00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of itchy, red, and...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of itchy, red, and watery eyes. She reports that the symptoms started in her left eye four days ago and have since spread to her right eye. Upon examination, bilateral redness and watery discharge are observed in both eyes. The patient has a history of using reusable contact lenses and reports that her 4-year-old son had similar symptoms a week ago. What management advice should the GP provide for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Do not wear contact lenses until symptoms have resolved. Clean the eyelids with a wet cloth and apply a cold compress as needed to relieve symptoms

      Explanation:

      It is not recommended to wear contact lenses during an episode of conjunctivitis. The patient should refrain from using contact lenses until their symptoms have completely resolved. They can clean their eyelids with a wet cloth and use a cold compress as needed to alleviate discomfort. This is likely a case of viral conjunctivitis, which can be managed conservatively with good eye hygiene and cold compresses. Wearing contact lenses during this time can worsen symptoms as they may act as an irritant or carry infections. Administering chloramphenicol eye drops every 3 hours and using a cold compress is not appropriate for viral conjunctivitis. Continuing to wear contact lenses while using a cold compress is also not recommended. The patient should discard their current lenses, wait until their symptoms have resolved, and start using new lenses again.

      Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.

      In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.

      For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      46.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 67-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a complaint of gradual deterioration...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a complaint of gradual deterioration of her vision. She has been experiencing difficulty recognizing faces and distinguishing colors for several months. The patient also reports that her central vision appears somewhat blurry. She is a smoker and consumes 10 cigarettes per day. Her blood pressure is 124/76 mmHg, and recent blood tests, including HbA1c of 38 mmol/mol, are unremarkable. What is the expected finding on fundoscopy when examining the patient's macula, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Drusen

      Explanation:

      Dry macular degeneration, also known as drusen, is a common cause of visual loss in individuals over the age of 50. The accumulation of lipid and protein debris around the macula is a strong indication of this condition. Wet macular degeneration, on the other hand, is characterized by choroidal neovascularization. Hypertensive retinopathy is typically associated with blot hemorrhages and cotton wool spots, while microaneurysms can indicate either hypertensive retinopathy or diabetic retinopathy. However, given the patient’s normal blood pressure and HbA1c levels, it is less likely that these findings are present.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      27.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old woman came in with complaints of photophobia and an enlarged left...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman came in with complaints of photophobia and an enlarged left pupil that exhibited delayed and incomplete constriction to light. Accommodation appeared to be relatively normal. A positive pilocarpine test was observed and no other neurological abnormalities were detected.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Holmes-Adie pupil

      Explanation:

      Holmes-Adie Pupil: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis

      Holmes–Adie pupil is a condition characterized by a dilated pupil that shows a delayed and incomplete constriction in response to light. It is commonly observed in young females and may be associated with reduced deep tendon reflexes, which is then called Holmes–Adie syndrome. To confirm the diagnosis, low-dose pilocarpine testing can be carried out, which reveals hypersensitivity to the solution due to degeneration of postganglionic neurons.

      Differential diagnoses for Holmes–Adie pupil include Horner’s syndrome, which causes miosis due to damage to the sympathetic pathway responsible for pupil dilation, and third cranial nerve palsy, which presents with ptosis and reduced eye movements alongside the dilated pupil. Antimuscarinic drugs do cause pupil dilation, but they would not cause a delayed and incomplete constriction in response to light. Muscarinic agonists, on the other hand, cause miosis rather than pupillary dilation.

      In summary, Holmes–Adie pupil is a condition that presents with a dilated pupil showing a delayed and incomplete constriction in response to light. It is commonly observed in young females and may be associated with reduced deep tendon reflexes. Differential diagnoses include Horner’s syndrome and third cranial nerve palsy. Low-dose pilocarpine testing can confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old man has arrived at the eye emergency department following a blow...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has arrived at the eye emergency department following a blow to the face with a baseball bat. During the examination, it was observed that there is blood in the anterior chamber of his left eye. What is the primary risk associated with the presence of blood in the anterior chamber?

      Your Answer: Uveitis

      Correct Answer: Glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Blunt trauma to the eye that results in hyphema can lead to increased intraocular pressure, which is a high-risk situation for the patient.

      The blockage of aqueous humour drainage caused by the presence of blood can result in glaucoma, which is a serious complication that requires close monitoring of intraocular pressure. While cataracts and ectopia lentis can be associated with blunt trauma, they are not typically associated with hyphema. Endophthalmitis, on the other hand, is usually caused by infection, post-surgery, or penetrating ocular trauma.

      Ocular Trauma and Hyphema

      Ocular trauma can lead to hyphema, which is the presence of blood in the anterior chamber of the eye. This condition requires immediate referral to an ophthalmic specialist for assessment and management. The main concern is the risk of raised intraocular pressure due to the blockage of the angle and trabecular meshwork with erythrocytes. Patients with high-risk cases are often admitted and require strict bed rest to prevent the disbursement of blood. Even isolated hyphema requires daily ophthalmic review and pressure checks initially as an outpatient.

      In addition to hyphema, an assessment should also be made for orbital compartment syndrome, which can occur secondary to retrobulbar hemorrhage. This is a true ophthalmic emergency and requires urgent management. Symptoms of orbital compartment syndrome include eye pain and swelling, proptosis, ‘rock hard’ eyelids, and a relevant afferent pupillary defect.

      To manage orbital compartment syndrome, urgent lateral canthotomy is necessary to decompress the orbit. This should be done before diagnostic imaging to prevent further damage. Proper management and prompt referral to an ophthalmic specialist can help prevent vision loss and other complications associated with ocular trauma and hyphema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      183.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 26-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department with worsening periorbital oedema,...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department with worsening periorbital oedema, erythema, and drainage in her left eye. During examination, mild proptosis is observed. To further investigate her symptoms, a point of care ultrasound is conducted, revealing retro-orbital soft tissue prominence and oedema with echogenic fat. What is the appropriate treatment plan for this patient based on the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oral antimicrobial

      Correct Answer: Intravenous antimicrobial

      Explanation:

      Hospital admission for IV antibiotics is necessary for patients with orbital cellulitis due to the potential for cavernous sinus thrombosis and intracranial spread. It is imperative that all patients with a clinical diagnosis of orbital cellulitis be admitted to the hospital and receive an ophthalmic evaluation as soon as possible. Oral antimicrobial treatment is inadequate in this situation, as intravenous antibiotic therapy is required to manage this medical emergency. Failure to treat orbital cellulitis promptly may result in blindness or even death. Therefore, no antimicrobial other than intravenous antibiotics is appropriate for this condition. Topical antimicrobial treatment is also insufficient for managing orbital cellulitis.

      Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.

      Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.

      To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.

      Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An 82-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his son. He...

    Correct

    • An 82-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his son. He is experiencing a severe headache around his left eye, significant nausea, and a few episodes of vomiting for the past 2 hours. He also complains of blurred vision and seeing halos with bright lights.
      Upon examination, his left pupil is semi-dilated and non-reactive, and there is no evidence of papilloedema.
      What is the most definitive treatment for this patient's most likely diagnosis once his condition is stable?

      Your Answer: Laser iridotomy

      Explanation:

      The most effective treatment for acute angle-closure glaucoma is laser peripheral iridotomy. This condition occurs when the angle of the anterior chamber narrows and obstructs aqueous flow, leading to increased intraocular pressure and optic neuropathy. Treatment involves administering drugs to lower IOP and prevent further visual loss, such as beta-blockers, IV acetazolamide, and parasympathomimetics. Once the patient is stable, laser surgery is performed to create a hole in the iris and allow aqueous flow. Atropine eye drops should be avoided as they can worsen the angle closure. IV mannitol may be used to treat raised intracranial pressure, but it is less likely to cause the specific eye signs seen in acute angle-closure glaucoma. While beta-blockers and IV acetazolamide have their uses in treatment, they only slow progression and do not offer definitive treatment.

      Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, halos around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.

      There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 54-year-old man visits his optician for a check-up after being diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man visits his optician for a check-up after being diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. During the examination, the doctor examines the back of his eye using a slit lamp and observes the presence of cotton wool spots. What is the probable underlying pathology responsible for this finding?

      Your Answer: Retinal necrosis

      Correct Answer: Retinal infarction

      Explanation:

      Retinal detachment is a condition where the retina becomes separated from the normal structure of the eye, resulting in a large bullous separation in rhegmatogenous cases. On the other hand, retinal necrosis is an acute condition that causes an abrupt, one-sided, painful loss of vision. During a slit-lamp examination, multiple areas of retinal whitening and opacification with scalloped edges that merge together can be observed.

      Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.

      Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.

      Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for nonproliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      112.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old female with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the emergency department with a painful, swollen right eye. She is compliant with her hydroxychloroquine medication and has had three arthritic flares in the past year, all of which responded well to IV steroids. The patient frequently uses artificial teardrops for foreign body sensation, but her current ocular symptoms are not improving with this treatment. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Retinopathy

      Correct Answer: Scleritis

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid Arthritis and Its Effects on the Eyes

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects various parts of the body, including the eyes. In fact, ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis are quite common, with approximately 25% of patients experiencing eye problems. These eye problems can range from mild to severe and can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life.

      The most common ocular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis is keratoconjunctivitis sicca, also known as dry eye syndrome. This condition occurs when the eyes do not produce enough tears, leading to discomfort, redness, and irritation. Other ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis include episcleritis, scleritis, corneal ulceration, and keratitis. Episcleritis and scleritis both cause redness in the eyes, with scleritis also causing pain. Corneal ulceration and keratitis both affect the cornea, with corneal ulceration being a more severe condition that can lead to vision loss.

      In addition to these conditions, patients with rheumatoid arthritis may also experience iatrogenic ocular manifestations. These are side effects of medications used to treat the disease. For example, steroid use can lead to cataracts, while the use of chloroquine can cause retinopathy.

      Overall, it is important for patients with rheumatoid arthritis to be aware of the potential ocular manifestations of the disease and to seek prompt medical attention if they experience any eye-related symptoms. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent vision loss and improve overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      36.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An ophthalmology clinic is treating a 75-year-old man with bilateral primary open-angle glaucoma....

    Correct

    • An ophthalmology clinic is treating a 75-year-old man with bilateral primary open-angle glaucoma. Despite using latanoprost eye drops, his intraocular pressures remain high. The ophthalmologist now needs to add a second topical agent to reduce intraocular pressure by decreasing the rate of aqueous humour production. What class of drug should be considered next?

      Your Answer: Beta-blocker

      Explanation:

      Beta blockers, like timolol, are effective in treating primary open-angle glaucoma by reducing the production of aqueous humour. They are commonly used as a first-line or second-line treatment, either alone or in combination with a prostaglandin analogue. Topical antimuscarinics should not be used as they can increase IOP, while pilocarpine can be used to reduce it. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are available for glaucoma treatment, but not carbonic anhydrase analogues. Topical corticosteroids are not used for glaucoma. If a patient is not responding well to their current treatment, guidelines recommend trying a drug from a different therapeutic class rather than adding a second prostaglandin analogue.

      Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type where the iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining aqueous humour from the eye. This results in increased resistance to outflow and raised intraocular pressure. The condition affects 0.5% of people over 40 years old and increases with age. Genetics also play a role, with first-degree relatives having a 16% chance of developing the disease. Symptoms are usually absent, and diagnosis is made through routine eye examinations. Investigations include visual field tests, tonometry, and slit lamp examinations. Treatment involves eye drops to lower intraocular pressure, with prostaglandin analogues being the first line of treatment. Surgery may be considered in refractory cases. Regular reassessment is necessary to monitor progression and prevent visual field loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      687.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 20-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a red and irritated left...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a red and irritated left eye with watering and discharge that has been going on for four days. He wakes up in the morning with his eyes stuck together and notices thick yellowish mucoid material. He denies any contact with sick people or exposure to similar symptoms and has not had an upper respiratory tract infection recently. The patient has a medical history of asthma, allergic rhinosinusitis, and eczema, and he takes loratadine, a salbutamol inhaler, a beclomethasone inhaler, and topical emollients. He wears contact lenses. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bacterial conjunctivitis

      Explanation:

      The presence of purulent discharge is indicative of bacterial conjunctivitis, which is the correct diagnosis for this patient. They are experiencing red, sore eyes with stickiness and have a history of atopy, but the lack of bilateral itching and swollen eyelids makes allergic conjunctivitis less likely. Blepharitis is also an unlikely diagnosis as there is no mention of eyelid swelling or discomfort. Keratitis is not a probable diagnosis as there is no mention of photophobia or eye pain, and examination findings that may be present with keratitis are not mentioned.

      Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.

      In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.

      For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old man presents with an acutely red right eye. He also has...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents with an acutely red right eye. He also has dull aching pain affecting the eye, and he is photosensitive, with light severely worsening the pain in the eye. There is no mucopurulent discharge and he has mild blurring of vision. The left eye is not affected. Other past history of note includes intermittent diarrhoea, which he says looked bloody on a couple of occasions, but he put this down to food poisoning. On examination, his blood pressure is 125/72 mmHg; he looks thin, with a body mass index of 19.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 119 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 204 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 35 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 130 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Intraocular pressure: reduced in the affected eye, with numerous cells seen within the aqueous.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute glaucoma

      Correct Answer: Anterior uveitis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Red, Painful Eye with Photophobia: Anterior Uveitis

      Anterior uveitis is a possible diagnosis for a patient presenting with a red, painful eye and photophobia. The condition can be idiopathic or associated with systemic inflammatory diseases, such as ulcerative colitis. The presence of inflammatory cells in the aqueous is a hallmark of anterior uveitis. Treatment typically involves cyclopentolate for ocular pain relief and corticosteroids to reduce inflammation. Tapering of corticosteroid therapy is guided by the degree of clinical response.

      Other potential diagnoses, such as conjunctivitis and herpetic ulcer, can be ruled out based on the absence of certain symptoms and risk factors. Acute glaucoma is also unlikely as intraocular pressures are low in anterior uveitis, whereas they would be expected to be raised in acute glaucoma. Anterior scleritis is another possibility, but it is less likely in this case as the examination findings do not mention intense redness of the anterior sclera.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      68.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A teenage boy comes to the General Practitioner (GP) with a lump on...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage boy comes to the General Practitioner (GP) with a lump on his eyelid. He has noticed it for the past two days. The GP identifies it as a chalazion.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Surgical incision

      Correct Answer: Apply heat and massage daily

      Explanation:

      Managing Chalazion: Options and Recommendations

      Chalazion, also known as meibomian cyst, is a painless inflammatory lesion of the eyelid that contains meibomian secretions. While it is a self-limiting condition, it may become infected and cause discomfort to the patient. Here are some management options and recommendations for chalazion:

      Apply Heat and Massage Daily: The best management option for chalazion is to apply heat and massage daily to release the oil. This can help improve the condition without the need for antibiotics.

      Refer to Ophthalmology Urgently: While chalazion can be managed by the GP, referrals to ophthalmology should be made if the lesion does not improve with treatment or if the GP feels the lesion might be suspicious.

      Avoid Topical Antibiotics: There is no indication for the use of antibiotics in the treatment of chalazion.

      Consider Surgical Incision: If medical management has been unsuccessful, chalazions can be removed surgically by incision and curettage.

      Do Not Watch and Wait: While chalazions can sometimes resolve with time without treatment, they usually require treatment and can cause pain and discomfort to the patient. As such, watching and waiting is not an appropriate management option.

      In summary, applying heat and massage daily is the best initial management option for chalazion. Referral to ophthalmology should be considered if the lesion does not improve with treatment. Topical antibiotics are not recommended, and surgical incision may be necessary if medical management is unsuccessful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 40-year-old male comes to his GP complaining of experiencing dull pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male comes to his GP complaining of experiencing dull pain in the orbital area, redness in the eye, tearing, and sensitivity to light for the past 4 days. During the examination, the doctor notices that the patient has an irregular, constricted pupil. What would be the best course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Latanoprost eye drops

      Correct Answer: Steroid + cycloplegic eye drops

      Explanation:

      Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      35.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 68-year-old woman comes to the eye casualty department complaining of a gradual...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman comes to the eye casualty department complaining of a gradual decline in her vision over the past 8 years. She reports difficulty reading books due to this issue. Upon examination, a central visual impairment is observed, and the patient displays metamorphopsia when using an Amsler grid. Fundoscopy reveals small yellow deposits in the macula. What is the most suitable medical treatment for this patient, given the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Photodynamic therapy

      Correct Answer: Vitamin supplementation

      Explanation:

      Medical treatment cannot cure dry AMD. However, administering high doses of beta-carotene, vitamins C and E, and zinc can help slow down the progression of visual impairment.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 60-year-old man visits an Ophthalmology Clinic with a complaint of distorted and...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man visits an Ophthalmology Clinic with a complaint of distorted and bent straight lines. He has also observed blurry and dark areas in the centre of his vision in both eyes, which have been worsening over the past year and a half. He reports no pain or redness in either eye. A fundoscopy examination is conducted to assess his eye.

      What is the most probable finding on fundoscopy?

      Your Answer: Retinal haemorrhages

      Correct Answer: Drusen

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Central Visual Loss: A Case Study

      A patient presents with a slow-onset central visual loss without pain or redness of the eye. The most likely cause is age-related macular degeneration, which can be either dry or wet. Drusen, which can be seen on fundoscopic examination, is a common feature of both types.

      Retinal detachment, which presents with an acute onset and a falling curtain-like visual loss, is not consistent with this patient’s symptoms. Disc cupping, which accompanies open-angle glaucoma, presents with peripheral visual loss rather than central visual loss. Macular neovascularisation, commonly seen in wet age-related macular degeneration, is not the best answer as this patient is more likely to have dry macular degeneration. Even if the patient had wet macular degeneration, drusen would be more likely to be seen on examination than macular neovascularisation. Retinal haemorrhages, along with a swollen disc and cotton-wool spots, are commonly seen in central-vessel occlusion of the retinal artery, which would result in complete visual loss and have an acute or subacute onset.

      In summary, careful consideration of the timing and nature of symptoms, along with fundoscopic examination findings, can help differentiate between causes of central visual loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      34.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 78-year-old male presents to the ophthalmology clinic with a recent complaint of...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old male presents to the ophthalmology clinic with a recent complaint of difficulty seeing objects up close, particularly at night. His general practitioner referred him for evaluation. During fundoscopy, the doctor observes distinct red patches. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and is a lifelong smoker. What is the most probable diagnosis, and what is the most suitable treatment?

      Your Answer: Anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)

      Explanation:

      The most effective treatment for wet AMD is anti-VEGF therapy. Wet age-related macular degeneration, also known as exudative or neovascular macular degeneration, is caused by choroidal neovascularization, which can lead to rapid vision loss due to fluid and blood leakage. Symptoms include reduced visual acuity, particularly for near objects, worse vision at night, and red patches visible on fundoscopy indicating fluid leakage or hemorrhage. Anti-VEGF therapy targets vascular endothelial growth factor, a potent mitogen that increases vascular permeability in patients with wet ARMD, reducing leakage. Treatment should begin as soon as possible to prevent further vision loss.

      Amaurosis fugax, on the other hand, is treated with aspirin and is caused by a variety of conditions, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. It typically presents as a sudden loss of vision, as if a curtain is coming down.

      Cataract surgery is the appropriate treatment for cataracts, which cause reduced vision, faded color vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex may be observed on fundoscopy.

      High-dose steroids are used to treat optic neuritis, which presents with unilateral vision loss over hours or days, red desaturation, pain, and scotoma.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      33.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 54-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of a severe headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of a severe headache that is concentrated on the right side, retro-orbitally. He reports a decrease in visual acuity in his right eye and says that it has been excessively tearing. Upon examination of the right eye, the conjunctiva appears red and the cornea looks hazy. The left pupil reacts normally to light, but the right pupil is non-reactive.
      What is the probable diagnosis, and what is the initial management plan?

      Your Answer: Direct parasympathomimetic and beta-agonist eye drops

      Correct Answer: Direct parasympathomimetic and beta-blocker eye drops

      Explanation:

      The initial emergency medical management for acute angle-closure glaucoma often involves a combination of eye drops. The symptoms presented in this scenario, including a painful, non-reactive, and red left eye, along with corneal edema and loss of pupillary reaction to light, suggest that acute angle-closure glaucoma is the most likely diagnosis. This condition occurs when the iridocorneal angle, which is responsible for draining aqueous humor, becomes narrowed, leading to an increase in intraocular pressure. This pressure can cause optic neuropathy and vision loss.

      To manage acute angle-closure glaucoma, a combination of eye drops is used. Pilocarpine, a direct parasympathomimetic eyedrop, causes pupillary constriction, widening the iridocorneal angle and allowing for drainage of aqueous humor. Timolol, a beta-blocker eye drop, reduces the production of aqueous humor. Together, these two actions work to reduce intraocular pressure. It is not recommended to use beta-blocker eye drops alone, and an additional drug with a different mechanism of action is beneficial in managing acute glaucoma.

      Using beta-agonist medications would increase the production of aqueous humor, exacerbating acute glaucoma. A sympathomimetic agent would cause pupillary dilation, further narrowing the iridocorneal angle and worsening the condition. High flow oxygen is used to manage cluster headaches, but the lack of pupillary reactivity, corneal edema, and visual loss in this scenario suggest that acute angle-closure glaucoma is the primary diagnosis.

      Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, halos around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.

      There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      68.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - All can cause a mydriatic pupil, except? ...

    Correct

    • All can cause a mydriatic pupil, except?

      Your Answer: Argyll-Robertson pupil

      Explanation:

      The Argyll-Robertson pupil is a well-known pupillary syndrome that can be observed in cases of neurosyphilis. This condition is characterized by pupils that are able to accommodate, but do not react to light. A helpful mnemonic for remembering this syndrome is Accommodation Reflex Present (ARP) but Pupillary Reflex Absent (PRA). Other features of the Argyll-Robertson pupil include small and irregular pupils. The condition can be caused by various factors, including diabetes mellitus and syphilis.

      Mydriasis, which is the enlargement of the pupil, can be caused by various factors. These include third nerve palsy, Holmes-Adie pupil, traumatic iridoplegia, pheochromocytoma, and congenital conditions. Additionally, certain drugs can also cause mydriasis, such as topical mydriatics like tropicamide and atropine, sympathomimetic drugs like amphetamines and cocaine, and anticholinergic drugs like tricyclic antidepressants. It’s important to note that anisocoria, which is when one pupil is larger than the other, can also result in the appearance of mydriasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old woman came to her GP with a complaint of painless blurring...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman came to her GP with a complaint of painless blurring and distortion of central vision and difficulty with night vision that has been going on for 2 years. She reports that her vision is sometimes poor and sometimes better. During the examination using a direct ophthalmoscope, yellow deposits were observed at the macula. What is the initial treatment for this patient's eye condition?

      Your Answer: Anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) intravitreal injection

      Correct Answer: Vitamin supplementation

      Explanation:

      Vitamin supplementation containing vitamins C and E, beta-carotene, and zinc can delay the progression of dry age-related macular degeneration (AMD) from intermediate to advanced stages. However, there is no other treatment available for dry AMD, and management is mainly supportive. Pan-retinal photocoagulation is not used for either dry or wet AMD. Anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) intravitreal injection is reserved for wet AMD, where there is choroidal neovascularization. This treatment stops abnormal blood vessels from leaking, growing, and bleeding under the retina. Focal laser photocoagulation is sometimes used in wet AMD, but anti-VEGF injections are now the preferred treatment. Photodynamic therapy can be used in wet AMD when anti-VEGF is not an option or for those who do not want repeated intravitreal injections. The patient in question has dry AMD, with metamorphopsia as a symptom and yellow deposits at the macula known as drusen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Mrs Green is a 58-year-old woman who comes to eye casualty with sudden...

    Correct

    • Mrs Green is a 58-year-old woman who comes to eye casualty with sudden vision loss in her left eye. She reports having observed some dark spots in her vision over the past few days. She is not in any pain and has a medical history of diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. What is the most probable cause of her visual impairment?

      Your Answer: Vitreous haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vitreous Haemorrhage

      Vitreous haemorrhage is a condition where there is bleeding into the vitreous humour, which can cause sudden painless loss of vision. This disruption to vision can range from floaters to complete visual loss. The bleeding can come from any vessel in the retina or extend through the retina from other areas. Once the bleeding stops, the blood is typically cleared from the retina at a rate of approximately 1% per day.

      The incidence of spontaneous vitreous haemorrhage is around 7 cases per 100,000 patient-years. The incidence by age and sex varies according to the underlying causes. The most common causes, which collectively account for 90% of cases, include proliferative diabetic retinopathy, posterior vitreous detachment, and ocular trauma (which is the most common cause in children and young adults).

      Patients with vitreous haemorrhage typically present with an acute or subacute onset of painless visual loss or haze, a red hue in the vision, or floaters or shadows/dark spots in the vision. Signs of the condition include decreased visual acuity (depending on the location, size, and degree of vitreous haemorrhage) and visual field defects if the haemorrhage is severe.

      Investigations for vitreous haemorrhage include dilated fundoscopy, slit-lamp examination, ultrasound (useful to rule out retinal tear/detachment and if haemorrhage obscures the retina), fluorescein angiography (to identify neovascularization), and orbital CT (used if open globe injury is suspected).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 28-year-old man presents with a 5-day history of increasing pain, blurry vision...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man presents with a 5-day history of increasing pain, blurry vision and lacrimation in the left eye. He also feels a foreign body sensation in the affected eye. He has recently been swimming in an indoor swimming pool with his friends with his contact lenses on.
      On examination, his visual acuity is 6/24 in the left and 6/6 in the right. The conjunctiva in the left is red. There is a white dot on the cornea, and with fluorescein, it shows an uptake in the centre of the cornea.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Microbial keratitis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Microbial Keratitis from Other Eye Infections

      Microbial keratitis, specifically Acanthamoeba keratitis (AK), should be considered in patients who have been swimming with contact lenses. Symptoms include ocular pain, redness, blurred vision, light sensitivity, foreign body sensation, and excessive tearing. Ring-like stromal infiltrate and lid edema may also be present. AK is often confused with Herpes simplex keratitis in its early stages and with fungal keratitis or corneal ulcer in its advanced stages. Other potential eye infections, such as viral keratitis, corneal abrasion, corneal foreign body, and fungal keratitis, can be ruled out based on the patient’s history and risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      63.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - An 8-year old boy is referred for squint correction surgery on his left...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year old boy is referred for squint correction surgery on his left eye.
      Regarding the extraocular muscles, which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: The superior oblique muscle is innervated by the oculomotor nerve

      Correct Answer: The lateral rectus is supplied by the abducens nerve

      Explanation:

      Cranial Nerves and Extraocular Muscles: Understanding Innervation

      The movement of the eye is controlled by six extraocular muscles, each innervated by a specific cranial nerve. Understanding the innervation of these muscles is crucial in diagnosing and treating various eye conditions.

      The abducens nerve (cranial nerve VI) supplies only one muscle, the lateral rectus, responsible for the abduction of the eye. The oculomotor nerve (cranial nerve III) supplies all extraocular muscles except the superior oblique and lateral rectus. The trochlear nerve (cranial nerve IV) supplies the superior oblique muscle.

      The levator palpebrae superioris, responsible for lifting the eyelid, is innervated by both the oculomotor nerve and sympathetic nerve fibers. A third cranial nerve palsy or sympathetic interruption can result in ptosis (droopy eyelid), which can be distinguished by inspecting the pupil for mydriasis (enlarged pupil) or miosis (constricted pupil).

      The superior and inferior oblique muscles are more complex in their actions. The superior oblique muscle abducts, depresses, and internally rotates the eye, while the inferior oblique muscle causes extorsion, abduction, and elevation. This is due to their attachment behind the axis of movement.

      In summary, understanding the innervation of the extraocular muscles is essential in diagnosing and treating eye conditions. Remembering the cranial nerves and their corresponding muscles can be aided by the mnemonics SO4 (superior oblique, cranial nerve IV) and LR6 (lateral rectus, cranial nerve VI).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 10-year-old boy with Down syndrome visits his General Practitioner, accompanied by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy with Down syndrome visits his General Practitioner, accompanied by his father. He has been experiencing blurred vision for the past few months, along with headaches and eye fatigue. The blurred vision is more noticeable when looking at distant objects but can also be a problem when looking at closer objects.
      What is the most suitable initial investigation to perform?

      Your Answer: Wavefront analysis technology

      Correct Answer: Retinoscopy

      Explanation:

      Investigating Astigmatism: Different Techniques and Their Uses

      When a young girl with Down syndrome presents with symptoms of blurred vision and eye strain, the first investigation that should be done is retinoscopy. This simple procedure can determine refractive errors such as astigmatism, which is a risk factor in this case. Any irregularities in the width of the retinal reflex can indicate astigmatism.

      Other techniques that can be used to investigate astigmatism include anterior segment optical coherence tomography, corneal topography, keratometry, and wavefront analysis technology. Anterior segment optical coherence tomography produces images of the cornea using optical light reflection and is useful for astigmatism caused by eye surgery. Corneal topography uses software to gather data about the dimensions of the cornea to develop colored maps that can display the axes of the cornea. Keratometry may be used to assess astigmatism, but it is less useful in cases of irregular astigmatism or when the corneal powers are too small or too big. Wavefront analysis technology is an emerging technology that can graphically present astigmatism on a map, but it is not widely used at present.

      In conclusion, the choice of investigation for astigmatism depends on the individual case and the specific needs of the patient. Retinoscopy is usually the first-line investigation, but other techniques may be used depending on the circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old man visits his GP complaining of pain in his left eye,...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man visits his GP complaining of pain in his left eye, photophobia, and blurred vision that have been present for 2 days. He has no medical history but reports experiencing lower back pain that improves with exercise for the past year. During the examination, the doctor observes hyperemia of the sclera and yellow crusting on the patient's eyelashes. The patient experiences pain during cranial nerve examination, making it difficult to follow the doctor's finger with his eyes. Additionally, there is some swelling of his eyelids and constriction of the left pupil. What is the most appropriate next step, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Urgent ophthalmology review

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate course of action for a patient displaying symptoms consistent with anterior uveitis is to urgently refer them for assessment by an ophthalmologist on the same day. This condition is indicated by symptoms such as blurred vision, photophobia, miosis, and pain. Ankylosing spondylitis is a possible underlying cause, and anterior uveitis is a common feature of spondyloarthropathies. Prompt specialist evaluation is crucial as anterior uveitis can have significant morbidity. Treatment typically involves the use of topical steroids, mydriatics, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and cycloplegics, with immunosuppression as an option under specialist guidance. Ocular steroid drops, systemic antibiotics, topical chloramphenicol, and high-dose oral steroids are not appropriate treatments for anterior uveitis in this scenario.

      Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      45.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old female patient complains of a painful red eye with a tearing...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient complains of a painful red eye with a tearing sensation. On a scale of 1 to 10, she rates the pain as 7. She mentions that she wears contact lenses regularly. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: acyclovir

      Correct Answer: Same-day ophthalmology referral

      Explanation:

      If a contact lens wearer experiences a painful red eye, it is important to refer them to an eye casualty immediately to rule out microbial keratitis. Due to the complexity of assessing red eye in contact lens wearers, a specialist should assess the patient on the same day to determine the cause and provide appropriate treatment. While acyclovir is effective in treating viral keratitis, other microbes may be responsible for this condition. Therefore, specialist referral is necessary. The patient should be advised to temporarily discontinue contact lens use and practice good hygiene. Reassurance is not appropriate as microbial keratitis can lead to vision loss if left untreated. It is important to make an urgent referral, which is typically offered to suspected cancer patients within two weeks.

      Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea

      Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.

      Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.

      Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      358.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 22-year-old woman, who is a known type 1 diabetic, visited the GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman, who is a known type 1 diabetic, visited the GP clinic with a complaint of decreased vision. Her left eye has a vision of 6/6, while her right eye has a vision of 6/18.
      Your GP placement supervisor has requested you to conduct a dilated direct fundoscopy on her eyes. During the examination, you observed exudates forming a ring around a dot haemorrhage near the fovea.
      What is the initial treatment for this eye condition?

      Your Answer: Increase daily insulin dose

      Correct Answer: Anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) intravitreal injection

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Diabetic Maculopathy

      Diabetic maculopathy is a condition that affects the retina and can lead to vision loss. There are several treatment options available to manage this condition, including anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) intravitreal injection, focal laser photocoagulation, community diabetic eye screening, increase daily insulin dose, and pan-retinal photocoagulation.

      Anti-VEGF intravitreal injection is a first-line treatment that works by stopping abnormal blood vessels from leaking, growing, and bleeding under the retina. This treatment targets VEGF, a protein that promotes the growth of new blood vessels.

      Focal laser photocoagulation is another treatment option, but it is not recommended for lesions near the fovea due to the risk of damaging vision.

      Community diabetic eye screening is not appropriate for diabetic maculopathy, as it requires more specialized treatment.

      Increasing the daily insulin dose is not recommended unless blood glucose levels are erratic.

      Pan-retinal photocoagulation is typically used in cases of proliferative diabetic retinopathy.

      Overall, the best treatment option for diabetic maculopathy will depend on the individual patient’s condition and needs. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the most appropriate course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      237.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 38-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a complaint of unequal...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a complaint of unequal pupil size. Upon examination, there is an anisocoria of >1mm. The anisocoria appears to be more pronounced when a light is shone on the patient's face compared to when the room is darkened. The patient's eye movements are normal, and a slit-lamp examination reveals no evidence of synechiae. What possible condition could be responsible for these findings?

      Your Answer: Oculomotor nerve palsy

      Correct Answer: Adie's tonic pupil

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with anisocoria, it is important to determine whether the issue lies with dilation or constriction. In this case, the anisocoria is exacerbated by bright light, indicating a problem with the parasympathetic innervation and the affected pupil’s inability to constrict. Adie’s tonic pupil is a likely cause, as it involves dysfunction of the ciliary ganglion. Horner syndrome and oculomotor nerve palsy are unlikely causes, as they would result in different symptoms. Physiological anisocoria and pilocarpine are also incorrect answers.

      Mydriasis, which is the enlargement of the pupil, can be caused by various factors. These include third nerve palsy, Holmes-Adie pupil, traumatic iridoplegia, pheochromocytoma, and congenital conditions. Additionally, certain drugs can also cause mydriasis, such as topical mydriatics like tropicamide and atropine, sympathomimetic drugs like amphetamines and cocaine, and anticholinergic drugs like tricyclic antidepressants. It’s important to note that anisocoria, which is when one pupil is larger than the other, can also result in the appearance of mydriasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      10659.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 45-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with complaints of severe eye...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with complaints of severe eye pain, headache, nausea, and vomiting. He has no notable medical history and is not taking any medications. Upon examination, his eye appears red, the pupil is fixed and dilated, and the cornea has a cloudy appearance.

      What are the initial treatment options for this condition?

      Your Answer: Pan-retinal photocoagulation laser

      Correct Answer: Timolol

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with symptoms of acute angle-closure glaucoma, the first step in emergency medical management often involves administering a combination of eye drops. This typically includes a beta-blocker or muscarinic receptor agonist, as well as an oral carbonic anhydrase inhibitor like acetazolamide and pain relief medication.

      Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, halos around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.

      There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      79.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 57-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of pain, redness, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of pain, redness, and tearing in her right eye for the past two weeks. She also experiences sensitivity to light. The pain is constant and dull, and it can be so intense that it wakes her up at night. The pain sometimes spreads to her jaw, neck, and head. She has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis.
      During the examination, her left eye has a visual acuity of 6/6, while her right eye has a visual acuity of 6/9. The eye appears diffusely injected.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scleritis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Scleritis from Other Eye Conditions

      Scleritis is a condition that causes severe, deep, and boring pain in the eye, often associated with systemic diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis, vasculitis, and sarcoidosis. Unlike episcleritis, the pain in scleritis is more intense and may be felt even when the eye moves. The eye appears diffusely red, and the globe is tender to touch. To differentiate between episcleritis and scleritis, topical phenylephrine 2.5-10% can be used, which causes the superficial episcleral vessels to blanch in episcleritis but not the deeper scleral vessels in scleritis.

      Other eye conditions can be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms. Acute angle-closure glaucoma, for example, presents with sudden, severe pain and a reduction or loss of vision, while central retinal artery occlusion causes painless vision loss. Conjunctivitis, on the other hand, causes milder pain, and episcleritis may cause teary and photophobic symptoms but is usually not associated with systemic diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 54-year-old man visits his GP complaining of blurred vision that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man visits his GP complaining of blurred vision that has been ongoing for 3 days. He has a medical history of hypertension, which is being managed with amlodipine, ramipril, and indapamide, as well as type II diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled with metformin.

      During the examination, his visual acuity is found to be 6/18 in both eyes with a reduction in colour vision. There is no relative afferent pupillary defect. Upon direct fundoscopy, the optic disc margins appear ill-defined and raised in both eyes. Additionally, there are cotton-wool spots scattered around the retina in both eyes.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertensive retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Hypertensive Retinopathy

      Hypertensive retinopathy is a serious condition that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. In this case, the patient has grade 4 hypertensive retinopathy according to the Keith-Wagener-Barker classification. The fundoscopy revealed bilateral optic disc swelling with cotton-wool spots, indicating optic neuropathy secondary to hypertension. Despite being on multiple medications to control hypertension, the patient’s blood pressure is difficult to manage.

      While considering the diagnosis of hypertensive retinopathy, it is important to rule out other potential causes of the patient’s symptoms. An intracranial space-occupying lesion is not indicated in the patient’s history. Optic neuritis can present with loss of optic nerve function, but it is more commonly unilateral and does not typically involve cotton-wool spots. Pre-proliferative and proliferative diabetic retinopathy are also unlikely given the patient’s well-controlled type II diabetes.

      In conclusion, the patient’s presentation is most consistent with hypertensive retinopathy. However, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses and rule them out through further evaluation and testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ophthalmology (23/28) 82%
Passmed