked to review a 63-year-old man on the medical ward who was recently treated for an exacerbation of pulmonary oedema. His past medical history includes heart failure. He is currently on a course of antibiotics for prostatitis.

      His blood results from yesterday are shown below:

      Na+ 141 mmol/l
      K+ 4.3 mmol/l
      Urea 6 mmol/l
      Creatinine 60 µmol/l

      His blood results from today are shown below:

      Na+ 140 mmol/l
      K+ 4.6 mmol/l
      Urea 15 mmol/l
      Creatinine 180 µmol/l

      What is the most probable reason for the change in kidney function?

      Your Answer: Concomitant use of furosemide and gentamicin resulting in renal failure

      Explanation:

      The risk of renal failure increases when furosemide and gentamicin are used together. Furosemide is the primary diuretic for treating acute pulmonary edema, but its concurrent use with gentamicin can lead to kidney failure. The patient’s blood test results indicate acute kidney injury, which is likely caused by gentamicin toxicity.

      Acute kidney injury can result from pre-renal causes such as sepsis and dehydration, and in such cases, the blood test would show a significant increase in urea levels disproportionate to the rise in creatinine.

      Bendroflumethiazide is not a commonly used medication for managing acute pulmonary edema.

      Metronidazole is not significantly associated with nephrotoxicity.

      Gentamicin is a type of antibiotic known as an aminoglycoside. It is not easily dissolved in lipids, so it is typically administered through injection or topical application. It is commonly used to treat infections such as infective endocarditis and otitis externa. However, gentamicin can have adverse effects on the body, such as ototoxicity, which can cause damage to the auditory or vestibular nerves. This damage is irreversible. Gentamicin can also cause nephrotoxicity, which can lead to acute tubular necrosis. The risk of toxicity increases when gentamicin is used in conjunction with furosemide. Lower doses and more frequent monitoring are necessary to prevent these adverse effects. Gentamicin is contraindicated in patients with myasthenia gravis. To ensure safe dosing, plasma concentrations of gentamicin are monitored. Peak levels are measured one hour after administration, and trough levels are measured just before the next dose. If the trough level is high, the interval between doses should be increased. If the peak level is high, the dose should be decreased.

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  • Question 47 - A 36-year-old man with a history of psoriasis presents with pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man with a history of psoriasis presents with pain in his left knee, middle finger, and heel. He reports a family history of psoriasis. During examination, red, inflamed, and silvery plaques are observed on his elbows and scalp. Additionally, there is tenderness and swelling in the affected joints. What HLA haplotype is linked to his joint pain?

      Your Answer: HLA-DR3

      Correct Answer: HLA-B27

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic arthritis is often observed in individuals who possess the HLA-B27 antigen, as evidenced by the presence of asymmetrical and oligoarticular arthritis with enthesitis in the left heel, along with a history of psoriasis and a familial predisposition to the condition.

      HLA Associations: Diseases and Antigens

      HLA antigens are proteins encoded by genes on chromosome 6. There are two classes of HLA antigens: class I (HLA A, B, and C) and class II (HLA DP, DQ, and DR). Diseases can be strongly associated with certain HLA antigens. For example, HLA-A3 is associated with haemochromatosis, HLA-B51 with Behcet’s disease, and HLA-B27 with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, and acute anterior uveitis. Coeliac disease is associated with HLA-DQ2/DQ8, while narcolepsy and Goodpasture’s are associated with HLA-DR2. Dermatitis herpetiformis, Sjogren’s syndrome, and primary biliary cirrhosis are associated with HLA-DR3. Finally, type 1 diabetes mellitus is associated with HLA-DR3 but more strongly associated with HLA-DR4, specifically the DRB1 gene (DRB1*04:01 and DRB1*04:04).

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  • Question 48 - A 32-year-old patient presents with muscle pain and early fatigue during exercise. The...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old patient presents with muscle pain and early fatigue during exercise. The patient has no significant past medical or surgical history. Lab results reveal elevated myoglobin in urine and a creatine kinase level of over 30,000. Microscopy shows periodic acid-Schiff stained glycogen, and an ischemic forearm test is positive. Based on these findings, what is the underlying cause of the patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Defect in glycogen phosphorylase

      Explanation:

      McArdle disease, also known as glycogen storage disease type V, is caused by a deficiency of myophosphorylase, which results in the accumulation of glycogen in the muscle that cannot be broken down. Symptoms such as myoglobinuria, elevated creatine kinase, reduced renal function, a positive ischemic arm test, and a patient history can lead to a diagnosis of McArdle disease. It is important to note that the conditions associated with the incorrect answers listed above are Von Gierke’s disease (Type 1), Krabbe’s disease, Hurler’s disease, Inclusion cell disease, Pompe disease, Tay-Sachs disease, and Fabry’s disease, which are caused by defects in glucose-6-phosphatase, galactocerebrosidase, alpha-L iduronidase, N-acetylglucosamine-1-phosphate transferase, lysosomal acid alpha-glucosidase, Hexosaminidase A, and alpha-galactosidase, respectively.

      Inherited Metabolic Disorders: Types and Deficiencies

      Inherited metabolic disorders are a group of genetic disorders that affect the body’s ability to process certain substances. These disorders can be categorized into different types based on the specific substance that is affected. One type is glycogen storage disease, which is caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in glycogen metabolism. This can lead to the accumulation of glycogen in various organs, resulting in symptoms such as hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis, and hepatomegaly.

      Another type is lysosomal storage disease, which is caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in lysosomal metabolism. This can lead to the accumulation of various substances within lysosomes, resulting in symptoms such as hepatosplenomegaly, developmental delay, and optic atrophy. Examples of lysosomal storage diseases include Gaucher’s disease, Tay-Sachs disease, and Fabry disease.

      Finally, mucopolysaccharidoses are a group of disorders caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in the breakdown of glycosaminoglycans. This can lead to the accumulation of these substances in various organs, resulting in symptoms such as coarse facial features, short stature, and corneal clouding. Examples of mucopolysaccharidoses include Hurler syndrome and Hunter syndrome.

      Overall, inherited metabolic disorders can have a wide range of symptoms and can affect various organs and systems in the body. Early diagnosis and treatment are important in managing these disorders and preventing complications.

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  • Question 49 - In 2015, The New England Journal of Medicine published a study on the...

    Correct

    • In 2015, The New England Journal of Medicine published a study on the effects of empagliflozin, a sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitor, on patients with type 2 diabetes over the age of 60 who were at high risk of cardiovascular events. The study found that empagliflozin reduced the incidence of cardiovascular deaths, non-fatal myocardial infarction, and non-fatal stroke compared to a placebo. The event rate for empagliflozin was 37.3/1000 patient years, while the event rate for the placebo was 43.9/1000 patient years. Based on this information, how many patients over the age of 60 and at high risk of adverse cardiovascular outcomes need to be treated with empagliflozin to prevent one cardiovascular death, non-fatal myocardial infarction, or non-fatal stroke?

      Your Answer: 150

      Explanation:

      Numbers needed to treat (NNT) is a measure that determines how many patients need to receive a particular intervention to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. To calculate NNT, you divide 1 by the absolute risk reduction (ARR) and round up to the nearest whole number. ARR can be calculated by finding the absolute difference between the control event rate (CER) and the experimental event rate (EER). There are two ways to calculate ARR, depending on whether the outcome of the study is desirable or undesirable. If the outcome is undesirable, then ARR equals CER minus EER. If the outcome is desirable, then ARR is equal to EER minus CER. It is important to note that ARR may also be referred to as absolute benefit increase.

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  • Question 50 - A young surgical trainee is preparing for her first hemi arthroplasty for a...

    Incorrect

    • A young surgical trainee is preparing for her first hemi arthroplasty for a fractured neck of femur. During the pre-operative assessment, the patient reports a possible history of penicillin allergy, but due to the patient's confusion, the history is not confirmed. In the anaesthetic room, the patient is given 1.2g intravenous co-amoxiclav. Suddenly, the patient experiences severe respiratory distress and haemodynamic collapse. What pathological process could be responsible for this event?

      Your Answer: Binding of the drug to circulating IgG class antibodies

      Correct Answer: Recognition of the drug by IgE receptors on mast cells

      Explanation:

      Anaphylactic shock occurs when an antigen is recognized by IgE molecules on mast cells, leading to their rapid degranulation and the release of histamine and other inflammatory cytokines.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.

      The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.

      Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12

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  • Question 51 - A 3-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with mouth pain and...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with mouth pain and bruising on her chest and left arm. According to her father, she fell off the monkey bars while playing at the park. During the examination, a torn maxillary frenum is discovered.

      Which healthcare professional should be prioritized for involvement in the child's care?

      Your Answer: Safeguarding Officer

      Explanation:

      When a child experiences a torn maxillary frenum, it is a rare injury that should be taken seriously. If other bruises are present, it may indicate non-accidental injury, which requires immediate attention. In such cases, the designated safeguarding officer of the hospital trust should be involved to determine the appropriate course of action in consultation with the local safeguarding children board.

      To assess suspected non-accidental injury, a thorough medical examination and history should be conducted, and all injuries should be documented and photographed with consent. The child’s interaction with their parent should also be noted. A full skeletal survey, including oblique views of the ribs, should be ordered to identify any fractures that may not be visible during a physical examination.

      If abuse is suspected or confirmed, the safeguarding officer will help determine whether the child needs further protection from harm. This may involve admitting the child to the hospital or involving the police.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2009 to help healthcare professionals identify when a child may be experiencing maltreatment. Child abuse can take many forms, including physical, emotional, and sexual abuse, neglect, and fabricated or induced illness. The guidelines provide a comprehensive list of features that may indicate abuse, but only selected features are highlighted here. Neglect may be suspected if a child has severe and persistent infestations, is not receiving essential prescribed treatment, has poor hygiene, or is not being dressed appropriately. Sexual abuse may be suspected if a child has persistent dysuria or anogenital discomfort, a gaping anus during examination, or is exhibiting sexualized behavior. Physical abuse may be suspected if a child has unexplained serious or unusual injuries, cold injuries, hypothermia, oral injuries, bruises, lacerations, burns, human bite marks, or fractures with unsuitable explanations.

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  • Question 52 - A 45-year-old male patient presents to his doctor with complaints of coughing up...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male patient presents to his doctor with complaints of coughing up green phlegm and experiencing shortness of breath during physical activity. Upon examination, the doctor detects crackles in the lower region of the patient's left lung and bronchial breathing. The patient also has reduced chest expansion on the left side. The doctor diagnoses the patient with pneumonia and prescribes amoxicillin. What is the most prevalent immunoglobulin found in the patient's serum?

      Your Answer: IgA

      Correct Answer: IgG

      Explanation:

      In blood, IgG is the antibody that is present in the highest amount.

      Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.

      IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.

      IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.

      IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.

      IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.

      IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.

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  • Question 53 - A 30-year-old man presents with a sore throat and insists on receiving antibiotics....

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man presents with a sore throat and insists on receiving antibiotics. After discussing the limited benefits of antibiotics for viral pharyngitis, it is explained to him that only 2 out of every 100 people treated with antibiotics will experience a reduction in complications. In other words, 50 people would need to be treated with antibiotics in order for one person to benefit.

      Your Answer: 50

      Explanation:

      To determine the number needed to treat (NNT), we divide 1 by the absolute risk reduction (ARR) of 0.02, resulting in an NNT of 50. This means that 50 people need to be treated with antibiotics to prevent one complication. This information can be used to assess the risk-benefit profile of the treatment, especially when compared to the number needed to harm.

      Numbers needed to treat (NNT) is a measure that determines how many patients need to receive a particular intervention to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. To calculate NNT, you divide 1 by the absolute risk reduction (ARR) and round up to the nearest whole number. ARR can be calculated by finding the absolute difference between the control event rate (CER) and the experimental event rate (EER). There are two ways to calculate ARR, depending on whether the outcome of the study is desirable or undesirable. If the outcome is undesirable, then ARR equals CER minus EER. If the outcome is desirable, then ARR is equal to EER minus CER. It is important to note that ARR may also be referred to as absolute benefit increase.

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  • Question 54 - A saturation curve is created to demonstrate the impact of cyanide on the...

    Incorrect

    • A saturation curve is created to demonstrate the impact of cyanide on the function of cytochrome oxidase. As a non-competitive inhibitor of cytochrome oxidase, what will be the effect of cyanide on the enzyme's Km value?

      Your Answer: Decrease Km

      Correct Answer: No effect on Km

      Explanation:

      Enzyme kinetics is the study of how enzymes catalyze chemical reactions. Catalysts increase the rate of a chemical reaction without being consumed or altering the position of equilibrium between substrates and products. Enzyme-catalyzed reactions display saturation kinetics, meaning that there is not a linear response to increasing levels of substrate. Vmax is the maximum rate of the catalyzed reaction, while Km is the concentration of substrate that leads to half-maximal velocity. Enzymes with a low Km have a high affinity for their substrate. The Michaelis-Menten model of a single substrate reaction demonstrates the saturation curve for an enzyme, showing the relationship between substrate concentration and reaction rate. Linear plots of the Michaelis-Menten model are used to estimate Vmax. The Lineweaver-Burk plot of kinetic data shows how the y-intercept equals 1/Vmax, and as the y-intercept increases, Vmax decreases. There are three types of inhibitors: competitive, non-competitive, and uncompetitive. Each type has a different effect on Vmax and Km. Competitive inhibitors compete with the substrate for the enzyme’s active binding site, while non-competitive inhibitors bind outside the enzyme’s active binding site. Uncompetitive inhibitors are rare and bind to the enzyme, enhancing the binding of substrate.

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  • Question 55 - A 65-year-old woman visits her GP clinic with a complaint of deteriorating eyesight,...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman visits her GP clinic with a complaint of deteriorating eyesight, particularly at night. She reports experiencing difficulty navigating around her home in the evening and has ceased driving at night due to her symptoms. Additionally, she has been feeling more fatigued than usual. The patient's medical history includes chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, heart failure, and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease-related liver cirrhosis.

      Which nutrient deficiency is the probable cause of this woman's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Vitamin A

      Explanation:

      One of the first symptoms of vitamin A deficiency is night blindness, making vitamin A the correct answer. This deficiency causes tissues, including the cornea and retina, to dry out and become damaged over time. Additionally, liver cirrhosis can lead to a deficiency in vitamin A, further supporting this answer.

      However, calcium deficiency, iron deficiency, and vitamin B12 deficiency are not the correct answers as they do not cause night blindness. Calcium deficiency may present with symptoms such as extreme fatigue, tetany, muscle spasms, carpopedal spasms, or paraesthesia in the hands or feet. Iron deficiency may cause fatigue, pallor of the skin and conjunctiva, palpitations, or shortness of breath. Vitamin B12 deficiency may lead to jaundice, glossitis, irritability, depression, cognitive decline, vision changes, or paraesthesia.

      Vitamin A, also known as retinol, is a type of fat soluble vitamin that plays several important roles in the body. One of its key functions is being converted into retinal, which is a crucial visual pigment. Additionally, vitamin A is essential for proper epithelial cell differentiation and acts as an antioxidant to protect cells from damage.

      When the body lacks sufficient vitamin A, it can lead to a condition known as night blindness. This is because retinal is necessary for the eyes to adjust to low light conditions, and a deficiency can impair this process. Therefore, it is important to ensure adequate intake of vitamin A through a balanced diet or supplements to maintain optimal health.

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  • Question 56 - A 50-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of hot flashes and vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of hot flashes and vaginal dryness. She reports no menstrual bleeding in the past year and has no significant medical or surgical history. Despite trying lifestyle changes for 6 months, she desires hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for symptom relief. What HRT preparation should be recommended to her?

      Your Answer: Estradiol

      Correct Answer: Estradiol with norethisterone

      Explanation:

      Women with a uterus taking HRT need a preparation with a progestogen to prevent excess growth and cancer risk. Estradiol with norethisterone is the correct option. Depo-Provera is a progesterone-only contraceptive and estradiol is given to women without a uterus. Norethisterone alone has no effect on menopause symptoms.

      Hormone Replacement Therapy: Uses and Varieties

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves administering a small amount of estrogen, combined with a progestogen (in women with a uterus), to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed significantly over the past decade due to the long-term risks that have become apparent, primarily as a result of the Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study.

      The most common indication for HRT is vasomotor symptoms such as flushing, insomnia, and headaches. Other indications, such as reversal of vaginal atrophy, should be treated with other agents as first-line therapies. HRT is also recommended for women who experience premature menopause, which should be continued until the age of 50 years. The most important reason for giving HRT to younger women is to prevent the development of osteoporosis. Additionally, HRT has been shown to reduce the incidence of colorectal cancer.

      HRT generally consists of an oestrogenic compound, which replaces the diminished levels that occur in the perimenopausal period. This is normally combined with a progestogen if a woman has a uterus to reduce the risk of endometrial cancer. The choice of hormone includes natural oestrogens such as estradiol, estrone, and conjugated oestrogen, which are generally used rather than synthetic oestrogens such as ethinylestradiol (which is used in the combined oral contraceptive pill). Synthetic progestogens such as medroxyprogesterone, norethisterone, levonorgestrel, and drospirenone are usually used. A levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (e.g. Mirena) may be used as the progestogen component of HRT, i.e. a woman could take an oral oestrogen and have endometrial protection using a Mirena coil. Tibolone, a synthetic compound with both oestrogenic, progestogenic, and androgenic activity, is another option.

      HRT can be taken orally or transdermally (via a patch or gel). Transdermal is preferred if the woman is at risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), as the rates of VTE do not appear to rise with transdermal preparations.

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  • Question 57 - A 36-year-old man who is HIV positive presents with flat purple patches in...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man who is HIV positive presents with flat purple patches in his mouth and on his lower legs. He is referred to dermatology and diagnosed with Kaposi's sarcoma. What is the cause of this condition?

      Your Answer: Human papillomavirus

      Correct Answer: Human herpes virus 8

      Explanation:

      HHV-8 (human herpes virus 8) is the cause of Kaposi’s sarcoma, which is commonly found in HIV patients.

      Fifths disease, also known as slapped cheek syndrome, is caused by Parvovirus B19 and can lead to foetal hydrops.

      Genital warts and cervical cancer are associated with the human papillomavirus.

      Infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever) is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, which is also linked to Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Burkitt’s lymphoma, gastric cancer, and nasopharyngeal carcinoma.

      Kaposi’s sarcoma is a type of cancer that is caused by the human herpes virus 8 (HHV-8). It is characterized by the appearance of purple papules or plaques on the skin or mucosa, such as in the gastrointestinal and respiratory tract. These skin lesions may eventually ulcerate, while respiratory involvement can lead to massive haemoptysis and pleural effusion. Treatment options for Kaposi’s sarcoma include radiotherapy and resection. It is commonly seen in patients with HIV.

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  • Question 58 - A 25-year-old female presents to her GP with concerns about her acne. Despite...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presents to her GP with concerns about her acne. Despite trying topical benzoyl peroxide and isotretinoin, she has not seen any improvement. The GP decides to prescribe a prolonged course of doxycycline. What is a potential side effect of this medication?

      Your Answer: Photosensitivity

      Explanation:

      Photosensitivity can be caused by tetracyclines, including doxycycline. Co-amoxiclav and flucloxacillin can lead to cholestatic jaundice, while aminoglycosides like gentamicin can cause ototoxicity. Vancomycin is associated with ‘red man syndrome’ and both aminoglycosides and glycopeptides (such as vancomycin) can be nephrotoxic.

      Understanding Tetracyclines: Antibiotics Used in Clinical Practice

      Tetracyclines are a group of antibiotics that are commonly used in clinical practice. They work by inhibiting protein synthesis, specifically by binding to the 30S subunit and blocking the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA. However, bacteria can develop resistance to tetracyclines through increased efflux by plasmid-encoded transport pumps or ribosomal protection.

      Tetracyclines are used to treat a variety of conditions such as acne vulgaris, Lyme disease, Chlamydia, and Mycoplasma pneumoniae. However, they should not be given to children under 12 years of age or to pregnant or breastfeeding women due to the risk of discolouration of the infant’s teeth.

      While tetracyclines are generally well-tolerated, they can cause adverse effects such as photosensitivity, angioedema, and black hairy tongue. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects and to use tetracyclines only as prescribed by a healthcare professional.

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  • Question 59 - A 75-year-old man is brought to the hospital with a urinary tract infection....

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man is brought to the hospital with a urinary tract infection. He has a history of hypertension and mild cognitive impairment.

      The medical team observes that he has had recurrent urinary tract infections caused by Escherichia coli in the past year.

      Which culture medium is required for the growth of this microorganism?

      Your Answer: MacConkey agar

      Explanation:

      The correct medium for culturing Escherichia coli and obtaining pink colonies is MacConkey agar. This is because E. coli is a lactose-fermenting bacteria, and MacConkey’s agar contains lactose that is utilized by such bacteria to produce acid, resulting in the formation of pink colonies. Charcoal-yeast agar, chocolate agar, and Lowenstein-Jensen agar are not appropriate for culturing E. coli as they are used for isolating other bacteria that cause different illnesses.

      Culture Requirements for Common Organisms

      Different microorganisms require specific culture conditions to grow and thrive. The table above lists some of the culture requirements for the more common organisms. For instance, Neisseria gonorrhoeae requires Thayer-Martin agar, which is a variant of chocolate agar, and the addition of Vancomycin, Polymyxin, and Nystatin to inhibit Gram-positive, Gram-negative, and fungal growth, respectively. Haemophilus influenzae, on the other hand, grows on chocolate agar with factors V (NAD+) and X (hematin).

      To remember the culture requirements for some of these organisms, some mnemonics can be used. For example, Nice Homes have chocolate can help recall that Neisseria and Haemophilus grow on chocolate agar. If I Tell-U the Corny joke Right, you’ll Laugh can be used to remember that Corynebacterium diphtheriae grows on tellurite agar or Loeffler’s media. Lactating pink monkeys can help recall that lactose fermenting bacteria, such as Escherichia coli, grow on MacConkey agar resulting in pink colonies. Finally, BORDETella pertussis can be used to remember that Bordetella pertussis grows on Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar.

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  • Question 60 - A 4-year-old girl presented with seizures and loss of consciousness. Magnetic resonance imaging...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl presented with seizures and loss of consciousness. Magnetic resonance imaging of her head showed lipotoxicity-induced diffuse neuroinflammatory demyelination. Laboratory testing revealed high levels of cerotic acid, a very long-chain fatty acid, confirming the diagnosis of X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy.

      What is the most likely affected area in this disease?

      Your Answer: Ribosomes

      Correct Answer: Peroxisomes

      Explanation:

      The breakdown of long chain fatty acids is carried out by peroxisomes, specifically through the process of β-oxidation, which is the only way to metabolize very long-chain fatty acids with a carbon chain length of 22 or more.

      Functions of Cell Organelles

      The functions of major cell organelles can be summarized in a table. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is responsible for the translation and folding of new proteins, as well as the manufacture of lysosomal enzymes. It is also the site of N-linked glycosylation. Cells such as pancreatic cells, goblet cells, and plasma cells have extensive RER. On the other hand, the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is involved in steroid and lipid synthesis. Cells of the adrenal cortex, hepatocytes, and reproductive organs have extensive SER.

      The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages molecules that are destined for cell secretion. The addition of mannose-6-phosphate to proteins designates transport to lysosome. The mitochondrion is responsible for aerobic respiration and contains mitochondrial genome as circular DNA. The nucleus is involved in DNA maintenance, RNA transcription, and RNA splicing, which removes the non-coding sequences of genes (introns) from pre-mRNA and joins the protein-coding sequences (exons).

      The lysosome is responsible for the breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides. The nucleolus produces ribosomes, while the ribosome translates RNA into proteins. The peroxisome is involved in the catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids, resulting in the formation of hydrogen peroxide. Lastly, the proteasome, along with the lysosome pathway, is involved in the degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin.

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  • Question 61 - A 23-year-old, nursing student arrives at the emergency department with profuse epistaxis. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old, nursing student arrives at the emergency department with profuse epistaxis. The bleeding is controlled with silver nitrate cautery.

      Coincidentally, the doctor attending to her is also her nursing instructor. During their conversation about bleeding and clot formation, the nursing instructor explains that platelet disorders or a deficiency in thromboxane, a type of eicosanoid that aids in platelet aggregation and halts bleeding, can cause bleeding. Additionally, the nursing instructor mentions that thromboxane has another crucial role.

      What is another function of thromboxane?

      Your Answer: Promotes clot degradation

      Correct Answer: Causes vasoconstriction

      Explanation:

      Thromboxane, which is produced by the action of thromboxane-A synthase on prostaglandin H2, not only promotes platelet aggregation but also acts as a powerful vasoconstrictor and hypertensive agent. By causing vasoconstriction, thromboxane reduces blood flow to the area where a clot has formed. It should be noted that thromboxane does not activate antithrombin or promote platelet degradation, contrary to the given incorrect answers.

      Arachidonic Acid Metabolism: The Role of Leukotrienes and Endoperoxides

      Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid that plays a crucial role in the body’s inflammatory response. The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves the production of various compounds, including leukotrienes and endoperoxides. Leukotrienes are produced by leukocytes and can cause constriction of the lungs. LTB4 is produced before leukocytes arrive, while the rest of the leukotrienes (A, C, D, and E) cause lung constriction.

      Endoperoxides, on the other hand, are produced by the cyclooxygenase enzyme and can lead to the formation of thromboxane and prostacyclin. Thromboxane is associated with platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, which can lead to thrombosis. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and can cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation.

      Understanding the metabolism of arachidonic acid and the role of these compounds can help in the development of treatments for inflammatory conditions and cardiovascular diseases.

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  • Question 62 - A 24-year-old man has been admitted to the emergency department after falling off...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man has been admitted to the emergency department after falling off a roof and has been diagnosed with a Colles' fracture by the radiologist. The medical team plans to perform a closed reduction of the fracture, and they intend to use a haematoma block with lidocaine to facilitate a quick and painless reduction. What is a potential side effect that may occur after a haematoma block with lidocaine?

      Your Answer: Ventricular arrhythmia

      Correct Answer: Mental status change

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine has been known to affect mental status by crossing the blood-brain barrier quickly and blocking inhibitory neurons in the brain. This can lead to a decrease in seizure threshold and a decline in mental function. While hypertension is a recognized side effect of lidocaine, it does not cause hypotension. While constipation can be a side effect of lidocaine, it is not known to cause diarrhea. While there is no evidence to suggest that lidocaine causes sexual dysfunction, it is used in the treatment of premature ejaculation. Lidocaine is a class 1b anti-arrhythmic drug used to treat ventricular arrhythmias and does not cause them.

      Overview of Local Anaesthetic Agents

      Local anaesthetic agents are drugs that block nerve impulses and provide pain relief in a specific area of the body. Lidocaine is a commonly used amide local anaesthetic that is also used as an antiarrhythmic drug. It is metabolized in the liver, protein-bound, and excreted in the urine. Toxicity can occur with excessive administration or in patients with liver dysfunction or low protein states. Acidosis can also cause lidocaine to detach from protein binding. Treatment for local anaesthetic toxicity involves the use of IV 20% lipid emulsion. Drug interactions with lidocaine include beta blockers, ciprofloxacin, and phenytoin. Cocaine is another local anaesthetic agent that is rarely used in mainstream surgical practice. Bupivacaine has a longer duration of action than lidocaine and is useful for topical wound infiltration. However, it is cardiotoxic and contraindicated in regional blockage. Levobupivacaine is a less cardiotoxic alternative. Prilocaine is less cardiotoxic than other local anaesthetic agents and is preferred for intravenous regional anaesthesia. Adrenaline can be added to local anaesthetic drugs to prolong their duration of action and permit higher doses, but it is contraindicated in patients taking MAOI’s or tricyclic antidepressants. The maximum total doses of local anaesthetic agents depend on the type of drug and are based on ideal body weight.

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  • Question 63 - A 48-year-old man who was previously diagnosed with prediabetes with an HbA1c of...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man who was previously diagnosed with prediabetes with an HbA1c of 46 mmol/mol 18 months earlier, has a repeat HbA1c that comes back at 50 mmol/mol despite lifestyle measures and an education programme.

      You diagnose him with type 2 diabetes mellitus and discuss the next steps with him. You jointly agree to start an oral anti-hyperglycaemic agent to improve his diabetes control and suggest starting with metformin to increase insulin sensitivity.

      How does metformin exert its effect?

      Your Answer: Activating the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK)

      Explanation:

      Metformin activates the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK) to improve insulin response and glucose uptake. GLP1 agonists enhance insulin release and reduce glucagon release by binding to GLP-1 receptors in the pancreas. Sulfonylureas close ATP-sensitive potassium (K-ATP) channels on pancreatic beta cells, leading to depolarization. Thiazolidinediones bind to peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor-gamma in adipocytes to promote adipogenesis and fatty acid uptake in peripheral fat. DPP-4 inhibitors block the action of DPP-4, which destroys incretin, a hormone that helps the body produce more insulin when needed and reduce glucose production by the liver when not needed.

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.

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  • Question 64 - A 50-year-old patient has heard about the potential benefits of taking a statin....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient has heard about the potential benefits of taking a statin. A research study involving 8901 healthy adults taking a statin and 8901 healthy adults not taking a statin showed that 142 individuals in the statin group experienced a cardiovascular event, while 251 individuals in the control group did. What is the absolute risk reduction?

      Your Answer: 0.559

      Correct Answer: 1.2%

      Explanation:

      The incidence of a cardiovascular event among those who took statins was 0.0160 (142 out of 8,901), while the incidence among those who did not take statins was 0.02 (251 out of 8,901).

      Numbers needed to treat (NNT) is a measure that determines how many patients need to receive a particular intervention to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. To calculate NNT, you divide 1 by the absolute risk reduction (ARR) and round up to the nearest whole number. ARR can be calculated by finding the absolute difference between the control event rate (CER) and the experimental event rate (EER). There are two ways to calculate ARR, depending on whether the outcome of the study is desirable or undesirable. If the outcome is undesirable, then ARR equals CER minus EER. If the outcome is desirable, then ARR is equal to EER minus CER. It is important to note that ARR may also be referred to as absolute benefit increase.

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  • Question 65 - A 42-year-old man has been released from the hospital after receiving a liver...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man has been released from the hospital after receiving a liver transplant. As a preventive measure against graft-versus-host disease, he has been prescribed an immunosuppressant that forms a complex with FK506 binding protein (FKBP) and inhibits calcineurin phosphatase. What is the name of the medication that this patient is likely taking?

      Your Answer: Ciclosporin

      Correct Answer: Tacrolimus

      Explanation:

      Tacrolimus: An Immunosuppressant for Transplant Rejection Prevention

      Tacrolimus is an immunosuppressant drug that is commonly used to prevent transplant rejection. It belongs to the calcineurin inhibitor class of drugs and has a similar action to ciclosporin. The drug works by reducing the clonal proliferation of T cells by decreasing the release of IL-2. It binds to FKBP, forming a complex that inhibits calcineurin, a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors in T cells. This is different from ciclosporin, which binds to cyclophilin instead of FKBP.

      Compared to ciclosporin, tacrolimus is more potent, resulting in a lower incidence of organ rejection. However, it is also associated with a higher risk of nephrotoxicity and impaired glucose tolerance. Despite these potential side effects, tacrolimus remains an important drug in preventing transplant rejection and improving the success of organ transplantation.

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  • Question 66 - A 2-year-old toddler presents to the emergency department with a low-grade fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old toddler presents to the emergency department with a low-grade fever and difficulty breathing. The mother reports that the toddler has had some nasal discharge for the past two days and started coughing a few hours ago. The toddler has no significant medical history, being born full term at 39 weeks via normal vaginal delivery. The toddler is developmentally normal and received all vaccinations according to the immunisation schedule. During examination, the toddler appears lethargic and has a barking cough. Auscultation reveals an inspiratory stridor bilaterally, with no crepitations or wheezes heard. Air entry is equal bilaterally. The toddler's temperature is 38.3ºC, oxygen saturation is 93% based on pulse oximetry, blood pressure is 98/55 mmHg (normal range: SBP 72-140 mmHg; DBP 37-56 mmHg), and the heart rate is 120 beats per minute (normal range: 100-190 beats per minute).

      What is the most likely association with this toddler's condition?

      Your Answer: Sail sign

      Correct Answer: Steeple sign

      Explanation:

      The infant is displaying symptoms of croup, including a barking cough and inspiratory stridor, which is typical for their age. While chest radiographs are not typically used to diagnose croup, if a neck radiograph is taken, the steeple sign may be present, indicating subglottic narrowing due to inflammation of the larynx and trachea.

      The thumb sign, which is indicative of an oedematous epiglottis, is not present in this case, and the infant does not display symptoms of epiglottitis, such as drooling or dysphagia. Additionally, the infant is not in the typical age range for epiglottitis.

      The sail sign, which suggests left lower lobe collapse, is not present as the infant has equal bilateral air entry. The coffee bean sign, which is suggestive of sigmoid volvulus, is also not relevant as it typically presents with abdominal pain and distension, rather than respiratory symptoms, and is uncommon in children.

      Croup is a respiratory infection that affects young children, typically those between 6 months and 3 years old. It is most common in the autumn and is caused by parainfluenza viruses. The main symptom is stridor, which is caused by swelling and secretions in the larynx. Other symptoms include a barking cough, fever, and cold-like symptoms. The severity of croup can be graded based on the child’s symptoms, with mild cases having occasional coughing and no audible stridor at rest, and severe cases having frequent coughing, prominent stridor, and significant distress or lethargy. Children with moderate or severe croup should be admitted to the hospital, especially if they are under 6 months old or have other airway abnormalities. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical symptoms, but a chest x-ray can show subglottic narrowing. Treatment typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, and emergency treatment may include high-flow oxygen or nebulized adrenaline.

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  • Question 67 - A 78-year-old woman visits her GP with suspected erysipelas and is prescribed clindamycin...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old woman visits her GP with suspected erysipelas and is prescribed clindamycin for 7 days. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of protein synthesis

      Explanation:

      Clindamycin inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the 50S subunit of ribosomes. This is similar to the mechanism of macrolide antibiotics. It is important to note that clindamycin does not destroy cell membrane function or inhibit DNA gyrase or cell wall synthesis, which are mechanisms of other classes of antibiotics.

      Antibiotics work in different ways to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The commonly used antibiotics can be classified based on their gross mechanism of action. The first group inhibits cell wall formation by either preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) or peptidoglycan synthesis (glycopeptides like vancomycin). The second group inhibits protein synthesis by acting on either the 50S subunit (macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins) or the 30S subunit (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines) of the bacterial ribosome. The third group inhibits DNA synthesis (quinolones like ciprofloxacin) or damages DNA (metronidazole). The fourth group inhibits folic acid formation (sulphonamides and trimethoprim), while the fifth group inhibits RNA synthesis (rifampicin). Understanding the mechanism of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a particular bacterial infection.

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  • Question 68 - A 67-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his son, complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his son, complaining of severe chest pain. An immediate ECG shows widespread ST elevation in the anterolateral chest leads. He is given aspirin, prasugrel, morphine, metoclopramide, and nitrates and is taken to the PCI lab. The attending cardiologist recommends starting him on abciximab to prevent further ischemic events. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer: Direct thrombin inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Heparin activates antithrombin III, while Prasugrel inhibits P2Y12 ADP and Abciximab inhibits glycoprotein IIb/IIIa. Dabigatran and Rivaroxaban both directly inhibit thrombin and factor X, respectively.

      Monoclonal antibodies are becoming increasingly important in the field of medicine. They are created using a technique called somatic cell hybridization, which involves fusing myeloma cells with spleen cells from an immunized mouse to produce a hybridoma. This hybridoma acts as a factory for producing monoclonal antibodies.

      However, a major limitation of this technique is that mouse antibodies can be immunogenic, leading to the formation of human anti-mouse antibodies. To overcome this problem, a process called humanizing is used. This involves combining the variable region from the mouse body with the constant region from a human antibody.

      There are several clinical examples of monoclonal antibodies, including infliximab for rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s, rituximab for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and rheumatoid arthritis, and cetuximab for metastatic colorectal cancer and head and neck cancer. Monoclonal antibodies are also used for medical imaging when combined with a radioisotope, identifying cell surface markers in biopsied tissue, and diagnosing viral infections.

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  • Question 69 - A 20-year-old college student comes to you with complaints of fever, lethargy, and...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old college student comes to you with complaints of fever, lethargy, and painful swollen submandibular lymph nodes. After diagnosis, you find out that he has infectious mononucleosis. What advice would you give him?

      Your Answer: He should avoid rugby

      Explanation:

      Patients should refrain from engaging in contact sports for a period of 4 weeks due to the risk of splenic rupture. However, swimming is considered a safe activity. It is important to advise patients accordingly.

      Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis

      Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic symptoms of sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.

      The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophile antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.

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  • Question 70 - A 30-year-old male refugee arrives at the emergency department complaining of night sweats...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male refugee arrives at the emergency department complaining of night sweats and a productive cough that has been ongoing for 2 weeks. Upon performing a chest X-ray, signs of tuberculosis are detected. The patient is prescribed a combination of antibiotics, including rifampicin. How does rifampicin work to combat the bacteria's protein synthesis?

      Your Answer: Inhibits RNA polymerase

      Explanation:

      Rifampin causes cell death by inhibiting DNA-dependent RNA polymerase, which leads to the suppression of RNA synthesis.

      Rifampicin disrupts DNA synthesis by halting the action of RNA polymerase, resulting in the suppression of RNA synthesis and cell death.

      Quinolones inhibit DNA gyrase to function.

      Tetracyclines and aminoglycosides inhibit the 30s subunit to work.

      Macrolides work by inhibiting the 50s subunit of bacteria, leading to their death.

      Beta lactams, such as penicillin, disrupt cell wall synthesis to function.

      Understanding Rifampicin: An Antibiotic for Treating Infections

      Rifampicin is an antibiotic that is commonly used to treat various infections, including tuberculosis. It is often prescribed in combination with other medications to effectively combat the disease. Rifampicin can also be used as a prophylactic treatment for individuals who have been in close contact with tuberculosis or meningitis.

      The mechanism of action of Rifampicin involves inhibiting bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. This action helps to stop the growth and spread of bacteria in the body.

      However, Rifampicin is known to be a potent CYP450 liver enzyme inducer, which can cause hepatitis in some individuals. Additionally, it can cause orange secretions and flu-like symptoms. Therefore, it is important to use Rifampicin only as prescribed by a healthcare professional and to monitor any adverse effects that may occur.

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  • Question 71 - A four-week-old baby boy is brought to the emergency department with persistent jaundice...

    Incorrect

    • A four-week-old baby boy is brought to the emergency department with persistent jaundice since birth. Despite one week of phototherapy, the yellowing has not improved. The mother reports that the baby was born at 39 weeks' gestation without any birth trauma or injury. Newborn screening tests, including a thyroid function test, were normal. The mother and baby are both blood group O and Rh-negative, with no known family history of haematological conditions or liver problems. The mother has also noticed that the baby has been passing pale stools and dark urine.

      On examination, the baby appears healthy and has no fever, with scleral icterus present. The baby is moving all four limbs and has symmetrical Moro's reflex. The abdomen is soft and non-tender, with no palpable masses.

      What is the likely condition affecting this four-week-old baby boy?

      Your Answer: Unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia

      Correct Answer: Conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia

      Explanation:

      If a newborn has jaundice for more than 14 days, it is likely due to conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This type of prolonged neonatal jaundice is usually caused by post-hepatic factors, such as biliary atresia or choledochal cysts. Haemolysis may also cause jaundice, but in this case, it is unlikely due to the absence of conjunctival pallor, no family history of haematological conditions, and both the mother and baby being blood group O and Rh-negative. Congenital infections, like cytomegalovirus infection, may also cause jaundice, but the baby appears healthy and does not show any signs of TORCH infections.

      Understanding Jaundice in Newborns

      Jaundice is a common condition in newborns that occurs due to the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood. The severity and duration of jaundice can vary depending on the cause and age of the baby. Jaundice in the first 24 hours is always considered pathological and can be caused by conditions such as rhesus haemolytic disease, ABO haemolytic disease, hereditary spherocytosis, and glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase deficiency.

      Jaundice in the neonate from 2-14 days is usually physiological and affects up to 40% of babies. It is more commonly seen in breastfed babies and is due to a combination of factors such as more red blood cells, fragile red blood cells, and less developed liver function. However, if jaundice persists after 14 days (21 days if premature), a prolonged jaundice screen is performed to identify the cause. This includes tests for conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin, direct antiglobulin test, TFTs, FBC and blood film, urine for MC&S and reducing sugars, and U&Es and LFTs.

      Prolonged jaundice can be caused by conditions such as biliary atresia, hypothyroidism, galactosaemia, urinary tract infection, breast milk jaundice, prematurity, and congenital infections like CMV and toxoplasmosis. Breast milk jaundice is more common in breastfed babies and is thought to be due to high concentrations of beta-glucuronidase, which increases the intestinal absorption of unconjugated bilirubin. It is important to identify the cause of prolonged jaundice as some conditions like biliary atresia require urgent surgical intervention, while others like hypothyroidism can lead to developmental delays if left untreated.

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  • Question 72 - A 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department due to breathing difficulties....

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department due to breathing difficulties. Upon examination, you observe that his lips are swollen and he has a red rash on his abdomen. After further inquiry, you discover that the breathing difficulties started after consuming a peanut butter sandwich. The boy is administered intramuscular adrenaline, which results in an improvement in his breathing. An elevated serum tryptase level is detected.

      Which specific cell is accountable for producing the immunoglobulin that caused this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Eosinophils

      Correct Answer: Plasma cells

      Explanation:

      Plasma cells are responsible for synthesising IgE. During a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction, IgE released by plasma cells can cause anaphylaxis, which can lead to symptoms such as urticarial rashes, bronchospasm, and haemodynamic collapse. Common allergens associated with anaphylaxis include peanuts, shellfish, eggs, or pollen. When IgE is released, it triggers basophil and mast cell degranulation of histamine, leading to vasodilation and bronchospasm, which can cause haemodynamic collapse.

      CD4+ lymphocytes are not responsible for synthesising IgE, as they are T-helper cells.

      Eosinophils are not responsible for synthesising IgE, as they are involved in the anti-parasitic immune response and play a role in the pathogenesis of asthma.

      Kupffer cells are not responsible for synthesising IgE, as they are specialised macrophages of the liver.

      Monocytes are not responsible for synthesising IgE, as they are white blood cells involved in the innate immune response.

      Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.

      IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.

      IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.

      IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.

      IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.

      IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.

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  • Question 73 - What is the mechanism of action of oseltamivir when prescribed for suspected influenzae?...

    Correct

    • What is the mechanism of action of oseltamivir when prescribed for suspected influenzae?

      Your Answer: Neuraminidase inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Understanding the H1N1 influenzae Pandemic

      The H1N1 influenzae pandemic, also known as swine flu, emerged in Mexico in early 2009 and was declared a global pandemic by the World Health Organization (WHO) in June of the same year. This outbreak was caused by a new strain of the H1N1 virus, which is a subtype of the influenzae A virus and the most common cause of flu in humans. The pandemic posed a significant threat to certain groups, including patients with chronic illnesses, those on immunosuppressants, pregnant women, and young children under 5 years old.

      The symptoms of H1N1 influenzae are similar to those of a typical flu-like illness, including fever, myalgia, lethargy, headache, rhinitis, sore throat, cough, and diarrhea and vomiting. However, a minority of patients may develop acute respiratory distress syndrome, which can be life-threatening and require ventilatory support.

      Currently, there are two main treatments available for H1N1 influenzae: oseltamivir (Tamiflu) and zanamivir (Relenza). Oseltamivir is an oral medication that works as a neuraminidase inhibitor, preventing new viral particles from being released by infected cells. Common side effects of oseltamivir include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and headaches. Zanamivir, on the other hand, is an inhaled medication that also works as a neuraminidase inhibitor. However, it may induce bronchospasm in asthmatics. Intravenous preparations of zanamivir are available for patients who are acutely unwell.

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  • Question 74 - A 67-year-old woman presents with several non-healing leg ulcers and a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with several non-healing leg ulcers and a history of feeling unwell for several months. During examination, her blood pressure is 138/72 mmHg, pulse is 90 bpm, and she has pale conjunctivae and poor dentition with bleeding gums. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency

      Correct Answer: Vitamin C deficiency

      Explanation:

      If you have bleeding gums and slow healing, it may indicate a lack of vitamin C.

      Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid, is an essential nutrient found in various fruits and vegetables such as citrus fruits, tomatoes, potatoes, and leafy greens. When there is a deficiency of this vitamin, it can lead to a condition called scurvy. This deficiency can cause impaired collagen synthesis and disordered connective tissue as ascorbic acid is a cofactor for enzymes used in the production of proline and lysine. Scurvy is commonly associated with severe malnutrition, drug and alcohol abuse, and poverty with limited access to fruits and vegetables.

      The symptoms and signs of scurvy include follicular hyperkeratosis and perifollicular haemorrhage, ecchymosis, easy bruising, poor wound healing, gingivitis with bleeding and receding gums, Sjogren’s syndrome, arthralgia, oedema, impaired wound healing, and generalised symptoms such as weakness, malaise, anorexia, and depression. It is important to consume a balanced diet that includes sources of vitamin C to prevent scurvy and maintain overall health.

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  • Question 75 - A 29-year-old woman, who was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anaemia secondary to...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman, who was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anaemia secondary to menorrhagia, visits the clinic complaining of persistent fatigue and exhaustion despite being prescribed iron supplements. She has a medical history of dyspepsia that is managed with omeprazole.

      What is the reason for the doctor's instruction to discontinue omeprazole?

      Your Answer: Omeprazole inhibits acid secretion which is essential for iron absorption

      Explanation:

      Iron absorption is dependent on the presence of gastric acid, which can be hindered by the use of PPIs that reduce acid production. PPIs do not have a direct impact on iron metabolism or binding, but their inhibition of acid secretion can interfere with iron absorption. While ranitidine works by blocking histamine-2 receptors to reduce acid secretion, omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that operates differently.

      Iron Metabolism: Absorption, Distribution, Transport, Storage, and Excretion

      Iron is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in various physiological processes. The absorption of iron occurs mainly in the upper small intestine, particularly the duodenum. Only about 10% of dietary iron is absorbed, and ferrous iron (Fe2+) is much better absorbed than ferric iron (Fe3+). The absorption of iron is regulated according to the body’s need and can be increased by vitamin C and gastric acid. However, it can be decreased by proton pump inhibitors, tetracycline, gastric achlorhydria, and tannin found in tea.

      The total body iron is approximately 4g, with 70% of it being present in hemoglobin, 25% in ferritin and haemosiderin, 4% in myoglobin, and 0.1% in plasma iron. Iron is transported in the plasma as Fe3+ bound to transferrin. It is stored in tissues as ferritin, and the lost iron is excreted via the intestinal tract following desquamation.

      In summary, iron metabolism involves the absorption, distribution, transport, storage, and excretion of iron in the body. Understanding these processes is crucial in maintaining iron homeostasis and preventing iron-related disorders.

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  • Question 76 - A university conducts a study to test for the effectiveness of a new...

    Incorrect

    • A university conducts a study to test for the effectiveness of a new teaching method. It turns out that in 20% of the cases, the results are not statistically significant. In other words, 20% of the time there is no difference found.

      What is the statistical power given the information above?

      Your Answer: 0.80

      Correct Answer: 0.85

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Concept of Power in Research Studies

      Power is a statistical concept that refers to the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false. In other words, it is the ability of a study to detect a clinically meaningful difference or effect. The value of power ranges from 0 to 1, with 0 indicating 0% and 1 indicating 100%. It is often expressed as 1 – beta, where beta is the probability of a Type II error. A power of 0.80 is generally considered the minimum acceptable level.

      Several factors influence the power of a study, including sample size, meaningful effect size, and significance level. Larger sample sizes lead to more accurate parameter estimations and increase the study’s ability to detect a significant effect. The meaningful effect size is determined at the beginning of the study and represents the size of the difference between two means that would lead to the rejection of the null hypothesis. Finally, the significance level, also known as the alpha level, is the probability of a Type I error. Understanding the concept of power is crucial in determining the appropriate sample size and designing a study that can accurately detect meaningful differences or effects.

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  • Question 77 - A 35-year-old patient with bronchiectasis complains of shortness of breath, fever, and productive...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient with bronchiectasis complains of shortness of breath, fever, and productive cough with green sputum. The medical team takes cultures and prescribes gentamicin as an antibiotic. What is the mode of action of gentamicin?

      Your Answer: Inhibit cell wall formation

      Correct Answer: Inhibit the 30S subunit of ribosomes

      Explanation:

      The inhibition of the 30S subunit of ribosomes is the mechanism of action of aminoglycosides such as gentamicin. By preventing the production of essential proteins required for bacterial survival, these antibiotics are effective against bacterial infections. Other antibiotics, such as macrolides, clindamycin, and chloramphenicol, inhibit the 50S subunit, while beta-lactams and Vancomycin target cell wall synthesis. Quinolones inhibit DNA synthesis, and rifampicin inhibits RNA synthesis.

      Antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis work by targeting specific components of the bacterial ribosome, which is responsible for translating genetic information into proteins. Aminoglycosides bind to the 30S subunit of the ribosome, causing errors in the reading of mRNA. Tetracyclines also bind to the 30S subunit, but block the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA. Chloramphenicol and clindamycin both bind to the 50S subunit, inhibiting different steps in the process of protein synthesis. Macrolides also bind to the 50S subunit, but specifically inhibit the movement of tRNA from the acceptor site to the peptidyl site.

      While these antibiotics can be effective in treating bacterial infections, they can also have adverse effects. Aminoglycosides are known to cause nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity, while tetracyclines can cause discolouration of teeth and photosensitivity. Chloramphenicol is associated with a rare but serious side effect called aplastic anaemia, and clindamycin is a common cause of C. difficile diarrhoea. Macrolides can cause nausea, especially erythromycin, and can also inhibit the activity of certain liver enzymes (P450) and prolong the QT interval. Despite these potential side effects, these antibiotics are still commonly used in clinical practice, particularly in patients who are allergic to penicillin.

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  • Question 78 - A child in cardiac arrest is administered adrenaline as part of their treatment....

    Incorrect

    • A child in cardiac arrest is administered adrenaline as part of their treatment. Adrenaline is frequently utilized in the management of cardiac arrest due to its impact on blood pressure and coronary perfusion.

      Which receptors do you anticipate being activated?

      Your Answer: α-1, α-2, β-1

      Correct Answer: α-1, α-2, β-1, β-2

      Explanation:

      Compared to alpha receptors, beta receptors are more strongly affected by adrenaline. Adrenaline also acts on both α-1 and α-2 receptors.

      Inotropes are drugs that primarily increase cardiac output and are different from vasoconstrictor drugs that are used for peripheral vasodilation. Catecholamine type agents are commonly used in inotropes and work by increasing cAMP levels through adenylate cyclase stimulation. This leads to intracellular calcium ion mobilisation and an increase in the force of contraction. Adrenaline works as a beta adrenergic receptor agonist at lower doses and an alpha receptor agonist at higher doses. Dopamine causes dopamine receptor-mediated renal and mesenteric vascular dilatation and beta 1 receptor agonism at higher doses, resulting in increased cardiac output. Dobutamine is a predominantly beta 1 receptor agonist with weak beta 2 and alpha receptor agonist properties. Noradrenaline is a catecholamine type agent and predominantly acts as an alpha receptor agonist and serves as a peripheral vasoconstrictor. Milrinone is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor that acts specifically on the cardiac phosphodiesterase and increases cardiac output.

      The cardiovascular receptor action of inotropes varies depending on the drug. Adrenaline and noradrenaline act on alpha and beta receptors, with adrenaline acting as a beta adrenergic receptor agonist at lower doses and an alpha receptor agonist at higher doses. Dobutamine acts predominantly on beta 1 receptors with weak beta 2 and alpha receptor agonist properties. Dopamine acts on dopamine receptors, causing renal and spleen vasodilation and beta 1 receptor agonism at higher doses. The minor receptor effects are shown in brackets. The effects of receptor binding include vasoconstriction for alpha-1 and alpha-2 receptors, increased cardiac contractility and heart rate for beta-1 receptors, and vasodilation for beta-2 receptors. D-1 receptors cause renal and spleen vasodilation, while D-2 receptors inhibit the release of noradrenaline. Overall, inotropes are a class of drugs that increase cardiac output through various receptor actions.

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  • Question 79 - A patient in his late 50s presents with megaloblastic, macrocytic anaemia due to...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in his late 50s presents with megaloblastic, macrocytic anaemia due to folate deficiency. Prior to treatment, he undergoes testing for Vitamin B12 deficiency. What is the relationship between these two vitamins?

      Your Answer: Both are found in green leafy vegetables

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B12 regenerates folic acid in the body

      Explanation:

      Vitamin B12 and folate have a close relationship in terms of their function in the body. Vitamin B12 plays a crucial role in regenerating folic acid, which is the active form of folate. Folic acid is then used in a metabolic process that eventually produces heme.

      It is important to test for vitamin B12 deficiency as treating a folate deficiency with folic acid may mask potential symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency. If left untreated, vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to peripheral neuropathy.

      While folic acid can be found in green, leafy vegetables, vitamin B12 is primarily found in animal products.

      Crohn’s disease is a common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, but it does not typically cause folate deficiency.

      During the first trimester of pregnancy, only folic acid is supplemented to prevent neural tube defects.

      Vitamin B12 is a type of water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. Unlike other vitamins, it can only be found in animal-based foods. The human body typically stores enough vitamin B12 to last for up to 5 years. This vitamin plays a crucial role in various bodily functions, including acting as a co-factor for the conversion of homocysteine into methionine through the enzyme homocysteine methyltransferase, as well as for the isomerization of methylmalonyl CoA to Succinyl Co A via the enzyme methylmalonyl mutase. Additionally, it is used to regenerate folic acid in the body.

      However, there are several causes of vitamin B12 deficiency, including pernicious anaemia, Diphyllobothrium latum infection, and Crohn’s disease. When the body lacks vitamin B12, it can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anaemia and peripheral neuropathy. To prevent these consequences, it is important to ensure that the body has enough vitamin B12 through a balanced diet or supplements.

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  • Question 80 - A 4-week-old infant born in the UK presents to the emergency department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-week-old infant born in the UK presents to the emergency department with a non-blanching rash that is rapidly progressing. The baby is irritable and has a fever. The initial diagnosis is meningitis, and further investigations are pending. What is the probable causative agent?

      Your Answer: Neisseria meningitidis

      Correct Answer: Group B streptococci

      Explanation:

      Lyme disease is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi.

      Meningitis is a serious medical condition that can be caused by various types of bacteria. The causes of meningitis differ depending on the age of the patient and their immune system. In neonates (0-3 months), the most common cause of meningitis is Group B Streptococcus, followed by E. coli and Listeria monocytogenes. In children aged 3 months to 6 years, Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Haemophilus influenzae are the most common causes. For individuals aged 6 to 60 years, Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae are the primary causes. In those over 60 years old, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, and Listeria monocytogenes are the most common causes. For immunosuppressed individuals, Listeria monocytogenes is the primary cause of meningitis.

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  • Question 81 - You are currently interested in the outcome of a clinical trial comparing a...

    Correct

    • You are currently interested in the outcome of a clinical trial comparing a new medication for non-valvular atrial fibrillation against the four currently existing direct oral anti-coagulants with the primary outcome measure being the reduction in stroke events.

      The trial is being conducted across multiple regions and includes a total of 5000 enrolled patients.

      What phase is this clinical trial currently in?

      Your Answer: Phase 3

      Explanation:

      Phase 3 studies involve a larger number of actual patients and compare the new treatment with currently available treatments. These studies typically involve around 500-5000 patients. In contrast, Phase 0 studies involve very few people and are primarily focused on testing low doses of treatment to ensure safety. Phase 1 studies involve around 100 healthy volunteers and are used to assess pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics. Phase 2 studies involve around 100-300 actual patients and aim to examine efficacy and identify any adverse effects.

      Stages of Drug Development

      Drug development is a complex process that involves several stages before a drug can be approved for marketing. The process begins with Phase 1, which involves small studies on healthy volunteers to assess the pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics of the drug. This phase typically involves around 100 participants.

      Phase 2 follows, which involves small studies on actual patients to examine the drug’s efficacy and adverse effects. This phase typically involves between 100-300 patients.

      Phase 3 is the largest phase and involves larger studies of between 500-5,000 patients. This phase examines the drug’s efficacy and adverse effects and may compare it with existing treatments. Special groups such as the elderly or those with renal issues may also be studied during this phase.

      If the drug is shown to be safe and effective, it may be approved for marketing. However, Phase 4, also known as post-marketing surveillance, is still necessary. This phase involves monitoring the drug’s safety and effectiveness in a larger population over a longer period of time.

      In summary, drug development involves several stages, each with its own specific purpose and participant size. The process is rigorous to ensure that drugs are safe and effective before they are marketed to the public.

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  • Question 82 - A 29-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by the police after...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by the police after he was reported by a bar for violent behavior. He was involved in a physical altercation with another patron and also assaulted the police officers who intervened. He claims to have special powers to protect people at the bar. Despite his agitation, he allows the doctor to examine him. On examination, his pupils are dilated and he has a heart rate of 105 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 19 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 145/94 mmHg. What treatment options are available for this patient?

      Your Answer: Benzodiazepines

      Explanation:

      The individual displayed symptoms consistent with amphetamine or cocaine intoxication, including agitated behavior and the potential for cardiac arrest and seizures. Treatment options may include benzodiazepines or alpha-blockers to manage the effects of cocaine, while flumazenil may be used for benzodiazepine intoxication. N-acetylcysteine is effective in treating paracetamol overdose by replenishing glutathione levels, and naloxone is used to manage opioid overdose, such as with heroin.

      The management of overdoses and poisonings involves specific treatments for each toxin. For example, in cases of paracetamol overdose, activated charcoal may be given if ingested within an hour, and N-acetylcysteine or liver transplantation may be necessary. Salicylate overdose may require urinary alkalinization with IV bicarbonate or haemodialysis. Opioid/opiate overdose can be treated with naloxone, while benzodiazepine overdose may require flumazenil, although this is only used in severe cases due to the risk of seizures. Tricyclic antidepressant overdose may require IV bicarbonate to reduce the risk of seizures and arrhythmias, while lithium toxicity may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline or haemodialysis. Warfarin overdose can be treated with vitamin K or prothrombin complex, while heparin overdose may require protamine sulphate. Beta-blocker overdose may require atropine or glucagon. Ethylene glycol poisoning can be treated with fomepizole or ethanol, while methanol poisoning may require the same treatment or haemodialysis. Organophosphate insecticide poisoning can be treated with atropine, and digoxin overdose may require digoxin-specific antibody fragments. Iron overdose may require desferrioxamine, and lead poisoning may require dimercaprol or calcium edetate. Carbon monoxide poisoning can be treated with 100% oxygen or hyperbaric oxygen, while cyanide poisoning may require hydroxocobalamin or a combination of amyl nitrite, sodium nitrite, and sodium thiosulfate.

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  • Question 83 - A 55-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of insomnia, sweating, tachycardia, and unintentional...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of insomnia, sweating, tachycardia, and unintentional weight loss. During the examination, the doctor notices some exophthalmos. Her blood test results reveal a TSH level of 0.05 mU/L (0.5-5.5) and a free T4 level of 36 pmol/L (9.0 - 18). After further evaluation, she is diagnosed with Graves' disease, an autoimmune disorder that causes hyperthyroidism by targeting self-antigens with autoantibodies.

      What part of the antibody monomers is involved in this condition?

      Your Answer: Fc region

      Correct Answer: Fab region

      Explanation:

      The antigen binding sites of immunoglobulins are located within the Fab region, which is composed of a constant and variable domain from both heavy and light chains. The variable domain within the Fab region is responsible for determining antigen specificity and binding. The Fc region, which is consistent across each class of immunoglobulins, interacts with cell surface receptors and determines the class effect. The epitope, or the region of the antigen that binds the antibody, is specifically located within the Fab region. While both heavy and light chains contribute to antigen binding through their variable regions, neither is solely responsible.

      Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.

      IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.

      IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.

      IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.

      IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.

      IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.

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  • Question 84 - Regarding the placebo effect, which of the following is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the placebo effect, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: Placebos can be used effectively to distinguish between true and imagined disease

      Correct Answer: The effects of placebos tend to be short lived

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Placebo Effect

      The placebo effect refers to the phenomenon where a patient experiences an improvement in their condition after receiving an inert substance or treatment that has no inherent pharmacological activity. This can include a sugar pill or a sham procedure that mimics a real medical intervention. The placebo effect is influenced by various factors, such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the patient’s expectations.

      It is important to note that the placebo effect is not the same as receiving no care, as patients who maintain contact with medical services tend to have better outcomes. The placebo response is also greater in mild illnesses and can be difficult to separate from spontaneous remission. Patients who enter randomized controlled trials (RCTs) are often acutely unwell, and their symptoms may improve regardless of the intervention.

      The placebo effect has been extensively studied in depression, where it tends to be abrupt and early in treatment, and less likely to persist compared to improvement from antidepressants. Placebo sag refers to a situation where the placebo effect is diminished with repeated use.

      Overall, the placebo effect is a complex phenomenon that is influenced by various factors and can have significant implications for medical research and treatment. Understanding the placebo effect can help healthcare professionals provide better care and improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 85 - A 75-year-old male visits his cardiology clinic for regular check-ups on his atrial...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male visits his cardiology clinic for regular check-ups on his atrial fibrillation, which was diagnosed 10 years ago with no known cause. He is currently on digoxin for rate-control, but is concerned about potential side-effects. What is a possible side-effect of this medication used for his condition?

      Your Answer: Erectile dysfunction

      Correct Answer: Gynaecomastia

      Explanation:

      Digoxin can cause gynaecomastia as a side effect. It is a cardiac glycoside that is primarily used for rate control in atrial fibrillation. Other side effects of digoxin include visual changes and gastrointestinal disturbance. Erectile dysfunction is not commonly associated with digoxin, but with beta-blockers. Hirsutism is caused by various drugs, but not commonly by digoxin. Hypotension is not a common side effect of digoxin, as it increases myocardial contractility and can actually increase blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers like verapamil and diltiazem are more commonly associated with hypotension.

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and can cause toxicity even when the concentration is within the therapeutic range.

      Toxicity may present with symptoms such as lethargy, nausea, vomiting, confusion, and yellow-green vision. Arrhythmias and gynaecomastia may also occur. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor as it increases the inhibitory effects of digoxin. Other factors include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, and various electrolyte imbalances. Certain drugs, such as amiodarone and verapamil, can also contribute to toxicity.

      If toxicity is suspected, digoxin concentrations should be measured within 8 to 12 hours of the last dose. However, plasma concentration alone does not determine toxicity. Management includes the use of Digibind, correcting arrhythmias, and monitoring potassium levels.

      In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, monitoring, and potential toxicity of digoxin is crucial for its safe and effective use in clinical practice.

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  • Question 86 - Your coworker Dr S approaches you and requests your assistance. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • Your coworker Dr S approaches you and requests your assistance. She has been experiencing dysuria, frequent urination, and has also observed a small amount of blood in her urine. She asks if you could prescribe her a course of Trimethoprim as it has worked for her in the past. She mentions that her GP practice is always overcrowded and this would be a time-saver for everyone. What would be the most appropriate action to take?

      Your Answer: Explain that it would be unethical for you to prescribe for a friend, but ask your senior if it is okay

      Correct Answer: Explain that it would be unprofessional for you to prescribe for a friend and suggests she sees her own GP

      Explanation:

      GMC Guidelines on Prescribing for Friends, Family, and Colleagues

      The General Medical Council (GMC) has issued guidelines on prescribing and managing medicines and devices. According to the guidelines, doctors should avoid prescribing medication for themselves or individuals with whom they have a close personal relationship. The GMC expects all medical professionals to adhere to these guidelines.

      The GMC’s guidance on prescribing and managing medicines and devices is clear in its stance on treating friends, family, and colleagues. The council believes that doctors should avoid prescribing medication for themselves or individuals with whom they have a close personal relationship. This is to ensure that medical professionals maintain a high level of objectivity and impartiality when treating patients. The GMC expects all medical professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that they provide the best possible care to their patients.

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  • Question 87 - A teenage patient presents with primary amenorrhoea. Upon ultrasound examination, it is discovered...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage patient presents with primary amenorrhoea. Upon ultrasound examination, it is discovered that she is missing both her Fallopian tubes and uterus. What is the typical embryological structure that gives rise to these organs?

      Your Answer: Allantois

      Correct Answer: Paramesonephric duct

      Explanation:

      The fallopian tubes, uterus, and upper 1/3 of the vagina in females are derived from the paramesonephric (Mullerian) duct, while it degenerates in males.

      The urachus is formed by the regression of the allantois.

      Structures of the head and neck are developed from the pharyngeal arches.

      The male reproductive structures are derived from the mesonephric duct.

      The internal female reproductive structures are formed from the paramesonephric duct.

      The kidney is developed from the ureteric bud.

      Urogenital Embryology: Development of Kidneys and Genitals

      During embryonic development, the urogenital system undergoes a series of changes that lead to the formation of the kidneys and genitals. The kidneys develop from the pronephros, which is rudimentary and non-functional, to the mesonephros, which functions as interim kidneys, and finally to the metanephros, which starts to function around the 9th to 10th week. The metanephros gives rise to the ureteric bud and the metanephrogenic blastema. The ureteric bud develops into the ureter, renal pelvis, collecting ducts, and calyces, while the metanephrogenic blastema gives rise to the glomerulus and renal tubules up to and including the distal convoluted tubule.

      In males, the mesonephric duct (Wolffian duct) gives rise to the seminal vesicles, epididymis, ejaculatory duct, and ductus deferens. The paramesonephric duct (Mullerian duct) degenerates by default. In females, the paramesonephric duct gives rise to the fallopian tube, uterus, and upper third of the vagina. The urogenital sinus gives rise to the bulbourethral glands in males and Bartholin glands and Skene glands in females. The genital tubercle develops into the glans penis and clitoris, while the urogenital folds give rise to the ventral shaft of the penis and labia minora. The labioscrotal swelling develops into the scrotum in males and labia majora in females.

      In summary, the development of the urogenital system is a complex process that involves the differentiation of various structures from different embryonic tissues. Understanding the embryology of the kidneys and genitals is important for diagnosing and treating congenital abnormalities and disorders of the urogenital system.

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  • Question 88 - A 59-year-old man is referred to an ophthalmologist by his physician due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man is referred to an ophthalmologist by his physician due to complaints of blurry vision and floaters. He has a medical history of type II diabetes and hypertension.

      During the slit lamp examination, the ophthalmologist observes a posterior vitreous detachment.

      The ophthalmologist explains that the cause of his symptoms is likely due to a defect in the collagen that makes up the vitreous membrane, leading to its separation from the retina.

      What type of collagen is the ophthalmologist referring to?

      Your Answer: Type IV collagen

      Correct Answer: Type II collagen

      Explanation:

      Type II collagen is the main component of the vitreous membrane, and any abnormalities in this collagen can raise the risk of vitreous haemorrhage. For more information on the various types of collagen and their respective locations, please refer to the notes provided.

      Understanding Collagen and its Associated Disorders

      Collagen is a vital protein found in connective tissue and is the most abundant protein in the human body. Although there are over 20 types of collagen, the most important ones are types I, II, III, IV, and V. Collagen is composed of three polypeptide strands that are woven into a helix, with numerous hydrogen bonds providing additional strength. Vitamin C plays a crucial role in establishing cross-links, and fibroblasts synthesize collagen.

      Disorders of collagen can range from acquired defects due to aging to rare congenital disorders. Osteogenesis imperfecta is a congenital disorder that has eight subtypes and is caused by a defect in type I collagen. Patients with this disorder have bones that fracture easily, loose joints, and other defects depending on the subtype. Ehlers Danlos syndrome is another congenital disorder that has multiple subtypes and is caused by an abnormality in types 1 and 3 collagen. Patients with this disorder have features of hypermobility and are prone to joint dislocations and pelvic organ prolapse, among other connective tissue defects.

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  • Question 89 - A 45-year-old pig farmer presents to the GP with complaints of abdominal discomfort...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old pig farmer presents to the GP with complaints of abdominal discomfort and diarrhoea. Upon initial investigations, the patient is diagnosed with a tapeworm infection. Which immunoglobulin plays a primary role in eliminating this organism?

      Your Answer: IgD

      Correct Answer: IgE

      Explanation:

      IgE provides protection against parasitic infections, particularly helminths, by providing immunity. It also triggers the release of histamine. IgA fights off various infections but not primarily parasites, and is found in saliva, tears, and breast milk. IgD plays a role in activating B cells. IgG protects against a range of pathogens and aids in the phagocytosis of viruses and bacteria. It is also involved in rhesus disease as it can cross the placenta.

      Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.

      IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.

      IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.

      IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.

      IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.

      IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.

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  • Question 90 - A 50-year-old woman comes to you complaining of persistent constipation. She reports that...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to you complaining of persistent constipation. She reports that this began approximately 2 weeks ago after she was prescribed a new medication by her cardiologist. She is visibly upset and holds him responsible. Her medical history includes hypertension, atrial fibrillation, and psoriasis.

      Which medication could potentially be causing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Clindamycin

      Correct Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Verapamil may lead to constipation as an adverse effect. Similarly, beta-blockers can cause sleep disturbances, cold peripheries, and bronchospasm (which is not recommended for individuals with asthma). Calcium channel blockers may result in ankle oedema, dyspepsia, and relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter.

      Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.

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  • Question 91 - A 56-year-old man, with a medical history of bipolar disorder, hypertension, atrial fibrillation,...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man, with a medical history of bipolar disorder, hypertension, atrial fibrillation, benign prostate hypertrophy and osteoarthritis, is admitted to the emergency department due to a suspected lithium overdose. Despite only missing his morning dose of lithium, his plasma lithium concentration is found to be abnormally high. The physician suspects that one of his medications may be the cause.

      Which medication could potentially be responsible for the abnormal results?

      Your Answer: Tamsulosin

      Correct Answer: Losartan

      Explanation:

      Lithium is a medication with a high risk of toxicity, as it has a narrow therapeutic index and a long plasma half-life. The risk of toxicity is further increased by drugs that hinder the excretion of lithium through the kidneys. These drugs include bendroflumethiazide, diuretics, NSAIDs, metronidazole, ACE inhibitors, and ATII receptor inhibitors. Additionally, any factor that impairs renal function can affect lithium excretion. In this patient, the use of losartan for hypertension may increase the risk of lithium toxicity due to reduced renal clearance, even though there has been no lithium overdose. The other medications are not known to have an increased risk of lithium toxicity.

      Lithium is a drug used to stabilize mood in patients with bipolar disorder and refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain drugs such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole. Symptoms of toxicity include coarse tremors, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and coma.

      To manage mild to moderate toxicity, volume resuscitation with normal saline may be effective. Severe toxicity may require hemodialysis. Sodium bicarbonate may also be used to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, but there is limited evidence to support its use. It is important to monitor lithium levels closely and adjust the dosage accordingly to prevent toxicity.

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  • Question 92 - Which one of the following enzymes is involved in phase I drug metabolism?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following enzymes is involved in phase I drug metabolism?

      Your Answer: N-acetyl transferases

      Correct Answer: Alcohol dehydrogenase

      Explanation:

      Understanding Drug Metabolism: Phase I and Phase II Reactions

      Drug metabolism involves two types of biochemical reactions, namely phase I and phase II reactions. Phase I reactions include oxidation, reduction, and hydrolysis, which are mainly performed by P450 enzymes. However, some drugs are metabolized by specific enzymes such as alcohol dehydrogenase and xanthine oxidase. The products of phase I reactions are typically more active and potentially toxic. On the other hand, phase II reactions involve conjugation, where glucuronyl, acetyl, methyl, sulphate, and other groups are typically involved. The products of phase II reactions are typically inactive and excreted in urine or bile. The majority of phase I and phase II reactions take place in the liver.

      First-Pass Metabolism and Drugs Affected by Zero-Order Kinetics and Acetylator Status

      First-pass metabolism is a phenomenon where the concentration of a drug is greatly reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation due to hepatic metabolism. This effect is seen in many drugs, including aspirin, isosorbide dinitrate, glyceryl trinitrate, lignocaine, propranolol, verapamil, isoprenaline, testosterone, and hydrocortisone.

      Zero-order kinetics describe metabolism that is independent of the concentration of the reactant. This is due to metabolic pathways becoming saturated, resulting in a constant amount of drug being eliminated per unit time. Drugs exhibiting zero-order kinetics include phenytoin, salicylates (e.g. high-dose aspirin), heparin, and ethanol.

      Acetylator status is also an important consideration in drug metabolism. Approximately 50% of the UK population are deficient in hepatic N-acetyltransferase. Drugs affected by acetylator status include isoniazid, procainamide, hydralazine, dapsone, and sulfasalazine. Understanding these concepts is important in predicting drug efficacy and toxicity, as well as in optimizing drug dosing.

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  • Question 93 - At what age is a child most vulnerable to infection due to their...

    Incorrect

    • At what age is a child most vulnerable to infection due to their underdeveloped humoral response, and what type of antibodies can they receive from their mother during pregnancy?

      A child in the early stages of life may be susceptible to infections as their humoral response is not yet fully developed. However, during pregnancy, a mother can pass on some immunity to her child through the placenta. Which specific type of antibodies are capable of crossing the placental barrier?

      Your Answer: IgM

      Correct Answer: IgG

      Explanation:

      IgG is the sole antibody that can cross the placenta and complement deficiencies. This is achieved through receptor-mediated active transport, which is highly specific to IgG. The transfer of this antibody is contingent on a healthy placenta. The transfer process commences at 17 weeks of gestation and intensifies to the point where fetal IgG levels surpass maternal levels at 40 weeks. No other antibodies are transferred.

      Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.

      IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.

      IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.

      IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.

      IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.

      IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.

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  • Question 94 - A 30-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of toothache that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of toothache that has been bothering him for two days. He is prescribed a new anti-inflammatory medication that works by preventing the conversion of arachidonic acid to endoperoxides.

      What specific enzyme is likely being inhibited by this drug?

      Your Answer: Phospholipase A

      Correct Answer: Cyclooxygenase

      Explanation:

      The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves several steps, with cyclooxygenase playing a key role in converting it to endoperoxides. Additionally, lipoxygenase is responsible for the conversion of arachidonic acid to hydroperoxyeicosatetraenoic acid (HPETEs), while phospholipase A breaks down phospholipids to release arachidonic acid. The end products of arachidonic acid metabolism include leukotrienes A4, B4, C4, D4, and E4.

      Arachidonic Acid Metabolism: The Role of Leukotrienes and Endoperoxides

      Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid that plays a crucial role in the body’s inflammatory response. The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves the production of various compounds, including leukotrienes and endoperoxides. Leukotrienes are produced by leukocytes and can cause constriction of the lungs. LTB4 is produced before leukocytes arrive, while the rest of the leukotrienes (A, C, D, and E) cause lung constriction.

      Endoperoxides, on the other hand, are produced by the cyclooxygenase enzyme and can lead to the formation of thromboxane and prostacyclin. Thromboxane is associated with platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, which can lead to thrombosis. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and can cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation.

      Understanding the metabolism of arachidonic acid and the role of these compounds can help in the development of treatments for inflammatory conditions and cardiovascular diseases.

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  • Question 95 - A 56-year-old teacher presents to her GP with increasing fatigue, weakness, and weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old teacher presents to her GP with increasing fatigue, weakness, and weight loss. She has a medical history of type II diabetes mellitus and osteoarthritis in her right knee. Her father passed away from dilated cardiomyopathy at age 47. During examination, she has multiple spider naevi on her chest and appears tanned. She does not smoke and only drinks during Christmas. Abdominal examination reveals hepatomegaly, but no other signs. Recent genetic testing at home has shown that she is HLA-A3 positive. Blood tests indicate an elevated ferritin and increased transferrin saturation. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD/NASH)

      Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for the patient with liver cirrhosis, based on blood and genetic testing, is haemochromatosis. This condition is linked to HLA-A3, which is strongly associated with the mutated HFE gene responsible for the disease. While other options may cause liver disease, they do not explain the blood results or have a connection to HLA-A3. Wilson’s disease may also have neurological symptoms, and Goodpasture’s disease affects the kidneys and lungs, not the liver.

      HLA Associations: Diseases and Antigens

      HLA antigens are proteins encoded by genes on chromosome 6. There are two classes of HLA antigens: class I (HLA A, B, and C) and class II (HLA DP, DQ, and DR). Diseases can be strongly associated with certain HLA antigens. For example, HLA-A3 is associated with haemochromatosis, HLA-B51 with Behcet’s disease, and HLA-B27 with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, and acute anterior uveitis. Coeliac disease is associated with HLA-DQ2/DQ8, while narcolepsy and Goodpasture’s are associated with HLA-DR2. Dermatitis herpetiformis, Sjogren’s syndrome, and primary biliary cirrhosis are associated with HLA-DR3. Finally, type 1 diabetes mellitus is associated with HLA-DR3 but more strongly associated with HLA-DR4, specifically the DRB1 gene (DRB1*04:01 and DRB1*04:04).

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  • Question 96 - A woman in her 30s has recently delivered a baby boy without any...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her 30s has recently delivered a baby boy without any complications despite having systemic lupus erythematosus. What immunoglobulins could potentially be decreased in her breast milk?

      Your Answer: IgE

      Correct Answer: IgA

      Explanation:

      IgA is present in secretions like saliva, tears, and mucous. However, individuals with autoimmune disorders such as rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and coeliac disease may have a deficiency of IgA. IgA is also present in breast milk, providing a temporary boost to the infant’s immune system during the early stages of life. On the other hand, IgD, IgE, and IgG are not present in breast milk. IgG, however, can cross the placenta, allowing the transfer of antibodies from the mother to the fetus during pregnancy.

      Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.

      IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.

      IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.

      IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.

      IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.

      IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.

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  • Question 97 - A 5-year-old male is found to have a small head, a smooth philtrum,...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old male is found to have a small head, a smooth philtrum, and epicanthic folds. He also experiences cyanosis when exerting himself and has difficulty eating due to a cleft palate. Based on this presentation, what is the child at higher risk for?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary hypoplasia

      Correct Answer: Recurrent infections

      Explanation:

      The child’s symptoms suggest that they may have DiGeorge syndrome (22q11 deletion), which is characterized by thymus hypoplasia leading to recurrent infections. Other symptoms associated with this condition can be remembered using the acronym CATCH-22, which includes cardiac anomalies, abnormal facies, cleft palate, hypoparathyroidism leading to hypocalcaemia, and the location of the deletion on chromosome 22.

      Atopic conditions such as eczema, allergies, and asthma are also common in some individuals.

      Premature aortic sclerosis is often seen in individuals with Turner syndrome (45 XO), while pulmonary hypoplasia is associated with the Potter sequence. Elevated cholesterol levels may be caused by a genetic hypercholesterolaemia syndrome.

      DiGeorge syndrome, also known as velocardiofacial syndrome and 22q11.2 deletion syndrome, is a primary immunodeficiency disorder that results from a microdeletion of a section of chromosome 22. This autosomal dominant condition is characterized by T-cell deficiency and dysfunction, which puts individuals at risk of viral and fungal infections. Other features of DiGeorge syndrome include hypoplasia of the parathyroid gland, which can lead to hypocalcaemic tetany, and thymus hypoplasia.

      The presentation of DiGeorge syndrome can vary, but it can be remembered using the mnemonic CATCH22. This stands for cardiac abnormalities, abnormal facies, thymic aplasia, cleft palate, hypocalcaemia/hypoparathyroidism, and the fact that it is caused by a deletion on chromosome 22. Overall, DiGeorge syndrome is a complex disorder that affects multiple systems in the body and requires careful management and monitoring.

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  • Question 98 - A new screening tool for predicting a person's risk of developing hypertension is...

    Incorrect

    • A new screening tool for predicting a person's risk of developing hypertension is being evaluated. The study includes 2400 participants. Among them, 900 were later diagnosed with hypertension. Out of these 900 participants, 180 had received a negative screening result. Additionally, 480 participants who did not develop hypertension were falsely identified as positive by the screening tool.

      What is the specificity of this new hypertension screening tool?

      Your Answer: 75%

      Correct Answer: 68%

      Explanation:

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 99 - You are a student observing a routine cholecystectomy procedure as part of your...

    Incorrect

    • You are a student observing a routine cholecystectomy procedure as part of your clinical placement in a general surgical unit. The patient is a 49-year-old woman with a medical history of asthma and current cholecystitis.

      During the induction of anaesthesia, the patient's vital signs rapidly deteriorate. Her blood pressure drops to 80/60mmHg, heart rate increases to 148bpm, and she requires increased ventilatory pressure. The anaesthetist suspects a drug reaction.

      What is the primary biochemical agent responsible for this drug reaction, given the most likely mechanism?

      Your Answer: Bradykinin

      Correct Answer: Histamine

      Explanation:

      The cause of anaphylactic shock is the recognition of an antigen by IgE molecules on mast cells, leading to rapid degranulation and the release of histamine and other inflammatory cytokines. In this case, the patient’s symptoms of hypotension, tachycardia, and airway collapse following administration of anaesthetic medications, along with their history of asthma, suggest anaphylaxis as the cause.

      The correct answer to the question of which mediator is primarily involved in anaphylactic reactions is histamine. Histamine is a potent vasodilator and can increase vascular permeability, leading to haemodynamic instability when released in excess.

      Bradykinin is not primarily involved in anaphylactic reactions, but rather in angioedema associated with ACE-inhibitor toxicity.

      Complement is not primarily involved in anaphylactic reactions, but rather in type-2 hypersensitivity reactions such as in the context of penicillin allergy.

      Immune complexes are not primarily involved in anaphylactic reactions, but rather in type-3 hypersensitivity reactions such as glomerulonephritis, various forms of arthritis, and anti-venom vasculitis.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.

      The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.

      Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12

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  • Question 100 - Which of the following drugs is not associated with thrombocytopenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs is not associated with thrombocytopenia?

      Your Answer: Abciximab

      Correct Answer: Warfarin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Drug-Induced Thrombocytopenia

      Drug-induced thrombocytopenia is a condition where a person’s platelet count drops due to the use of certain medications. This condition is believed to be immune-mediated, meaning that the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys platelets. Some of the drugs that have been associated with drug-induced thrombocytopenia include quinine, abciximab, NSAIDs, diuretics like furosemide, antibiotics such as penicillins, sulphonamides, and rifampicin, and anticonvulsants like carbamazepine and valproate. Heparin, a commonly used blood thinner, is also known to cause drug-induced thrombocytopenia. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to consult with a healthcare provider if any concerning symptoms arise. Proper management and monitoring of drug-induced thrombocytopenia can help prevent serious complications.

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  • Question 101 - A 10-year-old boy is prescribed erythromycin for a lower respiratory tract infection. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is prescribed erythromycin for a lower respiratory tract infection. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Disruption of cell membrane

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of protein synthesis

      Explanation:

      Macrolides work by inhibiting protein synthesis through their action on the 50S subunit of ribosomes. This class of antibiotics, which includes erythromycin, does not inhibit cell wall synthesis, topoisomerase IV enzyme, or disrupt the cell membrane, which are mechanisms of action for other types of antibiotics.

      Antibiotics work in different ways to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The commonly used antibiotics can be classified based on their gross mechanism of action. The first group inhibits cell wall formation by either preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) or peptidoglycan synthesis (glycopeptides like vancomycin). The second group inhibits protein synthesis by acting on either the 50S subunit (macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins) or the 30S subunit (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines) of the bacterial ribosome. The third group inhibits DNA synthesis (quinolones like ciprofloxacin) or damages DNA (metronidazole). The fourth group inhibits folic acid formation (sulphonamides and trimethoprim), while the fifth group inhibits RNA synthesis (rifampicin). Understanding the mechanism of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a particular bacterial infection.

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  • Question 102 - A 30-year-old female arrives at the antenatal emergency unit with vaginal bleeding. After...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female arrives at the antenatal emergency unit with vaginal bleeding. After diagnosis, she is treated for a miscarriage using misoprostol.

      Misoprostol is an agonist of the prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) receptor, which is a type of G-protein coupled receptor. Can you identify another receptor that is transduced in the same manner?

      Your Answer: Glucocorticoid receptor

      Correct Answer: Adrenoceptors

      Explanation:

      Adrenoceptors belong to the G-protein coupled receptor family, while the glucocorticoid and oestrogen receptors are steroid receptors, and the epidermal growth factor receptor is a receptor tyrosine kinase.

      Adrenoceptors are a type of receptor found in the body that respond to the hormone adrenaline. There are four main types of adrenoceptors: alpha-1, alpha-2, beta-1, and beta-2. Each type of adrenoceptor is responsible for different physiological responses in the body.

      Alpha-1 adrenoceptors are found in various tissues throughout the body and are responsible for vasoconstriction, relaxation of GI smooth muscle, salivary secretion, and hepatic glycogenolysis. On the other hand, alpha-2 adrenoceptors are mainly presynaptic and inhibit the release of neurotransmitters such as norepinephrine and acetylcholine from autonomic nerves. They also inhibit insulin and promote platelet aggregation.

      Beta-1 adrenoceptors are mainly located in the heart and are responsible for increasing heart rate and force. Beta-2 adrenoceptors, on the other hand, are found in various tissues such as the lungs, blood vessels, and GI tract. They are responsible for vasodilation, bronchodilation, and relaxation of GI smooth muscle. Lastly, beta-3 adrenoceptors are found in adipose tissue and promote lipolysis.

      All adrenoceptors are G-protein coupled, meaning they activate intracellular signaling pathways when activated by adrenaline. Alpha-1 adrenoceptors activate phospholipase C, which leads to the production of inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG). Alpha-2 adrenoceptors inhibit adenylate cyclase, while beta-1 and beta-2 adrenoceptors stimulate adenylate cyclase. Beta-3 adrenoceptors also stimulate adenylate cyclase.

      In summary, adrenoceptors play a crucial role in regulating various physiological responses in the body. Understanding their functions and signaling pathways can help in the development of drugs that target these receptors for therapeutic purposes.

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  • Question 103 - A 67-year-old male patient visits the neurology clinic for a routine follow-up of...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old male patient visits the neurology clinic for a routine follow-up of his Parkinson's disease, which he has been diagnosed with for a few years now. Despite trying various medications, the patient's symptoms have been progressively deteriorating. The neurologist decides to add amantadine to his treatment regimen, in addition to other medications. Apart from its dopaminergic effects, the drug also possesses antiviral properties.

      What is the mechanism of action of amantadine's antiviral activity?

      Your Answer: Inhibits uncoating of virus in cell

      Explanation:

      Amantadine inhibits the uncoating of viruses in cells by targeting the M2 protein channel. Although it is no longer commonly used to treat influenzae, its mechanism of action is still relevant for exams. Amantadine also has the ability to release dopamine from nerve endings.

      Interferon-alpha is an antiviral agent that inhibits mRNA synthesis and is used to treat chronic hepatitis B and C.

      Oseltamivir works by inhibiting neuraminidase and is used to treat influenzae.

      acyclovir and ganciclovir inhibit viral DNA polymerase and are used to treat various viral infections, including varicella-zoster virus and herpes simplex virus.

      Ribavirin interferes with the capping of viral mRNA and is used to treat chronic hepatitis C.

      Antiviral agents are drugs used to treat viral infections. They work by targeting specific mechanisms of the virus, such as inhibiting viral DNA polymerase or neuraminidase. Some common antiviral agents include acyclovir, ganciclovir, ribavirin, amantadine, oseltamivir, foscarnet, interferon-α, and cidofovir. Each drug has its own mechanism of action and indications for use, but they all aim to reduce the severity and duration of viral infections.

      In addition to these antiviral agents, there are also specific drugs used to treat HIV, a retrovirus. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), protease inhibitors (PI), and non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI) are all used to target different aspects of the HIV life cycle. NRTIs work by inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is needed for the virus to replicate. PIs inhibit a protease enzyme that is necessary for the virus to mature and become infectious. NNRTIs bind to and inhibit the reverse transcriptase enzyme, preventing the virus from replicating. These drugs are often used in combination to achieve the best possible outcomes for HIV patients.

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