00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - What is the correct statement regarding the juxtaglomerular apparatus? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding the juxtaglomerular apparatus?

      Your Answer: Renin is secreted in response to a raised sodium level at the macula densa

      Correct Answer: A fall in pressure in the afferent arteriole promotes renin secretion

      Explanation:

      Renin secretion and the role of the macula densa and juxtaglomerular cells

      Renin is an enzyme that plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. It is secreted by juxtaglomerular cells, which are modified smooth muscle cells located in the wall of the afferent arterioles. Renin secretion is stimulated by a fall in renal perfusion pressure, which can be detected by baroreceptors in the afferent arterioles. Additionally, reduced sodium delivery to the macula densa, a specialized region of the distal convoluted tubule, can also stimulate renin production. However, it is important to note that the macula densa itself does not secrete renin. Understanding the mechanisms behind renin secretion can help in the diagnosis and treatment of conditions such as hypertension and kidney disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old computer programmer presented with blood in the urine. It was painless...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old computer programmer presented with blood in the urine. It was painless and not associated with any obstructive feature. On examination, his blood pressure was found to be 166/90 mmHg, although his earlier medical check-up 1 year ago was normal. His only past history was nephrotic syndrome 6 years ago, which was diagnosed histologically as minimal change disease and treated successfully. Urine examination revealed blood only with a trace of protein. He is not currently taking any drugs.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bladder carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Renal arteriovenous (AV) fistula

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Hypertension and Haematuria in a Patient with a History of Nephrotic Syndrome

      Renal arteriovenous (AV) fistula is a possible cause of hypertension and haematuria in a patient with a history of nephrotic syndrome. This condition may develop after renal biopsy or trauma, which are risk factors for the formation of renal AVMs. Acquired causes account for 70-80% of renal AVMs, and up to 15% of patients who undergo renal biopsy may develop renal fistulae. However, most patients remain asymptomatic. Hypertension in renal AVM is caused by relative renal hypoperfusion distal to the malformation, which activates the renin-angiotensin system. Pre-existing kidney disease is a risk factor for the development of AVM after biopsy. Renal AVMs may produce bruits in the flanks and vermiform blood clots in the urine. Sudden pain in a patient with renal AVM may be due to intrarenal haemorrhage or blood clot obstruction of the ureters. Renal vein thrombosis is unlikely in a patient in remission from nephrotic syndrome. Renal stones are not a likely cause of painless haematuria in this patient. Bladder carcinoma is not a likely cause of hypertension in a young patient without relevant environmental risk factors. Therefore, an AV fistula formation after biopsy is the most likely diagnosis.

      Possible Causes of Hypertension and Haematuria in a Patient with a History of Nephrotic Syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      66.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old man with chronic kidney disease has recently received a renal transplant....

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with chronic kidney disease has recently received a renal transplant. After three months he starts to feel unwell with flu-like symptoms, fever, and pain over the transplant area.
      What is the most likely type of reaction that has occurred in the patient?

      Your Answer: Acute graft failure

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Graft Failure After Transplantation

      Acute graft failure is a type of graft failure that occurs within six months after transplantation. If a patient presents with symptoms such as fever, flu-like symptoms, and pain over the transplant after three months, it may indicate acute graft failure. This type of failure is usually caused by mismatched human leukocyte antigen and may be reversible with steroids and immunosuppressants.

      Wound infection is not a likely cause of symptoms after three months since any wounds from the transplant would have healed by then. Chronic graft failure, on the other hand, occurs after six months to a year following the transplant and is caused by a combination of B- and T-cell-mediated immunity, infection, and previous occurrences of acute graft rejections.

      Hyperacute rejection is a rare type of graft failure that occurs within minutes to hours after transplantation. It happens because of pre-existing antibodies towards the donor before transplantation. In cases of hyperacute rejection, removal of the organ and re-transplantation is necessary.

      It is important to understand the different types of graft failure after transplantation to properly diagnose and treat patients who may be experiencing symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 54-year-old woman presents with back and flank pain affecting both sides. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman presents with back and flank pain affecting both sides. She has been diagnosed some years ago with antiphospholipid antibody syndrome and has suffered from a previous deep vein thrombosis. On assessment, temperature is 36.7oC, heart rate is 76 bpm, blood pressure 128/80 mmHg and she is still passing urine.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 6.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 17.3 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 325 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Urine proteinuria +++
      Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bilateral renal vein thrombosis

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Bilateral Flank Pain, Renal Failure, and Proteinuria

      Bilateral flank pain, renal failure, and marked proteinuria can be caused by various conditions. One possible diagnosis is bilateral renal vein thrombosis, especially if the patient has a history of antiphospholipid antibody syndrome and previous deep vein thrombosis. Other causes of renal vein thrombosis include extrinsic compression of the renal vein by a tumour or a retroperitoneal mass, invasion of the renal vein or inferior vena cava by a tumour, or nephrotic syndrome that increases coagulability. Abdominal ultrasound and angiography can help diagnose renal vein thrombosis, and anticoagulation is the main treatment.

      Bilateral ureteric obstruction can cause anuria, while bilateral pyelonephritis can cause sepsis and leukocytes and nitrites in the urine. Medullary sponge kidney, a congenital disorder that causes cystic dilation of the collecting ducts in one or both kidneys, may present with haematuria or nephrocalcinosis but does not affect renal function. Bilateral renal artery stenosis can cause uncontrollable hypertension and reduced renal function but not pain. Therefore, a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 49-year-old man, with known polycystic kidney disease (PKD), presents with acute-onset fever,...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man, with known polycystic kidney disease (PKD), presents with acute-onset fever, left mid-back pain and occasional chills. He has no dysuria or haematuria. The left renal angle is tender. The white cell count is 27.8 × 109/l, with 92% of neutrophils (54–62%). What is the most appropriate diagnostic tool to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood culture

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing and Treating Infection in Kidney Cysts: Medical Tests and Procedures

      Infection in kidney cysts is a common complication in patients with polycystic kidney disease (PKD). However, diagnosing and treating this condition can be challenging. Here are some medical tests and procedures that are commonly used to diagnose and treat infection in kidney cysts.

      Blood Culture
      Blood cultures are more reliable than urine cultures in detecting infection in kidney cysts. Gram-negative bacteria are the most common cause of infection in these cases. Antibiotics such as fluoroquinolones, co-trimoxazole, or chloramphenicol are often used to treat the infection. Treatment may last for 4-6 weeks, and surgical drainage may be necessary in some cases.

      Computed Tomography (CT) Scan of the Abdomen
      CT scans can detect internal echoes in one or more cysts, but they cannot differentiate between infection and hemorrhage. Therefore, CT scans alone cannot confirm an infection.

      Urine Culture
      Urine cultures may be unreliable in detecting infection in kidney cysts because cysts often have no communication with the collecting system.

      Ultrasonography of the Kidneys
      Ultrasonography can detect internal echoes within a cyst, but it cannot differentiate between infection and hemorrhage.

      Scintiscan of the Kidneys
      Scintiscans are not used to diagnose infected cysts.

      In conclusion, diagnosing and treating infection in kidney cysts can be challenging. Blood cultures are the most reliable test for detecting infection, and antibiotics such as fluoroquinolones, co-trimoxazole, or chloramphenicol are often used to treat the infection. CT scans and ultrasonography can detect internal echoes in cysts, but they cannot differentiate between infection and hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 20-year-old African-Caribbean woman with sickle-cell anaemia presents with acute kidney injury. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old African-Caribbean woman with sickle-cell anaemia presents with acute kidney injury. Her only medication is hydroxycarbamide (hydroxyurea).
      What is the most probable reason for her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal papillary necrosis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Acute Kidney Injury

      Acute kidney injury (AKI) can be caused by various factors. One of the causes is renal papillary necrosis, which is commonly associated with sickle-cell anaemia. This occurs when sickled red blood cells cause infarction and necrosis of renal papillae. Other causes of renal papillary necrosis include diabetes mellitus, acute pyelonephritis, and chronic paracetamol use.

      Another cause of AKI is hypoperfusion of renal tubules from hypotension. This happens when there is a decrease in blood pressure due to shock or dehydration, leading to the hypoperfusion of renal tubules and acute tubular necrosis.

      Drug-induced interstitial nephritis is also a cause of AKI. This occurs when there is an allergic reaction to certain drugs such as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, antibiotics, and loop diuretics. Eosinophils in the urine are associated with this type of AKI.

      Pyelonephritis from Salmonella species is not a cause of AKI in patients with sickle-cell disease. However, diffuse cortical necrosis is a rare cause of AKI associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation, especially in obstetric emergencies such as abruptio placentae.

      In conclusion, AKI can be caused by various factors, and it is important to identify the underlying cause to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 72-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with haematuria and haemoptysis. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with haematuria and haemoptysis. His vital signs are heart rate 88 bpm, blood pressure 170/110 mmHg, respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute, and temperature 37.8 °C. Urinalysis shows protein and red cell casts. Serum testing reveals antibodies to the glomerular basement membrane. A renal biopsy is conducted.
      What is the probable finding in the renal biopsy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Linear immunofluorescence

      Explanation:

      Different Renal Pathologies and their Histological Features

      Nephritic syndrome is a condition characterized by proteinuria, haematuria, and hypertension. Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies suggest hypersensitivity angiitis (Goodpasture’s syndrome) as the underlying cause. In hypersensitivity angiitis, crescents are seen on light microscopy of a renal biopsy specimen. Immunofluorescence shows linear IgG deposits along the basement membrane.

      Diffuse membranous glomerulonephritis is characterized by ‘wire looping’ of capillaries. Hereditary nephritis (Alport syndrome) shows splitting of the basement membrane and is associated with deafness. Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, typically seen in children, shows a ‘lumpy bumpy’ appearance of the glomeruli. Immunoglobulin A (IgA) nephropathy is characterized by immune complex deposition in the basement membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 4-year-old child is brought to their General Practitioner (GP) with failure to...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old child is brought to their General Practitioner (GP) with failure to thrive. His parents complain that he drinks a lot of water and urinates frequently and is not growing very well. The GP does blood and urine tests and diagnoses Fanconi syndrome.
      Which of the following features would you most likely see in Fanconi syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Fanconi Syndrome: Symptoms and Causes

      Fanconi syndrome is a condition that affects the function of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) in the kidneys, leading to a general impairment of reabsorption of amino acids, potassium, bicarbonate, phosphate, and glucose. This can be caused by various factors, including inherited disorders, acquired tubule damage, or idiopathic reasons. Common symptoms of Fanconi syndrome include polyuria, hypophosphatemia, acidosis, and hypokalemia. It is important to note that patients with Fanconi syndrome may experience oliguria due to the lack of reabsorption of solutes, leading to water loss. Contrary to popular belief, patients with Fanconi syndrome may experience acidosis rather than alkalosis due to the lack of reabsorption of bicarbonate in the PCT. Additionally, hypophosphatemia, rather than hyperphosphatemia, is seen in patients with Fanconi syndrome, as the impaired reabsorption of phosphate through the proximal tubules is a common feature. Finally, patients with Fanconi syndrome tend to present with hypokalemia rather than hyperkalemia due to the impaired reabsorption and increased secretion of potassium caused by the disturbance of the PCT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 60-year-old man has been asked to visit his GP because of abnormal...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man has been asked to visit his GP because of abnormal renal function tests for the past two months. His GFR reading has been consistently 35 ml/min. What stage of CKD is this patient exhibiting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: This patient does not meet the criteria for CKD

      Explanation:

      Understanding Chronic Kidney Disease Stages

      Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) is a condition that affects the kidneys and their ability to filter waste from the blood. To diagnose CKD, a patient must have a GFR (glomerular filtration rate) of less than 60 ml/min for at least three months. This is the primary criteria for CKD diagnosis.

      There are five stages of CKD, each with different GFR values and symptoms. Stage 1 CKD presents with a GFR greater than 90 ml/min and some signs of kidney damage. Stage 3a CKD presents with a GFR of 45-59 ml/min, while stage 3b CKD patients have a GFR of 30-44 ml/min. However, both stage 3a and 3b require the GFR to be present for at least three months.

      There is no stage 4a CKD. Instead, stage 4 CKD patients have a GFR of 15-29 ml/min. It is important to understand the different stages of CKD to properly diagnose and treat patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old woman with haematuria underwent a kidney biopsy, but light microscopy results...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with haematuria underwent a kidney biopsy, but light microscopy results were inconclusive. As a result, the specimen was sent for electron microscopy. Which renal disease requires electron microscopy for diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thin membrane disease

      Explanation:

      Renal Diseases and their Diagnostic Methods

      Renal diseases can be diagnosed through various methods, including electron microscopy, blood tests, and renal biopsy. Here are some examples:

      Thin Membrane Disease: Electron microscopy is crucial in diagnosing thin membrane disease, as well as Alport syndrome and fibrillary glomerulopathy.

      Anti-GBM Disease: Blood tests for anti-GBM can confirm Goodpasture’s syndrome, but a renal biopsy can also be taken to show IgG deposits along the basement membrane.

      Lupus Nephritis: While electron microscopy can show dense immune deposits in lupus nephritis, diagnosis can also be made through immunofluorescence without the need for electron microscopy.

      IgA Nephropathy: A renal biopsy can confirm IgA nephropathy, showing mesangium proliferation and IgA deposits on immunofluorescence.

      Churg-Strauss Syndrome: Also known as eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA), Churg-Strauss syndrome can be diagnosed through blood tests showing high eosinophils and ANCA, as well as renal biopsy showing eosinophil granulomas.

      Diagnostic Methods for Renal Diseases

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 54-year-old woman with a long-standing history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman with a long-standing history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to clinic complaining of swelling in her ankles, face and fingers. She states she can no longer wear her wedding ring because her fingers are too swollen. On examination, her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg; she has pitting oedema in her ankles and notably swollen fingers and face. Her blood results show:
      Investigation Results Normal value
      Creatinine 353.6 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Phosphate 1.9 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) Elevated
      Urinalysis 3+ glucose, 3+ protein
      Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of this woman's increased PTH?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Secondary Hyperparathyroidism

      Secondary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that occurs when the parathyroid glands produce too much parathyroid hormone (PTH) in response to low calcium levels in the blood. This can be caused by a variety of factors, including chronic renal failure, vitamin D excess, and the use of certain medications like diuretics.

      In cases of chronic renal failure, decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR) can lead to raised creatinine levels and proteinuria. This can cause diabetic nephropathy, which can result in hyperphosphataemia and secondary hyperparathyroidism. Over time, this can also lead to osteoporosis as a long-term complication of hyperparathyroidism.

      Vitamin D excess is another cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism, but it is associated with low phosphate levels rather than hyperphosphataemia. In cases of parathyroid adenoma, a less likely cause in this patient, there is an overproduction of PTH by a benign tumor in the parathyroid gland.

      Finally, the use of diuretics can increase phosphate excretion, leading to hypophosphataemia. This can also contribute to the development of secondary hyperparathyroidism.

      Understanding the various causes of secondary hyperparathyroidism is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. By addressing the underlying condition, it may be possible to reduce the production of PTH and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A middle-aged woman with a history of renal cell carcinoma complains of swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged woman with a history of renal cell carcinoma complains of swelling in both legs extending from the groin area and dilated veins around the belly button. What is the underlying mechanism responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava obstruction

      Explanation:

      Causes of Bilateral Lower Limb Edema: Differential Diagnosis

      Bilateral lower limb edema can have various causes, and a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying condition. In this case, the patient presents with inferior vena cava obstruction, which is caused by extrinsic compression from a renal mass. This obstruction prevents venous drainage of the lower limbs and leads to bilateral edema and distended superficial abdominal veins. Other causes of bilateral lower limb edema include hyponatremia, hypoalbuminemia, deep venous thrombosis, and heart failure. However, each of these conditions presents with distinct symptoms and signs. Hyponatremia and hypoalbuminemia cause generalized edema, while deep venous thrombosis presents with painful swelling and erythema in the affected limb. Heart failure also causes bilateral dependent edema but does not lead to venous engorgement and dilated veins around the umbilicus. Therefore, a careful evaluation of the patient’s history, physical examination, and laboratory tests is crucial to establish the correct diagnosis and initiate appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 59-year-old man has been undergoing regular haemodialysis for the past 6 years....

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man has been undergoing regular haemodialysis for the past 6 years. He previously had an AV fistula in his left arm, but it became infected 4 years ago and was no longer functional. Currently, he is receiving dialysis through an AV fistula in his right forearm. He presents with pain in his right hand and wrist. Upon examination, there is redness and a necrotic ulcer on his right middle finger. His right hand strength is normal. He is not experiencing any constitutional symptoms and is not taking any medications. He had undergone uncomplicated dialysis the day before. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Distal hypoperfusion ischaemic syndrome (DHIS)

      Explanation:

      Possible Complications of AV Fistula in Dialysis Patients

      AV fistula is a common vascular access for patients undergoing dialysis. However, it can lead to various complications, including distal hypoperfusion ischaemic syndrome (DHIS). DHIS, also known as steal syndrome, occurs when blood flow is shunted through the fistula, causing distal ischaemia, which can result in ulcers and necrosis. Surgical revision or banding of the fistula may be necessary in severe cases. Older patients with atherosclerotic arteries are more prone to DHIS. Other possible complications include unrelated local pathology, infected AV fistula, infective endocarditis, and thrombosis with distal embolisation. It is important to identify and manage these complications promptly to prevent further harm to the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 68-year-old woman was admitted to hospital seven days ago with moderate symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman was admitted to hospital seven days ago with moderate symptoms of community-acquired pneumonia and was treated with amoxicillin. She has developed a fever, maculopapular skin rash and haematuria over the last two days. You suspect that her new symptoms may be due to acute tubulointerstitial nephritis caused by a reaction to the amoxicillin she was given.
      Which of the following investigations would provide a definitive diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kidney biopsy

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Tubulointerstitial Nephritis

      Tubulointerstitial nephritis is a condition that affects the kidneys and can lead to renal failure if left untreated. There are several investigations that can be done to help diagnose this condition.

      Kidney Biopsy: This is the most definitive investigation for tubulointerstitial nephritis. It involves taking a small sample of kidney tissue for examination under a microscope. This is usually only done if other tests have been inconclusive or if the diagnosis is unclear.

      Full Blood Count: This test can help identify the presence of eosinophilia, which is often seen in cases of tubulointerstitial nephritis. However, the absence of eosinophilia does not rule out the condition.

      Kidney Ultrasound: This test can help rule out other conditions such as chronic renal failure, hydronephrosis, or renal calculi. In cases of tubulointerstitial nephritis, the kidneys may appear enlarged and echogenic due to inflammation.

      Serum Urea and Electrolytes: This test measures the levels of urea and creatinine in the blood, which can be elevated in cases of tubulointerstitial nephritis.

      Urinalysis: This test can detect the presence of low-grade proteinuria, white blood cell casts, and sterile pyuria, which are all indicative of tubulointerstitial nephritis. However, it is not a definitive diagnostic tool.

      In conclusion, a combination of these investigations can help diagnose tubulointerstitial nephritis and guide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 16-year-old adolescent presents to the clinic with gross haematuria. He is currently...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old adolescent presents to the clinic with gross haematuria. He is currently suffering from a sinus infection. Apparently he had a previous episode of haematuria some 2 years earlier which was put down by the general practitioner to a urinary tract infection. Examination of notes from a previous Casualty attendance after a football game revealed microscopic haematuria on urine testing. On examination, his blood pressure is 130/70 mmHg. Physical examination is unremarkable.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 133 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 240 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 110 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Urine Blood ++, protein +
      C3 Normal
      Serum IgA Slight increase
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Haematuria: A Case Study

      Haematuria, or blood in the urine, can be a concerning symptom for patients. In this case study, a patient presents with haematuria and a recent history of respiratory tract infection. The following differential diagnoses are considered:

      1. IgA nephropathy: This is the most common primary glomerulonephritis in adults and is often associated with a recent respiratory tract infection. Despite haematuria, renal function is usually preserved.

      2. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis: This diagnosis typically presents 2-4 weeks after a respiratory or skin infection. As the patient is still experiencing respiratory symptoms, this diagnosis is less likely.

      3. Lupus nephritis: This is a serious diagnosis that presents with haematuria, oedema, joint pain, and high blood pressure. As the patient does not exhibit these additional symptoms, this diagnosis is unlikely.

      4. Henoch-Schönlein purpura: This diagnosis is characterized by a rash, which the patient does not exhibit, making it less likely.

      5. Alport syndrome: This is a genetic condition that presents with kidney disease, hearing loss, and eye abnormalities.

      In conclusion, the patient’s recent respiratory tract infection and preserved renal function suggest IgA nephropathy as the most likely diagnosis. However, further testing and evaluation may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old woman presents with an incidental finding of a blood pressure of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with an incidental finding of a blood pressure of 180/130 mmHg on three separate occasions. Her cardiovascular examination is unremarkable, but further investigation reveals a significantly smaller left kidney with a 'string of beads' appearance in the left renal artery. What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Balloon angioplasty

      Explanation:

      Management of Renal Artery Stenosis: Fibromuscular Dysplasia

      Fibromuscular dysplasia is a rare cause of renal artery stenosis, typically affecting young women and presenting with hypertension. The characteristic ‘string of beads’ appearance on CT imaging helps in diagnosis. While atherosclerotic disease is the most common cause of renal artery stenosis, a combination of antihypertensive therapy and renal artery balloon angioplasty is curative for fibromuscular dysplasia. Kidney transplantation is not usually required, but it is important to recognize the condition in donors to prevent complications in recipients. Nephrectomy is not typically necessary, and surgical reconstruction is rarely recommended. Statins are not used in the management of fibromuscular dysplasia, but may be used in atherosclerotic renal artery stenosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 27-year-old woman presents to you with bilateral palpable flank masses and headaches....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to you with bilateral palpable flank masses and headaches. Her blood pressure is 170/100 mmHg and creatinine is 176.8 μmol/l. She has no past medical history of this, but her family history is significant for renal disease requiring transplant in her mother, brother and maternal grandmother.
      On which chromosome would genetic analysis most likely find an abnormality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chromosome 16

      Explanation:

      This information provides a summary of genetic disorders associated with specific chromosomes and genes. For example, adult polycystic kidney disease is an autosomal dominant condition linked to mutations in the polycystin 1 (PKD1) gene on chromosome 16. This disease is characterized by the formation of multiple cysts in the kidneys, which can lead to renal failure and other symptoms such as hypertension, urinary tract infections, and liver and pancreatic cysts. Other important chromosome/disease pairs include BRCA2 on chromosome 13, which is associated with breast/ovarian/prostate cancers and Fanconi anemia, and the VHL gene on chromosome 3, which is linked to von Hippel-Lindau syndrome, a condition characterized by benign and malignant tumor formation on various organs of the body. Additionally, mutations in the FXN gene on chromosome 9 can result in Friedreich’s ataxia, a degenerative condition involving the nervous system and the heart, while a deletion of 22q11 on chromosome 22 can cause di George syndrome, a condition present at birth associated with cognitive impairment, facial abnormalities, and cardiac defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 63-year-old man presented with fever, body ache and pedal oedema for three...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presented with fever, body ache and pedal oedema for three months. He was taking oral diclofenac frequently for the aches. He had no other drug history and had not travelled recently.
      On examination, there was sternal tenderness. His blood report revealed:
      Investigation Result Normal range
      Haemoglobin 76 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 9 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 134 mm/hr 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      Platelets 280 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Urea 13 mmol/l 2.5–6.0 mmol/l
      Calcium 2.8 mmol/l 2.2–2.6 mmol/l
      What is the most likely cause of renal failure in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Light chain deposition

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Renal Failure in Multiple Myeloma

      Multiple myeloma is a rare but possible diagnosis in young adults, with a higher incidence in black populations and men. Renal failure is a common complication of this disease, with various possible causes. While NSAID use, hypercalcaemia, hyperuricaemia, and infiltration of the kidney by myeloma cells are all potential factors, the most common cause of renal failure in multiple myeloma is light chain deposition. This can lead to tubular toxicity and subsequent renal damage. Therefore, understanding the underlying causes of renal failure in multiple myeloma is crucial for effective management and treatment of this disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - An 80-year-old woman with a history of cervical carcinoma has been brought to...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman with a history of cervical carcinoma has been brought to the Emergency Department in a confused and dehydrated state. Her blood tests reveal significant abnormalities, including a potassium level of 7.2 mmol/l (NR 3.5–4.9), creatinine level of 450 μmol/l (NR 60–110), and urea level of 31.2 mmol/l (NR 2.5–7.5). Upon retesting, her serum potassium remains elevated. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange continuous ECG monitoring and consider giving 10 ml of 10% calcium gluconate intravenous (IV)

      Explanation:

      Managing Hyperkalaemia in a Patient with Renal Dysfunction

      Hyperkalaemia is a medical emergency that requires prompt management. Once confirmed via a repeat blood sample, continuous ECG monitoring is necessary. For cardioprotection, 10 ml of 10% calcium gluconate IV should be considered. Insulin can also be administered to drive potassium ions from the extracellular to the intracellular compartment. A third blood sample is not necessary and may delay treatment. An urgent ultrasound scan should be arranged to determine the underlying cause of renal dysfunction. Furosemide should be reserved until fluid balance assessment results are known. Renal replacement therapy may be considered as a final option, but prognosis should be assessed first. Nebulised salbutamol may also have positive effects in reducing serum potassium, but IV administration carries a significant risk of arrhythmia. Correction of severe acidosis may exacerbate fluid retention in patients with kidney disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A patient with chronic kidney disease has a creatinine of 350 μmol/l and...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with chronic kidney disease has a creatinine of 350 μmol/l and has persistent proteinuria.
      Which one of the following drugs is most likely of benefit to his renal prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Proteinuria and Renal Prognosis

      Proteinuria, the presence of excess protein in the urine, can be a sign of kidney damage or disease. Patients with proteinuria of any cause are at increased cardiovascular risk and require attention to modifiable risk factors such as smoking and hyperlipidemia. However, the renal prognosis can improve with the use of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, which are known to be effective in treating proteinuria. Aspirin and clopidogrel are not considered effective in improving renal outcomes for proteinuria. Blood pressure control is crucial in improving renal outcomes, and doxazosin may be useful in the right context. Methotrexate is not a recommended treatment option for proteinuria. Overall, ACE inhibitors remain the most effective treatment option for improving renal prognosis in patients with proteinuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Renal (1/3) 33%
Passmed