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  • Question 1 - A 75-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) comes in for a...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) comes in for a review of his home oxygen therapy. The results of his arterial blood gas (ABG) are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal range
      pH 7.34 7.35–7.45
      pa(O2) 8.0 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
      pa(CO2) 7.6 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
      HCO3- 36 mmol 24–30 mmol/l
      Base excess +4 mmol −2 to +2 mmol
      What is the best interpretation of this man's ABG results?

      Your Answer: Respiratory acidosis with partial metabolic compensation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) Results: A Five-Step Approach

      Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) results provide valuable information about a patient’s acid-base balance and oxygenation status. Understanding ABG results requires a systematic approach. The Resuscitation Council (UK) recommends a five-step approach to assessing ABGs.

      Step 1: Assess the patient and their oxygenation status. A pa(O2) level of >10 kPa is considered normal.

      Step 2: Determine if the patient is acidotic (pH <7.35) or alkalotic (pH >7.45).

      Step 3: Evaluate the respiratory component of the acid-base balance. A high pa(CO2) level (>6.0) suggests respiratory acidosis or compensation for metabolic alkalosis, while a low pa(CO2) level (<4.5) suggests respiratory alkalosis or compensation for metabolic acidosis. Step 4: Evaluate the metabolic component of the acid-base balance. A high bicarbonate (HCO3) level (>26 mmol) suggests metabolic alkalosis or renal compensation for respiratory acidosis, while a low bicarbonate level (<22 mmol) suggests metabolic acidosis or renal compensation for respiratory alkalosis. Step 5: Interpret the results in the context of the patient’s clinical history and presentation. It is important to note that ABG results should not be interpreted in isolation. A thorough clinical assessment is necessary to fully understand a patient’s acid-base balance and oxygenation status.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      35.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 8-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents after...

    Correct

    • An 8-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents after she fell off a swing. She reports that she was able to brace her fall with her left hand. In the Emergency Department, the patient’s vitals are stable. Examination of the left upper extremity demonstrates tenderness above the elbow, with evidence of soft tissue swelling. A plain film demonstrates a supracondylar fracture of the left humerus.
      Which of the following structures is most at risk?

      Your Answer: Brachial artery

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Potential Vascular and Nerve Injuries in Supracondylar Fractures of the Humerus

      Supracondylar fractures of the humerus are more common in children than in adults and can result in significant vascular and nerve injuries. The brachial artery, located anteriorly to the humerus, is at significant risk for injury resulting in compartment syndrome or Volkmann’s contracture. The radial nerve, which provides sensation to the dorsum of the hand and innervates the extensor compartment of the forearm, runs along the radial groove in the midshaft of the humerus and is more likely injured in midshaft fractures or after prolonged compression of the posterior aspect of the arm. The median nerve may also be injured in supracondylar fractures, but is less likely to be affected than the brachial artery or ulnar nerve. The ulnar artery and radial artery are distal continuations of the brachial artery and are not directly injured in supracondylar fractures of the humerus. Understanding the potential vascular and nerve injuries associated with supracondylar fractures is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      29.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of pain in his right...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of pain in his right leg, five days after having a cholecystectomy. Upon examination, the right leg is swollen, tender, and warm, while the left leg appears normal. What is the most suitable test to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Venous Dopplers

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment of Deep Vein Thrombosis

      This patient is showing typical symptoms of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). While you may not have access to the necessary investigations in your practice, it is important to have knowledge of secondary care investigations and their appropriate use, as highlighted in the latest MRCGP curriculum statement. Venous Dopplers are the most likely test to confirm the diagnosis, while a venogram is considered the gold standard.

      DVTs should be treated with anticoagulation, typically with the use of DOACs due to the potential risk of embolisation. It is important to promptly diagnose and treat DVTs to prevent complications such as pulmonary embolism. As a healthcare professional, it is important to stay up-to-date with the latest guidelines and recommendations for the diagnosis and treatment of DVTs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 31-year-old man presented with weakness and fatigue. On examination, he was emaciated...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old man presented with weakness and fatigue. On examination, he was emaciated with a body weight of 40 kg. Blood tests revealed abnormalities including low haemoglobin, low MCV, low MCH, high platelet count, low albumin, and low calcium. His peripheral blood showed Howell-Jolly bodies. To which department should this patient be referred?

      Your Answer: Gastroenterology Department

      Explanation:

      Specialty Departments and Diagnosis of Coeliac Disease

      The patient presents with microcytic, hypochromic anaemia, Howell-Jolly bodies, and splenic dysfunction, along with low albumin and calcium suggestive of malabsorption and emaciation. The most likely diagnosis is coeliac disease, which can be confirmed by antibody tests and a duodenal biopsy in the Gastroenterology department. Haematology can investigate the abnormal blood count, but treatment is not within their scope. Chronic kidney or liver disease is less likely, and there are no neurological symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      33.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 52-year-old female visits her GP complaining of hot flashes, irritability, and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old female visits her GP complaining of hot flashes, irritability, and a 7-month history of lighter periods that have become more irregular. The GP diagnoses her as perimenopausal and prescribes Elleste duet tablets (estradiol + norethisterone) as sequential combined HRT since she has not had a total abdominal hysterectomy. The GP discusses the potential risks with the patient. What is the most crucial risk to mention regarding the norethisterone component?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of headaches

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of breast cancer

      Explanation:

      The risk of breast cancer is increased when progesterone is added to HRT. However, it is important to note that the risk is minimal and patients should be informed of this. According to the Women Health Institute, if 1000 women on HRT for 5 years were compared to 1000 women not on HRT for 5 years, there would only be 4 more cases of breast cancer. Women who start HRT under the age of 60 are not at an increased risk of dying from cardiovascular disease. Norethisterone, a progesterone, reduces the risk of endometrial carcinoma, so women with a uterus are always started on combined HRT. Women without a uterus are started on unopposed oestrogen. While HRT may increase the risk of headaches, this is less important to mention compared to the risk of breast cancer.

      Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progesterone in women with a uterus, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. While it can be effective in reducing symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness, HRT can also have adverse effects and potential complications.

      Some common side-effects of HRT include nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain. However, there are also more serious potential complications associated with HRT. For example, the use of HRT has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, particularly when a progesterone is added. The Women’s Health Initiative study found a relative risk of 1.26 at 5 years of developing breast cancer with HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is also related to the duration of use, and it begins to decline when HRT is stopped.

      Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen by itself should not be given as HRT to women with a womb, as this can increase the risk of endometrial cancer. The addition of a progesterone can reduce this risk, but it is not eliminated completely. The British National Formulary states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progesterone is given continuously.

      HRT has also been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progesterone is added. However, transdermal HRT does not appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any treatment, even transdermal, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).

      Finally, HRT has been linked to an increased risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than 10 years after menopause. It is important for women considering HRT to discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider and make an informed decision based on their individual circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 9-month-old baby is brought to the emergency room with a 4 day...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old baby is brought to the emergency room with a 4 day history of fever and a new onset rash on the arms, legs, and abdomen that started today. Despite the fever, the baby has been behaving normally and does not seem bothered by the rash. Upon closer examination, the rash appears red with small bumps that are merging together. None of the lesions have scabbed over. The rash is mostly on the limbs and there are no signs of scratching. The baby's temperature is now normal at 36.9ºC. Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the probable causative organism?

      Your Answer: Epstein Barr virus

      Correct Answer: Human herpes virus 6

      Explanation:

      Human herpes virus 6 is the cause of Roseola infantum, a viral illness that is characterized by a fever lasting for 3 days followed by the appearance of a maculopapular rash on the 4th day. The fever can develop quickly and may lead to febrile convulsions. The rash typically starts on the trunk and limbs, unlike chickenpox which usually presents with a central rash. HHV6 is known to attack the nervous system, which can result in rare complications such as encephalitis and febrile fits after the fever has subsided. Glandular fever is caused by Epstein Barr virus, while genital herpes is caused by Human herpes virus 2. Bacterial meningitis, which is characterized by symptoms of meningism such as photophobia, stiff neck, and headache, along with a non-blanching rash seen in meningococcal septicaemia, is commonly caused by Neisseria meningitidis.

      Understanding Roseola Infantum

      Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). This disease has an incubation period of 5-15 days and is typically seen in children aged 6 months to 2 years. The most common symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms may include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea.

      In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of children with roseola infantum. While this can be concerning for parents, it is important to note that this is a common occurrence and typically resolves on its own. Additionally, HHV6 infection can lead to other possible consequences such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis.

      It is important to note that school exclusion is not necessary for children with roseola infantum. While this illness can be uncomfortable for infants, it is typically not serious and resolves on its own within a few days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You are observing a doctor on the neonatal ward who is asked to...

    Correct

    • You are observing a doctor on the neonatal ward who is asked to assess a 3-hour-old baby delivered at 40+5 weeks by ventouse. The mother is concerned about the appearance of her baby's head. Upon examination, you notice a soft, puffy swelling at the back of the head with some light bruising from the ventouse cup. The swelling seems to extend across the suture lines. However, the baby appears to be in good health otherwise, and the neonatal hearing screen conducted earlier that morning was normal. What could be the probable cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer: Caput succedaneum

      Explanation:

      Caput succedaneum is a puffy swelling that occurs over the presenting part during prolonged ventouse delivery and resolves spontaneously. It differs from bulging fontanelle, which is caused by increased intracranial pressure, and cephalohaematoma, which is a swelling caused by fluid collecting between the periosteum and skull. Hydrocephalus is a condition where there is an accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid around the brain, and subaponeurotic haemorrhage is a rare condition caused by rupturing of emissary veins.

      Understanding Caput Succedaneum

      Caput succedaneum is a condition that refers to the swelling of the scalp at the top of the head, usually at the vertex. This swelling is caused by the mechanical trauma that occurs during delivery, particularly in prolonged deliveries or those that involve the use of vacuum delivery. The condition is characterized by soft, puffy swelling due to localized edema that crosses suture lines.

      Compared to cephalohaematoma, which is a collection of blood under the scalp, caput succedaneum is caused by edema. While cephalohaematoma is limited to a specific area and does not cross suture lines, caput succedaneum can affect a larger area and cross suture lines. Fortunately, no treatment is needed for caput succedaneum, as the swelling usually resolves on its own within a few days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old hypertensive man presented with the following blood results:
    Investigation Result Normal value
    Sodium...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old hypertensive man presented with the following blood results:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 147 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 2.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 4.0 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 50 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      Glucose 4.0 mmol/l
      Random: 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      Fasting: <7 mmol/l
      Hba1c: <53 mmol/l (<7.0%)
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cushing's disease/syndrome

      Correct Answer: Conn's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of hypertension with electrolyte abnormalities

      When a young patient presents with hypertension and hypokalaemia, it is important to consider secondary causes of hypertension, such as Conn’s syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism), which can explain both findings. Coarctation of the aorta is another secondary cause of hypertension, but it does not account for the electrolyte abnormalities. Cushing’s disease/syndrome may also present with hypertension and electrolyte abnormalities, but typically with additional symptoms and higher fasting glucose levels. Polycystic kidney disease can cause hypertension, but not the electrolyte abnormalities. Primary (essential) hypertension is the most common form of hypertension, but secondary causes should be ruled out, especially in younger patients with atypical features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old Asian woman presents with sudden onset paranoid thoughts and suicidal ideation....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old Asian woman presents with sudden onset paranoid thoughts and suicidal ideation. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hypercholesterolemia. Given her age and first episode of psychosis, what crucial investigation is necessary to rule out other potential underlying causes?

      Your Answer: CT head

      Explanation:

      When elderly patients present with sudden onset psychosis, it is important to consider and rule out organic causes before attributing it to a primary psychotic disorder. In such cases, a CT head scan or even an MRI should be considered to detect any underlying organic causes such as a brain tumour, stroke or CNS infection. While HbA1c is typically used to assess diabetes control, PET scans are more commonly used to provide detailed information about metabolic processes in tissues, such as identifying active cancer cells. Chest X-rays may also be useful in certain cases.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 40-year-old male patient presents to the Emergency department with signs of pneumonia....

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old male patient presents to the Emergency department with signs of pneumonia. Upon examination, a right middle lobe pneumonia is detected on his chest X-ray. Where is the optimal location to auscultate breath sounds from the affected lobe?

      Your Answer: Mid-axillary line, 5th intercostal space

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Lungs

      The lungs are divided into lobes by the pleura, with the right lung having three lobes and the left lung having two. The lobes are separated by the oblique and horizontal fissures. The oblique fissure separates the inferior and superior lobes and runs from the spine of T3 to the sixth rib. The horizontal fissure is only present in the right lung and separates the superior and middle lobes. It starts in the oblique fissure near the back of the lung and runs horizontally forward, cutting the front border at the level of the fourth costal cartilage.

      Auscultation of the lungs is similar on both sides of the posterior chest wall, with the lower two-thirds corresponding to the inferior lobes and the upper third corresponding to the superior lobe. On the anterior chest wall, the area above the nipples corresponds to the superior lobes, with the apices being audible just above the clavicles. The area below the nipples corresponds to the inferior lobes. The middle lobe of the right lung is the smallest and is wedge-shaped, including the lower part of the anterior border and the anterior part of the base of the lung. It is best heard in the axilla, but can also be heard in the back or at the lateral margin of the right chest (anterior axillary line).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which condition is commonly associated with neonatal cyanosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which condition is commonly associated with neonatal cyanosis?

      Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

      Correct Answer: Total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage

      Explanation:

      Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection

      Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) is a condition that causes cyanosis in newborns. It is characterized by an abnormality in blood flow where all four pulmonary veins drain into systemic veins or the right atrium, with or without pulmonary venous obstruction. This results in the mixing of systemic and pulmonary venous blood in the right atrium.

      In contrast, conditions such as patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), atrial septal defect (ASD), and ventricular septal defect (VSD) are left to right shunts. Tricuspid atresia is another condition that is typically associated with cyanosis, but mitral regurgitation is not.

      It is important to understand the differences between these conditions and their effects on blood flow in order to properly diagnose and treat them. Further reading on TAPVC can be found on Medscape.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 17-year-old male patient comes in with a history of fevers, night sweats,...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old male patient comes in with a history of fevers, night sweats, and a weight loss of 20 pounds over the course of several months. Upon conducting a CT scan, mediastinal lymphadenopathy is discovered, and a biopsy is performed. The genetic analysis of the lesion reveals a translocation between chromosomes 14 and 18. What protein is expected to be overexpressed due to this translocation?

      Your Answer: bcl-6

      Correct Answer: bcl-2

      Explanation:

      Follicular lymphoma is a prevalent type of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma that results from a chromosomal translocation between chromosome 14 and chromosome 18. This translocation causes the bcl-2 protein, which is anti-apoptotic, to be moved to the IgH promoter region, leading to overproduction of bcl-2. Consequently, abnormal B cells undergo clonal proliferation and are protected from apoptosis. Follicular lymphoma affects both genders equally, and its incidence increases with age. The disease typically presents with painless adenopathy that progresses over time. Systemic symptoms, such as fevers, night sweats, and weight loss, may occur later in the disease progression and can be associated with anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and lymphocytosis. Diagnosis requires a lymph node biopsy to demonstrate the expansion of follicles filling the node and chromosomal analysis of cells from bone marrow aspiration to detect t(14:18). Chemotherapy is the primary treatment, and rituximab, a monoclonal antibody against the CD20 protein found on B cells, is often used in combination with other agents. In Burkitt’s lymphoma, c-myc overexpression is caused by a translocation between chromosomes 8 and 14, while chronic myeloid leukaemia results from a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, forming the Philadelphia chromosome. Ewing’s sarcoma is caused by a translocation between chromosomes 11 and 12, leading to the formation of the fusion protein Ewsr1-fli1, which causes aberrant transcription of genes regulating cell growth and development. In a small subset of follicular lymphoma patients, translocations involving the bcl-6 gene and protein are found, which may increase the risk of transformation to a more aggressive form.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old woman presents with backache over the past 5 days, which did...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with backache over the past 5 days, which did not respond to over-the-counter analgesics. Pain is increasing in the night and is constant. It is not subsiding with rest. There is no history of trauma. She is a known diabetic and hypertensive. She had an episode of deep vein thrombosis 1 month ago and was on heparin for 3 weeks. She had no children and her husband passed away a year ago. Her current medications include captopril, metformin, warfarin, atorvastatin and aspirin 375 mg. X-ray of the spine shows a fracture of C6 vertebra.
      Which one of the following is the most likely underlying disease causing the fracture at this vertebral level?

      Your Answer: postmenopausal osteoporosis

      Correct Answer: Metastatic carcinoma due to occult primary

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Causes of Vertebral Fractures: A Guide for Clinicians

      When a patient presents with thoracic back pain and a vertebral fracture, it is important to consider the underlying cause. Fractures at or above the T4 level are suggestive of cancer, rather than osteoporosis. This is especially true if the patient has no known primary cancer, as it may be a case of metastatic carcinoma due to occult primary.

      postmenopausal osteoporosis and heparin-induced osteoporosis typically do not cause fractures at or above T4. Instead, fractures below T4 are more commonly seen in osteoporosis. However, a higher fracture associated with thoracic back pain is a red flag feature that should be investigated further with imaging, such as an MRI spine, as cancer is suspected.

      Statin-induced myopathy is another condition that can cause muscle pain and weakness, but it does not typically present with back pain or vertebral fractures. Similarly, renal osteodystrophy due to diabetic nephropathy can affect the spine, but this patient does not have chronic renal failure. If diabetic nephropathy is present, it may progress to renal failure, which can lead to renal osteodystrophy.

      In summary, when evaluating a patient with thoracic back pain and a vertebral fracture, it is important to consider the location of the fracture and any other symptoms or risk factors. This can help clinicians distinguish between potential causes and guide appropriate diagnostic testing and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - As a FY1 doctor in Accident and Emergency, you encounter a 35-year-old female...

    Correct

    • As a FY1 doctor in Accident and Emergency, you encounter a 35-year-old female patient with a broken wrist. While prescribing her regular medications, you make an error in her insulin prescription. Instead of prescribing 8 units for her evening dose, you prescribe 12 units of her short-acting insulin. As a result, the patient experiences drowsiness and starts feeling unwell, with a BM of 2.8. What would be the best order of management in this situation?

      Your Answer: Stabilise patient via the DR ABCDE approach and treat hypoglycaemia. Notify a senior followed by having a discussion with the patient. Accept responsibility and offer the PALs service to file a complaint. Fill in an incident form.

      Explanation:

      Managing Acutely Unwell Patients

      When a patient becomes acutely unwell, the first priority is to provide medical management using the DR ABCDE approach and address any reversible causes. As an FY1, it is crucial to call for help and inform a senior if necessary. In such situations, the final option is the only correct answer.

      If the patient is stable, it is essential to have a discussion with them to explain what has happened, take responsibility, and apologize. Additionally, offer them access to PALS if they wish to file a complaint. After this, complete an incident form to examine hospital processes and prevent similar incidents from occurring in the future.

      In summary, managing acutely unwell patients requires prompt medical attention, calling for help, and notifying a senior. It is also crucial to communicate with the patient, take responsibility, and complete an incident form to improve hospital processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Miscellaneous
      50.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 56-year-old woman has been prescribed metformin for her type II diabetes and...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman has been prescribed metformin for her type II diabetes and wants to know about potential side effects. What is the most common adverse effect associated with metformin treatment?

      Your Answer: Lactic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Potential Adverse Effects of Diabetes Medications

      Diabetes medications can be effective in managing blood sugar levels, but they also come with potential adverse effects. One such effect is lactic acidosis, which can be severe or even fatal in cases of intentional metformin overdose. Metformin works by inhibiting hepatic gluconeogenesis and lactate dehydrogenase in the gut and liver. In cases of lactic acidosis, haemodialysis may be necessary to clear lactate and correct acidosis, but mortality rates remain high due to coexisting organ failures.

      Another potential adverse effect is cardiotoxicity, which can lead to fluid retention and cardiac failure in patients receiving glitazone therapy. However, anaphylaxis and pulmonary fibrosis are not recognised features of metformin therapy. Rhabdomyolysis, a breakdown of muscle tissue, is more likely to occur in conjunction with statin or fibrate therapy, or with the combination of the two.

      Understanding the Risks of Diabetes Medications

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of pain in his left eye. He has a medical history of recurring sinusitis and ankylosing spondylitis. Upon examination, there is swelling and redness around the left eye, and there is discomfort when testing eye movements. The pupils appear normal. What is the recommended course of action?

      Your Answer: Topical antibiotics

      Correct Answer: IV antibiotics

      Explanation:

      The appropriate treatment for patients with orbital cellulitis is admission to the hospital for IV antibiotics. This is due to the potential risk of cavernous sinus thrombosis and intracranial spread. The symptoms of ocular pain, pain on eye movements, redness, and swelling around the eye suggest this condition. IV acetazolamide, oral antibiotics, and oral steroids are not suitable treatments for orbital cellulitis as they are intended for different conditions.

      Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.

      Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.

      To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.

      Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old man experiences vomiting of bright red blood following an episode of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man experiences vomiting of bright red blood following an episode of heavy drinking. The medical team suspects a duodenal ulcer that is bleeding. Which blood vessel is the most probable source of the bleeding?

      Your Answer: Left gastric artery

      Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal artery

      Explanation:

      Arteries of the Stomach and Duodenum: Potential Sites of Haemorrhage

      The gastrointestinal tract is supplied by a network of arteries that can be vulnerable to erosion and haemorrhage in cases of ulceration. Here are some of the key arteries of the stomach and duodenum to be aware of:

      Gastroduodenal artery: This branch of the common hepatic artery travels to the first part of the duodenum, where duodenal ulcers often occur. If the ulceration erodes through the gastroduodenal artery, it can cause a catastrophic haemorrhage and present as haematemesis.

      Left gastric artery: Arising from the coeliac artery, the left gastric artery supplies the distal oesophagus and the lesser curvature of the stomach. Gastric ulceration can cause erosion of this artery and lead to a massive haemorrhage.

      Left gastroepiploic artery: This artery arises from the splenic artery and runs along the greater curvature of the stomach. If there is gastric ulceration, it can be eroded and lead to a massive haemorrhage.

      Right gastroepiploic artery: Arising from the gastroduodenal artery, the right gastroepiploic artery runs along the greater curvature of the stomach and anastomoses with the left gastroepiploic artery.

      Short gastric arteries: These branches arise from the splenic artery and supply the fundus of the stomach, passing through the gastrosplenic ligament.

      Knowing the potential sites of haemorrhage in the gastrointestinal tract can help clinicians to identify and manage cases of bleeding effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 68-year-old woman is admitted to Accident and Emergency with a massive upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman is admitted to Accident and Emergency with a massive upper gastrointestinal haemorrhage. She has a history of atrial fibrillation and is on warfarin. Since admission, she has had several episodes of copious haematemesis. Her blood pressure is 80/54 mmHg, and her heart rate is 136 beats/min. You have started resuscitation with normal saline and have ordered a group and save and a crossmatch. Her INR is currently 8.4. What is the most appropriate way to manage her INR?

      Your Answer: Withhold warfarin, give iv vitamin K, prothrombin complex concentrate and fresh-frozen plasma

      Correct Answer: Withhold warfarin, give iv vitamin K and prothrombin complex concentrate

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Haemorrhage in Patients on Warfarin: Guidelines from the BNF

      The British National Formulary (BNF) provides clear guidance on the appropriate treatment for haemorrhage in patients on warfarin. In cases of major bleeding, warfarin should be stopped and intravenous phytomenadione (vitamin K1) and dried prothrombin complex concentrate should be administered. Recombinant factor VIIa is not recommended for emergency anticoagulation reversal. For INR levels above 8.0 with minor bleeding, warfarin should be withheld and intravenous vitamin K given. Fresh-frozen plasma can be used if prothrombin complex concentrate is unavailable. For INR levels between 5.0 and 8.0 without bleeding, warfarin should be withheld and oral vitamin K given. For INR levels between 5.0 and 8.0 with minor bleeding, warfarin should be withheld and intravenous vitamin K given. If prothrombin complex concentrate is unavailable, fresh-frozen plasma can be used. In cases where INR is between 5.0 and 8.0 without bleeding, one or two doses of warfarin should be withheld and subsequent maintenance doses reduced. This guidance can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate and effective treatment for patients on warfarin experiencing haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 21-year-old, asymptomatic man presents to you with a family history of colorectal...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old, asymptomatic man presents to you with a family history of colorectal cancer. His father passed away from the disease at the age of 35, and the patient is worried about his own risk. He has no knowledge of any other cancer in his family.
      What is the most suitable approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Digital rectal examination

      Correct Answer: Arrange colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      Importance of Colonoscopy in Patients with Familial Adenomatous Polyposis

      Explanation:
      It is crucial to consider familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) in patients with a family history of colorectal cancer at a young age. FAP is an autosomal dominant condition associated with a mutation in the adenomatous polyposis coli gene, leading to the development of numerous polyps in the colon. If left untreated, patients with FAP develop colorectal cancer by the age of 35-40.

      In this scenario, the patient’s father likely had FAP, and the patient has a 50% chance of inheriting the mutation and developing the disease. Therefore, regardless of the patient’s symptoms or blood results, a colonoscopy is necessary to review the colon and identify any polyps. Treatment for FAP involves a total colectomy at around the age of 20.

      Reassurance would be inappropriate in this scenario, and a digital rectal examination alone is not sufficient. It is essential to arrange a colonoscopy for patients with a family history of FAP to detect and treat the condition early. Additionally, it is recommended to review the patient with a view to colonoscopy at the age of 30 to monitor for any polyp development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A morbidly obese 32-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for review. His...

    Correct

    • A morbidly obese 32-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for review. His main reason for attendance is that his wife is concerned about his loud snoring and the fact that he stops breathing during the night for periods of up to 8–10 seconds, followed by coughing, snoring or waking. Recently he has become hypertensive and is also on treatment for impotence. His 24-hour urinary free cortisol level is normal.
      Which diagnosis best fits this picture?

      Your Answer: Obstructive sleep apnoea

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Between Obstructive Sleep Apnoea and Other Conditions

      Obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a common sleep disorder that can have significant impacts on a person’s health and well-being. Symptoms of OSA include memory impairment, daytime somnolence, disrupted sleep patterns, decreased libido, and systemic hypertension. When investigating potential causes of these symptoms, it is important to rule out other conditions that may contribute to or mimic OSA.

      For example, thyroid function testing should be conducted to rule out hypothyroidism, and the uvula and tonsils should be assessed for mechanical obstruction that may be treatable with surgery. Diagnosis of OSA is typically made using overnight oximetry. The mainstay of management for OSA is weight loss, along with the use of continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) ventilation during sleep.

      When considering potential diagnoses for a patient with symptoms of OSA, it is important to distinguish between other conditions that may contribute to or mimic OSA. For example, Cushing’s disease can be identified through elevated 24-hour urinary free cortisol levels. Essential hypertension may contribute to OSA, but it does not fully explain the symptoms described. Simple obesity may be a contributing factor, but it does not account for the full clinical picture. Finally, simple snoring can be ruled out if apnoeic episodes are present. By carefully considering all potential diagnoses, healthcare providers can provide the most effective treatment for patients with OSA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 27-year-old woman comes to your clinic with a positive urine pregnancy test...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman comes to your clinic with a positive urine pregnancy test result. She underwent a medical termination of pregnancy using mifepristone and misoprostol three weeks ago when she was eight weeks pregnant. She reports no ongoing pregnancy symptoms and only slight vaginal bleeding since the procedure. What advice would you give her?

      Your Answer: Reassure and repeat urine pregnancy test at 4 weeks post termination

      Explanation:

      It is common for HCG levels to remain positive for several weeks after a termination of pregnancy. HCG levels are typically measured every two days, and a positive result beyond four weeks may indicate a continuing pregnancy. However, in most cases, HCG levels will return to normal within four weeks.

      In this scenario, the appropriate course of action is to repeat the urine pregnancy test in one week, as the patient is currently only three weeks post-termination. There is no need for further referrals or imaging at this time, as a positive test result is unlikely to indicate a continuing pregnancy, and the patient does not exhibit any urgent symptoms such as infection or hemorrhage.

      Termination of Pregnancy in the UK

      The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, except in emergencies where only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise.

      The method used to terminate a pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone (an anti-progesterone) is administered, followed by prostaglandins 48 hours later to stimulate uterine contractions. For pregnancies less than 13 weeks, surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents is used. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion (inducing ‘mini-labour’) is used.

      The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the circumstances under which a person shall not be guilty of an offence under the law relating to abortion. These include if two registered medical practitioners are of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th week and that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman or any existing children of her family. The limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      24.7
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  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old man, with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), is...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man, with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), is admitted to hospital with sudden-onset shortness of breath. His oxygen saturation levels are 82%, respiratory rate (RR) 25 breaths/min (normal 12–18 breaths/min), his trachea is central, he has reduced breath sounds in the right lower zone. Chest X-ray reveals a 2.5 cm translucent border at the base of the right lung.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Intrapleural chest drain

      Explanation:

      Management of Spontaneous Pneumothorax in a Patient with COPD

      When a patient with COPD presents with a spontaneous pneumothorax, prompt intervention is necessary. Smoking is a significant risk factor for pneumothorax, and recurrence rates are high for secondary pneumothorax. In deciding between needle aspiration and intrapleural chest drain, the size of the pneumothorax is crucial. In this case, the patient’s pneumothorax was >2 cm, requiring an intrapleural chest drain. Intubation and NIV are not necessary interventions at this time. Observation alone is not sufficient, and the patient requires urgent intervention due to low oxygen saturation, high respiratory rate, shortness of breath, and reduced breath sounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 26-year-old man presents with visual impairment and is diagnosed with Leber's optic...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man presents with visual impairment and is diagnosed with Leber's optic atrophy. Considering the mitochondrial inheritance pattern of this disorder, which of the following family members is at the highest risk of being affected?

      Your Answer: Sister

      Explanation:

      Mitochondrial diseases are inherited maternally, meaning that if a mother has the condition, all of her children will also inherit it. As a result, her sister will also be affected.

      Mitochondrial Diseases: Inheritance and Histology

      Mitochondrial diseases are caused by mutations in the small amount of double-stranded DNA present in the mitochondria. This DNA encodes protein components of the respiratory chain and some special types of RNA. Mitochondrial inheritance has unique characteristics, including inheritance only via the maternal line and none of the children of an affected male inheriting the disease. However, all of the children of an affected female will inherit the disease. These diseases generally encode rare neurological diseases and have a poor genotype-phenotype correlation due to heteroplasmy, where different mitochondrial populations exist within a tissue or cell.

      Histologically, muscle biopsy shows red, ragged fibers due to an increased number of mitochondria. Some examples of mitochondrial diseases include Leber’s optic atrophy, MELAS syndrome (mitochondrial encephalomyopathy lactic acidosis and stroke-like episodes), MERRF syndrome (myoclonus epilepsy with ragged-red fibers), Kearns-Sayre syndrome (onset in patients < 20 years old, external ophthalmoplegia, retinitis pigmentosa, and ptosis may be seen), and sensorineural hearing loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - An 80-year-old man was diagnosed with prostate cancer two years ago. He had...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man was diagnosed with prostate cancer two years ago. He had radiotherapy. His prostate specific antigen level (PSA) had been normal until it began to rise four months ago.
      He is well informed and asks if he should be on hormone treatment.
      When should hormone treatment be initiated in this case?

      Your Answer: If he has a PSA doubling time of less than 3 months

      Explanation:

      Hormonal Therapy for Biochemical Relapse in Prostate Cancer

      According to NICE guidance, a biochemical relapse in prostate cancer, indicated by a rising PSA level, should not always lead to an immediate change in treatment. Hormonal therapy is not typically recommended for men with prostate cancer who experience a biochemical relapse unless they have symptomatic local disease progression, proven metastases, or a PSA doubling time of less than three months. In other words, if the cancer has not spread beyond the prostate and is not causing any symptoms, hormonal therapy may not be necessary. However, if the cancer has spread or is progressing rapidly, hormonal therapy may be recommended to slow down the cancer’s growth and improve the patient’s quality of life. It is important for patients to discuss their individual circumstances with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her doctor with symptoms of depression. She has...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her doctor with symptoms of depression. She has been feeling withdrawn and neglectful of herself, with poor sleep and reduced appetite. Upon diagnosis of a depressive episode, her doctor prescribes citalopram 20 mg daily. What is the primary mechanism of action of citalopram?

      Your Answer: Inhibiting reabsorption of serotonin by the presynaptic terminal

      Explanation:

      Citalopram and Serotonin Modulation

      Citalopram is a type of antidepressant drug that belongs to the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) class. Its mechanism of action involves inhibiting the reabsorption of serotonin from the synaptic cleft, which is the space between neurons, by blocking its uptake by monoamine transporters on the presynaptic terminal. This increases the concentration of serotonin in the synaptic cleft, which is thought to improve symptoms of depression.

      Other drugs and substances that modulate serotonin concentration include monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), recreational drugs like ecstasy and amphetamines, the antibiotic linezolid, the analgesic drug tramadol, and herbal remedies like St John’s wort and yohimbe. However, flooding the synapse with serotonin can also activate autoreceptors that downregulate serotonin production, leading to a relative worsening of symptoms at the start of therapy. Prolonged use of SSRIs can also lead to downregulation of post-synaptic receptors and a loss of efficacy.

      Newer research has shown that modulating the serotonergic neurotransmitter system in different ways can also bring about antidepressant effects. For example, a drug that enhances selective serotonin reuptake has recently been licensed, which ensures a ready supply of presynaptic serotonin available for release. It is important to monitor patients during therapy to ensure the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 54-year-old man visits his GP complaining of blurred vision that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man visits his GP complaining of blurred vision that has been ongoing for 3 days. He has a medical history of hypertension, which is being managed with amlodipine, ramipril, and indapamide, as well as type II diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled with metformin.

      During the examination, his visual acuity is found to be 6/18 in both eyes with a reduction in colour vision. There is no relative afferent pupillary defect. Upon direct fundoscopy, the optic disc margins appear ill-defined and raised in both eyes. Additionally, there are cotton-wool spots scattered around the retina in both eyes.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Proliferative diabetic retinopathy

      Correct Answer: Hypertensive retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Hypertensive Retinopathy

      Hypertensive retinopathy is a serious condition that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. In this case, the patient has grade 4 hypertensive retinopathy according to the Keith-Wagener-Barker classification. The fundoscopy revealed bilateral optic disc swelling with cotton-wool spots, indicating optic neuropathy secondary to hypertension. Despite being on multiple medications to control hypertension, the patient’s blood pressure is difficult to manage.

      While considering the diagnosis of hypertensive retinopathy, it is important to rule out other potential causes of the patient’s symptoms. An intracranial space-occupying lesion is not indicated in the patient’s history. Optic neuritis can present with loss of optic nerve function, but it is more commonly unilateral and does not typically involve cotton-wool spots. Pre-proliferative and proliferative diabetic retinopathy are also unlikely given the patient’s well-controlled type II diabetes.

      In conclusion, the patient’s presentation is most consistent with hypertensive retinopathy. However, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses and rule them out through further evaluation and testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is the most frequent primary cancer that leads to bone metastases? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent primary cancer that leads to bone metastases?

      Your Answer: Lung

      Correct Answer: Breast

      Explanation:

      Bone Metastases: Common Tumours, Symptoms, and Diagnosis

      Bone metastases are a common occurrence in patients with malignant disease, affecting approximately 30% of cases. The most frequent tumours that cause bone metastases are breast, prostate, bronchus, kidney, and thyroid, with breast and prostate cancers accounting for the majority. Symptoms of bone metastases typically include bone pain, the presence of a lump, pathological fractures, hypercalcaemia, or cord compression. Pathological fractures occur in about 10% of patients with bone metastases. Radiological changes usually occur late, and bone scintigraphy is the most sensitive diagnostic tool available to detect metastatic spread. Most metastases are osteolytic, but some tumours, such as prostate carcinoma, cause osteosclerotic lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) in extreme pain. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) in extreme pain. He reports one day of pain in his right loin spreading round into the groin. The pain comes in waves and he says it is the worst pain he has ever experienced. The ED doctor suspects a diagnosis of renal colic.
      What investigation finding would be the most consistent with this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Raised serum creatinine

      Correct Answer: Microscopic haematuria

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Urine and Blood Tests for Renal Colic

      Renal colic is a common condition that can cause severe pain in the back and abdomen. When evaluating a patient with suspected renal colic, several tests may be ordered to help diagnose the condition and determine the appropriate treatment. Here are some key points to keep in mind when interpreting urine and blood tests for renal colic:

      – Microscopic haematuria with normal nitrites and leukocytes is a common finding in patients with renal colic and/or stones. This suggests that there is blood in the urine, but no signs of infection.
      – Positive leukocytes or nitrites on a urine dipstick would be suggestive of a urinary tract infection and would not be consistent with a diagnosis of renal stones.
      – A raised serum creatinine can occur with severe renal stones where there is urethral obstruction and subsequent hydronephrosis. This would be a urological emergency and the patient would likely require urgent stenting to allow passage of urine.
      – A raised serum white cell count would be more consistent with an infection as the cause of the patient’s pain, making this a less appropriate answer.

      In summary, when evaluating a patient with suspected renal colic, it is important to consider the results of urine and blood tests in conjunction with other clinical findings to make an accurate diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 27-year-old female patient arrives at 38 weeks gestation with a 4-day history...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female patient arrives at 38 weeks gestation with a 4-day history of headaches and swelling in her lower limbs. Upon examination, her heart rate is 80 bpm, her blood pressure is 168/86 mmHg, and a urine dipstick reveals proteinuria. While being examined, she experiences a generalized tonic-clonic seizure that resolves on its own. An emergency C-section is planned, and another seizure occurs. What is the best course of action for her treatment?

      Your Answer: Magnesium sulfate until 24 hours after last seizure or 24 hours after delivery

      Explanation:

      Magnesium sulfate should be continued for at least 24 hours after delivery or the last seizure in the management of eclampsia. This patient’s condition has progressed to eclampsia, and the primary concern is preventing seizures and delivering the baby. Magnesium sulfate is the preferred agent for managing seizures and providing neuroprotection to the baby. Stopping magnesium sulfate immediately after the last seizure still poses a risk of another seizure occurring, so it should be continued for another 24 hours. Correcting hypertension alone is unlikely to resolve the seizures, so antihypertensive therapy should be given in addition to magnesium sulfate.

      Understanding Eclampsia and its Treatment

      Eclampsia is a condition that occurs when seizures develop in association with pre-eclampsia, a pregnancy-induced hypertension that is characterized by proteinuria and occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. To prevent seizures in patients with severe pre-eclampsia and treat seizures once they develop, magnesium sulphate is commonly used. However, it is important to note that this medication should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. In cases of eclampsia, an IV bolus of 4g over 5-10 minutes should be given, followed by an infusion of 1g/hour. During treatment, it is crucial to monitor urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturations. Respiratory depression can occur, and calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate-induced respiratory depression. Treatment should continue for 24 hours after the last seizure or delivery, as around 40% of seizures occur post-partum. Additionally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid the potentially serious consequences of fluid overload.

      In summary, understanding the development of eclampsia and its treatment is crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Magnesium sulphate is the primary medication used to prevent and treat seizures, but it should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. Monitoring vital signs and urine output is essential during treatment, and calcium gluconate should be readily available in case of respiratory depression. Finally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid complications associated with fluid overload.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      26.2
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  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old woman visits her GP seeking the combined oral contraceptive pill. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her GP seeking the combined oral contraceptive pill. She experiences intense one-sided headaches and reports a tingling sensation that travels up her arm before the headache begins. She smokes 10-20 cigarettes on most weekends and has a BMI of 34 kg/m². Her younger sister has a history of thromboembolic disease. What specific aspect of her medical history is the most significant contraindication for prescribing the combined oral contraceptive?

      Your Answer: Smoking history

      Correct Answer: Migraine with aura

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms indicate that they may be suffering from migraine, specifically migraine with aura. This condition is classified as UKMEC 4, meaning that it poses a significant health risk when taking combined oral contraceptive pills. While visual disturbances are the most common aura symptoms, some patients may experience sensory or motor symptoms such as tingling, weakness, or difficulty speaking. While other factors in the patient’s medical history may also be relevant, migraine with aura is the primary concern when considering contraception options.

      The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      5.3
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory (3/3) 100%
Orthopaedics (1/2) 50%
Haematology (2/4) 50%
Gynaecology (1/3) 33%
Paediatrics (2/4) 50%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Miscellaneous (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
Ophthalmology (0/2) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Colorectal (0/1) 0%
Surgery (1/1) 100%
Oncology (0/1) 0%
Urology (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
Passmed