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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old female presents with recurrent episodes of severe vertigo that have been...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female presents with recurrent episodes of severe vertigo that have been disabling. She experiences these episodes multiple times a day, with each one lasting for about 10-20 minutes. Along with the vertigo, she also experiences ringing in both ears, nausea, and vomiting. She has noticed a change in her hearing in both ears, with difficulty hearing at times and normal hearing at other times. Additionally, she reports increased pressure in her ears. During the examination, you notice a painless rash behind her ear that has been present for many years.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Meniere’s disease

      Explanation:

      Suspect Meniere’s disease in a patient presenting with vertigo, tinnitus, and fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss. Acoustic neuroma would present with additional symptoms such as facial numbness and loss of corneal reflex. Herpes Zoster Oticus (Ramsey Hunt syndrome) would present with facial palsy and a painless rash. Vestibular neuronitis would have longer episodes of vertigo, nausea, and vomiting, but no hearing loss. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo would have brief episodes of vertigo after sudden head movements.

      Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by the excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The main symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.

      The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients will be left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis, and patients should inform the DVLA as the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. Acute attacks can be managed with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and admission to the hospital may be required. Prevention strategies include the use of betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, which may be beneficial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      17.8
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  • Question 2 - A 56-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent cough and...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent cough and increased production of sputum over the past year. She also reports feeling fatigued and experiencing shortness of breath. The patient mentions having had four chest infections in the last 12 months, all of which were treated with antibiotics. She has no personal or family history of lung issues and has never smoked.

      The healthcare provider suspects that bronchiectasis may be the underlying cause of her symptoms and orders appropriate tests.

      Which test is most likely to provide a definitive diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chest radiography

      Correct Answer: High-resolution computerised tomography

      Explanation:

      Bronchiectasis can be diagnosed through various methods, including chest radiography, histopathology, and pulmonary function tests.

      Chest radiography can reveal thickened bronchial walls, cystic lesions with fluid levels, collapsed areas with crowded pulmonary vasculature, and scarring, which are characteristic features of bronchiectasis.

      Histopathology, which is a more invasive investigation often done through autopsy or surgery, can show irreversible dilation of bronchial airways and bronchial wall thickening.

      However, high-resolution computerised tomography is a more favorable imaging technique as it is less invasive than histopathology.

      Pulmonary function tests are commonly used to diagnose bronchiectasis, but they should be used in conjunction with other investigations as they are not sensitive or specific enough to provide sufficient diagnostic evidence on their own. An obstructive pattern is the most common pattern encountered, but a restrictive pattern is also possible.

      Understanding the Causes of Bronchiectasis

      Bronchiectasis is a condition characterized by the permanent dilation of the airways due to chronic inflammation or infection. There are various factors that can lead to this condition, including post-infective causes such as tuberculosis, measles, pertussis, and pneumonia. Cystic fibrosis, bronchial obstruction caused by lung cancer or foreign bodies, and immune deficiencies like selective IgA and hypogammaglobulinaemia can also contribute to bronchiectasis. Additionally, allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA), ciliary dyskinetic syndromes like Kartagener’s syndrome and Young’s syndrome, and yellow nail syndrome are other potential causes. Understanding the underlying causes of bronchiectasis is crucial in developing effective treatment plans for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      35.6
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  • Question 3 - Which of the following nerve roots provide nerve fibers to the ansa cervicalis?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerve roots provide nerve fibers to the ansa cervicalis?

      Your Answer: C2, C3 and C6

      Correct Answer: C1, C2 and C3

      Explanation:

      The ansa cervicalis muscles can be remembered using the acronym GHost THought SOmeone Stupid Shot Irene. These muscles include the GenioHyoid, ThyroidHyoid, Superior Omohyoid, SternoThyroid, SternoHyoid, and Inferior Omohyoid. The ansa cervicalis is made up of a superior and inferior root, which originate from C1, C2, and C3. The superior root begins where the nerve crosses the internal carotid artery and descends in the anterior triangle of the neck. The inferior root joins the superior root in the mid neck region and can pass either superficially or deep to the internal jugular vein.

      The ansa cervicalis is a nerve that provides innervation to the sternohyoid, sternothyroid, and omohyoid muscles. It is composed of two roots: the superior root, which branches off from C1 and is located anterolateral to the carotid sheath, and the inferior root, which is derived from the C2 and C3 roots and passes posterolateral to the internal jugular vein. The inferior root enters the inferior aspect of the strap muscles, which are located in the neck, and should be divided in their upper half when exposing a large goitre. The ansa cervicalis is situated in front of the carotid sheath and is an important nerve for the proper functioning of the neck muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      5.8
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  • Question 4 - A 70-year-old man is admitted to the respiratory ward with an exacerbation of...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man is admitted to the respiratory ward with an exacerbation of COPD. He has been experiencing increased breathlessness and a productive cough for the past week. He is currently on day three of his rescue medication regimen consisting of amoxicillin and prednisolone. According to his previous discharge summary, this patient has a history of carbon dioxide retention. He is currently receiving controlled oxygen therapy via a 28% venturi mask. What is the target oxygen saturation level for this patient?

      Your Answer: 88%-92%

      Explanation:

      As a junior doctor, you will often encounter patients who retain carbon dioxide and depend on their hypoxic drive to breathe. When using Venturi masks to deliver controlled oxygen, it is important to set a target that balances the patient’s need for oxygen with their reliance on hypoxia to stimulate breathing. Answer 4 is the correct choice in this scenario. Providing too much oxygen, as in answers 2 and 3, can cause the patient to lose their hypoxic drive and become drowsy or confused. Answer 5 does not provide enough oxygen to properly perfuse the tissues. Failing to set a target for these patients is not good clinical practice.

      Guidelines for Oxygen Therapy in Emergency Situations

      In 2017, the British Thoracic Society updated its guidelines for emergency oxygen therapy. The guidelines state that in critically ill patients, such as those experiencing anaphylaxis or shock, oxygen should be administered through a reservoir mask at a rate of 15 liters per minute. However, certain conditions, such as stable myocardial infarction, are excluded from this recommendation.

      The guidelines also provide specific oxygen saturation targets for different patient populations. Acutely ill patients should have a saturation level between 94-98%, while patients at risk of hypercapnia, such as those with COPD, should have a saturation level between 88-92%. Oxygen levels should be reduced in stable patients with satisfactory oxygen saturation.

      For COPD patients, a 28% Venturi mask at 4 liters per minute should be used prior to the availability of blood gases. The target oxygen saturation level for these patients should be 88-92% if they have risk factors for hypercapnia but no prior history of respiratory acidosis. If the patient’s pCO2 is normal, the target range should be adjusted to 94-98%.

      The guidelines also state that oxygen therapy should not be used routinely in certain situations where there is no evidence of hypoxia, such as in cases of myocardial infarction, acute coronary syndromes, stroke, obstetric emergencies, and anxiety-related hyperventilation.

      Overall, these guidelines provide important recommendations for the appropriate use of oxygen therapy in emergency situations, taking into account the specific needs of different patient populations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old man with a history of asthma since childhood visited his doctor...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man with a history of asthma since childhood visited his doctor for his routine check-up. He is planning to go on a hiking trip with his friends in a month and wants to ensure that it is safe for him. Can you describe the scenarios that accurately depict the hemoglobin saturation of blood and the ability of body tissues to extract oxygen from the blood in response to different situations?

      Your Answer: If the hiking involves areas of relatively high altitude the hemoglobin saturation of blood after flowing through body tissues will be higher

      Correct Answer: If the man is not able to breathe properly and, his blood carbon dioxide level increases, this will cause his body tissues to extract more oxygen from his blood

      Explanation:

      Hypercapnia causes a shift in the oxygen dissociation curve to the right. This means that for the same partial pressure of oxygen, the hemoglobin saturation will be less. Other factors that can cause a right shift in the curve include high altitudes, anaerobic metabolism resulting in the production of lactic acid, physical activity, and an increase in temperature. These shifts allow the body tissues to extract more oxygen from the blood, resulting in a lower hemoglobin saturation of the blood leaving the body tissues. Carbon dioxide is also known to produce a right shift in the curve, further contributing to this effect.

      Understanding the Oxygen Dissociation Curve

      The oxygen dissociation curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. It is not influenced by the concentration of haemoglobin. The curve can shift to the left or right, indicating changes in oxygen delivery to tissues. When the curve shifts to the left, there is increased saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Conversely, when the curve shifts to the right, there is reduced saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, leading to enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues.

      The L rule is a helpful mnemonic to remember the factors that cause a shift to the left, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. These factors include low levels of hydrogen ions (alkali), low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, low levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, and low temperature. On the other hand, the mnemonic ‘CADET, face Right!’ can be used to remember the factors that cause a shift to the right, leading to raised oxygen delivery. These factors include carbon dioxide, acid, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, exercise, and temperature.

      Understanding the oxygen dissociation curve is crucial in assessing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and the delivery of oxygen to tissues. By knowing the factors that can shift the curve to the left or right, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions in managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 6 - A 67-year-old man visits the respiratory clinic for spirometry testing to investigate possible...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man visits the respiratory clinic for spirometry testing to investigate possible COPD. The clinician observes that his breathing appears to be shallow even at rest.

      What specific lung volume would accurately describe the clinician's observation?

      Your Answer: Residual volume (RV)

      Correct Answer: Tidal volume (TV)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology

      In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.

      Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.

      Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.

      Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.

      Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.

      Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      23.5
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  • Question 7 - A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a feeling of food...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a feeling of food stuck in his throat. He experienced this sensation 2 hours ago after consuming fish at a nearby seafood restaurant. The patient reports no breathing difficulties. Upon laryngoscopy, a fish bone is found lodged in the left piriform recess. While removing the fish bone, a nerve located deep to the mucosa covering the recess is damaged.

      Which function is most likely to be affected in this individual?

      Your Answer: Pharyngeal reflex

      Correct Answer: Cough reflex

      Explanation:

      Foreign objects lodged in the piriform recess can cause damage to the internal laryngeal nerve, which is located just beneath a thin layer of mucosa covering the recess. This nerve plays a crucial role in the cough reflex, as it carries sensory information from the area above the vocal cords. Attempts to remove foreign objects from the piriform recess can also lead to nerve damage.

      Other functions, such as mastication, the pharyngeal reflex, salivation, and taste sensation, are mediated by different nerves and are not directly related to the piriform recess or the internal laryngeal nerve.

      Anatomy of the Larynx

      The larynx is located in the front of the neck, between the third and sixth cervical vertebrae. It is made up of several cartilaginous segments, including the paired arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilages, as well as the single thyroid, cricoid, and epiglottic cartilages. The cricoid cartilage forms a complete ring. The laryngeal cavity extends from the laryngeal inlet to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage and is divided into three parts: the laryngeal vestibule, the laryngeal ventricle, and the infraglottic cavity.

      The vocal folds, also known as the true vocal cords, control sound production. They consist of the vocal ligament and the vocalis muscle, which is the most medial part of the thyroarytenoid muscle. The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes, and rima glottidis, which is the narrowest potential site within the larynx.

      The larynx is also home to several muscles, including the posterior cricoarytenoid, lateral cricoarytenoid, thyroarytenoid, transverse and oblique arytenoids, vocalis, and cricothyroid muscles. These muscles are responsible for various actions, such as abducting or adducting the vocal folds and relaxing or tensing the vocal ligament.

      The larynx receives its arterial supply from the laryngeal arteries, which are branches of the superior and inferior thyroid arteries. Venous drainage is via the superior and inferior laryngeal veins. Lymphatic drainage varies depending on the location within the larynx, with the vocal cords having no lymphatic drainage and the supraglottic and subglottic parts draining into different lymph nodes.

      Overall, understanding the anatomy of the larynx is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting this structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      28.5
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  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old female patient presents to your clinic seeking help to quit smoking....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient presents to your clinic seeking help to quit smoking. Despite several attempts in the past, she has been unsuccessful. She has a medical history of bipolar disorder and well-managed epilepsy, for which she takes lamotrigine. She currently smokes 15 cigarettes per day and is especially interested in the health benefits of quitting smoking since she has recently found out that she is pregnant. As her physician, you decide to prescribe a suitable medication to assist her in her efforts. What would be the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Correct Answer: Nicotine gum

      Explanation:

      Standard treatments for nicotine dependence do not include amitriptyline, fluoxetine, or gabapentin. Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) can be helpful for motivated patients, but it is not a cure for addiction and may require multiple attempts. Bupropion and varenicline are other smoking cessation aids, but they have multiple side effects and may not be suitable for all patients. NICE guidelines recommend discussing the best method of smoking cessation with the patient, but NRT is considered safer in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      19.2
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  • Question 9 - A 14-year-old girl presents to her GP with complaints of earache and hearing...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents to her GP with complaints of earache and hearing difficulty in her left ear. Upon examination, her GP observes a bulging tympanic membrane and diagnoses her with acute otitis media. The GP prescribes a course of oral antibiotics.

      However, after a few days, the girl's fever persists and her pain worsens, prompting her to visit the emergency department. Upon examination, the girl has a tender and erythematous retro-auricular swelling with a temperature of 38.9ºC. She has no ear discharge, and the rest of her examination is unremarkable.

      What complication has developed in this case?

      Your Answer: Tympanic membrane perforation

      Correct Answer: Mastoiditis

      Explanation:

      Mastoiditis is a potential complication of acute otitis media, which can cause pain and swelling behind the ear over the mastoid bone. However, there is no evidence of tympanic membrane perforation, neurological symptoms or signs of meningitis or brain abscess, or facial nerve injury in this case.

      Acute otitis media is a common condition in young children, often caused by bacterial infections following viral upper respiratory tract infections. Symptoms include ear pain, fever, and hearing loss, and diagnosis is based on criteria such as the presence of a middle ear effusion and inflammation of the tympanic membrane. Antibiotics may be prescribed in certain cases, and complications can include perforation of the tympanic membrane, hearing loss, and more serious conditions such as meningitis and brain abscess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 70-year-old man visits his primary care physician with complaints of hearing difficulties....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man visits his primary care physician with complaints of hearing difficulties. He states that he has been increasingly struggling to hear his wife's conversations for the past six months. He is concerned that this problem will worsen and eventually lead to complete hearing loss, making it difficult for him to communicate with his children over the phone. His wife is also distressed by the situation, as he frequently asks her to turn up the volume on the television. The man has no history of exposure to loud noises and has well-controlled hypertension. He is a retired police officer and currently resides with his wife. What is the primary pathology underlying this man's most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Accumulation of keratin debris in the middle ear

      Correct Answer: Degeneration of the cells at the cochlear base

      Explanation:

      The patient has a gradual-onset hearing loss, which is most likely due to presbycusis, an aging-related sensorineural hearing loss. This condition has multiple causes, including environmental factors like noise pollution and biological factors like genetics and oxidative stress. Damage to the organ of Corti stereocilia from exposure to sudden loud noises can also cause hearing loss, which is typically sudden and associated with a history of exposure to loud noises. Other conditions that can cause hearing loss include cholesteatoma, which is due to the accumulation of keratin debris in the middle ear, and otosclerosis, which is characterized by the overgrowth of bone in the middle ear.

      Anatomy of the Ear

      The ear is divided into three distinct regions: the external ear, middle ear, and internal ear. The external ear consists of the auricle and external auditory meatus, which are innervated by the greater auricular nerve and auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve. The middle ear is the space between the tympanic membrane and cochlea, and is connected to the nasopharynx by the eustachian tube. The tympanic membrane is composed of three layers and is approximately 1 cm in diameter. The middle ear is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve. The ossicles, consisting of the malleus, incus, and stapes, transmit sound vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear. The internal ear contains the cochlea, which houses the organ of corti, the sense organ of hearing. The vestibule accommodates the utricule and saccule, which contain endolymph and are surrounded by perilymph. The semicircular canals, which share a common opening into the vestibule, lie at various angles to the petrous temporal bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 70-year-old man visits a respiratory clinic complaining of shortness of breath even...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man visits a respiratory clinic complaining of shortness of breath even with minimal activity. Upon conducting a thorough assessment, you suspect that he may have idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. To aid in your diagnosis, you decide to review his previous medical records. You come across the following spirometry results:

      Measurement volume (ml)
      Vital Capacity (VC) 4400
      Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) 3000
      Functional Residual Capacity (FRC) 2800
      Residual Volume (RV) 1200

      What is the total lung capacity (TLC) of this patient?

      Your Answer: 7200ml

      Correct Answer: 5600ml

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is 5600ml, which represents the total lung capacity. This value is obtained by adding the vital capacity, which is the maximum amount of air that can be breathed out after a deep inhalation, to the residual volume, which is the amount of air that remains in the lungs after a maximal exhalation. The vital capacity is composed of three volumes: the inspiratory reserve volume, the tidal volume, and the expiratory reserve volume. Other formulas are available to calculate different lung volumes, but they are not as commonly used.

      Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology

      In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.

      Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.

      Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.

      Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.

      Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.

      Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      300.8
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  • Question 12 - Which one of the following nerves conveys sensory information from the nasal mucosa?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following nerves conveys sensory information from the nasal mucosa?

      Your Answer: Laryngeal branches of the vagus

      Explanation:

      The larynx receives sensory information from the laryngeal branches of the vagus.

      Anatomy of the Larynx

      The larynx is located in the front of the neck, between the third and sixth cervical vertebrae. It is made up of several cartilaginous segments, including the paired arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilages, as well as the single thyroid, cricoid, and epiglottic cartilages. The cricoid cartilage forms a complete ring. The laryngeal cavity extends from the laryngeal inlet to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage and is divided into three parts: the laryngeal vestibule, the laryngeal ventricle, and the infraglottic cavity.

      The vocal folds, also known as the true vocal cords, control sound production. They consist of the vocal ligament and the vocalis muscle, which is the most medial part of the thyroarytenoid muscle. The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes, and rima glottidis, which is the narrowest potential site within the larynx.

      The larynx is also home to several muscles, including the posterior cricoarytenoid, lateral cricoarytenoid, thyroarytenoid, transverse and oblique arytenoids, vocalis, and cricothyroid muscles. These muscles are responsible for various actions, such as abducting or adducting the vocal folds and relaxing or tensing the vocal ligament.

      The larynx receives its arterial supply from the laryngeal arteries, which are branches of the superior and inferior thyroid arteries. Venous drainage is via the superior and inferior laryngeal veins. Lymphatic drainage varies depending on the location within the larynx, with the vocal cords having no lymphatic drainage and the supraglottic and subglottic parts draining into different lymph nodes.

      Overall, understanding the anatomy of the larynx is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting this structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      6.5
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  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old man is having a left pneumonectomy for bronchogenic carcinoma. When the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man is having a left pneumonectomy for bronchogenic carcinoma. When the surgeons reach the root of the lung, which structure will be situated furthest back in the anatomical plane?

      Your Answer: Main bronchus

      Correct Answer: Vagus nerve

      Explanation:

      At the lung root, the phrenic nerve is situated in the most anterior position while the vagus nerve is located at the posterior end.

      Anatomy of the Lungs

      The lungs are a pair of organs located in the chest cavity that play a vital role in respiration. The right lung is composed of three lobes, while the left lung has two lobes. The apex of both lungs is approximately 4 cm superior to the sternocostal joint of the first rib. The base of the lungs is in contact with the diaphragm, while the costal surface corresponds to the cavity of the chest. The mediastinal surface contacts the mediastinal pleura and has the cardiac impression. The hilum is a triangular depression above and behind the concavity, where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the viscus. The right main bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left main bronchus. The inferior borders of both lungs are at the 6th rib in the mid clavicular line, 8th rib in the mid axillary line, and 10th rib posteriorly. The pleura runs two ribs lower than the corresponding lung level. The bronchopulmonary segments of the lungs are divided into ten segments, each with a specific function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 14 - Sophie is a 15-year-old girl who has been brought to your GP clinic...

    Correct

    • Sophie is a 15-year-old girl who has been brought to your GP clinic by her father. She has not yet started to develop breasts or have her first period. She does not seem worried, but her father is concerned. Sophie has a history of eczema and has been using topical steroids for several years. When her father leaves the room, she also admits to occasionally using tanning beds.

      What could be a possible cause of delayed puberty in Sophie?

      Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Delayed puberty can be caused by various factors, with constitutional delay being the most common cause. However, other causes must be ruled out before diagnosing constitutional delay. Some of these causes include chronic illnesses like kidney disease and Crohn’s disease, malnutrition from conditions such as anorexia nervosa, cystic fibrosis, and coeliac disease, excessive physical exercise, psychosocial deprivation, steroid therapy, hypothyroidism, tumours near the hypothalamo-pituitary axis, congenital anomalies like septo-optic dysplasia and congenital panhypopituitarism, irradiation treatment, and trauma such as surgery or head injury.

      Understanding Cystic Fibrosis: Symptoms and Other Features

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects various organs in the body, particularly the lungs and digestive system. The symptoms of cystic fibrosis can vary from person to person, but some common presenting features include recurrent chest infections, malabsorption, and liver disease. In some cases, infants may experience meconium ileus or prolonged jaundice. It is important to note that while many patients are diagnosed during newborn screening or early childhood, some may not be diagnosed until adulthood.

      Aside from the presenting features, there are other symptoms and features associated with cystic fibrosis. These include short stature, diabetes mellitus, delayed puberty, rectal prolapse, nasal polyps, and infertility. It is important for individuals with cystic fibrosis to receive proper medical care and management to address these symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old man presents with a persistent dry cough and unintentional weight loss...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents with a persistent dry cough and unintentional weight loss of 5kg over the past 3 months. He denies experiencing chest pain, dyspnoea, fever or haemoptysis. The patient has a history of smoking 10 cigarettes a day for the last 50 years and has been diagnosed with COPD. A nodule is detected on chest x-ray, and biopsy results indicate a tumour originating from the bronchial glands.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma of the lung

      Explanation:

      Adenocarcinoma has become the most prevalent form of lung cancer, originating from the bronchial glands as a type of non-small-cell lung cancer.

      While a bronchogenic cyst may cause chest pain and dysphagia, it is typically diagnosed during childhood and does not stem from the bronchial glands.

      Sarcoidosis may result in a persistent cough and weight loss, but it typically affects multiple systems and does not involve nodules originating from the bronchial glands.

      Small cell carcinoma of the lung is a significant consideration, but given the description of a tumor originating from the bronchial glands, adenocarcinoma is the more probable diagnosis.

      Lung cancer can be classified into two main types: small cell lung cancer (SCLC) and non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC). SCLC is less common, accounting for only 15% of cases, but has a worse prognosis. NSCLC, on the other hand, is more prevalent and can be further broken down into different subtypes. Adenocarcinoma is now the most common type of lung cancer, likely due to the increased use of low-tar cigarettes. It is often seen in non-smokers and accounts for 62% of cases in ‘never’ smokers. Squamous cell carcinoma is another subtype, and cavitating lesions are more common in this type of lung cancer. Large cell carcinoma, alveolar cell carcinoma, bronchial adenoma, and carcinoid are other subtypes of NSCLC. Differentiating between these subtypes is crucial as different drugs are available to treat each subtype.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      24.2
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  • Question 16 - A 30-year-old female complains of weakness, weight gain, and cold intolerance. You suspect...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female complains of weakness, weight gain, and cold intolerance. You suspect hypothyroidism. What vocal change would you anticipate to have occurred, increasing the probability of this potential diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hoarse voice

      Explanation:

      Hoarseness is a symptom that can be caused by hypothyroidism.

      When a patient presents with hoarseness, it can be difficult to determine the underlying cause. However, if the hoarseness is accompanied by other symptoms commonly associated with hypothyroidism, it can help narrow down the diagnosis.

      The reason for the voice change in hypothyroidism is due to the thickening of the vocal cords caused by the accumulation of mucopolysaccharide. This substance, also known as glycosaminoglycans, is found throughout the body in mucus and joint fluid. When it builds up in the vocal cords, it can lower the pitch of the voice. The thyroid hormone plays a role in preventing this buildup.

      Hoarseness can be caused by various factors such as overusing the voice, smoking, viral infections, hypothyroidism, gastro-oesophageal reflux, laryngeal cancer, and lung cancer. It is important to investigate the underlying cause of hoarseness, and a chest x-ray may be necessary to rule out any apical lung lesions.

      If laryngeal cancer is suspected, it is recommended to refer the patient to an ENT specialist through a suspected cancer pathway. This referral should be considered for individuals who are 45 years old and above and have persistent unexplained hoarseness or an unexplained lump in the neck. Early detection and treatment of laryngeal cancer can significantly improve the patient’s prognosis.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 17 - A 16-year-old girl presents to the Emergency department with her mother. The mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl presents to the Emergency department with her mother. The mother reports that her daughter has been experiencing worsening breathlessness and facial puffiness for the past 30 minutes. Apart from eczema, the girl has been healthy and is currently taking oral contraceptives. On examination, the girl appears to be in distress, with laboured breathing and stridor but no wheezing. What is the probable cause of her breathlessness?

      Your Answer: Pneumothorax

      Correct Answer: Angio-oedema

      Explanation:

      Noisy Breathing and Atopy in Adolescents

      The presence of noisy breathing in an adolescent may indicate the possibility of stridor, which can be caused by an allergic reaction even in an otherwise healthy individual. The history of atopy, or a tendency to develop allergic reactions, further supports the diagnosis of angio-oedema. The sudden onset of symptoms also adds to the likelihood of this diagnosis.

      While asthma is a possible differential diagnosis, it typically presents with expiratory wheezing. However, if the chest is silent, it may indicate a severe and life-threatening form of asthma. Therefore, it is important to consider all possible causes of noisy breathing and atopy in adolescents to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 18 - A 26-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being rescued at...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being rescued at sea following a sailing accident. He is currently unresponsive with a Glasgow Coma Score of 9 (E2 V3 M4).

      His vital signs include a heart rate of 110 beats per minute, blood pressure of 110/76 mmHg, oxygen saturation of 93%, and temperature of 34.8 ºC. An ECG is unremarkable and venous blood indicates type 2 respiratory failure. The patient's oxygen dissociation curve shows a leftward shift.

      What is the cause of the leftward shift in this 26-year-old patient's oxygen dissociation curve?

      Your Answer: Hypoxaemia

      Correct Answer: Hypothermia

      Explanation:

      The only answer that causes a leftward shift in the oxygen dissociation curve is hypothermia. When tissues undergo aerobic respiration, they generate heat, which changes the shape of the haemoglobin molecule and reduces its affinity for oxygen. This results in the release of oxygen at respiring tissues. In contrast, lower temperatures in the lungs cause a leftward shift in the oxygen dissociation curve, which increases the binding of oxygen to haemoglobin.

      Hypercapnia is not the correct answer because it causes a rightward shift in the oxygen dissociation curve. Hypercapnia lowers blood pH, which changes the shape of haemoglobin and reduces its affinity for oxygen.

      Hypoxaemia is not the correct answer because the partial pressure of oxygen does not affect the oxygen dissociation curve. The partial pressure of oxygen does not change the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen.

      Increased concentration of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) is not the correct answer because higher concentrations of 2,3-DPG reduce haemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen, causing a right shift in the oxygen dissociation curve.

      Understanding the Oxygen Dissociation Curve

      The oxygen dissociation curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. It is not influenced by the concentration of haemoglobin. The curve can shift to the left or right, indicating changes in oxygen delivery to tissues. When the curve shifts to the left, there is increased saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Conversely, when the curve shifts to the right, there is reduced saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, leading to enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues.

      The L rule is a helpful mnemonic to remember the factors that cause a shift to the left, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. These factors include low levels of hydrogen ions (alkali), low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, low levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, and low temperature. On the other hand, the mnemonic ‘CADET, face Right!’ can be used to remember the factors that cause a shift to the right, leading to raised oxygen delivery. These factors include carbon dioxide, acid, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, exercise, and temperature.

      Understanding the oxygen dissociation curve is crucial in assessing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and the delivery of oxygen to tissues. By knowing the factors that can shift the curve to the left or right, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions in managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.

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  • Question 19 - A 9-month-old girl is brought to the hospital due to recurrent episodes of...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old girl is brought to the hospital due to recurrent episodes of breathing difficulties. She has been experiencing a gradual worsening of symptoms, including a wet cough and expiratory wheezing, for the past 4 days.

      During the examination, her temperature is recorded at 38.2°C, and her respiratory rate is 60 breaths per minute. Oxygen saturation levels are at 92% on air. Chest examination reveals mild intercostal retractions, scattered crackles, and expiratory wheezing in both lungs.

      What is the most probable causative agent responsible for the symptoms?

      Your Answer: Rhinovirus

      Correct Answer: Respiratory syncytial virus

      Explanation:

      Bronchiolitis is commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus, which accounts for the majority of cases of serious lower respiratory tract infections in children under one.

      Understanding Bronchiolitis

      Bronchiolitis is a condition that is characterized by inflammation of the bronchioles. It is a serious lower respiratory tract infection that is most common in children under the age of one year. The pathogen responsible for 75-80% of cases is respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), while other causes include mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is more serious in children with bronchopulmonary dysplasia, congenital heart disease, or cystic fibrosis.

      The symptoms of bronchiolitis include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Fine inspiratory crackles may also be present. Children with bronchiolitis may experience feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea, which is often the reason for hospital admission.

      Immediate referral to hospital is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell to a healthcare professional, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referring to hospital if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration.

      The investigation for bronchiolitis involves immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions, which may show RSV. Management of bronchiolitis is largely supportive, with humidified oxygen given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently < 92%. Nasogastric feeding may be needed if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth, and suction is sometimes used for excessive upper airway secretions.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old man from Hong Kong complains of fatigue, weight loss, and recurrent...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man from Hong Kong complains of fatigue, weight loss, and recurrent nosebleeds. During clinical examination, left-sided cervical lymphadenopathy is observed, and an ulcerated mass is found in the nasopharynx upon oropharyngeal examination. Which viral agent is typically associated with the development of this condition?

      Your Answer: Epstein Barr virus

      Explanation:

      Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is typically diagnosed through Trotter’s triad, which includes unilateral conductive hearing loss, ipsilateral facial and ear pain, and ipsilateral paralysis of the soft palate. This condition is commonly associated with previous Epstein Barr Virus infection, but there is no known link between the development of nasopharyngeal carcinoma and the other viruses mentioned.

      Understanding Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma

      Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is a type of squamous cell carcinoma that affects the nasopharynx. It is a rare form of cancer that is more common in individuals from Southern China and is associated with Epstein Barr virus infection. The presenting features of nasopharyngeal carcinoma include cervical lymphadenopathy, otalgia, unilateral serous otitis media, nasal obstruction, discharge, and/or epistaxis, and cranial nerve palsies such as III-VI.

      To diagnose nasopharyngeal carcinoma, a combined CT and MRI scan is typically used. The first line of treatment for this type of cancer is radiotherapy. It is important to catch nasopharyngeal carcinoma early to increase the chances of successful treatment.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 21 - A 9-year-old boy is rushed to the emergency department following a fish bone...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old boy is rushed to the emergency department following a fish bone choking incident during dinner. The patient is not experiencing any airway obstruction and has been given sufficient pain relief.

      After being referred for laryngoscopy, a fish bone is discovered in the piriform recess. What is the potential structure that could be harmed due to the location of the fish bone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      Foreign objects lodged in the piriform recess can cause damage to the internal laryngeal nerve, which is in close proximity to this area. The internal laryngeal nerve is responsible for providing sensation to the laryngeal mucosa. The ansa cervicalis, external laryngeal nerve, glossopharyngeal nerve, and superior laryngeal nerve are not at high risk of injury from foreign bodies in the piriform recess.

      Anatomy of the Larynx

      The larynx is located in the front of the neck, between the third and sixth cervical vertebrae. It is made up of several cartilaginous segments, including the paired arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilages, as well as the single thyroid, cricoid, and epiglottic cartilages. The cricoid cartilage forms a complete ring. The laryngeal cavity extends from the laryngeal inlet to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage and is divided into three parts: the laryngeal vestibule, the laryngeal ventricle, and the infraglottic cavity.

      The vocal folds, also known as the true vocal cords, control sound production. They consist of the vocal ligament and the vocalis muscle, which is the most medial part of the thyroarytenoid muscle. The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes, and rima glottidis, which is the narrowest potential site within the larynx.

      The larynx is also home to several muscles, including the posterior cricoarytenoid, lateral cricoarytenoid, thyroarytenoid, transverse and oblique arytenoids, vocalis, and cricothyroid muscles. These muscles are responsible for various actions, such as abducting or adducting the vocal folds and relaxing or tensing the vocal ligament.

      The larynx receives its arterial supply from the laryngeal arteries, which are branches of the superior and inferior thyroid arteries. Venous drainage is via the superior and inferior laryngeal veins. Lymphatic drainage varies depending on the location within the larynx, with the vocal cords having no lymphatic drainage and the supraglottic and subglottic parts draining into different lymph nodes.

      Overall, understanding the anatomy of the larynx is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting this structure.

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  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of worsening retrosternal chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of worsening retrosternal chest pain that radiates to the neck and shoulders and is pleuritic in nature. During examination, a pericardial friction rub is heard at the end of expiration. The diagnosis is pericarditis. What nerve supplies this area?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phrenic nerve

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the phrenic nerve, which provides sensory innervation to the pericardium, the central part of the diaphragm, and the mediastinal part of the parietal pleura. It also supplies motor function to the diaphragm. The long thoracic nerve, medial pectoral nerve, thoracodorsal nerve, and vagus nerve are all incorrect answers.

      The Phrenic Nerve: Origin, Path, and Supplies

      The phrenic nerve is a crucial nerve that originates from the cervical spinal nerves C3, C4, and C5. It supplies the diaphragm and provides sensation to the central diaphragm and pericardium. The nerve passes with the internal jugular vein across scalenus anterior and deep to the prevertebral fascia of the deep cervical fascia.

      The right phrenic nerve runs anterior to the first part of the subclavian artery in the superior mediastinum and laterally to the superior vena cava. In the middle mediastinum, it is located to the right of the pericardium and passes over the right atrium to exit the diaphragm at T8. On the other hand, the left phrenic nerve passes lateral to the left subclavian artery, aortic arch, and left ventricle. It passes anterior to the root of the lung and pierces the diaphragm alone.

      Understanding the origin, path, and supplies of the phrenic nerve is essential in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the diaphragm and pericardium.

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  • Question 23 - A 24-year-old man is being evaluated at the respiratory clinic for possible bronchiectasis....

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man is being evaluated at the respiratory clinic for possible bronchiectasis. He has a history of recurrent chest infections since childhood and has difficulty maintaining a healthy weight. Despite using inhalers, he has not experienced any significant improvement. Genetic testing has been ordered to investigate the possibility of cystic fibrosis.

      What is the typical role of the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chloride channel

      Explanation:

      The chloride channel, specifically a cyclic-AMP regulated chloride channel, is the correct answer. Cystic fibrosis can be caused by various mutations, but they all affect the same gene, the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene. This gene encodes a chloride channel that, when dysfunctional, results in increased viscosity of secretions and the development of cystic fibrosis.

      Understanding Cystic Fibrosis

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that causes thickened secretions in the lungs and pancreas. It is an autosomal recessive condition that occurs due to a defect in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR), which regulates a chloride channel. In the UK, 80% of CF cases are caused by delta F508 on chromosome 7, and the carrier rate is approximately 1 in 25.

      CF patients are at risk of colonization by certain organisms, including Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cepacia (previously known as Pseudomonas cepacia), and Aspergillus. These organisms can cause infections and exacerbate symptoms in CF patients. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor and manage these infections to prevent further complications.

      Overall, understanding cystic fibrosis and its associated risks can help healthcare providers provide better care for patients with this condition.

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  • Question 24 - What is the term used to describe the area between the vocal cords?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the area between the vocal cords?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rima glottidis

      Explanation:

      The narrowest part of the laryngeal cavity is known as the rima glottidis.

      Anatomy of the Larynx

      The larynx is located in the front of the neck, between the third and sixth cervical vertebrae. It is made up of several cartilaginous segments, including the paired arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilages, as well as the single thyroid, cricoid, and epiglottic cartilages. The cricoid cartilage forms a complete ring. The laryngeal cavity extends from the laryngeal inlet to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage and is divided into three parts: the laryngeal vestibule, the laryngeal ventricle, and the infraglottic cavity.

      The vocal folds, also known as the true vocal cords, control sound production. They consist of the vocal ligament and the vocalis muscle, which is the most medial part of the thyroarytenoid muscle. The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes, and rima glottidis, which is the narrowest potential site within the larynx.

      The larynx is also home to several muscles, including the posterior cricoarytenoid, lateral cricoarytenoid, thyroarytenoid, transverse and oblique arytenoids, vocalis, and cricothyroid muscles. These muscles are responsible for various actions, such as abducting or adducting the vocal folds and relaxing or tensing the vocal ligament.

      The larynx receives its arterial supply from the laryngeal arteries, which are branches of the superior and inferior thyroid arteries. Venous drainage is via the superior and inferior laryngeal veins. Lymphatic drainage varies depending on the location within the larynx, with the vocal cords having no lymphatic drainage and the supraglottic and subglottic parts draining into different lymph nodes.

      Overall, understanding the anatomy of the larynx is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting this structure.

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  • Question 25 - A 75-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of weight loss and feeling full...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of weight loss and feeling full quickly. During the abdominal examination, the doctor notices a swollen lymph node in the left supraclavicular region. The doctor suspects that this could be a sign of gastric cancer with the spread of tumor emboli through the thoracic duct as it ascends from the abdomen into the mediastinum. Can you name the two other structures that pass through the diaphragm along with the thoracic duct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aorta and azygous vein

      Explanation:

      The point at which the aorta, thoracic duct, and azygous vein cross the diaphragm is at T12, specifically at the aortic opening. This is also where the oesophageal branches of the left gastric veins, the vagal trunk, and the oesophagus pass through the diaphragm, at the oesophageal opening located at T10. The left phrenic nerve and sympathetic trunk have their own separate openings in the diaphragm. A lymph node in the left supraclavicular fossa, known as Virchow’s node, is a characteristic sign of early gastric carcinoma.

      Structures Perforating the Diaphragm

      The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle that separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities. It plays a crucial role in breathing by contracting and relaxing to create negative pressure in the lungs. However, there are certain structures that perforate the diaphragm, allowing them to pass through from the thoracic to the abdominal cavity. These structures include the inferior vena cava at the level of T8, the esophagus and vagal trunk at T10, and the aorta, thoracic duct, and azygous vein at T12.

      To remember these structures and their corresponding levels, a helpful mnemonic is I 8(ate) 10 EGGS AT 12. This means that the inferior vena cava is at T8, the esophagus and vagal trunk are at T10, and the aorta, thoracic duct, and azygous vein are at T12. Knowing these structures and their locations is important for medical professionals, as they may need to access or treat them during surgical procedures or diagnose issues related to them.

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  • Question 26 - A 26-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by his mother. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by his mother. He is agitated, restless, and anxious.

      Upon examination, dilated pupils are observed, and an ECG reveals sinus tachycardia.

      The patient has a medical history of chronic asthma and is currently taking modified-release theophylline tablets.

      According to his mother, he returned from a trip to Pakistan last night and has been taking antibiotics for bacterial gastroenteritis for the past four days. He has three days left on his antibiotic course.

      What could be the cause of his current presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Terbinafine is frequently prescribed for the treatment of fungal nail infections as an antifungal medication.

      Theophylline and its Poisoning

      Theophylline is a naturally occurring methylxanthine that is commonly used as a bronchodilator in the management of asthma and COPD. Its exact mechanism of action is still unknown, but it is believed to be a non-specific inhibitor of phosphodiesterase, resulting in an increase in cAMP. Other proposed mechanisms include antagonism of adenosine and prostaglandin inhibition.

      However, theophylline poisoning can occur and is characterized by symptoms such as acidosis, hypokalemia, vomiting, tachycardia, arrhythmias, and seizures. In such cases, gastric lavage may be considered if the ingestion occurred less than an hour prior. Activated charcoal is also recommended, while whole-bowel irrigation can be performed if theophylline is in sustained-release form. Charcoal hemoperfusion is preferable to hemodialysis in managing theophylline poisoning.

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  • Question 27 - A 54-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of difficulty breathing. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of difficulty breathing. The results of his pulmonary function tests are as follows:

      Reference Range
      FVC (% predicted) 102 80-120
      FEV1 (% predicted) 62 80-120
      FEV1/FVC (%) 60.1 >70
      TCLO (% predicted) 140 60-120

      What is the probable reason for his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Asthma exacerbation

      Explanation:

      The raised transfer factor suggests that the patient is experiencing an exacerbation of asthma. This condition can cause obstructive patterns on pulmonary function tests, leading to reduced FEV1 and FEV1/FVC, as well as hypoxia and wheezing. However, other conditions such as COPD exacerbation, idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, and pulmonary embolism would result in a low transfer factor, and are therefore unlikely explanations for the patient’s symptoms.

      Understanding Transfer Factor in Lung Function Testing

      The transfer factor is a measure of how quickly a gas diffuses from the alveoli into the bloodstream. This is typically tested using carbon monoxide, and the results can be given as either the total gas transfer (TLCO) or the transfer coefficient corrected for lung volume (KCO). A raised TLCO may be caused by conditions such as asthma, pulmonary haemorrhage, left-to-right cardiac shunts, polycythaemia, hyperkinetic states, male gender, or exercise. On the other hand, a lower TLCO may be indicative of pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonia, pulmonary emboli, pulmonary oedema, emphysema, anaemia, or low cardiac output.

      KCO tends to increase with age, and certain conditions may cause an increased KCO with a normal or reduced TLCO. These conditions include pneumonectomy/lobectomy, scoliosis/kyphosis, neuromuscular weakness, and ankylosis of costovertebral joints (such as in ankylosing spondylitis). Understanding transfer factor is important in lung function testing, as it can provide valuable information about a patient’s respiratory health and help guide treatment decisions.

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  • Question 28 - A 24-year-old female arrives at the emergency department in a state of panic...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old female arrives at the emergency department in a state of panic following a recent breakup with her partner. She complains of chest tightness and dizziness, fearing that she may be experiencing a heart attack. Upon examination, her vital signs are stable except for a respiratory rate of 34 breaths per minute. What compensatory mechanism is expected in response to the change in her oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve, and what is the underlying cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left shift, respiratory alkalosis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s oxygen dissociation curve has shifted to the left, indicating respiratory alkalosis. This is likely due to the patient experiencing a panic attack and hyperventilating, leading to a decrease in carbon dioxide levels and an increase in the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen. Respiratory acidosis, hypercapnia, and a right shift of the curve are not appropriate explanations for this patient’s condition.

      Understanding the Oxygen Dissociation Curve

      The oxygen dissociation curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. It is not influenced by the concentration of haemoglobin. The curve can shift to the left or right, indicating changes in oxygen delivery to tissues. When the curve shifts to the left, there is increased saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Conversely, when the curve shifts to the right, there is reduced saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, leading to enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues.

      The L rule is a helpful mnemonic to remember the factors that cause a shift to the left, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. These factors include low levels of hydrogen ions (alkali), low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, low levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, and low temperature. On the other hand, the mnemonic ‘CADET, face Right!’ can be used to remember the factors that cause a shift to the right, leading to raised oxygen delivery. These factors include carbon dioxide, acid, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, exercise, and temperature.

      Understanding the oxygen dissociation curve is crucial in assessing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and the delivery of oxygen to tissues. By knowing the factors that can shift the curve to the left or right, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions in managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.

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  • Question 29 - A 38-year-old woman visits her GP with a solitary, painless tumour in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman visits her GP with a solitary, painless tumour in her left cheek. Upon further examination, she is diagnosed with pleomorphic adenoma. What is the recommended management for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Surgical resection

      Explanation:

      Surgical resection is the preferred treatment for pleomorphic adenoma, a benign tumor of the parotid gland that may undergo malignant transformation. Chemotherapy and radiotherapy are not effective in managing this condition. Additionally, salivary stone removal is not relevant to the treatment of pleomorphic adenoma.

      Understanding Pleomorphic Adenoma

      Pleomorphic adenoma, also known as a benign mixed tumour, is a non-cancerous growth that commonly affects the parotid gland. This type of tumour usually develops in individuals aged 40 to 60 years old. The condition is characterized by the proliferation of epithelial and myoepithelial cells of the ducts, as well as an increase in stromal components. The tumour is slow-growing, lobular, and not well encapsulated.

      The clinical features of pleomorphic adenoma include a gradual onset of painless unilateral swelling of the parotid gland. The swelling is typically movable on examination rather than fixed. The management of pleomorphic adenoma involves surgical excision. The prognosis is generally good, with a recurrence rate of 1-5% with appropriate excision (parotidectomy). However, recurrence may occur due to capsular disruption during surgery. If left untreated, pleomorphic adenoma may undergo malignant transformation, occurring in 2-10% of adenomas observed for long periods. Carcinoma ex-pleomorphic adenoma is the most common type of malignant transformation, occurring most frequently as adenocarcinoma.

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  • Question 30 - A senior citizen who has been a lifelong smoker visits the respiratory clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A senior citizen who has been a lifelong smoker visits the respiratory clinic for a check-up on his emphysema. What alterations in his lung function test results would you anticipate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased residual volume and reduced vital capacity

      Explanation:

      Emphysema causes an increase in residual volume, leading to a decrease in vital capacity. This is due to damage to the alveolar walls, which results in the formation of large air sacs called bullae. The lungs lose their compliance, making it difficult to fully exhale and causing air to become trapped in the bullae. As a result, the total volume that can be exhaled is reduced, leading to a decrease in vital capacity.

      Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology

      In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.

      Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.

      Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.

      Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.

      Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.

      Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.

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  • Question 31 - A senior woman with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) arrives...

    Incorrect

    • A senior woman with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) arrives at the hospital complaining of worsening shortness of breath and a productive cough. As part of the initial evaluation, a chest X-ray is requested.

      What radiographic feature would you anticipate observing on her chest X-ray?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flattened diaphragm

      Explanation:

      The diaphragm of patients with COPD often appears flattened on a chest X-ray due to the chronic expiratory airflow obstruction causing dynamic hyperinflation of the lungs. Pleural effusions are commonly associated with infection, malignancy, or heart failure, while empyema is a result of pus accumulation in the pleural space caused by an infection.

      Understanding COPD: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a common medical condition that includes chronic bronchitis and emphysema. Smoking is the leading cause of COPD, and patients with mild disease may only need occasional use of a bronchodilator, while severe cases may result in frequent hospital admissions due to exacerbations. Symptoms of COPD include a productive cough, dyspnea, wheezing, and in severe cases, right-sided heart failure leading to peripheral edema.

      To diagnose COPD, doctors may recommend post-bronchodilator spirometry to demonstrate airflow obstruction, a chest x-ray to check for hyperinflation, bullae, and flat hemidiaphragm, and to exclude lung cancer. A full blood count may also be necessary to exclude secondary polycythemia, and body mass index (BMI) calculation is important. The severity of COPD is categorized using the FEV1, with a ratio of less than 70% indicating airflow obstruction. The grading system has changed following the 2010 NICE guidelines, with Stage 1 – mild now including patients with an FEV1 greater than 80% predicted but with a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio of less than 0.7. Measuring peak expiratory flow is of limited value in COPD, as it may underestimate the degree of airflow obstruction.

      In summary, COPD is a common condition caused by smoking that can result in a range of symptoms and severity. Diagnosis involves various tests to check for airflow obstruction, exclude lung cancer, and determine the severity of the disease.

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  • Question 32 - A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent cough and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent cough and increased production of sputum over the past year. She also reports feeling fatigued and experiencing shortness of breath. The patient mentions having had four chest infections in the last 12 months, all of which were treated with antibiotics. She has no medical or family history and has never smoked.

      The healthcare provider suspects that bronchiectasis may be the underlying cause of her symptoms and orders appropriate tests, including a sputum sample.

      What is the most likely organism to be identified?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Bronchiectasis patients may have various bacteria present in their respiratory system, with Haemophilus influenzae and Pseudomonas aeruginosa being the most common. Staphylococcus aureus has also been found but not as frequently. Respiratory syncytial virus has not been detected in acute exacerbations of bronchiectasis. It is crucial to identify the specific bacteria causing exacerbations as antibiotic sensitivity patterns differ, and sputum culture results can impact the effectiveness of treatment. These findings are outlined in the British Thoracic Society’s guideline for non-CF bronchiectasis and a study by Metaxas et al. on the role of atypical bacteria and respiratory syncytial virus in bronchiectasis exacerbations.

      Bronchiectasis is a condition where the airways become permanently dilated due to chronic inflammation or infection. Before treatment, it is important to identify any underlying causes that can be addressed, such as immune deficiencies. Management of bronchiectasis includes physical training, such as inspiratory muscle training, which has been shown to be effective for patients without cystic fibrosis. Postural drainage, antibiotics for exacerbations, and long-term rotating antibiotics for severe cases are also recommended. Bronchodilators may be used in selected cases, and immunizations are important to prevent infections. Surgery may be considered for localized disease. The most common organisms isolated from patients with bronchiectasis include Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella spp., and Streptococcus pneumoniae.

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  • Question 33 - A 65-year-old man is having a coronary artery bypass surgery. Which structure would...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man is having a coronary artery bypass surgery. Which structure would typically need to be divided during the median sternotomy procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interclavicular ligament

      Explanation:

      During a median sternotomy, the interclavicular ligament is typically cut to allow access. However, it is important to avoid intentionally cutting the pleural reflections, as this can lead to the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity and require the insertion of a chest drain. The pectoralis major muscles may also be encountered, but if the incision is made in the midline, they should not need to be formally divided. It is crucial to be mindful of the proximity of the brachiocephalic vein and avoid injuring it, as this can result in significant bleeding.

      Sternotomy Procedure

      A sternotomy is a surgical procedure that involves making an incision in the sternum to access the heart and great vessels. The most common type of sternotomy is a median sternotomy, which involves making a midline incision from the interclavicular fossa to the xiphoid process. The fat and subcutaneous tissues are then divided to the level of the sternum, and the periosteum may be gently mobilized off the midline. However, it is important to avoid vigorous periosteal stripping. A bone saw is used to divide the bone itself, and bleeding from the bony edges of the cut sternum is stopped using roller ball diathermy or bone wax.

      Posteriorly, the reflections of the parietal pleura should be identified and avoided, unless surgery to the lung is planned. The fibrous pericardium is then incised, and the heart is brought into view. It is important to avoid the left brachiocephalic vein, which is an important posterior relation at the superior aspect of the sternotomy incision. More inferiorly, the thymic remnants may be identified. At the inferior aspect of the incision, the abdominal cavity may be entered, although this is seldom troublesome.

      Overall, a sternotomy is a complex surgical procedure that requires careful attention to detail and a thorough understanding of the anatomy of the chest and heart. By following the proper techniques and precautions, surgeons can safely access the heart and great vessels to perform a variety of life-saving procedures.

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  • Question 34 - A 50-year-old woman presents to your GP clinic with a complaint of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to your GP clinic with a complaint of a malodorous discharge from her left ear for the last 2 weeks. She also reports experiencing some hearing loss in her left ear and suspects it may be due to earwax. However, upon examination, there is no earwax present but instead a crust on the lower portion of the tympanic membrane. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholesteatoma

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with unilateral foul smelling discharge and deafness, it is important to consider the possibility of a cholesteatoma. If this is suspected during examination, it is necessary to refer the patient to an ENT specialist.

      Pain is a common symptom of otitis media, while otitis externa typically causes inflammation and swelling of the ear canal. Impacted wax can lead to deafness, but it is unlikely to cause a discharge with a foul odor. It is also improbable for a woman of 45 years to have a foreign object in her ear for three weeks.

      Understanding Cholesteatoma

      Cholesteatoma is a benign growth of squamous epithelium that can cause damage to the skull base. It is most commonly found in individuals between the ages of 10 and 20 years old. Those born with a cleft palate are at a higher risk of developing cholesteatoma, with a 100-fold increase in risk.

      The main symptoms of cholesteatoma include a persistent discharge with a foul odor and hearing loss. Other symptoms may occur depending on the extent of the growth, such as vertigo, facial nerve palsy, and cerebellopontine angle syndrome.

      During otoscopy, a characteristic attic crust may be seen in the uppermost part of the eardrum.

      Management of cholesteatoma involves referral to an ear, nose, and throat specialist for surgical removal. Early detection and treatment are important to prevent further damage to the skull base and surrounding structures.

      In summary, cholesteatoma is a non-cancerous growth that can cause significant damage if left untreated. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly if they occur.

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  • Question 35 - A 4-year-old girl with a known diagnosis of cystic fibrosis presents to her...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl with a known diagnosis of cystic fibrosis presents to her pediatrician with a 2-day history of left-ear pain. Her mother reports that she has been frequently tugging at her left ear and had a fever this morning. Apart from this, she has been healthy. On examination, a red, bulging eardrum is observed. The pediatrician suspects bacterial otitis media. What is the probable causative organism responsible for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Explanation:

      Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Moraxella catarrhalis are common bacterial organisms that can cause bacterial otitis media. Pseudomonas aeruginosa can also be a common cause in patients with cystic fibrosis.

      The patient’s symptoms are typical of acute otitis media (AOM), which can cause ear pain, fever, and temporary hearing loss. AOM is more common in children due to their short, horizontal eustachian tubes that allow for easier movement of organisms from the upper respiratory tract to the middle ear.

      AOM can be caused by either bacteria or viruses, and it can be difficult to distinguish between the two. However, features that may suggest a bacterial cause include the absence of upper respiratory tract infection symptoms and conditions that predispose to bacterial infections. In some cases, viral AOM can increase the risk of bacterial superinfection. Antibiotics may be prescribed for prolonged cases of AOM that do not appear to be resolving within a few days or in patients with immunosuppression.

      Escherichia coli and Enterococcus faecalis are not the correct answers as they are not commonly associated with AOM. Haemophilus influenzae is more likely due to the proximity of the middle ear to the upper respiratory tract. Staphylococcus aureus is also an unlikely cause of bacterial AOM.

      Acute otitis media is a common condition in young children, often caused by bacterial infections following viral upper respiratory tract infections. Symptoms include ear pain, fever, and hearing loss, and diagnosis is based on criteria such as the presence of a middle ear effusion and inflammation of the tympanic membrane. Antibiotics may be prescribed in certain cases, and complications can include perforation of the tympanic membrane, hearing loss, and more serious conditions such as meningitis and brain abscess.

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  • Question 36 - A 6-year-old girl is playing with some small ball bearings. Regrettably, she inhales...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is playing with some small ball bearings. Regrettably, she inhales one. In which of the following lung regions is the ball expected to settle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right lower lobe

      Explanation:

      Due to the angle of the right main bronchus from the trachea, small objects are more likely to get stuck in the most dependent part of the right lung. This makes the right lung the preferred location for most objects to enter.

      Anatomy of the Lungs

      The lungs are a pair of organs located in the chest cavity that play a vital role in respiration. The right lung is composed of three lobes, while the left lung has two lobes. The apex of both lungs is approximately 4 cm superior to the sternocostal joint of the first rib. The base of the lungs is in contact with the diaphragm, while the costal surface corresponds to the cavity of the chest. The mediastinal surface contacts the mediastinal pleura and has the cardiac impression. The hilum is a triangular depression above and behind the concavity, where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the viscus. The right main bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left main bronchus. The inferior borders of both lungs are at the 6th rib in the mid clavicular line, 8th rib in the mid axillary line, and 10th rib posteriorly. The pleura runs two ribs lower than the corresponding lung level. The bronchopulmonary segments of the lungs are divided into ten segments, each with a specific function.

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  • Question 37 - A 3-year-old male toddler of Asian descent is referred to a paediatrician by...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old male toddler of Asian descent is referred to a paediatrician by his GP due to recurrent respiratory infections and failure to thrive. The doctor orders a sweat test, which comes back positive. What are the potential complications associated with the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Steatorrhea

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis can lead to steatorrhea, which is caused by the malabsorption of fat in the intestines. This is a common symptom of the disease and requires specialist management. While patients with CF may have a slightly increased risk of sensorineural hearing loss, this is mainly due to the side effects of certain drugs used to treat the disease. Melaena, which is the passage of dark faeces due to partially digested blood from the upper gastrointestinal system, is a rare symptom in patients with CF. There is no association between CF and intellectual disability. Although some studies suggest an increased incidence of pulmonary emboli in patients with CF, the associated risk is small and mainly due to the use of central venous catheters and liver dysfunction or vitamin K deficiency.

      Understanding Cystic Fibrosis: Symptoms and Other Features

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects various organs in the body, particularly the lungs and digestive system. The symptoms of cystic fibrosis can vary from person to person, but some common presenting features include recurrent chest infections, malabsorption, and liver disease. In some cases, infants may experience meconium ileus or prolonged jaundice. It is important to note that while many patients are diagnosed during newborn screening or early childhood, some may not be diagnosed until adulthood.

      Aside from the presenting features, there are other symptoms and features associated with cystic fibrosis. These include short stature, diabetes mellitus, delayed puberty, rectal prolapse, nasal polyps, and infertility. It is important for individuals with cystic fibrosis to receive proper medical care and management to address these symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 38 - A 55-year-old woman comes to your clinic seeking help to quit smoking. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to your clinic seeking help to quit smoking. She has been using nicotine patches for 6 months but has not been successful in her attempts. You decide to prescribe bupropion.

      What is a typical side effect of bupropion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal disturbance

      Explanation:

      Side Effects of Buproprion

      Buproprion is a medication that can cause aggression and hallucination in some patients. However, the more common side effects are gastrointestinal disturbances such as diarrhoea, nausea, and dry mouth. These side effects are often experienced by patients taking buproprion. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of any medication and to speak with a healthcare provider if any concerns arise. Additional information on buproprion and its potential side effects can be found in the electronic Medicines Compendium and Medicines Complete.

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  • Question 39 - A 35-year-old female smoker presents with acute severe asthma.

    The patient's SaO2 levels...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female smoker presents with acute severe asthma.

      The patient's SaO2 levels are at 91% even with 15 L of oxygen, and her pO2 is at 8.2 kPa (10.5-13). There is widespread expiratory wheezing throughout her chest.

      The medical team administers IV hydrocortisone, 100% oxygen, and 5 mg of nebulised salbutamol and 500 micrograms of nebulised ipratropium, but there is little response. Nebulisers are repeated 'back-to-back,' but the patient remains tachypnoeic with wheezing, although there is good air entry.

      What should be the next step in the patient's management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV Magnesium

      Explanation:

      Acute Treatment of Asthma

      When dealing with acute asthma, the initial approach should be SOS, which stands for Salbutamol, Oxygen, and Steroids (IV). It is also important to organize a CXR to rule out pneumothorax. If the patient is experiencing bronchoconstriction, further efforts to treat it should be considered. If the patient is tiring or has a silent chest, ITU review may be necessary. Magnesium is recommended at a dose of 2 g over 30 minutes to promote bronchodilation, as low magnesium levels in bronchial smooth muscle can favor bronchoconstriction. IV theophylline may also be considered, but magnesium is typically preferred. While IV antibiotics may be necessary, promoting bronchodilation should be the initial focus. IV potassium may also be required as beta agonists can push down potassium levels. Oral prednisolone can wait, as IV hydrocortisone is already part of the SOS approach. Non-invasive ventilation is not recommended for the acute management of asthma.

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  • Question 40 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman undergoes an ABG test. What is the anticipated outcome...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman undergoes an ABG test. What is the anticipated outcome for a healthy pregnant woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compensated respiratory alkalosis

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, a woman’s increased tidal volume leads to a decrease in carbon dioxide levels, resulting in alkalosis. This is because carbon dioxide generates acid, and reduced levels of it lead to a decrease in acid. The kidneys eventually adapt to this change by reducing the amount of alkaline bicarbonate in the body. Therefore, pregnancy causes a compensated respiratory alkalosis.

      If a woman’s bicarbonate levels remain normal, she would have simple respiratory alkalosis.

      On the other hand, if a woman produces excess acid, she would have metabolic acidosis, which is the opposite of what occurs during pregnancy.

      Arterial Blood Gas Interpretation: A 5-Step Approach

      Arterial blood gas interpretation is a crucial aspect of patient care, particularly in critical care settings. The Resuscitation Council (UK) recommends a 5-step approach to interpreting arterial blood gas results. The first step is to assess the patient’s overall condition. The second step is to determine if the patient is hypoxaemic, with a PaO2 on air of less than 10 kPa. The third step is to assess if the patient is acidaemic (pH <7.35) or alkalaemic (pH >7.45).

      The fourth step is to evaluate the respiratory component of the arterial blood gas results. A PaCO2 level greater than 6.0 kPa suggests respiratory acidosis, while a PaCO2 level less than 4.7 kPa suggests respiratory alkalosis. The fifth step is to assess the metabolic component of the arterial blood gas results. A bicarbonate level less than 22 mmol/l or a base excess less than -2mmol/l suggests metabolic acidosis, while a bicarbonate level greater than 26 mmol/l or a base excess greater than +2mmol/l suggests metabolic alkalosis.

      To remember the relationship between pH, PaCO2, and bicarbonate, the acronym ROME can be used. Respiratory acidosis or alkalosis is opposite to the pH level, while metabolic acidosis or alkalosis is equal to the pH level. This 5-step approach and the ROME acronym can aid healthcare professionals in interpreting arterial blood gas results accurately and efficiently.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory System (7/20) 35%
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